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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (06 May 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (06 May 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Consider the following statements and mark the correct answer?

1. Normal Rainfall : 95-105 percent of average
2. Deficient Rainfall : Below 90 percent of average
3. Above Normal Rainfall : above 110 percent of average

Which of the following statements are correctly matched according to IMD categorization

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 2 only
D. All

Q.2- What would be the strength of Monetary policy committee?

A. Six
B. Seven
C. Five
D. Four

Q.3- Which Indian state has recently approved Asia’s first rice technology park?

A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Karnataka

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (05 May 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (05 May 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- National assessment and accreditation council, assess and accredit which of the following?

1. institutions of intermediate education;
2. Institute of higher education

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

Q.2- Ramsar convention is related to which of the following?

A. Ozone
B. Mercury
C. Wetland
D. Greenland

Q.3- Which of the following correctly defines 5/20 rule in aviation?

A. minimum 5 international and 20 domestic carriers
B. Minimum 5years of domestic experience and 20 domestic carriers
C. Minimum 5 years of international experience and 20 domestic carriers to go international
D. None

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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SBI PO 2016 Notification Released

(Notification) Recruitment of Probationary Officers (PO) in State Bank of India - 2016 (ADVERTISEMENT NO. CRPD/PO/2016-17/02)

Any eligible candidate, who aspires to join State Bank of India as a Probationary Officer, is required to register online for the Recruitment Process. The examination will be held in two phases - preliminary and main. Candidates who will qualify in preliminary examination and shortlisted will have to appear for main examination and shortlisted candidates in the main examination will subsequently be called for a Group Discussion & Interview.

Prospective candidates will have to apply after carefully reading the advertisement regarding the process of examinations and interview, eligibility criteria, online registration processes, payment of prescribed application fee/intimation charges, pattern of examination, issuance of call letters etc. and ensure that they fulfil the stipulated criteria and follow the prescribed processes

Post Details:

Post Name: Probationary Officers (PO)

Total No of Posts: 2428

EMOLUMENTS:

Presently, the starting basic pay is `27,620/- (with 4 advance increments) in the scale of `23700-980/7-30560-1145/2-32850-1310/7-42020 applicable to Junior Management Grade Scale-I. The official will also be eligible for D.A, H.R.A/Lease rental, C.C.A, Medical and other allowances & perquisites as per rules in force from time to time. The total compensation per annum would be a minimum of `7.55 lacs and maximum of `12.93 lacs depending on place of posting and other factors.

Educational Qualifications: (As on 31.08.2016)

Graduation in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government. Those who are in the Final Year/Semester of their Graduation may also apply provisionally subject to the condition that, if called for interview, they will have to produce proof of having passed the graduation examination on or before 31.08.2016. Candidates having Integrated Dual Degree (IDD) certificate should ensure that the date of passing the IDD is on or before 31.08.2016. Candidates possessing qualification of Chartered Accountant may also apply

Age Limit: (As on 01.04.2016)

Not below 21 years and not above 30 years as on 01.04.2016 i.e candidates must have been born not earlier than 02.04.1986 and not later than 01.04.1995 (both days inclusive).

Exam Syllabus:

Phase-I: Preliminary Examination:

Preliminary Examination consisting of Objective Tests for 100 marks will be conducted online. This test would be of 1 hour duration consisting of 3 sections as follows:

S. L. Name of Test No. of Questions Marks Duration
1 English Language 30 30 Composite Time of 1 hour
2 Quantitative Aptitude 35 35
3 Reasoning Ability 35 35
 

Total

100 100

Candidates have to qualify in each of the three tests by securing passing marks to be decided by the Bank. Adequate number of candidates in each category as decided by the Bank (approximately 20 times the numbers of vacancies subject to availability) will be shortlisted for the Main Examination.

Phase – II: Main Examination:

Main Examination will consist of Objective Tests for 200 marks and Descriptive Test for 50 marks. Both the Objective and Descriptive Tests will be online. Candidates will have to answer Descriptive Test by typing on the computer. Immediately after completion of Objective Test, Descriptive Test will be administered.

(I) Objective Test: The Objective Test of 3 hours duration consists of 4 sections for total 200 marks. The Objective Test will have separate timing for every section. The candidates are required to qualify in each of the tests by securing passing marks, to be decided by the Bank.

Test Name of test No. of  Questions Max. Marks Duration
I Reasoning & Computer Aptitude 45 60 60 minutes
II Data Analysis & Interpretation 35 60 45 minutes
III General/Economy/ Banking Awareness 40 40 35 minutes
IV English Language 35 40 40 minutes
  Total 155 200 3 hours

(ii) Descriptive Test:

The Descriptive Test of 30 minutes duration with 50 marks will be a Test of English Language (Letter Writing & Essay). The candidates are required to qualify in the Descriptive Test by securing passing marks, to be decided by the Bank.

Descriptive Test paper of only those candidates will be evaluated who have scored qualifying marks in the Objective Tests and are placed adequately high as per total marks in Objective Test.

Penalty for Wrong Answers (Applicable to both – Preliminary and Main examination)

There will be penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Tests. Each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arrive at corrected score. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is marked by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

Phase – III: Group Discussion (20 marks) & Interview (30 marks)

The aggregate marks of candidates qualifying in both the Objective Tests and the Descriptive Test will be arranged in descending order in each category. Adequate number of candidates in each category, as decided by the Bank will be called for Group Discussion and Interview. The qualifying marks in Group Discussion & Interview will be as decided by the Bank.

Candidates qualifying for GD & Interview under 'OBC' category would be required to submit OBC certificate containing the 'Non-Creamy Layer' clause. Candidates not submitting the OBC certificate containing the 'Non-Creamy Layer' clause and requesting to be interviewed under General category will not be entertained.

APPLICATION FEE:

1. SC/ST/PWD `100/- (Intimation Charges only)
2. General, OBC `600/- (App. Fee including intimation charges)

Number of Chances:

Category Number of Chances
General 4
General (PWD) 7
OBC 7
OBC(PWD) 7
SC/SC(PWD)/ ST/ ST (PWD) No Restriction

HOW TO APPLY:

Candidates can apply online only from 04-05-2016 to 24-05-2016 and no other mode of application will be accepted.

Guidelines for Scanning and Upload of Photograph (4.5cm × 3.5cm) & Signature: Before applying online, a candidate will be required to have a scanned (digital) image of his/her photograph and signature as per the specifications given below.

PHOTOGRAPH IMAGE:

  • Photograph must be a recent passport size colour picture and must be true image representation of the candidate. Any attempt to use morphed photograph will result in immediate rejection of the candidature.
  • Make sure that the picture is in colour, taken against a light-coloured, preferably white, background.
  • Look straight at the camera with a relaxed face.
  • If the picture is taken on a sunny day, have the sun behind you, or place yourself in the shade, so that you are not squinting and there are no harsh shadows.
  • If you have to use flash, ensure there's no "red-eye".
  • If you wear glasses, make sure that there are no reflections and your eyes can be clearly seen.
  • Caps, hats and dark glasses are not acceptable. Religious headwear is allowed but it must not cover your face.
  • Dimensions 200 x 230 pixels (preferred)
  • Size of file should be between 20Kb–50 Kb
  • Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 50Kb. If the size of the file is more than 50 Kb, then adjust the settings of the scanner such as the DPI resolution, no. of colours etc., during the process of scanning.

SIGNATURE IMAGE:

  • The applicant has to sign on white paper with black ink pen.
  • The signature must be signed only by the applicant and not by any other person.
  • The signature will be used to put on the Call Letter and wherever necessary.
  • If the Applicant’s signature on the answer script, at the time of the examination, does not match the signature on the Call Letter, the applicant will be disqualified.
  • Dimensions 140 x 60 pixels (preferred).
  • Size of file should be between 10Kb – 20Kb
  • Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 20Kb
  • Signature in CAPITALLETTERS shall NOT be accepted.

Important Date:

  • Online registration including edit/modification of application by candidates 04-05-2016 to 24-05-2016
  • Payment of Application Fees/Intimation Charges 04-05-2016 to 24-05-2016
  • Download of call letters for Online Preliminary Examination 14-06-2016 onwards
  • Online Examination – Preliminary 2nd, 3rd, 9th & 10 July 2016
  • Result of Online Exam – Preliminary 18-07-2016
  • Download of Call Letter for Online Main Exam 21-07-2016 onwards
  • Conduct of Online Examination – Main 31st July 2016
  • Declaration of Result – Main 16th August 2016
  • Download Call Letter for Interview 22nd August 2016
  • Conduct of Group Discussion & Interview 1st September 2016
  • Declaration of Final Result 30th September 2016

Click Here for Official Notification

Courtesy: SBI

Important Links:

(Apply Online) SBI : Probationary Officer Examination

(Apply Online) Probationary Officers in State Bank of India - 2016

Candidates can apply online only from 04-05-2016 to 24-05-2016 and no other mode of application will be accepted.

Guidelines for Scanning and Upload of Photograph (4.5cm × 3.5cm) & Signature: Before applying online, a candidate will be required to have a scanned (digital) image of his/her photograph and signature as per the specifications given below.

PHOTOGRAPH IMAGE:

  • Photograph must be a recent passport size colour picture and must be true image representation of the candidate. Any attempt to use morphed photograph will result in immediate rejection of the candidature.
  • Make sure that the picture is in colour, taken against a light-coloured, preferably white, background.
  • Look straight at the camera with a relaxed face.
  • If the picture is taken on a sunny day, have the sun behind you, or place yourself in the shade, so that you are not squinting and there are no harsh shadows.
  • If you have to use flash, ensure there's no "red-eye".
  • If you wear glasses, make sure that there are no reflections and your eyes can be clearly seen.
  • Caps, hats and dark glasses are not acceptable. Religious headwear is allowed but it must not cover your face.
  • Dimensions 200 x 230 pixels (preferred)
  • Size of file should be between 20Kb–50 Kb
  • Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 50Kb. If the size of the file is more than 50 Kb, then adjust the settings of the scanner such as the DPI resolution, no. of colours etc., during the process of scanning.

SIGNATURE IMAGE:

  • The applicant has to sign on white paper with black ink pen.
  • The signature must be signed only by the applicant and not by any other person.
  • The signature will be used to put on the Call Letter and wherever necessary.
  • If the Applicant’s signature on the answer script, at the time of the examination, does not match the signature on the Call Letter, the applicant will be disqualified.
  • Dimensions 140 x 60 pixels (preferred).
  • Size of file should be between 10Kb – 20Kb
  • Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 20Kb
  • Signature in CAPITALLETTERS shall NOT be accepted.

Click Here to Apply Online

Go Back to Main Page

Courtesy : SBI

(Sample Papers) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Test - 5

(Sample Papers) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Test - 5

:: Reasoning ::

Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are eight persons viz. J, K, N, R, S, T, V and W are sitting around a circle but not necessarily in the same order. Three of them not facing towards the centre. They are related to different streams viz. Commerce, Computer, Medicine, Astrology, Economics, Literature, Science and Arts but not necessarily in the same order. The one who is related to Literature is exactly between T and K. R is facing away from the centre but does not related to Computer and Medicine. N is immediate right of V, who is facing towards centre. The one who is related to Computer is not neighbour of K. The one who is related to Astrology is immediate right of N. There are three persons between V and K and one of them is related to Astrology. S is second to the left of R and he is related to Computer. T is immediate neighbour of both N and the one who is related to Literature. The one who is related to Science is facing towards the centre. R is immediate right of one who is related to Economics. The one who is related to Arts is between W and the one who is related to Medicine. J is not related to Literature.

1. Who among the following is related to Science?

1) R
2) J
3) S
4) K
5) T

2. How many persons are there between the Arts and Economics Streams?

1) Two
2) Three
3) One
4) None
5) Other than given options

3. What is the stream of the person who sits immediate right to W?

1) Science
2) Economics
3) Computer
4) Arts
5) Astrology

4. If R is related to J, V is related to N in some way then T is related to–

1) W
2) N
3) K
4) J
5) None of these

5. Which of the following does match correctly?

1) J – Commerce
2) W – Arts
3) N – Astrology
4) K– Science
5) S – Medicine

Directions (Q. 6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Seven teachers P, Q, R, S, T, V and W belong to seven different states or Union territory viz. U.P, M.P, Assam, Odisha, Delhi, Rajasthan and Karnataka but not necessarily in the same order. They teach seven different subjects namely, History, Physics, Biology, Chemistry, Hindi, Polity and English but not necessarily in the same order. One who teaches Biology does not belong to New Delhi. Q is from Assam and does not teach Chemistry. The one who belongs to M.P teach neither Chemistry nor Hindi. P is from Karnataka. The one who belongs to Odisha teaches History. R teaches English but he is neither from Rajasthan nor from Delhi. T is from U.P and teaches Polity. S teaches Physics and W teaches Biology.

6. Who teaches Chemistry?

1) R
2) P
3) Q
4) T
5) V

7. Which of the following combination is correct?

1) P– Hindi– Odisha
2) V– English– Assam
3) R– English– M.P
4) T–Physics – New Delhi
5) W– Biology– Karnataka

8. Q teaches which of the following subject?

1) Hindi
2) English
3) Physics
4) Chemistry
5) History

9. Who is from M.P?

1) P
2) W
3) V
4) R
5) T

10. V belongs to which of the following state?

1) M.P
2) New Delhi
3) Odisha
4) Assam
5) Rajasthan

Directions (Q. 11–15): In each question given below three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take all the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from all the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) If both conclusion I and II follow.

11. Statements: All obstacles are temporary. Some work is difficult. No difficult is obstacle.

Conclusions:

I. All temporary being difficult is a possibility.
II. No work is obstacle.

(12–13): Statements: No job is perfect. Some services are permanent. All jobs are service.

12. Conclusions:

I. Some services are not perfect.
II. All services are being job is a possibility.

13. Conclusions:

I. No job is permanent.
II. All perfect can never be job.

(14–15): Statements: Very few leaders are minister. No minister is foreigners. All foreigners are farmer.

14. Conclusions:

I. At least some foreigners are not minister.
II. All leaders being foreigner is not a possibility.

15. Conclusions:

I. No minister is farmer.
II. Some leaders are not farmer is a possibility.

Directions (Q. 16-20): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer:

1) If only conclusion I is true.
2) If only conclusion II is true.
3) If either conclusion I or II is true.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) If both conclusion I and II are true.

Directions (Q. 21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In a certain code language 'oil prices go down' is written as 'np gd pt nj', 'prices of oil in India' is written as 'mp pt lk gd rj','how to go India' is written as 'lk np gt ta', 'oil in market' is written as 'pt mt kp'.

21. What is the code for 'market'?

1) pt
2) kp
3) lk
4) mp
5) Other than given options

22. What does the code 'gt' stand for?

1) to
2) India
3) Either 1) or 5)
4) go
5) how

23. What is the code for 'down'?

1) gd
2) np
3) nj
4) lk
5) pt

24. If 'oil in international market' is written as 'pt tec mp kp' then what may be the code for 'international player'?

1) mp nj
2) tec lk
3) nt tec
4) tec pt
5) Cannot be determined

25. What does the code 'gt pic lk' may stand for?

1) to come India
2) how to come
3) in Indian market
4) Cannot be determined
5) how to go

Directions (Q. 26-28) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Ashok starts from point T, which is 6m to the west of point B. From point T, he walks 10m to the south, takes a left turn and then walks for 3 m. He then takes a right turn, walk for 4 m and stops at point N. Abhay starts from point K, which is 5 m to the north of B. He walks to the east of K for 3 m. He then turns right and walks 15 m to reach at point P then he turns towards right and walks 3 m to reach finally at point D.

26. What is the total distance between B and D

1) 15 m
2) 5 m
3) 3 m
4) 10 m
5) 4 m

27. Abhay is in which direction of its final destination with respect to Ashok's final destination?

1) North-West
2) South- East
3) North- East
4) South- West
5) North

28. Point P is in which direction with respect to T?

1) South- East
2) East
3) South- West
4) North- East
5) North- West

Directions (29–30): Study the following information carefully and answer the question that follow.

Statement: Government of India has recently launched 'Start up India' to promote bank financing for start ups and offer incentives to boost entrepreneurship and job creation.

29. Which of the following has been assumed in the above statement?

1) This is to attract foreigners to invest in India.
2) The main purpose of this scheme is to create jobs for the youths only.
3) Only banks will manage financial problem.
4) More people will get job.
5) Other than given options

30. Which of the following may be the impact of launching such scheme?

1) Now starting business in India will become easy.
2) Now anyone can do his/her job as he/she wants.
3) Now job seekers will become job creators.
4) All 1), 2) and 3)
5) Only 1) and 3)

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::

Directions (Q. 31–35): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

31. 29, 31, 37, 49, 69, ?

1) 96
2) 79
3) 99
4) 94
5) 89

32. 35, ?, 58, 92, 153, 250

1) 47
2) 42
3) 45
4) 49
5) 52

33. 139, 140, ?, 159, 95, 220

1) 138
2) 136
3) 135
4) 142
5) 132

34. 71, 94, 140, ?, 416, 784

1) 232
2) 236
3) 234
4) 220
5) 228

35. 48, ?, 25, 34.5, 73, 177.5

1) 21
2) 24
3) 18
4) 23
5) 20

36. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper prepared by mixing metals in the ratio of 8 : 5 and 9 : 17 respectively. If equal quantities of the alloys are melted to form a third alloy C, then find the ratio of gold and copper in the alloy C.

1) 24 : 25
2) 25 : 26
3) 27 : 29
4) 25 : 27
5) Other than given options

Directions (Q.37-41): What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

37. 18.03 + 144.08 ÷ 23.89 + ? = 40.95 × 22.01

1) 878
2) 808
3) 898
4) 928
5) 908

1) 441
2) 196
3) 256
4) 361
5) 324

1) 4084
2) 4194
3) 5824
4) 4294
5) 4894

40. 158.20 × 12.9 + 13.9 × 59.04 = ? – 24.9 × 14.01

1) 2940
2) 3230
3) 3940
4) 3680
5) 3730

41. ? % of (6432.9/ 7.001 × 42.05) = 19299

1) 75
2) 65
3) 40
4) 50
5) 35

42. A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 12 cm contains liquid. This liquid is to be filled into cylindrical shaped small bottles of diameter 6 cm and height 8 cm. How many bottles will be needed to empty the bowl?

1) 18
2) 8
3) 16
4) Other than given option
5) 9

43. 30 men take 24 days of 8 hours each to do a piece of work. How many days of 6 hours each would 36 women take, if 3 women do as much work as 2 men can do?

1) 42
2) 36
3) 32
4) 40
5) 48

44. A grocer has 100 kg of pulse. He sells a part of it at 12% profit and rest at 22% profit. He gains 15.5% on the whole. Find the quantity of pulses sold at 22% profit.

1) 68 kg
2) 65 kg
3) 36 kg
4) 45 kg
5) 35 kg

45. Thirteen years hence a man will be five times as he was thirteen years ago. His present age is:

1) 39/2 years
2) 19 years
3) 18 years
4) 17 years
5) 37/2 years

Directions (Q.46-50) : Study the following bar graph carefully to answer the following questions given below.

The bar graph below represents the production of paper (in lakh tonnes) in three different years by six different companies.

46. What is the approximate difference between the average production (in lakh tonnes) of paper of the six companies in the year 2014 and the average production of the same companies in the year 2013?

1) 16
2) Other than given options
3) 10
4) 7
5) 14

47. Which of the following companies has recorded the maximum percentage increase/decrease in the production of paper in 2015 as compared to the production of paper in 2013?

1) C4
2) C6
3) Other than given options
4) C3 5) C5

48. Production of company C3 in 2014 and production of company C6 in 2013 together is approximately what percentage of the production of company C4 in the year 2014 and 2015 together?

1) 60.6%
2) 69.4%
3) 62.6%
4) Other than given options
5) 58.6%

49. In which of the following companies, the total production of paper in all the three years together is the second highest?

1) C2
2) C6
3) C5
4) C3
5) C4

50. Find the approximate average production of paper (in lakh tonnes) of the six companies together in the year 2015.

1) 76
2) 70
3) 72
4) Other than given options
5) 68

Directions (Q.51-55) : Study the following table carefully and answer the following questions.

The table shows the percentage of marks obtained by five students in six different subjects.

51. The marks obtained by Rishi in Economics is approximately what percent of the marks obtained by him in German?

1) 64%
2) Other than given options
3) 63%
4) 67%
5) 61%

52. What is the total mark obtained by Naman in all the subjects?

1) 516
2) 526
3) 529
4) Other than given options
5) 536

53. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by Aditya?

1) 75%
2) Other than given options
3) 72%
4) 70%
5) 74%

54. What is the average marks obtained all the students in Accounts?

1) 86
2) 78
3) 81
4) 84
5) Other than given options

55. What is the difference between the total marks obtained by Ishan in Business studies, German and Maths and that of the marks obtained by Anu in the same subjects?

1) 5
2) 4
3) 6
4) 7
5) 8

Directions (Q. 56–60): Each of the questions given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and give answer:

1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

56. What is the height of a circular cone?

I. The area of that cone is equal to the area of a rectangle whose length is 66 cm.
II. The area of the base of that cone is 308 sq. cm.

57. If the area of rectangle is equal to the area of a circle. What is the length of the rectangle?

I. The breadth of the rectangle is equal to the radius of the circle.
II. The perimeter of circle is 14 cm less than the perimeter of rectangle.

58. What is the rate of compound interest?

I. The principal was invested for 8 years.
II. The earned interest was ` 4473.

59. A train crosses a pole is 20 seconds. What is the length of the train?

I. The train crosses another train running in opposite directions with a speed of 84 km/hr in 24 seconds.
II. The speed of the train is 126 km/hr.

60. P and Q started a business jointly. What is P's share in the annual profit of ` 12870?

I. Q's investment is 28/2 % more than P's investment.
II. P invested ` 11000 in the business.

:: General Awareness and Current Affairs ::

61. Which of the following is not a Main Function of RBI?

1) Monetary authority
2) Bankers to Banks
3) Issuer of currency
4) Manager of foreign exchange
5) To decide Base Rate

62. What does CRAR stand for?

1) Credit to Risk (weighted) Asset Ratio
2) Capital to Risk (weighted) Asset Return
3) Credit to Risk (weighted) Asset Reconstruction
4) Capital to Risk (weighted) Asset Ratio
5) Other than given options

63. What is the minimum pay per month for central government employees recommended by the 7th central pay commission?

1) ` 16500
2) ` 17500
3) ` 18000
4) ` 18500
5) ` 22500

64. According to Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme 2015, the bonds bear interest at the rate of _____ (fixed rate) per annum on the amount of initial investment.

1) 4.4%
2) 4.2%
3) 4.0%
4) 2.75%
5) 2.4%

65. Under Civil Nuclear Pact, ______ will be the first country to buy Australian uranium without being a signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty.

1) India
2) China
3) Pakistan
4) UK
5) Afghanistan

66. If a cheque bears a date which is yet to come then it is known as _____.

1) Ante- Dated Cheque
2) Post-Dated Cheque
3) Order Cheque
4) Truncated Cheque
5) Bearer Cheque

67. Where is the Headquarter of 'National Insurance Company Limited' (NICL)?

1) Chennai
2) Lucknow
3) Mumbai
4) Kolkata
5) New- Delhi

68. High level committee to suggest steps to sort out taxation problem being faced by the trade and industry is headed by–

1) Ashok Lahiri
2) R V Easwar
3) Anil Baijal
4) Dr. T K Viswanathan
5) Prof Ashok Misra

69. Recently, as announced by RBI, National Pension System (NPS) will act as an investment option for NRIs under Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), ______.

1) 2000
2) 1999
3) 1982
4) 2013
5) 2015

70. Who among the following has been recently appointed as an Executive Director of Asian Development Bank (ADB)?

1) Sherif Ismail
2) Yusuf Hamied
3) Swati Dandekar
4) Jagdeep Grewal
5) James Staley

71. What is the rank of India in 'Freedom on the internet' 2015 report?

1) 85th
2) 30th
3) 65th
4) 81st
5) 45th

72. Recently the Sports Ministry announced the setting up a ______ at Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium in New Delhi.

1) National Archery Academy 2) National Wrestling Academy
3) National Hockey Academy 4) National Chess Academy 5) Other than given options

73. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated country's first Solar Powered district court in which state?

1) Bihar
2) Uttar Pradesh
3) Delhi
4) West Bengal
5) Jharkhand

74. The Insurance Repository in India is a database of insurance policies, which of the following is the Insurance Repository in India?

1) SHCIL Projects Limited
2) NSDL Database Management Limited
3) Central Insurance Repository Limited
4) Karvy Insurance Repository Limited
5) All of the above

75. Recently International Summit on Energy Efficient Technologies in Railways'' took place in

1) Visakhapatnam
2) Beijing
3) Hanoi
4) New Delhi
5) Kolkata

76. The Book 'The Brothers Bihari' is authored by–

1) Vikram Seth
2) Sankarshan Thakur
3) Maithili Rao
4) Santosh Rao
5) Viral Shah

77. 'Master Dinanath Mangeshkar Award' has been won by–

1) A R Rehman
2) Prashant Damle
3) Raif Badawi
4) Amit Verma
5) Shashi Kapoor

78. Recently which country has announced to abandon its three decades-longone child policy and changed it to two-child policy?

1) Pakistan
2) U.S
3) Sri-Lanka
4) China
5) Bangladesh

79. 'Yitzhak Navon', who died recently was a–

1) Former Israeli President
2) Hollywood comedian
3) Labour economist
4) Egyptian writer
5) Former British Finance Minister

80. What is the tagline of Tata AIA life Insurance Company Limited?

1) Karo zyada ka Iraada
2) Ek shagun zindagi ke naam
3) You click, we cover
4) Zimmedari ka humsafer
5) Faidey ka Insurance

81. Total foreign investment, both direct and indirect in Indian insurance companies cannot exceed the limit of_____.

1) 95%
2) 51%
3) 49%
4) 74%
5) 26%

82. Mission Abaas, an urban housing mission to provide affordable houses to Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) has been launched by which state government?

1) Delhi
2) Haryana
3) Punjab
4) Tamil Nadu
5) Odisha

83. Where is the capital of 'Bahrain'?

1) Muscat
2) Nicosia
3) Manama
4) Kampala
5) Riyadh

84. Recently which insurance company has tied up with Catholic Syrian Bank (CSB) for sale of its products through 431 branches of the Bank?

1) Tata AIA Life Insurance Company Limited
2) Oriental Insurance Company Limited
3) Max Bupa Health Insurance
4) ICICI Lombard General Insurance
5) Other than given options

85. Who among the following is the current chairperson of NABARD?

1) S K Roy
2) N K Maini
3) T M Bhasin
4) Deepak Kumar
5) Harsha Kumar Bhanwala

86. What is the currency of 'Poland'?

1) Lev
2) Zloty
3) Euro
4) Guarani
5) Nuevo sol

87. The International Day for the Abolition of slavery was observed globally on which day?

1) 2 December
2) 16 December
3) 11 January
4) 13 December
5) 31 December

88. The Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target was increased to 75% of total outstanding from the existing _____ for Regional Rural Banks by RBI.

1) 50%
2) 55%
3) 60%
4) 70%
5) Other than given options

89. In commercial paper, amount invested by a single investor should not be less than how much rupees (face value)?

1) 15 lakh
2) 25 lakh
3) 3 lakh
4) 5 lakh
5) 6 lakh

90. Who among the following has won the Monaco Grand Prix 2015?

1) Sebastian Vettel
2) Lewis Hamilton
3) Nico Rosberg
4) Kimi Raikkonen
5) Daniel Ricciardo

:: Computer Knowledge ::

91. A Pre-established format for a document, stored in a computer is called–

1) Smiley
2) Draft
3) Dictionary
4) Template
5) Thread

92. ______ is a set of characters that helps, windows understand what kind of information is in a file and what program should open it.

1) URL
2) Bookmark
3) Extension
4) Domain
5) Other than given options

93. What is called a frame that permits users to view messages they have received or documents they are working on?

1) Icon
2) Tag
3) Logo
4) File
5) Window

94. A step-by-step procedure designed to solve a problem or achieve an objective in a program, is called–

1) Syntax
2) Application
3) Algorithm
4) Archive
5) Other than given options

95. ______will delete any file or other object without throwing it into the Recycle Bin in windows 95 and later.

1) Alt + Delete
2) Shift + Delete
3) Ctrl + Delete
4) Alt + ESC + Delete
5) Both 2 and 4

96. Which command is used to relay the IP address that your computer is currently using?

1) DispIP
2) Netstat
3) Ipconfig
4) Configping
5) PingIp

97. The component of a computer into which a disk is inserted so that it can be read or written on–

1) Hard drive
2) Flash drive
3) USB
4) Disk drive
5) Peripherals

98. ______ is a special character that indicates where the next typed character will appear on the display screen.

1) Beam
2) Icon
3) Cursor
4) Arrow
5) Blinker

99. Which of the following is not an input device?

1) Microphone
2) Joystick
3) Keyboard
4) Light Pen
5) Other than given options

100.What does 'T' stand for in 'DAT'?

1) Terminal
2) Tube
3) Tape
4) Text
5) Transfer

101. PageMaker is an example of–

1) Application software
2) System software
3) Processing device
4) Operating system
5) Output device

102.Who among the following is called father of computer?

1) Marconi
2) Thomas Edison
3) Alan Turing
4) Charles Babbage
5) Aryabhatt

103. _______ is the process to transfer information from a client computer to a host computer.

1) Downloading
2) Uploading
3) Linking
4) Rooting
5) Sorting

104.Which function keys displays the spelling dialog box to check spelling in the active worksheet or selected Range in EXCEL?

1) F2
2) F3
3) F4
4) F5
5) F7

105. A technique that permits stored information to be directly retrieved, regardless of its location on the storage medium is called–

1) Random Access
2) Sequential Access
3) Part Access
4) All of the above
5) Other than given options

106. The storage area of an email account, called–

1) Hyperlink
2) Attachment
3) Bookmark
4) Mailbox
5) Trash

107. What is the called the main directory of a file?

1) Sub directory
2) Chain directory
3) Network directory
4) Root directory
5) Other than given options

108. ______ is just the collection of networks that can be joined together.

1) Intranet
2) Internet
3) Extranet
4) Rediffmail
5) Other than given options

109. What does 'AVI' stand for?

1) Audio Video Interleaved
2) Audio Video Interconnection
3) Audio Video Interrelationship
4) Adoptive Video Interchange
5) Advanced Video Interfaces

110. Which menu is selected to print in a document?

1) Help
2) Window
3) View
4) File
5) Edit

111. ______ is the process to start a computer and load the operating system to prepare the computer to execute an application.

1) Post
2) Booting
3) Log In
4) Hibernation
5) RAM test

112. A pathway along which electronics signal travel between the components of a computer system is–

1) Ring
2) Star
3) Bus
4) Mesh
5) Other than given options

113. What is called a storage area on a disk used to organize files?

1) Document
2) Folder
3) Desktop
4) Drive
5) Tool

114. A command used in a graphical user interface (GUI) that reduces a window to an icon or a lable, usually at the bottom of a desktop is–

1) Thumbnail
2) Logo
3) Minimize
4) Maximize
5) Compress

115. _____ Programs control the disk drives, the keyboard, and the display screen, and they handle start-up operations.

1) Protocol
2) Binary
3) Linux
4) BIOS
5) Other than given options

116. The American standard code for information interchange is a standard ______ bit code that represents 128 characters.

1) 16
2) 8
3) 5
4) 7
5) 10

117. Which Octal number is represented as 101 in binary system?

1) 5
2) 6
3) 4
4) 7
5) 3

118. 'JSP' Stand for –

1) Java Script Page
2) Java Server Page
3) Java Sheet Page
4) Java Source Page
5) Java Secure Page

119. _______ is a security system usually consisting of hardware and software that prevents unauthorized persons from accessing certain parts of a program, or networks.

1) Firewall
2) Spyware
3) Anti Virus
4) All of the above
5) Other than given options

120. Which shortcut keys is used to undo the last action in Microsoft Word?

1) Ctrl + U
2) Ctrl + T
3) Ctrl + Z
4) Ctrl + W
5) Ctrl + Y

:: English Language ::

Directions (Q. 121–125) : Rearrange the following Six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

(A) Two of these factors are troubling for India’s universities and for prospects for the high-tech economy.
(B) In the social sciences and humanities, there are a small number of respectable departments, but absolutely none that are considered by international experts as in the top class of academic programmes.
(C) But the numbers of students who can be served by these schools is quite limited.
(D) When bright students look around India for a place to study for an advanced degree, they find few top-quality programmes.
(E) There are, no doubt, many reasons why Indians are choosing to study abroad.
(F) In the hard sciences, biotechnology, and related fields, the situation is more favourable with a few institutions such as the Indian Institutes of Technology, the All-India Institute of Medical Sciences, the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research and some others, despite limited acknowledgement from abroad, being internationally competitive by most measures.

121.Which of the following would be the 'SECOND' sentence after rearrangement?

1) B
2) E
3) C
4) A
5) D

122.Which of the following would be the 'LAST (SIXTH)' sentence after rearrangement?

1) E
2) A
3) C
4) D
5) F

123.Which of the following would be the 'FIRST' sentence after rearrangement?

1) B
2) C
3) E
4) D
5) A

124.Which of the following would be the 'FOURTH' sentence after rearrangement?

1) A
2) B
3) E
4) F
5) D

125.Which of the following would be the 'THIRD' sentence after rearrangement?

1) C
2) A
3) E
4) B
5) D

Directions (Q. 126–135): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Prime Minister has unveiled a slew of measures to help start-ups in the country, even while mocking the tendency over the last 60 years for governments to make things difficult for business by seeking to do things for them, the irony obliterated by his effusive enthusiasm. The prime minister did well to disabuse the notion that start-ups are all about information technology and millions of dollars of investment. Any new venture that will create employment and meet some unmet demand of society or meet a met demand more efficiently is a start-up, he pointed out. This is most welcome and a needed corrective to a tendency to conflate start-ups with some form of e-commerce.

Some of the schemes announced for start-ups are redundant, some predicated on the government sloughing off its tortoise-like pace and agility and acquiring the speed and nimbleness of a hare. Venture investors have welcomed the capital gains tax exemption for them. If they stay invested till an initial public offering and listing, they can exit tax-free even now. The fact is that further tax freebies would have a marginal impact on luring venture funds. The world is awash in cheap liquidity and India does not need tax breaks to attract capital here — ask Softbank chief Masayoshi Son, who announced his intention to invest $10 billion in India long before anyone thought up tax breaks for start-up investors. Since capital is not a constraint for the venture industry, it is entirely possible that additional government borrowing of `10,000 crore would better help startups by being invested in better education than in a PSU venture fund.

The move to include start-ups in the ambit of public procurement is sound. What is crucial, however, is not start-up specific policy but the overall ease of doing business. Increase urban land supply to reduce rentals, reform the power sector so that continuous power supply is available in Tier 2 towns, expand healthcare and education, and extend the reach of formal finance, so that new enterprises may thrive, whatever they are called.

126. Which of the following is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'obliterated' as used in the passage?

1) Destroyed
2) Established
3) Described
4) Created
5)Ascertained

127. Which of the following correctly explains the phase “government sloughing off its tortoise like pace”?

1) The Government is gradually gaining confidence.
2) The Government is gradually lacking agility.
3) The Government is speeding up all possible support to its initiative.
4) All of the above
5) The Government is not working properly.

128. Which of the following is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word 'notion' as used in the passage?

1) Apprehension
2) Concept
3) Image
4) Misunderstanding
5)Consciousness

129. What can be the suitable title of the above passage?

1) Growing start-up culture in India
2) Start-ups in India, Loss or Profit
3) Investment culture in India
4) Investments and Start-ups
5) A new measure of business

130. What is the definition of start-ups in the context of the passage?

1) An innovative idea that leads to the generation of the employment
2) A venture that meets a special demand of HNI
3) An idea that is still on papers and hasn’t been materialised yet
4) All of the above
5) Only 1) and 2)

131. What are the crucial factors responsible for the growth of start-ups in the context of the passage?

1) Investments
2) Technical know-how and other skills
3) Tax exemption at the initial stage
4) Only 2) and 3)
5) All 1), 2) and 3)

132. What does the author mean by “The world is awash in cheap liquidity and India does not need tax breaks to attract capital”?

1) The government does not need reforming of tax in order to gain investment.
2) The world is full of investments.
3) There is recession in every country.
4) All of the above
5) Both 1) and 2)

133. Which of the following statement is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A) Start-ups are all about information technology.
B) The government needs only millions of dollars of investment to launch start-up.
C) Start-ups are all about earning large revenues.

1) Both A) and B)
2) Only A)
3) Only C)
4) All of the given options
5) Other than the given options

134. According to the passage, what should be done to develop ease of doing business?

1) Expanding the availability of affordable land.
2) Structural reforms of India's power sector.
3) Creating healthcare and education facilities.
4) All of the above
5) Other than the given options

135. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word ‘ambit’ as used in the passage?

1) Extent
2) Extreme
3) Limitation
4) Nimbleness
5) Margin

Directions (Q. 136–140): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.

136. The proposal has to be______ by the central board of trustees______ the finance ministry notifies it.

1) endorsed, before
2) encountered, within
3) touched, until
4) review, after
5) view, later

137. If they ______ be directed to sell in the domestic market only, India could switch _______ to norms.

1) must, in
2) could, over
3) to, along
4) shall, behind
5) would, in

138. The project will ______ramp up the number of cycle stands in the city, ______ look at providing cycle tracks for safer and faster transportation in the next phase.

1) be, also
2) hence, for
3) as, if
4) not only, but also
5) not, but

139. The ______ students and teachers in campus are, however, ________ aware of it.

1) more, not
2) many, even
3) majority of, not even
4) some, yet even
5) minority of, so far

140. The children of _____ will find it difficult _____ admission in the school in the coming academic year.

1) general public, to get
2) normal public, to have
3) general people, to got
4) common people, to find
5) common public, to apply

Directions (Q. 141–145): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error' the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

141. The Supreme Court said 1)/that it would 2)/do his best to 3)/reduce pollution. 4)/ No error 5)

142. Police sources said 64,000 1)/personnel were originally 2)/sought as no recruitment 3)/had taken place in 10 years. 4)/ No error 5)

143. Most of the student 1)/also said 2)/they would 3)/take public transport. 4)/ No error 5)

144. The man’s death 1)/turn out 2)/to be 3)/a suicide attempt. 4)/ No error 5)

145. Challenging of the order 1)/ he submitted 2)/that the school was 3)/run by a private society. 4)/ No error 5)

Directions (Q. 146–150): In each sentence below, a word/ group of words has been printed in bold. From the five answer choices given below each sentence, pick out the one which can substitute the bold word/group of words correctly, without changing the meaning of the sentence.

146. If the proposal gone through it will be the highest return on the provident fund.

1) gone
2) go through
3) went through
4) goes through
5) No correction required

147. A mega auction of mobile airwaves may be around the edge with telecom regulator TRAI.

1) around the file
2) around the corner
3) round the point
4) around the point
5) No correction required

148. What has finally be sanctioned is almost a fourth of the revised demand.

1) have finally been
2) has finally been
3) have finally
4) has final
5) No correction required

149. But by not major technology boost, the modest expansion would leave the force facing a manpower crunch.

1) But within no major technology boosted
2) But it no major technology boosting
3) But with never majority technology boost
4) But with no major technology boost
5) No correction required

150. A small network with stations located for apart, are some other drawbacks.

1) located far part
2) locate far apart
3) located far apart
4) locate afar apart
5) No correction required

Directions (Q. 151– 160): In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Mobile operators are (151) to have differential tariffs for (152) kinds of data (153) telecom networks, a move opposed by internet service providers and consumer group. (154) an open house session called (155) telecom regulator TRAI (156) the issue, companies such as Bharti Airtel, Vodafone and Idea cellular said there was a need to have a different pricing mechanism for various kinds of data as the Indian telecom industry matures (157). The move (158) supported by various telecom associations in (159) to TRAI’s consultation paper on differential tariffs. Trai will come out with its recommendations on the subject (160).

151.

1) making
2) seeking
3) taking
4) getting
5) seeing

152.

1) various
2) sufficient
3) numerous
4) large
5) diverse

153.

1) in
2) aside
3) over
4) above
5) behind

154.

1) With
2) On
3) At
4) Of
5) For

155.

1) among
2) along
3) between
4) in
5) by

156.

1) to discuss
2) to share
3) to express
4) to convey
5) to instruct

157.

1) further
2) rather
3) forever
4) however
5) howsoever

158.

1) be
2) been
3) have been
4) has been
5) because

159.

1) his views
2) its view
3) its views
4) their view
5) their views

160.

1) ago
2) earlier
3) soon
4) former
5) ever

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(Download) SBI PO Solved Exam Paper 2008 - General Awareness & Computer Knowledge

SBI PO Solved Exam Paper 2008 - General Awareness & Computer Knowledge

1. Which of the following statement (s) reflects India’s stand on new World Trade Organization’s proposal on the issue of the subsidy to agro products ?
(1) India would protect the interest of its poor farmers who can not bear the burden of the cost of the products if they have to sell them on cheaper rate.
(2) Indian industry needs more flexibility as compared to the industry in developed countries.
(3) WTO has set up a new committee under the chairmanship of Putin of Russia to look into the issue of subsidy and find out a solution to the problem acceptable to all the parties.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

2. Which of the following statement (s) is / are true about the 11th five year plan of India ?
(1) The highest priority is given to exports ,education and development of steel sector.
(2) The plan aims at achieving the growth at 10 % level by the end of the plan.
(3) The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana is revived in such a way so that it can be achieve a growth nof 4 % for agriculture sector.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

3. As per the figures released recently the Stock markets in emerging economies made handsome returns last year (2007-08). Which of the following stock markets amongst the BRIC nations registered highest increased (97 %) compared to its performance in 2006-07 ?
(A) Cina
(B) Brazil
(C) Russia
(D) India
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

4. Bayana which was in news recently is a place in -
(A) Uttar Pradseh
(B) Madhya Pradseh
(C) Bihar
(D) Haryana
(E) Rajasthan
ANS (E)

5. Which of the following statement (s) is / are correct about the Indo-Russia Bilateral Defence Ties ?
(1) Both the countries have decided to produce a fifth generation fighter aircraft and a multi role cargo plane.
(2) India has agreed to launch Russian missiles from its base at Chandipur incase some other nation attacks on Russia
(3) India and Russia were able to sort out differences over the utilization of Rupee debt fund which is of Rs. 8000 Crore at present.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 3 only
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

6. India has recently decided to put a wire fence on the 76 km. long border in Dhudri district in Assam. The fence will separate India from -
(A) Nepal
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Myanmar
(E) Pakistan
ANS (C)

7. As we all know the Govt. of India is very keen about providing banking service to the people in rural and remote areas . However , banks feel that the cost of providing services in these areas for financial inclusion is quite high if services are offered through the “traditional branch channel “. What is / are the other alternative cost effective channel (s) to fulfill this aim of the Govt. of India ?
(1) Putting biometric ATMs.
(2) Introduce mobile banking.
(3) Issue credit or debit cards
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

8. The Govt. of India recently issued a notification altering constituencies in 24 States and Union territories. This is done as per the provision of which of the following Acts?
(A) Delimitation Act
(B) Census Act
(C) Parliament Act
(D) State Reorganization Act
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

9. As we read very frequently in the newspaper fraudulent activities in financial world is still continuing despite various efforts made by various countries to prevent them. As an estimate by IMF, what is the probable amount derived from such illegal activities which is laundered through the world’s formal financial systems every year? About -
(A) US$ 500 billion
(B) US$ 800 billion
(C) US$ 1000 billion
(D) US$ 1250 billion
(E) US$ 1500 billion
ANS (D)

10. Indian Prime Minister during his visit the Arunachal Pradesh a few months back asserted that the State is India’s Land of Rising Sun. Which of the following countries did not like his statement and had raised some objection over his visit to Arunachal Pradesh which is very much a part of India?
(A) Myanmar
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Bhutan
(E) Nepal
ANS (B)

11. Which of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana?
(A) Rs. 10,000/-
(B) Rs. 20,000/-
(C) Rs. 30,000/-
(D) Rs. 40,000/-
(E) Rs. 50,000/-
ANS (C)

12. Which of the following is NOT one of the highlights Economic Survey presented in the Lok Sabha for the year 2007-08?
(A) Economy has “moved to higher growth phase”
(B) A trend of acceleration in domestic investment and saving rate is recorded.
(C) Buoyant growth in Govt. revenue.
(D) Indian Economy at market rate of exchange crossed 1 trillion US$ in current fiscal.
(E) Net Foreign direct Investment increased by 350 % .
ANS (E)

13. Which of the following is / are correct about sub prime crisis which was in news recently?
(1) It has reduced the flow of capital coming of Indian Stock Markets.
(2) The sub prime crisis is the major financial crisis whose origin is in the Russia and Brazil. It has adversely affected the economy of Europe and USA.
(3) The crisis started when some people started trading with false Share certificates of major blue chip US companies in the stock markets.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these

14. The Prime Minister Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) has a target to connect all habitations of which of the following levels with all weather roads by 2008-09?
(A) 1000+
(B) 2000+
(C) 3000+
(D) 4000+
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

15. As we all know the value of the Indian rupee has appreciated in the recent past . The value of the Rupee is direct dependent on which of the following?
(A) Availability of commodities in the market.
(B) VAT introduced by the Govt. on various commodities.
(C) Size of total Forex Reserve of India currently.
(D) Capital flow in the market during a given period of time.
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

16. Which of the following banks has taken over the Centurion Bank of Punjab?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) IDBI Bank
(C) HDFC Bank
(D) AXIS Bank
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

17. As per provision made in Bharat Nirman programme the pace of creation of irrigation facilities is required to be raised from present level of 1.42 million hectare per year in such a way so that it can achieve the target level fixed for the same?
(A) 1.50 million hectares / year
(B) 1.75 million hectares / year
(C) 2.00 million hectares / year
(D) 2.25 million hectares / year
(E) 2.50 million hectares / year
ANS (D)

18. Inflation has become major area of concern in India these days. What measures do the Govt. pf India / RBI normally take to control the same?
(1) Fixation of Maximum Price of the Commodities
(2) System of Dual prices.
(3) Increased in supply of food grains.
(4) Control on credit and liquidity in market.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2,3 & 4
(E) All 1,2,3 & 4
ANS (D)

19. How much edcation cess is being levied on all the taxes to support elementary education for the children of age group of 6-14 years under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
(A) 0.50%
(B) 0.75%
(C) 1.00%
(D) 1.5O%
(E) 2.00%
ANS (E)

20. Which of the following is / are correct about various concessions given in the Union Budget for 2008-09?
(1) Five years tax holidays for setting up hospitals in Tier II & Tier III regions for providing health care in rural areas.
(2) Commodities tax transaction to be introduced.
(3) Banking cash transaction tax withdrawn.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2 & 3
(E) All 1,2 & 3
ANS (E)

21. Which of the following statements reflects the aim (s) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM)?
(1) Give focused attention to integrated development of infrastructure in selected cities.
(2) Provide basic services to the urban poors
(3) Scale up civic amenities and provision of utilities in urban areas.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

22. The Press Freedom Day is observed on which of the following days?
(A) 1st May
(B) 1st June
(C) 3rd May
(D) 3rd June
(E) 10th June
ANS (C)

23. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India now the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended to all the districts of India. This means it will now be applicable to about-
(A) 200 districts
(B) 300 districts
(C) 400 districts
(D) 500 districts
(E) 600 districts
ANS (E)

24. As per the reports published by the Ministry of Finance recently the overseas borrowings by the Corporates and currency fluctuation has gone up by which of the following percentage points? About -
(A) 1%
(B) 2%
(C) 3%
(D) 4%
(E) 5%
ANS (C)

25. The Govt. of India and Reserve Bank of India is planning to set up an autonomous “ATM corporation of India” in which various banks can get together for common ATM operations. If this happens how will we all be benefited by the same?
(1) It will be a cost effective measure as each bank can share its operational cost with others.
(2) Clients can withdrawn money from any ATM from any location. They are not required to go to their banks’ ATM only.
(3) It will indirectly help the IT business also as India has a large pool of IT skilled manpower waiting for suitable placement.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

26. As per the news published in various newspapers the Govt. of India has decided to create a Strategic Reserve of -
(A) Oil & Petroleum
(B) Rasoi Gas
(C) Food grains
(D) Cement & Steel
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

27. The Govt. of India had constituted a high level committee on financial sector reforms with Raghuram G. Rajan as its Chairman. Which of the following is / are the recommendations of the committee?
(1) Liberalize the interest rate that banks/institution can charge to ensure credit for poors.
(2) Create an office of the Ombudsman exclusively for financial sector.
(3) Do not allow foreign investors in domestic stock markets.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
ANS (E)

28. Yves Leterme has taken over as the prime minister of -
(A) Newzealand
(B) Belgium
(C) Croatia
(D) Portugal
(E) None of these
ANS (E)

29. The State Bank of India recently opened its 10000th branch in Puduvayal (Tamil Nadu). Only a bank in China has more branches than State Bank of India in the world. What is the name of that Chinese bank?
(A) Shanghai Commercial Bank
(B) Bank of China
(C) China Banking Corporation
(D) Industrial and Commercial Bank of China
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

30. Many a times we read about ‘Globalization’ and its impact on business practice in India. Which of the following is NOT one of the important parameters of ‘Globalization’?
(1) Reduction of trade barriers to permit free flow of goods and services amongst various nations.
(2) Developing an environment in which free flow of capital can take place.
(3) Promoting local industry to cater to the needs of the consumers in Tier II and Tier III cities. The production from metros should be reserved only for exports.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) Both 2 & 3
ANS (D)

31. Many times we read a term CBS used in banking operation. What is the full form of the letter ‘C’ in the term ‘CBS’?
(A) Core
(B) Credit
(C) Continuous
(D) Complete
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

32. As per news published in newspapers the Oil & Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) has purchased some oil assets in Latin American Countries along with one other major company of India . What is the name of that company?
(A) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation
(B) Indian Oil Corporation
(C) Reliance Industries Ltd.
(D) National Mineral Development Corporation of India
(E) None of these
ANS (E)

33. India’s First centre to monitor climate change was opened recently at -
(A) New Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Jaipur
(D) Bangalore
(E) Kolkata
ANS (B)

34. Which of the following Acts was framed specially to deal more effectively with the problem of Non-Performing Assets in banking system?
(A) SARFAESI ACT.
(B) Banking Regulation Act.
(C) Foreign Exchange Management Act.
(D) Industrial Dispute Act.
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

35. The —- shows all the websites and pages that you have visited over a period of time.
(A) status bar
(B) task bar
(C) history list
(D) tool bar
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

36. A proxy server is used for the which of the following?
(A) To provide security against unauthorized users
(B) To process client requests for web pages
(C) To process client requests for database access
(D) To provide TCP/IP
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

37. A repair for a known software bug, usually available at no charge on the internet , is called a (n) —
(A) version
(B) Patch
(C) Tutorial
(D) FAQ
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

38. In the URL http://www.upscportal.com/, the portion labelled http is the —
(A) host
(B) domain name
(C) protocol
(D) top-level domain
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

39. Which of the following organizations has recently given a US$ 600 million loan to Power Grid Corporation of India , a Govt. run organization?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) World Bank
(C) International Monetary Fund
(D) Bank of America
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

40. The ability to easily add additional users means that a network is –
(A) Scalable
(B) dedicated
(C) Decentralized
(D) Secure
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

41. In a database , a field is a –
(A) lable
(B) table of information
(C) group of related records
(D) category of information
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

42. The number of pixels displayed on a screen is known as the screen–
(A) resolution
(B) colour depth
(C) refresh rate
(D) viewing size
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

43. Wor processing , spreadsheet , and photo-editing are example of –
(A) application software
(B) system software
(C) operating system software
(D) platform software
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

44. If you wish to extend the length of the network without having the signal degrade, you would use a —
(A) repeater
(B) router
(C) gateway
(D) switch
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

45. A—- is approximately a million bytes.
(A) gigabyte
(B) kilobyte
(C) megabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

46. The time it takes a device to locate data and instructions and make them available to CPU is known as –
(A) clock speed
(B) a processing cycle
(C) CPU speed
(D) access time
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

47. ——– controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users are interact with the computer.
(A) The platform
(B) The operating system
(C) Application software
(D) The motherboard
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

48. ——– means that the data contained in a database is accurate and reliable.
(A) Data redundancy
(B) Data integrity
(C) Data reliability
(D) Data consistency
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

49. A(n) —— is a private corporate network, used exclusively by company employees.
(A) Internet
(B) local area network
(C) peer-to-peer
(D) intranet
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

50. A characteristic of a file server is which of the following?
(A) Manages file operations and is shared on a network
(B) Manages file operations and is limited to one PC
(C) Acts as fat client and is shared on a network
(D) Acts as fat client and is limited to one PC
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (04 May 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (04 May 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Who among the following is a chairperson of National Green Tribunal?

A. Justice swatanter Kumar
B. Justice A P Shah
C. Justice R M Lodha
D. Justice Verma

Q.2- Which of the following is correct regarding The Estimates committee of parliament?

1. This is the oldest parliamentary committee
2. It has 30 members elected from both Houses of Parliament
3. A minister can not become member of Estimates committee.

A. 1,2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1,3

Q.3- Trade facilitation agreement is related to which of the following?

A. WHO
B. WTO
C. IMF
D. None of the above

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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SBI PO Exam Solved Paper : Data Analysis And Interpretation Held on 18-04-2010

Solved Paper : SBI PO Exam - 2010

Data Analysis And Interpretation (Held on 18-4-2010)

Direction: Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow

Number (n) of candidates (in lakhs) appearing for an entrance examination From six different states and the percentage (p) of candidates clearing the same over the years

1. What is the respective ratio of total number of candidates clearing the entrance exam from State B in the year 2004 to those clearing the entrance exam from State C in the same year

(1) 221: 148 (2) 218: 143
(3) 148: 221 (4) 143: 218
(5) None of these

2. In which year did the highest number of candidates clear the entrance exam from State D ?

(1) 2008 (2) 2006
(3) 2009 (4) 2007
(5) None of these

3. What is the number of candidates not clearing the entrance exam from State A in the year 2007?

(1) 186820 (2) 11682
(3) 1868200 (4) 116820
(5) None of these

4. What is the total numberof candidates clearing the entrance exam from States E and F together in the year 2006 ?

(1) 16160 (2) 110660
(3) 1.1066 (4) 1106600
(5) None of these

5. What is the average number of candidates appearing for the entrance exam from State D in the years 2007, 2008 and 2009 together ?

Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow

An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow marbles.

6. If four marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is blue ?

(1) 4/11 (2) 69/91 (3) 11/15
(4) 22/91 (5) None of these

7. If two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that both are red ?

(1) 1/6 (2) 1/3 (3) 2/15
(4) 2/5  (5) None of these

8. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that two are blue and one is yellow?

(1) 3/91 (2) 1/5 (3) 18/455
(4) 7/15 (5) None of these

9. If four marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that one is green, two are blue and one is red ?

(1) 24/55 (2) 13/55 (3) 11/15
(4) 7/91 (5) None of these

10. If two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that either both are green or both are yellow ?

(1) 5/91 (2) 1/35 (3) 1/3
(4) 4/105 (5) None of these

Direction: Study the given pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follow

Breakup of number of employees working in different departments of an organisation, the, number of males and the number of employees who recently got promoted in each department break-up of employees working in different departments total number of employees = 3,600 Employees working in different departments:

Break-up of number of males in each department

Total number of males in the organisation = 2,040

Break-up of number of males working in each department



Break-up of number of employees who recently got promoted in each department

Total number of employees who got promoted = 1,200

Number of employees who recently got promoted from each department

11. If half of the number of employees who got promoted from the IT department were males, what was the approximate percentage of males who got promoted from the IT department ?

(1) 61 (2) 29 (3) 54
(4) 42 (5) 38

12. What is the total number of females working in the Production and Marketing departments together ?

(1) 468 (2) 812 (3) 582
(4) 972 (5) None of these

13. How many females work in the Accounts department ?

(1) 618 (2) 592 (3) 566
(4) 624 (5) None of these

14. The total number of employees who got promoted from all the departments together was what percent of the total number of employees working in all the departments together ? (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

(1) 56 (2) 21 (3) 45
(4) 33 (5) 51

15. The number of employees who got promoted from the HR department was what percent of the total number of employees working in that department ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(1) 36.18 (2) 30.56 (3) 47.22
(4) 28.16 (5) None of these

Direction: Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow

16. If the profit earned by Company L in the year 2005 was Rs. 1.84 lakhs, what was the profit earned by the company in the year 2006 ?

(1) Rs. 2.12 lakhs (2) Rs. 2.3 lakhs
(3) Rs. 2.04 lakhs
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

17. If the profit earned by Company M in the year 2008 was Rs. 3.63 lakhs, what was he amount of profit earned by it in the year 2006 ?

(1) Rs. 2.16 lakhs (2) Rs.1.98 lakhs
(3) Rs. 2.42 lakhs
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

18. What is the average percent rise in profit of Company L over all the years together ?

19. Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the above graph ?

(1) Company M made the highest profit in the year 2009
(2) Company L made least profit in the year 2005
(3) The respective ratio between the profits earned by Company L and M In the year 2006 was 6:5
(4) Company L made the highest profit in the year 2008
(5) All are true

20. What is the percentage increase in percent rise in profit of Company M in the year 2009 from the previour year ?

(1) 25 (2) 15 (3) 50
(4) 75 (5) None of these

Direction: Study th a information carefully to answer the questions that follow.

A school consisting of a total of 1560 students has boys and girls in the ratio of 7:5 respectively. All the students are enrolled in different types of hobby classes, viz: Singing, Dancing and Painting. One-fifth of the boys are enrolled in only Dancing classes. Twenty percent of the girls are enrolled in only Painting classes. Ten percent of the boys are enrolled in only Singing classes. Twenty four percent of the girls are enrolled in both Singing and Dancing classes together. The number of girls enrolled in only Singing classes is two hundred percent of the boys enrolled in the same. One-thirteenth of the boys are enrolled in all the three classes together. The respective ratio of boys enrolled in Dancing and Painting classes together to the girls enrolled in the same is 2 :1 respectively. Ten percent of the girls are enrolled in only Dancing classes whereas eight percent of the girls are enrolled in both Dancing and Painting classes together. The remaining girls are enrolled in all the three classes together. The number of boys enrolled in Singing and Dancing classes together is fifty percent of the number of girls enrolled in the same. The remaining boys are enrolled in only Painting classes.

21. What is the total number of boys who are enrolled in Dancing ?

(1) 318 (2) 364
(3) 292 (4) 434
(5) None of these

22. Total number of girls enrolled in Singing is approximately what percent of the total number of students in the school ?

(1) 37 (2) 19
(3) 32 (4) 14
(5) 26

23. What is the total number of students enrolled in all the three classes together ?

(1) 135 (2) 164
(3) 187 (4) 142
(5) None of these

24. Number of girls enrolled in only Dancing classes is what percent of the boys enrolled in the same? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(1) 38.67 (2) 35.71
(3) 41.83 (4) 28.62
(5) None of these

25. What is the respective ratio of the number of girls enrolled in only Painting classes to the number of boys enrolled in the same ?

(1) 77 : 26 (2) 21 : 73
(3) 26 : 77 (4) 73 : 21
(5) None of these

Direction: Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow.

26. What is the respective ratio between the profit earned by shopkeeper U in the months February­2010 and March - 2010 together to that earned by shopkeeper Q in the same months ?

(1) 637: 512 (2) 621 : 508
(3) 512: 637 (4) 508: 621
(5) None of these

27. What is the percent increase in profit of shopkeeper S in the month of December - 2009 over the previous month ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(1) 3.15 (2) 2.67
(3) 2.18 (4) 3.33
(5) None of these

28. Which shopkeeper’s profit kept increasing continuously over the given months ?

(1) R (2) Q (3) T
(4) U (5) None of these

29. What is the difference in profit earned by shopkeeper T in January - 2010 from the previous month ?

(1) Rs. 640/- (2) Rs. 420/-
(3) Rs. 380/- (4) Rs. 760/-
(5) None of these

30. What was the average profit earned by shopkeeper R in the months of October – 2009 and November – 2009 together ?

(1) 5405 (2) 5040 (3) 4825
(4) 4950 (5) None of these

Direction: Study the given graph carefully to answer the questions that follow

Number of days taken by three carpenters to finish making one piece each of four different items of furniture

31. If Carpenter X and Carpenter Y were to make a chair together how many days would they take?

(1) 1 day (2) 4 days (3) 3 days
(4) 2 days (5) None of these

32. If Carpenters X, Y and Z were to make a table together how many days would they take ?

(1) 4 days (2) 3 days (3) 1 day
(4) 2 days (5) None of these

33. What is the total number of days that Carpenter Z will take to make one piece each of all the four items together ?

(1) 32 days (2) 24 days
(3) days (4) days
(5) None of these

34. The radius of a circular field is equal to the side of a square field whose perimeter is 784 feet. What is the area of the circular field ?

(1) 107914 Sq.ft (2) 120736 Sq.ft.
(3) 107362 Sq.ft. (4) 127306 Sq.ft.
(5) None of these

35. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘STRESS’ be arranged

(1) 360 (2) 240
(3) 720
(4) 120
(5) None of these

Direction: Study the given table carefully to answer the questions that follow

Number of people staying in five different localities and the percentage breakup of men, women and children in them

LOCALITY TOTAL NO. PERCENTAGE OF PEOPLE MEN WOMEN CHILDREN

36. Total number of people staying in locality J forms approximately what percent of the total number of people staying in locality F ?

(1) 81 (2) 72 (3) 78
(4) 93 (5) 87

37. What is the total number of children staying in localities H and I together ?

(1) 1287 (2) 1278 (3) 1827
(4) 1728 (5) None of these

38. The number of women staying in which locality is the highest ?

(1) H (2) J (3) F
(4) G (5) None of these

39. What is the total number of men and children staying in locality I together

(1) 4115 (2) 4551 (3) 4515
(4) 4155 (5) None of these

40. What is the respective ratio of number of men staying in locality F to the number of men staying in locality H ?

(1) 517: 416 (2) 403: 522
(3) 416: 517 (4) 522: 403
(5) None of these

41. The compound interest earned by Suresh on a certain amount at the end of two years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a was Rs. 1,414.4. What was the total amount that Suresh got back at the end of two years in the form of principal plus interest earned?

(1) Rs. 9,414.4 (2) Rs. 9,914.4
(3) Rs. 9,014.4 (4) Rs. 8,914.4
(5) None of these

42. The respective ratio of the present ages of a mother and daughter is 7 : 1. Four years ago the respective ratio of their ages was 19:1. What will be the mother’s age four years from now ?

(1) 42 years (2) 38 years
(3) 46 years (4) 36 years
(5) None of these

43. Three friends J, K and Ljog around a circular stadium and complete one round in 12, 18 and 20 seconds respectively. In how many minutes will all the three meet again at the starting point

(1) 5 (2) 8 (3) 12
(4) 3 (5) None of these

44. 4 men can complete a piece of work in 2 days. 4 women can complete the same piece of work in 4 days whereas 5 children can complete the same piece of work in 4 days. If, 2 men, 4 women and 10 children work together, in how many days can the work be completed ?

(1) 1 day (2) 3 days (3) 2 days
(4) 4 days (5) None of these

45. The speed of a boat when travelling downstream is 32 Kms. / Hr. , whereas when travelling upstream it is 28 kms/hr. What is the speed of the boat in still water ?

(1) 27 Kms./Hr. (2) 29 Kms./ Hr.
(3) 31 Kms./ Hr.
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

Direction: Study the following tables carefully and answer the questions given below

Number of Candidates appeared in a Competitive Examination from five centres over the years

NUMBER

Approximate-Percentages of candidates qualified to appeared in the-Competitive examination from five centres over the years

PERCENTAGE

46. In which of the following years was the difference in number of candidates appeared from Mumbai over the previous year the minimum ?

(1) 2004 (2) 2006 (3) 2007
(4) 2002 (5) None of these

47. In which of the following years was the number of candidates qualified from Chennai, the maximum among the given years ?

(1) 2007 (2) 2006 (3) 2005
(4) 2003 (5) None of these

48. Approximately what was the total number of candidates qualified from Delhi in 2002 and 2006 together ?

(1) 27250 (2) 25230 (3) 30150
(4) 28150 (5) 26250

49. Approximately how many candidates appearing from Kolkata in 2004 qualified in the competitive examination ?

(1) 13230 (2) 13540 (3) 15130
(4) 15400 (5) 19240

50. Approximately what was the difference between the number of candidates qualified from Hyderabad in 2001 and 2002 ?

(1) 1680 (2) 2440 (3) 1450
(4) 2060 (5) 1860

Answer

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (5) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (5) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (5)
11. (5) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (4) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (4)
21. (4) 22. (5) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (5) 29. (3) 30. (1)
31. (5) 32. (3) 33. (1) 34. (2) 35. (5) 36. (5) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (1)
41. (2) 42. (3) 43. (4) 44. (1) 45. (5) 46. (5) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (2) 50. (5)

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(Sample Papers) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Test - 4

(Sample Papers) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Test - 4

:: Reasoning ::

Directions (Q. 1–5): In each question given below three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.

You have to take all the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from all the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) If both conclusion I and II follow.

(1–2): Statements: No paper is pact. All pacts are press. Some press is printer.

1. Conclusions:

I. Some printers may be pact.
II. No pact is paper.

2. Conclusions:

I. All press being paper is not a possibility.
II. All press is not printer.

(3–4): Statements: All months are weeks. Some weeks are years. All years are days.

3. Conclusions:

I. All year being month is a possibility.
II. Some days are not week is a possibility.

4. Conclusions:

I. All months being day is a possibility.
II. Some year is not week.

5. Statements: A few statements are inference. No inference is conclusion.
Each conclusion is assumption.

Conclusions:

I. Some statements are not conclusion.
II. All statements being assumption is a possibility.

Directions (Q. 6–10): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer:

1) If only conclusion I is true
2) If only conclusion II is true
3) If either conclusion I or II is true
4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
5) If both conclusion I and II are true

Directions (Q. 11– 15) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In a certain code language 'farmers play important role' is written as 'nt lj pt kn', 'farmer’s role is important' is written as 'kd pt kn lt', 'government understands farmer’s role' is written as 'nj kn lt vp', and 'farmers must teach government' is written as 'zee lj vp ki'.

11. Which of the following is the code for 'role'?

1) lj
2) pt
3) kd
4) kn
5) ln

12. Which of the following may be the code for 'farmer’s teaching'?

1) lt ki
2) ln zee
3) lt vp
4) kd lg
5) lt mk

13. What does the code 'zee' stand for?

1) must
2) teach
3) Either 1) or 2)
4) nj
5) vp

14. What is the code for 'play'?

1) nt
2) vp
3) nj
4) kn
5) pt

15. If 'to teach role' is written as 'zi kn ki' in a certain code language then what is the code for 'to do must'?

1) zee zi nt
2) zi zee pv
3) zee ki nt
4) Cannot be determined
5) ki ni zi

Directions (Q. 16 -20) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are six footballers namely, Messi, Ronaldo, Beckham, Pele, Kaka and Revaldo. Among them two are mid fielder, while others are goalkeeper, defence player, striker and forward player. But not necessarily in the same order, also each of these footballers belongs to a different country viz; England, America, Brazil, Argentina, Germany and Portugal, but not necessarily in the same order. Beckham, is a defence player neither from Argentina nor from Portugal. Messi is a striker and is from Portugal. The one who is from Germany is a forward player. Neither Messi nor Pele is from Germany. Beckham is not from Brazil while Revaldo is not from Argentina. Pele the goalkeeper is from America. Neither Ronaldo nor Revaldo is from Brazil.

16. Who among the following is from England?

1) Beckham
2) Pele
3) Kaka
4) Messi
5) Revaldo

17. Ronaldo is from which of the following country?

1) Brazil
2) England
3) Argentina
4) America
5) Germany

18. Which of the following pair match correctly?

1) Beckham – Argentina
2) Pele – Brazil
3) Kaka – Brazil
4) Revaldo – America
5) Ronaldo – Portugal

19. Which of the following pair is the pair of Midfielder?

1) Kaka – Pele
2) Messi – Kaka
3) Revaldo – Ronaldo
4) Messi – Beckham
5) Kaka – Ronaldo

20. Who among the following is from Brazil?

1) Messi
2) Ronaldo
3) Pele
4) Kaka
5) Revaldo

Directions (Q. 21–25) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are nine persons namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, H, J and K are sitting in a row. Four of them are facing south while rests are facing north. They use four mobiles of different companies viz. Vodafone, Airtel, BSNL and Reliance, at least two persons use the mobile of same company, but not necessarily in the same order. The one who sits exactly in the middle of the row uses Reliance mobile and their neighbours are Airtel users.

Persons who sit at extreme ends facing in different direction (i.e. if one person faces north than other faces south and vice versa). B uses Airtel but is not the neighbour of D, who is facing north and uses Reliance. C sits immediate right to E and uses Reliance. A, who uses BSNL is immediate left of both H and C. J is facing north and sits at one of the extreme ends of the row. H is not facing north. D is fourth to the right of one who uses BSNL at the right end. H and J don't use BSNL. There is only one person between two BSNL users. A is not at the extreme end. Only Vodafone user is between two Airtel users. K is immediate left of F, who is second to the right of J. J doesn't use Airtel. K and F are facing same direction.

21. How many persons are between K and E?

1) One
2) Three
3) Four
4) Two
5) None

22. Which of the following pair use Vodafone?

1) F K
2) J F
3) J K
4) K H
5) J E

23. H uses mobile of which company?

1) Airtel
2) BSNL
3) Reliance
4) Vodafone
5) Cannot be determined

24. Which of the following does match correctly?

1) D – Airtel
2) B – Airtel
3) K – Vodafone
4) C – BSNL
5) E – Reliance

25. Who among the following is fifth to the left of K?

1) C
2) D
3) H
4) A
5) E

Directions (Q. 26 – 28): In the following questions, the symbols +, ×, – and ÷ are used with following meaning as illustrated below:

If 'A + B' means 'A is brother of B'
If 'A × B' means 'A is father of B'
If 'A – B' means 'A is sister of B'
If 'A÷ B' means 'A is mother of B'

26. What will come in place of (?) question mark, if P is paternal grandmother of T?

P ÷ J – K ? N + T

1) ÷
2) ×
3) –
4) +
5) Either 1 or 2

27. How is K related to D in the given expression?

D – N + S ÷ R + K

1) Maternal Aunt
2) Brother
3) Grandson
4) Granddaughter
5) Cannot be determined

28. How is F related to E in the given expression?

F ÷ H ÷ R + K – E

1) Mother
2) Paternal grandmother
3) Maternal grandmother
4) Cannot be determined
5) Other than given options

29. Statements: Central government has scrapped interview for the job grade B and grade C in central job with effect from January 2016.

Which of the following can be inferred from the above statement?

1) Now standard of exam will go down.
2) It will become difficult to get job by wrong means.
3) This will be helpful for the governing party to woo youth voters.
4) Other than given options
5) Only 2) and 3)

30. Statement: Government of India approves new crop insurance scheme that would ensure that farmers pay less premium and get early claims for the full sum insured.

Which of the following has been assumed in the above statement?

1) Earlier insurance scheme was not pro–farmer scheme.
2) Farmers will get all the compensation on the time.
3) Now all the farmers will connect themselves in the Yojana automatically.
4) All of the above
5) Other than given options

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::

Directions (Q. 31– 35): Study the following pie–chart and table carefully and answer the questions given below:

Distribution of total number of commuters (males and females) who travel on 6 different lines of Delhi Metro in a day.

The table given below represents the respective ratio of male to female commuters who travels on 6 different metro lines in a day.

Lines M : F
Yellow line 5 : 6
Blue line 9 : 7
Violet line 5 : 3
Red line 5 : 7
Green line 2 : 1
Airport Express 3 : 2

31. The number of female commuters travelling in Violet line is what percent of the number of male commuters travelling in Airport Express?

1) Other than given options
2) 128%
3) 132%
4) 120%
5) 125%

32. 25% of male commuters who travels in Yellow line and Airport express together are less than 30 years of age and 30% of female commuters who travels on the same lines together are less than 30 years of age. What is the respective ratio between the two?

1) 185: 228
2) 187 : 228
3) Other than given options
4) 191 : 268
5) 189 : 248

33. What is the difference between the total number of male commuters who travel on Blue and Violet line together and the total number of female commuters who travel on Red and Green line together?

1) 2980
2) 2780
3) 2880
4) 2180
5) Other than given options

34. The number of male commuters travelling in Red line and Green line together is approximately by what percent more or less than the number of female commuters travelling in Blue line?

1) 42.5% more
2) 47.6% more
3) 42.5% less
4) 34.6% less
5) Other than given options

35. What is the central angle corresponding to the total number of commuters travelling in Blue line?

1) 86.4°
2) 93.6°
3) Other than given options
4) 88.6°
5) 98.4°

Directions (Q. 36–40): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

36. 9360, 1560, 312, 78, 26, ?

1) 12
2) 14
3) 13
4) 11
5) 15

37. 14, 18, ?, 66, 174, 498

1) 32
2) 30
3) 28
4) 40
5) 36

38. ?, 501, 478, 450, 417, 379\

1) 538
2) 539
3) 528
4) 548
5) 519

39. 15, 30, 75, 225, ?, 3150

1) 727
2) 787
3) 747
4) 787.5
5) 757

40. 8, ?, 240, 1200, 7200, 36000

1) 60
2) 80
3) 120
4) 40
5) 16

Directions (Q. 41– 45): What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

41. 119.97% of 1500.23 + 42.10% of 2849.98 = 23.99% of ? + 2420.15

1) 1206
2) 1208
3) 1404
4) 2908
5) 2404

1) 234. 65
2) Other than given options
3) 132.25
4) 296.45
5) 259.5

43. 25.96 2 ÷ (34.95 + 17.01) + 69.95 + 189.11 = ?

1) 424
2) 124
3) 172
4) 272
5) 382

44. 42.99 2 – 18.85 2 – ? = 11.9 2 + 158.95

1) 1185
2) 1585
3) 858
4) 2058
5) 1985

45. 8.98% of 7835 + 4884 ÷ 120.01 – ? = 189.95

1) 556
2) 856
3) 756
4) 356
5) 236

46. Shakshi invested two–third of the total money she had in scheme A for 6 years and invested the rest of money she had in scheme B for 2 years. Scheme A and Scheme B offers simple interest at a rate of 10% p.a and compound interest (compounded annually) at a rate of 10% p.a. respectively. If the total sum obtained from both the schemes is ` 39690, what was the total amount invested by Shakshi?

1) ` 21000
2) ` 27000
3) ` 24000
4) ` 33000
5) ` 30000

47. The ratio of the present ages of a son and his mother is 3 : 8. The ratio of the age of son after 2 years and the age of mother 4 years ago is 1 : 2. Find the age of son after 6 years.

1) 17 years
2) 16 years
3) 12 years
4) 19 years
5) 18 years

48. A cone, a cylinder and a hemisphere stand on the same base. Find the ratio of their volume if they have equal heights.

1) 1 : 4 : 3
2) 1 : 2 : 3
3) Other than given options
4) 1 : 3 : 2
5) 1 : 3 : 4

49. An item was bought at ` A and sold at ` B, thereby earning a profit of 20%. Had the value of A been 18% less and the value of B been ` 837 less, a profit of 35% would have been earned. What was the value of A?

1) ` 8500
2) ` 8000
3) ` 8750
4) ` 9000
5) ` 9250

50. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 24 hours and 8 hours respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, how much time will be taken to fill the tank?

1) 6 hr
2) 8 hr
3) Other than given options
4) 13/2 hr
5) 7 hr

Directions (Q. 51– 55): Study the following line graph carefully and answer the following questions:

Data related to the number of chairs purchased for two libraries (L1 and L2) during 6 years

51. Number of chairs purchased for library L2 in 2012 is approximately what percent of the number of chairs purchased for Library L1 in 2013?

1) Other than given options
2) 72%
3) 79%
4) 74%
5) 77%

52. In which of the following years, the percentage increase or decrease in the number of chairs purchased for Library L1 is maximum?

1) 2013
2) 2014
3) 2012
4) 2011
5) 2015

53. What is the approximate average number of chairs purchased for library L2 taking all years together?

1) 606
2) 612
3) 614
4) 608
5) Other than given options

54. Out of the total number of chairs purchased for Library L1 and L2 together in 2015; only 40% are not used. What is the total number of chairs purchased for both the Library are used?

1) 906
2) 916
3) 896
4) 996
5) Other than given options

55. Number of chairs purchased for library L2 in 2015 is approximately by what percent more than the number of chairs purchased for same library in 2010?

1) 192%
2) 185%
3) 190%
4) Other than given options
5) 188%

Directions (Q. 56 – 60): Each of the questions given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and give answer:

1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

56. What is the marked price of the article?

I. The difference between the CP and the SP of the article is `160.
II. The article is marked 25% above the cost price. There is profit of 20% on selling the article.

57. What is the ratio of the wages of Ansh and Charita?

I. Ansh can alone complete the work in 6 days.
II. Ansh and Charita, working together can complete the work in 4 days.

58. How many marks did Preeti scored in Mathematics?

I. In a question paper of 200 marks, Arunima scored 80% marks in Mathematics which was double the marks scored by Preeti.
II. In English, Preeti scored 120 marks which is 3/2 times of the marks scored by Preeti in Mathematics.

59. What is the total number of students in the class?

I. Ratio of the number of girls to that of boys is 2 : 3.
II. Out of the total number of students, there are 60% boys.

60. What will Anamika's age after 6 years from now?

I. Anamika's present age is twice of Tarishi's present age.
II. Tarishi, who is half of Anamika's present age, was 18 years old four years ago.

:: General Awareness and Current Affairs ::

61. The minimum deposit at any one time shall be _____ grams of raw gold, under Gold Monetisation Scheme, 2015.

1) 5
2) 10
3) 20
4) 30
5) 50

62. What does 'N' stand for in 'TIN'?

1) Net
2) Note
3) Network
4) National
5) Name

63. 'Irani Trophy' is related to which game?

1) Hockey
2) Football
3) Golf
4) Rowing
5) Cricket

64. Which of the following is/are the public sector Insurance Companies?

1) Life Insurance Corporation of India
2) Oriental Insurance Company Limited
3) United India Insurance Company Limited
4) All of the above
5) Both 2) and 3)

65. Which day is observed as "World Cancer Day"?

1) 30th January
2) 4th February
3) 8th February
4) 8th March
5) 14th February

66. Who among the following is the Current Labour and Employment Minister of India?

1) DV Sadananda Gowda
2) Bandaru Dattatreya
3) JP Nadda
4) Jual Oram
5) Radha Mohan Singh

67. Recently which of the following Banks launched 'LIME', India's first Mobile App integrating wallet, shopping, payments and banking?

1) ICICI Bank
2) Bank of India
3) State Bank of India
4) Axis Bank
5) Canara Bank

68. _____ is the amount, the policy holder will get from the insurance company if he decides to exit the policy before maturity.

1) Paid up value
2) Lapse value
3) Surrender value
4) Maturity claim
5) Terminal bonus

69. A cheque presented for payment after 3 months from the date of the cheque, is called–

1) Crossed Cheque
2) Ante–Dated Cheque
3) Post–Dated Cheque
4) Order Cheque
5) Stale Cheque

70. Which state Government launched APJ Abdul Kalam Amrut Yojana, for pregnant and lactating women in the tribal areas of the state?

1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Rajasthan
3) Maharashtra
4) Gujarat
5) Jharkhand

71. According to 7th Central Pay Commission increase in Pension will be _____.

1) 16%
2) 63%
3) 28%
4) 24%
5) 18%

72. Where is the Headquarter of "United India Insurance Company Limited"?

1) New Delhi
2) Mumbai
3) Chennai
4) Kolkata
5) Bangaluru

73. What is the currency of "Laos"?

1) Yen
2) Tenge
3) Som
4) Kip
5) Pound

74. Recently National Tribal Advisory Council was set up for real time monitoring of various tribal development programmes and schemes in the country, under chairmanship of _____.\

1) Arun Jaitley
2) Narendra Modi
3) Nitin Gadkari
4) Ram Vilas Paswan
5) Other than given options

75. Who is the Author of the Book "India on My Platter"?

1) Shrabani Basu
2) Jai Arjun Singh
3) Piyush Pandey
4) Saransh Goila
5) Megha Rao

76. _______ is a part of salary that is received by an employee from his/her employer in gratitude for the services offered by the employee in the company.

1) Claim
2) Gratuity
3) Bonus
4) Annuity
5) Encumbrance

77. Who among the following was the Former West Bengal assembly speaker, who died recently?

1) Hashim Abdul Halim
2) Afzal Khan Lala
3) Saeed Jaffrey
4) V. N. Misra
5) Dr. T S Papola

78. What is the Rank of India in Environmental Democracy Index 2015?

1) 71
2) 143
3) 85
4) 24
5) 117

79. Where is the capital of "Latvia"?

1) Zagreb
2) Riga
3) Sofia
4) Helsinki
5) Tirana

80. What is the tagline of "Birla Sun Life Insurance Company Limited"?

1) Sar Utha Ke Jiyo
2) Jiyo Befiqar
3) Muskurate Raho
4) Zimmedari Ka Humsafar
5) Kal Par Control

81. The 7th India–Russia Joint Military Exercise 'Indra–2015' held in ____.

1) Kalyani, West Bengal
2) Mumbai, Maharashtra
3) Dehradun, Uttarakhand
4) Bikaner, Rajasthan
5) Vadodara, Gujarat

82. The winner of 2015 Formula one Abu Dhabi Grand Prix is–

1) Sebestian Vettal
2) Nico Rosberg
3) Lewis Hamilton
4) Jean Behra
5) Marcel Balsa

83. Which state represents the lowest sex ratio according to census 2011?

1) Puducherry
2) Arunachal Pradesh
3) Haryana
4) Bihar
5) Meghalaya

84. ______ replaced google as the publicly traded company that will house google's search and web advertising business, maps, Youtube and its "moonshot" ventures such as driverless cars.

1) Apple
2) Alphabet
3) Yahoo
4) Twitter
5) Facebook

85. A commercial bank needs to maintain ______ in the form of cash, or gold or government approved securities (Bonds) before providing credit to its customers.

1) CRR
2) MSF
3) RRR
4) SLR
5) Other than given options

86. ____ has rolled out its 'Ek kadam unnati ki Aur' programme towards rural digitisation in from a village in Telangana.

1) Intel
2) DELL
3) HP
4) Acer
5) Lenovo

87. 'Uday scheme' is related to–

1) Financial restructuring of debt of power distribution companies.
2) Ensure 24 × 7 power supply to every house.
3) Welfare of people affected by mining related operations.
4) Allocating over 5000 crore rupees for the mission to develop 300 clusters for the rural banks over next three years across the country.
5) Transfer of blood from one blood bank to another in case of shortage.

88. The 'BRICS' Nations are–

1) Brazil, Russia, India, Canada and Saint Lucia
2) Belgium, Rwanda, Iceland, Cambodia and Samoa
3) Bhutan, Romania, Iran, Chile and Singapore
4) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
5) Brunei, Reunion, Iraq, Cuba and South Africa

89. Prime minister Naraendra Modi on 16 November 2015 returned to India after his two–nation tour of the _____ and _____.

1) United Kingdom, Taiwan
2) United States, Turkey
3) United Kingdom, Turkey
4) United States, Taiwan
5) United States, Tajikistan

90. In which country India is going to set up computer Labs in 37 schools?

1) Kazakhstan
2) Turkmenistan
3) Kyrgyzstan
4) Turkey
5) Tajikistan

:: Computer Knowledge ::

91. What does the EDP stand for?

1) Erasable Data Program
2) Extranet Data Program
3) Electronic Data Processing
4) Electric Data Processing 5) Other than given options

92. _______is a tool name that Rotates the selected object to any degree.

1) Auto shapes
2) Free Rotate
3) Auto Rotate
4) Free Shapes
5) Other than given options

93. Which of the following is a link that is created between two tables and enables us to access data from both tables simultaneously?

1) Data directory
2) Relationship
3) Hyperlink
4) Weblink
5) Other than given options

94. Which of the following is not a use of power point?

1) Creating business application presentation slide
2) To provide training in business world
3) Creating graphical objects with animations
4) Create artistic slides for general use using art gallery
5) Other than given options

95. Which of the following shortcut keys is used to insert hyperlink and displays the destination object, document or page?

1) Ctrl + K
2) Ctrl + D
3) Ctrl + Shift + K
4) Alt + D
5) Ctrl + Alt + P

96. _______ byte is equivalent to one kilobyte.

1) 10000
2) 1000
3) 1024
4) 1204
5) 1100

97. Memory capacity of computer is measured in –

1) Gigabyte
2) Terabyte
3) Kilobyte
4) Megabyte
5) All of the above

98. ISDN is a type of connection. What does the acronym ISDN stand for?

1) Integrated Services Digital Network
2) Internet Services Digital Network
3) Internet Services Direct Network
4) Integrated Services Direct Network
5) Intranet Services Digital Network

99. Domain name for Business organisation is:

1) .org
2) .com
3) .biz
4) .bus
5) Other than given options

100. Broadband service is based on which of the following technology?

1) ISP
2) DSL
3) MSN
4) WBC
5) Other than given options

101. Which of the following best describes a hardware component designed to allow computers to communicate over a  computer network and enables our computer to connect to other computers?

1) Wireless local loop
2) Network Interface Card
3) Digital Subscriber line
4) Leased line
5) Other than given options

102. Which of the following is a network, through which voice, video, images and data are transmitted noise free and in digital form?

1) Extranet
2) Intranet
3) All of the above
4) ISD network
5) Wide area network

103. _______is the time in which a single instruction is retrieved from memory, decoded and executed.

1) Seek time
2) Instruction cycle
3) Fetch-execute cycle
4) Both 2 and 3
5) Other than given options

104. In which generation of computer was vacuum tubes Introduced?

1) First
2) Second
3) Third
4) Fourth
5) Other than given options

105. Which of the following is not an output device?

1) Screen Image Projector
2) Touch Screen
3) Plotter
4) Speaker
5) Printer

106.Which of the following is a fast speed printer?

1) Daisy- wheel printer
2) Laser printer
3) Thermal printer
4) Inkjet printer
5) Dot matrix printer

107. Flash memory is also called ______.

1) Flash ROM
2) Flash PROM
3) Flash EPROM
4) Flash RAM
5) Other than given options

108. ______ is not a type of CPU chips.

1) Pentium AMD
2) Cyrix
3) Athlon
4) Intel Celeron
5) Other than given options

109. Which hardware is used to read disks?

1) Disk drive
2) Hard disk
3) Floppy disk
4) CPU
5) Other than given options

110. In 'SQL', 'S' stands for–

1) Scientific
2) Structured
3) Special
4) Symbol
5) Other than given options

111. Which of the following computer languages is appropriate for business, finance and administrative systems for companies and governments?

1) C++
2) PASCAL
3) COBOL
4) FORTRAN
5) Other than given options

112. Binary digits 1000 is equivalent to Hexadecimal digit _____.

1) 6
2) 7
3) 9
4) 8
5) 3

113. ______ is an operating system that is capable of allowing multiple software processes to run at the same time.

1) Multitasking Operating System
2) Multi Processing Operating System
3) Multi Access Operating System
4) Multi Programming Operating System
5) Other than given options

114. ______ is a program that translates the user source program written in high level language to an object code.

1) Compiler
2) Interpreter
3) Both 1) and 2)
4) Assembler
5) Both 1) and 3)

115. Which software offered free of charge, downloadable from the internet?

1) Free Application
2) Freeware
3) Firmware
4) Free network
5) Other than given options

116. ______ is a set of rules and standards which is used by computers to exchange information or data with each other across a network.

1) Server
2) Gateways
3) Shareware
4) Protocol
5) Other than given options

117. What is the full form of CDMA?

1) Code Division Multiple Access
2) Code Data Multiple Access
3) Character Database Management Access
4) Code Division Management Access
5) Other than given options

118. _______ is a type of networking wherein each node in the network may act as an independent router, regardless of whether it is connected to other network or not.

1) Star topology
2) Mesh topology
3) Ring topology
4) Bus topology
5) Other than given options

119. Which of the following component is not required for a video conferencing?

1) Microphones
2) Speaker
3) Internet
4) Webcam
5) Mouse

120. What is called a unsolicited e-mail?

1) News Hunt
2) Spyware
3) Creeper
4) Spam
5) Flask

:: English Language ::

Directions (Q. 121–130): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Inequality is one of the key challenges of our time. Income inequality specifically is one of the most visible aspects of a broader and more complex issue, one that entails inequality of opportunity and extends to gender, ethnicity, disability, and age, among others. Ranking second in last year’s Outlook, it was identified as the most significant trend of 2015 by our Network’s experts.

The inherent dangers of neglecting inequality are obvious. People, especially young people, excluded from the mainstream end up feeling disenfranchised and become easy fodder of conflict. This, in turn, reduces the sustainability of economic growth, weakens social cohesion and security, encourages inequitable access to and use of global commons, undermines our democracies, and cripples our hopes for sustainable development and peaceful societies.

A report by Oxfam shows that wealth is becoming increasingly concentrated in the hands of a small group of billionaires: just 62 people, 53 of them men, own as much wealth as the poorest half of the entire world population, and the richest 1% own more than the other 99% put together. Rising inequality is potentially damaging for society.

Policies aimed at reducing inequalities, particularly of the structural kind that transmit inequality across generations, are called for. However, there are two redeeming features to the process of growth that has produced such inequality. Those amassing wealth in the developed world are also voluntarily spending fortunes on philanthropy in areas once considered the domain exclusively of governments, such as healthcare and primary education.

Facebook CEO Mark Zuckerberg has announced investing $45 billion for a better world. Philanthropists such as Bill Gates are among the largest spenders in public health. Other high-net-worth individuals must emulate them, even if philanthropy is often seen as a smart way to save on taxes.

Rapid globalisation and technological changes, which widens inequality in rich countries, also narrows the income gap between developed countries such as the US and developing countries such as India. Middle-class office jobs are being outsourced to India, and blue-collar ones traded away to China. This adds to the profits of the owners of capital.

Entrepreneurship is ever easier with capital and infrastructure available on tap in rich countries. The combined effect is for entrepreneurs and high-end professionals to grow even more prosperous, even as incomes of the rest of society stagnate. But let us not ignore the improvement in absolute living standards such growth induces.

121. Suggest a suitable title for the given passage.

1) Growth of Inequality
2) Inequality With A Brighter Side
3) Deepening Income Inequality
4) Inequality among Different Countries
5) Need of Globalisation

122. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'Redeem' as used in the passage?

1) Vindicate
2) Possess
3) Assertion
4) Affirm
5) Convert

123. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word 'Cripple' as used in the passage?

1) Undermine
2) Debilitate
3) Enfeeble
4) Strengthen
5) Repair

124. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'Stagnate' as used in the passage?

1) Deteriorate
2) Flourish
3) Boom
4) Flourish
5) Burgeon

125. What, according to the author, is the reason for the increasing inequality in the world?

A. Global inequality in education
B. Rising entrepreneurship
C. Rapid globalisation and technological changes

1) Only A
2) Only C
3) Both A and C
4) All the above
5) Other than the given options

126. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage?

I. Richest half of the world population owns as much wealth as the poorest half.
II. Global income gap between developed and developing countries is narrowing.
III. Rising inequality has a negative impact on society.

1) Both I and III
2) Both II and III
3) Only I
4) Only II
5) Only I and II

127. The author in the passage can be seen as being

1) happy about the technological advancements
2) worried about the plight of poor
3) excited about increasing entrepreneurship
4) angry with billionaires
5) None of the above

128. According to the author, why is entrepreneurship easy in rich countries?

1) Because of capital and infrastructure availability in rich countries
2) Because in rich countries the society is stagnated.
3) Because of the high-end professionalism in rich countries
4) All of the above
5) Other than the given options

129. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word 'Emulate' as used in the passage?

1) Imitate
2) Criticize
3) Regard
4) Praise
5) Watch

130. According to the passage, how is philanthropy often seen?

1) One of the best ways to lower tax bill.
2) A smart way to generate income
3) It's mere a publicity stunt.
4) A method for rapid globalisation and technological changes
5) Other than the given options

Directions (Q. 131 – 140): In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Iran is (131) free of crippling sanctions, (132) a few remain, and is open (133) business. India should make use of the opportunity. The US (134) sanctions after the overthrow of America’s puppet Shah, by the Islamic Revolution of 1979 and the hostage crisis that followed. In 2006, the UN imposed sanctions (135) Iran’s nuclear programme. (136) that Tehran has convinced the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) that it is complying with the terms of the (137) it struck with major powers last year to satisfy the world Iran has no nuclear weapons ambition, the sanctions (138) lifted and Iran’s economy will (139). The biggest beneficiary, of course, (140) Iran. But India, too, has much to gain.

131.

1) hardly
2) purely
3) surely
4) likely
5) finally

132.

1) although
2) even
3) when
4) so
5) yet

133.

1) for
2) to
3) on
4) with
5) they

134.

1) resolved
2) imposed
3) suppose
4) disposed
5) permited

135.

1) on
2) to
3) for
4) against
5) with

136.

1) right
2) now
3) present
4) nowhere
5) never

137.

1) information
2) deal
3) hope
4) examination
5) text

138.

1) has been
2) have being
3) being
4) has being
5) have been

139.

1) mashup
2) reduce up
3) open up
4) slow up
5) high up

140.

1) must be
2) been
3) never be
4) will be
5) could be

Directions (Q. 141–145): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error' the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

141. Teachers have been 1)/legally oblige 2)/to report any 3)/suspected extremist behaviour. 4)/ No error 5)

142. The boy’s family 1)/ said that 2)/they were left shocked 3)/for the incident. 4)/ No error 5)

143. Before a meaningful comparison 1)/ can be made, 2)/the data 3)/needs to be normalised. 4)/ No error 5)

144. He immediately quit the job 1)/in which 2)/neither the skill 3)/ nor knowledge were required. 4)/ No error 5)

145. The latest attack 1)/adds a dangerous 2)/new complication 3)/with local journalists. 4)/ No error 5)

Directions (Q. 146–150): In each sentence below, a word/ group of words has been printed in bold. From the five answer choices given below each sentence, pick out the one which can substitute the bold word/group of words correctly, without changing the meaning of the sentence.

146. Every now and than, a small news item appears about the death of workers engaged in cleaning sewer lines.

1) every than and that
2) every time and then
3) every then and now
4) every now and then
5) No correction required

147. A bill to bring four institutes of information technology in the ambit of a single authority and help students get degrees was today passed by Parliament.

1) to the ambit
2) under the ambit
3) from this ambit
4) the ambit
5) No correction required

148. In the first time at international cricket, an on-field umpire was seen wearing a helmet, while officiating in a match.

1) For the first time in
2) On the first time of
3) in the first time of
4) On the first time in
5) No correction required

149. She shook hand with her after receiving the reward.

1) shook her hand
2) meet her
3) shook hands with her
4) shake hands with her
5) No correction required

150. In a matter of few minutes, we come with what will be the result of the match.

1) came to know
2) come to be known
3) come to be know
4) were coming to know
5) No correction required

Directions (Q. 151–155): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.

151. The defence ministry will now ______ the recommendations made by the committee to ______ which ones should be accepted.

1) prove, believe
2) answer, vision
3) preview, watch
4) review, see
5) view, feel

152. A laser wall is a mechanism ______ objects passing the line of sight _______ the laser source and the detector.

1) to protect, among
2) to detect, between
3) to measure, along
4) to assess, behind
5) to guess, in

153. A global ______, sparked by worries ______ a slowdown in China, spooked investors.

1) sell off, over
2) sell off, above
3) turn off, below
4) turn of, over
5) peak off, high

154. The investigating agency cannot seize documents______ not in any way________ to the case.

1) for what, important
2) which is, attached
3) that is, involved
4) for it, confirmed
5) which are, related

155. It’s not very _____ that you have a significant _____ of spectators coming over to watch a match.

1) even, quantity
2) easy, bunch
3) often, number
4) common, audience
5) possible, crowd
5) increase, awareness

Directions (Q. 156–160) : Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

( A) The combination of a smartphone’s intuitive interface and thousands of apps for iPhones and Androids aimed at young children has fast made it a child’s favorite plaything.
(B) Today, our computers are both linked and, in many cases, mobile.
(C) Fifteen years ago, most home computers weren’t even linked to the Internet.
(D) And as the smartphone market continues to explode, more parents are passing their phones to their offspring as tools to educate or gadgets to pacify.
(E) With more than five billion mobile users worldwide and a massive global network, small mobile devices with significant computing power have become a routine part of day-to-day life for people of all ages.

156.Which of the following would be the 'SECOND' sentence after rearrangement?

1) A
2) C
3) D
4) B
5) E

157.Which of the following would be the 'LAST (FIFTH)' sentence after rearrangement?

1) D
2) E
3) A
4) B
5) C

158.Which of the following would be the 'FOURTH' sentence after rearrangement?

1) C
2) E
3) A
4) D
5) B

159.Which of the following would be the 'THIRD' sentence after rearrangement?

1) E
2) B
3) A
4) D
5) C

160.Which of the following would be the 'FIRST' sentence after rearrangement?

1) B
2) C
3) D
4) E
5) A

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (03 May 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (03 May 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following is not a tributary to Ganga?

1. Gomti
2. Gandak
3. Ghaghara
4. Betwa

Q.2- Which of the following statements is correct regarding International Union for Conservation of Nature(IUCN)?

1. IUCN is the world’s oldest and largest global environmental organisation
2. The Union’s headquarters are located in Gland, near Geneva, in Switzerland.

A. IUCN is helping is building worlds largest telescope
B. IUCN is science project studying the oil and gas exploration site in Arctic Ocean.
C. IUCN, helps the world find pragmatic solutions to our most pressing environment and development challenges.
D. None

Q.3- Permanent court of Arbitration seat is present at which of the following cities?

A. Hague
B. New York
C. Washington
D. Manila

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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(Paper) SBI Junior Associates Exam - 2009 "Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge"

(Paper) SBI Junior Associates (Customer Support & Sales) & Junior Agricultural Associates Exam - 2009

Subject: Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge

161. To move to the beginning of a line of text, press the key.

(1) pageup
(2) a
(3) home
(4) enter
(5) None of these

162. Computers use the number system to store data and perform calculations.

(1) binary
(2) octal
(3) decimal
(4) hexadecimal
(5) None of these

163. Physical components that make computer are known as

(1) Operating System
(2) Software
(3) Hardware
(4) Web Browsers
(5) None of these

164. Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task ?

(1) function
(2) space bar
(3) arrow
(4) control
(5) None of these

165. Ctrl, Shift and Alt are called keys.

(1) modifier
(2) function
(3) alphanumeric
(4) adjustment
(5) None of these

166. The pattern of printed lines on most products are called .

(1) prices
(2) OCR
(3) scanners
(4) barcodes
(5) None of these

167. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called ?

(1) RAM
(2) ROM
(3) CPU
(4) CD-ROM
(5) None of these

168. Various applications and documents are represented on the Windows desktop by .

(1) Symbols
(2) Labels
(3) Graphs
(4) Icons
(5) None of these

169. All the deleted files go to .

(1) Recycle Bin
(2) Task Bar
(3) Tool Bar
(4) My Computer
(5) None of these

170. In MlCR, C stands for .

(1) Code
(2) Colour
(3) Computer
(4) Character
(5) None of these

171. E-mail addresses separate the user name from the ISP using the symbol.

(1) &
(2) @
(3) %
(4) *
(5) None of these

172. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is .

(1) multiprogramming
(2) multitasking
(3) time-sharing
(4) rrmlti proteasing
(5) None of these

173. What type of device is a computer printer ?

(I) Input
(2) Output
(3) Software
(4) Storage
(5) None of these

174. The contents of are lost when the computer turns off.

(1) storage
(2) input
(3)'output
(4) memory
(5) None of these

175. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test .

(1) Ram test
(2) disk drive test
(3) memory test
(4) power-on-self-test
(5) None of these

176. When you save to this, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off

(1) RAM
(2) motherboard
(3) secondary storage device
(4) primary storage device
(5) None of these

177. For creating a document, you use command at File Menu.

(1) Open
(2) Close
(3) New
(4) Save
(5) None of these

178. "Making a Call" means .

(1) Calling on a prospective customer
(2) Explaining product details
(3) Negotiating a deal
(4) Arguing with a customer
(5) All of these

179. With a CD you can .

(1) Read
(2) Write
(3) Read and Write
(4) Either Read or Write
(5) None of these

180. "Relationship" is marketing means .

(1) Relation between salesperson
(2) Relation between buyer and seller
(3) Relation between company and consumer
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

181. Marketing of services is known as- .

(1) Transaction marketing
(2) Door-to-door marketing
(3) Relationship marketing
(4) internal marketing
(5) All of these

182. "Referrals" means .

(1) Reference books
(2) Ix;ads provided by operation staff
(3) Sales persons
(4) Front-office staff
(5) Management

183. "Conversion" in sales language means .

(1) converting a buyer into a seller
(2) converting a seller into a buyer
(3) converting a prospect into a client
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

184. Bank marketing is same as .

(1) Transaction marketing
(2) Service marketing
(3) Indoor marketing
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

185. Leads can be provided by .

(1) Friends and relatives
(2) Websites
(3) Directories
(4) Colleagues
(5) All of these

186. One of the following is not a sales activity. Find the same.

(1) Identifying leads
(2) Malting a call
(3) Presentation
(4) Negotiation
(5) After-sales service

187. Selling is a function undertaken by

(1) All the sales persons
(2) All the employees
(3) Entire organisation
(4) Outsourced agencies
(5) All of these

188. Find the correct statement—

(1) Selling is same as marketing
(2) Selling is more than marketing
(3) Selling is part of marketing
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

189. You can start Microsoft Word by using button.

(1) New
(2) Start
(3) Program
(4) Control Panel
(5) None of these

190. In Excel, Charts are created using which option ?

(1) Chart Wizard
(2) Pivot Table
(3) Pie Chart
(4) Bar Chart
(5) None of these

191. Marketing is a function undertaken by .

(1) AllDSA's
(2) All front-office staff
(3) Whole organisation
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

192. Non-product selling menas .

(1) selling variety of products
(2) selling only one product
(3) selling seasonal products
(4) selling services
(5) All of these

193. A vision statements is .

(1) not required for established companies
(2) not required due to competition
(3) not required as no one understands them
(4) a long term Inspiration
(5) None of these

194. Effective Bank Marketing requires.

(1) proper pricing
(2) customized products
(3) simple procedures
(4) market research
(5) All of these

195. Direct Marketing means .

(1) Face-to-face marketing
(2) Melas
(3) Seminars
(4) Indoor marketing
(5) Online marketing

196. Indirect Marketing means .

(1) Marketing by non-sales persons
(2) Market Survey
(3) Market Research
(4) Advertisements
(5) All of these

197. Marketing is - Find the wrong option.

(1) an ancient concept
(2) a modern need
(3) a continuous affair
(4) a team effort
(5) a direct need for survival

198. Customer's Relationship with the Bank is influenced by .

(1) Customers' attitudes
(2) Attitudes of Bank staff
(3) Interest rates of the Bank
(4) Attitudes of sales persons
(5) All of these

199. Marketing is best suited in _.

(1) Buyer's market
(2) Sellers' market
(3) Internal marketing
(4) Direct marketing
(5) None of these

200. Delivery channels other than Bank counters are .

(1) ATM's
(2) Internet Banking
(3) Mobile Banking ' '
(4) Tele banking
(5) All of these

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SBI PO Exam Solved Paper : Reasoning Ability Held on 18-04-2010

Solved Paper : SBI PO Exam - 2010

Reasoning Ability (Held on 18-4-2010)

1. In a certain code language ‘how many goals scored’ is written as ‘5 3 9 7’; ‘many more matches’ is written as ‘9 8 2’ and ‘he scored five’ is written as ‘1 6 3’. How is ‘goals’ written in that code language ?

(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 5 or 7
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

2. In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER written in that code?

(1) RMNBSFEJ (2) BNMRSFEJ
(3) RMNBJEFS (4) TOPDQDCH
(5) None of these

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI using each letter only once in each word ?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two
(4) Three (5) More than three

4. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different weight, D is heavier than only A and C is lighter than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest ?

(1) B (2) E (3) C
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

5. Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and each even digit is substituted by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the, third digit from the left end after the rearrangement ?

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5
(4) 6 (5) None of these

6. Pratap corrrectly remembers that his mother’s birthday is before twenty third April but after Nineteenth April, whert as his sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is not on or after twenty second April. On which day in April is definitely their mother’s birthday ?

(1) Twentieth (2) Twenty-first
(3) Twentieth or twenty-first
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

7. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 meters he took a right turn and walked 30 meters. He then took a right turn and walked 100 meters. He again took a right turn and walked 30 meters and stopped. How far and in which direction was he from the starting point?

(1) 50 meters South (2) 150 meters North
(3) 180 meters East (4) 50 meters North
(5) None of these

8. If’–‘ means ‘+’; ‘–’means ‘×’; ‘×’ means ‘÷’and ‘+’means ‘–’; then 15 – 8 × 6 + 12 + 4 = ?

(1) 20 (2) 28 (3)
(4) 2 3 (5) None of these

9. Town D is towards East of town F. Town B is towards North of town D. Town H is towards South of town B. Towards which direction is town H from town F ?

(1) East (2) South-East
(3) North-East (4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEARCHES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two
(4) Three (5) More than three

Direction: In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III 8s IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11. Statements: All cups are bottles. Some bottles are jugs. No jug is plate. Some plates are tables.

Conclusions:

I. Some tables are bottles.
II. Some plates are cups.
III. No table is bottle.
IV. Some jugs are cups.

(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows (4) Only IV follows
(5) Only either I or III follows

12. Statements: Some chairs are handles. All handles are pots. All pots are mats. Some mats are buses.

Conclusions:

I. Some buses are handles.
II. Some mats are chairs.
III. No bus is handle.
IV. Some mats are handles.

(1) Only I, II and IV follow
(2) Only II, III and IV follow
(3) Only either I or III and II follow
(4) Only either I or III and IV follow
(5) Only either I or III and II and IV follow

13. Statements: All birds are horses. All horses are tigers. Some tigers are lions. Some lions are monkeys.

Conclusions:

I. Some tigers are horses.
II. Some monkeys are birds.
III. Some tigers are birds.
IV. Some monkeys are horses.

(1) Only I and III follow
(2) Only I, II and III follow
(3) Only II, III and IV follow
(4) All I, II, III and IV follow
(5) None of these

14. Statements: Some benches are walls. All walls are houses. Some houses are jungles. All jungles are roads.

Conclusions:

I. Some roads are benches.
II. Some jungles are walls.
III. Some houses are benches.
IV. Some roads are houses.

(1) Only land II follow
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only III and IV follow
(4) Only II, III and IV follow
(5) None of these

15. Statements: Some sticks are lamps. Some flowers are lamps. Some lamps are dresses. All dresses are shirts.

Conclusions:

I. Some shirts are sticks.
II. Some shirts are flowers.
III. Some flowers are sticks.
IV. Some dresses are sticks.

(1) None follows (2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows
(5) Only IV follows

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight employees of an organization working in three departments viz. Personnel, Administration and Marketing with not more than three of them in any department. Each of them has a different choice of sports from football, cricket, volleyball, badminton, lawn tennis, basketball, hockey and table tennis not necessarily in the same order.

D works in Administration and does not like either football or cricket. F works in Personnel with only A who likes table tennis. Eand H do not work in the same department as D. C likes hockey and does not work in marketing. G does not work in administration and does not like either cricket or badminton. One of those who work in administration likes football. The one who likes volleyball works in personnel. None of those who work in administration likes either badminton or lawn tennis. H does not like cricket.

16. Which of the following groups of employees work in Administration department ?

(1) EGH (2) AF (3) BCD
(4) BGD (5) Data inadequate

17. In which department does E work ?

(1) Personnel (2) Marketing
(3) Administration (4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

18. Which of the following combinations of employee-department-favourite sport is correct?

(1) E – Administration – Cricket
(2) F – Personnel – Lawn Tennis
(3) H – Marketing – Lawn Tennis
(4) B – Administration – Table Tennis
(5) None of these

19. What is E’s favourite sport ?

(1) Cricket (2) Badminton
(3) Basketball (4) Lawn Tennis
(5) None of these

20. What is G’s favourite sport ?

(1) Cricket (2) Badminton
(3) Basketball (4) Lawn Tennis
(5) None of these

Direction: In the following questions, the symbols # and S are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.

P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to ‘Q
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the four conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

21. Statements: H @ T, T # F, F d E, E V

Conclusions:

I. V $ F

II. E @ T
III. H @ V IV. T # V

(1) Only I, II and III are true
(2) Only I, II and IV are true
(3) Only II, III and IV are true
(4) Only I, III and IV are true
(5) All I, II, III and IV are true

22. Statements: D#R, RK, K@F, F$J

Conclusions:

 I. J # R

II. J # K
III. R # F IV. K @ D

(1) Only I, II and III are true
(2) Only II, III and IV are true
(3) Only I, III and IV are true
(4) All I, II, III and IV are true
(5) None of these

23. Statements: N d B, B $ W, W # H, H M

Conclusions :

I. M @ W II. H @ N III. W S N IV. W# N

(1) Only I is true (2) Only III is true
(3) Only IV is true
(4) Only either III or IV is true
(5) Only either III or IV and I are true

24. Statements: R D, D $ J, J # M, M @ K

Conclusions:

 I. K # J II. D @ M
III. R # M
IV. D @ K

(1) None is true (2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true (4) Only III is true
(5) Only IV is true

25. Statements: M $ K, K @ N, N R, R # W

Conclusions:

I. W @ K II. M $ R III. K @ W
IV. M @ N

(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only I, II and III are true
(3) Only III and IV are true
(4) Only II, III and IV are true
(5) None of these

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below

Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-Credit in a bank. The candidate must—

(i) be a graduate in any discipline with atleast 60 percent marks.
(ii) have post qualification work experience of at least ten years in the Advances Section of a bank.
(iii) be at least 30 years and not more than 40 years as on 1.4.2010. (iv) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the group discussion. (v) have secured at least 50 percent marks in interview. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT—

(A) at (i) above but has secured at least 50 percent marks in graduation and at least 60 percent marks in post graduation in any discipline the case is to be referred to the General Manager Advances.
(B) at (ii) above but has total post qualification work experience of at least seven years out of which at least three years as Manager-Credit in a bank, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

In each question below details of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.04.2010.

Give answer

(1) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
(2) if the case is to be referred to General Manager-Advances.
(3) if the data are inadequate to take a decision.
(4) if the candidate is not to be selected.
(5) if the candidate is to be selected.

26. Shobha Gupta has secured 50 percent marks in the Interview and 40 percent marks in the Group Discussion. She has been working for the past eight years out of which four years as Manager-Credit in a bank after completing her B. A. degree with 60 percent marks. She was born on 12th September 1978.

27. Rohan Maskare was born on 8th March 1974. He has been working in a bank for the past twelve years after completing his B.Com. degree with 70 percent marks. He has secured 50 percent marks in both the Group Discussion and the Interview.

28. Prakash Gokhale was born on 4th August 1977. He has secured 65 percent marks in. post graduation and 58 percent marks in graduation. He has been working for the past ten years in the Advances Department of a bank after completing his post graduation. He has secured 45 percent marks in the Group Discussion and 50 percent marks in the Interview.

29. Sudha Mehrotra has been working in the Advances department of a bank for the past twelve years after completing her B.Com. degree with 60 percent marks. She has secured 50 percent marks in the Group Discussion and 40 percent marks in the Interview. She was born on 15th February 1972.

30. Amit Narayan was born on 28th May 1974. He has been working in the Advances department of a bank for the past eleven years after completing his B.Sc. degree with 65 percent marks. He has secured 55 percent marks in the Group discussion and 50 percent marks in the interview.

Direcion: In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered (A), (B) and (C). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for. improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

31. Statement : A heavy unseasonal downpour during tho last two days has paralysed the, normal life in the state in which five persons were killed but this has provided a huge relief to the problem of acute water crisis in the state.

Courses of action:

(A) The state government should set up a committee to review the alarming situation.
(B) The state government should immediately remove all the restrictions, on use of potable water in all the major cities in the state.
(C) The state government should send relief supplies to all the affected areas in the state.

(1) None (2) Only (A)
(3) Only (B) and (C) (4) Only (C)
(5) All (A), (B), (C)

32. Statement: A large private bank has decided to retrench one-third of its employees in view of the huge losses incurred by it during the past three quarters.

Courses of action:

(A) The Govt. should issue a notification to general public to immediately: stop all transactions with the bank.
(B) The Govt. should direct the bank to refrain from retrenching its employees.
(C) The Govt. should ask the central bank of the country to initiate an enquiry into the bank’s activities and submit its report.

(1) None (2) Only (A)
(3) Only (B) (4) Only (C)
(5) Only (A) and (C)

33. Statement: Many political activists have decided to stage demonstrations and block traffic movement in the city during peak hours to protest against the steep rise in prices of essential commodities.

Courses of action:

(A) The Govt. should immediately ban all forms of agitations in the country.
(B) The police authority of the city should deploy additional forces all over the city to help traffic movement in the city.
(C) The state administration should carry out preventive arrests of the known criminals staying in the city.

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C) (4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) None of these

34. Statement: The school dropout rate in many districts in the state has increased sharply during the last few years as the parents of these children make them work in the fields owned by others to earn enough for them to get at least one meal a day.

Courses of action:

(A) The Govt. should put up a mechanism to provide foodgrains to the poor people in these districts through public distribution system to encourage the parents to send their wards to school.
(B) The Govt. should close down some of these schools in the district and deploy the teachers of these schools to nearby schools and also ask remaining students to join these schools.
(C) Govt. should issue arrest warrants for all the parents who force their children to work in fields instead of attending classes.

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C) (4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) None of these

35. Statement: One aspirant was killed due to stampede while participating in a recruitment drive of police constables.

Courses of action:

(A) The officials incharge of the recruitment process should immediately be suspended.
(B) A team of officials should be asked to find out the circumstances which led to the death of the aspirant and submit its report within a week.
(C) The Govt. should ask the home department to stagger the number of aspirants over more number of days to avoid such incidents in future.

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C) (4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) None of these

36. Effect: Majority of the employees of the ailing organization opted for voluntary retirement scheme and left the organization with all their retirement benefits within a fortnight of launching the scheme.

Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above effect ?

(1) The company has been making huge losses for the past five years and is unable to pay salary to its employees in time.
(2) The management of the company made huge personal gains through unlawful activities.
(3) One of the competitors of the company went bankrupt last year.
(4) The company owns large tracts of land in the state which will fetch huge sum to its owners.
(5) None of these

37. Statement: Most of the companies in IT and ITES sectors in India have started hiring from engineering college campuses this year and are likely to recruit much more than yearly recruitment of the earlier years.

Which of the following substantiates the facts stated in the above statement ?

(1) IT and ITES are the only sectors in India which are hiring from engineering college campuses.
(2) Govt. has stepped up recruitment activities after a gap of five years.
(3) The IT and ITES companies have now decided to vi sit the engineering college campuses for tier II cities in India as well.
(4) Availability of qualified engineers will substantially in crease in the near future.
(5) None of these

38. Cause: The Govt. has recently increased its taxes or, petrol and diesel by about 10 percent. Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above cause ?

(1) The petroleum companies will reduce the prices of petrol and diesel by about 10 percent.
(3) The petroleum companies will increase the prices of petrol and diesel by about 5 percent.
(4) The petrol pumps will stop selling petrol and diesel till the taxes are rolled back by the govt.
(5) None of these

39. Statement : The Govt. has decided to instruct the banks to open new branches in such a way that there is one branch of any of the banks in every village of population 1000 and above or a cluster of villages with population less than 1000 to provide banking services to all the citizens. Which of the following will weaken the step taken by the Govt. ?

(1) The private sector banks in India have stepped up their branch expansion activities in rural India.
(2) Many Govt. owned banks have surplus manpower in its urban branches.
(3) All the banks including those in private sector will follow the govt. directive.
(4) Large number of branches of many Govt. owned banks in the rural areas are making huge losses every year due to lack of adequate business activities.
(5) None of these

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

The centre reportedly wants to continue providing subsidy to consumers for cooking gas and kerosene for five more years. This is not good news from the point of view of reining in the fiscal deficit. Mounting subventions for subsidies means diversion of savings by the government from investment to consumption, raising the cost of capital in the process. The government must cut expenditure on subsidies to create more fiscal space for investments in both physical and social infrastructure. It should outline a plan for comprehensive reform in major subsidies including petroleum, food and fertilizers and set goal posts.

40. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

(1) Subsidy provided by the government under various heads to the citizen increases the cost of capital.
(2) Govt. is unable to withdraw subsidies provided to various items.
(3) Govt. subsidy on kerosene is purely a political decision.
(4) Govt. does not have enough resources to continue providing subsidy on petroleum products.
(5) None of these

41. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

(1) India’s fiscal deficit is negligible in Comparison to other emerging economies in the world.
(2) Subsidy on food and fertilizers are essential for growth of Indian economy.
(3) Reform in financial sector will weaken India’s position in the international arena.
(4) Gradual withdrawal of subsidy is essential for effectively managing fiscal deficit in India.
(5) None of these

42. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

(1) People in India may not be able to pay more for petroleum products.
(2) Many people in India are rich enough to buy petroleum products at market cost.
(3) Govt. may not be able to create more infrastructural facilities if the present level of subsidy continues for a longer time.
(4) Govt. of India has sought assistance from international financial organizations for its infrastructural projects
(5) None of these

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Poverty measurement is an unsettled issue, both conceptually and methodologically. Since poverty is a process as well as an outcome; many come out of it while others may be falling into it. The net effect of these two parallel processes is a proportion commonly identified as the ‘head count ratio’, but these ratios hide the fundamental dynamism that characterizes poverty in practice. The most recent poverty reestimates by an expert group has also missed the crucial dynamism. In a study conducted on 13,000 households which represented the crucial dynamism. In a study conducted on 13,000 households which represented the entire country in 1993-94 and again on 2004-05, it was found that in the ten-year period 18.2% rural population moved out of poverty whereas another 22.1 % fell into it over this period. This net increase of about four percentage points was seen to have a considerable variation across states and regions.

43. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

(1) Accurate estimates of number of people living below poverty line in India is possible to be made.
(2) Many expert groups in India are not interested to measure poverty objectively.
(3) Process of poverty measurement needs to take into account various factors to tackle its dynamic nature.
(4) People living below poverty line remain in that position for a very long time.
(5) None of these

44. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

(1) It may not be possible to have an accurate poverty measurement in India.
(2) Level of poverty in India is static over the years.
(3) Researchers avoid making conclusions on poverty measurement data in India.
(4) Govt. of India has a mechanism to measure level of poverty effectively and accurately.
(5) None of these

45. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

(1) Poverty measurement tools in India are outdated.
(2) Increase in number of persons falling into poverty varies considerably across the country over a period of time.
(3) Govt. of India has stopped measuring poverty related studies.
(4) People living in rural areas are more susceptible to fall into poverty over the time.
(5) None of these

Direction: In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

Answer

1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2)
11. (5) 12. (5) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (4)
21. (5) 22. (5) 23. (5) 24. (1) 25. (5) 26. (1) 27. (5) 28. (2) 29. (4) 30. (5)
31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (4) 36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (5) 39. (3) 40. (2)
41. (4) 42. (3) 43. (3) 44. (1) 45. (5) 46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (1) 50. (5)

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (02 May 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (02 May 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Chahabar port is located in which of the following countries?

1. Kuwait
2. Bahrain
3. Qatar
4. Iran

Q.2- Consider the following statements:

1. In India, coal mining makes 40% of the total mining.
2. More than 70 percent coal is used for power sector.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

A. 1 only
B. Both
C. 2 only
D. None

Q.3- Recently Vijender Singh beaten which of the following boxers?

A. MatiouzeRoyer
B. Floyd mayweather
C. Tyson fury
D. None of the above

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (01 May 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (01 May 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following lakes is/ are correctly matched?

1. Lake Pichola. : Rajasthan
2. Lake Bhimtal. : Uttarakhand
3. Chandubi Lake. : Arunachal Pradesh
4. Pangong lake. : Jammu and Kashmir

Q.2- Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign-exchange reserves?

A. Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
B. Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
C. Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
D. Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank

Q.3- Which of the following schemes is incorrectly matched with their ministry?

A. Deen dayal Upadhyaya gram Jyoti : Power
B. Digital India. : Communications and Information Technology
C. Gram in Bhandaran Yojana : Finance
D. IRDP. : Rural Development

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(Paper) SBI Junior Associates Exam - 2009 "Reasoning Ability"

(Paper) SBI Junior Associates (Customer Support & Sales) & Junior Agricultural Associates Exam - 2009

Subject: Reasoning Ability

121. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BRIGHTEN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

122. In a certain code FIGHT is writ ten as '39%@4' and TEARS is written as '458(F)*'. How is STAGE written in that code ?

(1) 4835
(2) *48%5
(3) 84%5
(4) *48@5
(5) None of these

123. Among A, B, C, D and E each reaching school at a different time, C reaches before D and A and only after 3. E is not the last to reach school. Who among them

(1) D
(2) A
(3) C
(4) Data Insufficient
(5) None of these

(1) M D 1
(2) 4 H P
(3) 3 W T
(4) Q 5 A
(5) J % $

139. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter ?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

140. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the eleventh from the left end ?

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) N
(4) ©
(5) None of these

141. What should come next in the following series based on the above arrangement ?

F 31 DP4 TWN ?

(1) 5 B I
(2) Q E I
(3) Q E B
(4) Q 5 B
(5) None of these

142. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a consonant ?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

143. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the seventeenth from the right end of the above arrangement ?

(1) E
(2) D
(3) #
(4) I
(5) None of these

Directions (144-149): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

144. Statements:

All telephones are wires.
All wires are tents.
All tents are cans.

Conclusions:

I. Some cans are wires.
II. Some tents are telephones.
III. Some cans are telephones.

(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only II and III follow
(3) Only I and III follow
(4) All I, II and III follow
(5) None of these

145. Statements:

Some cards are pictures.
All pictures are paints.
Some paints are nails.

Conclusions:

I. Some paints are cards.
II. Some nails are cards.
III. Some nails are pictures.

(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow

146. Statements:

All walls are glasses.
No glass is table.
Some tables are windows.

Conclusions:

I. Some windows are walls.
II. Some tables are walls.
III. Some windows glasses.

(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow

147. Statements:

All baskets are poles.
Some poles are lamps.
All lamps are roads.

Conclusions:

I. Some lamps are baskets.
II. Some roads are poles.
III. Some lamps are poles.

(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) All I, II and III follow
(5) None of these

148. Statements:

Some leaves are baskets.
Some baskets are flowers.
Some flowers are lakes.

Conclusions :

I. Some lakes are baskets.
II. Some flowers are lakes.
III. No lake is basket.

(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only either I or III follows
(5) None of these

149. Statements:

AH rtcttiircs are bands.
Some bands are chairs.
Some chairs are tables.

Conclusions :

I. Some tables are bands.
II. Some chairs are pictures.
III. Some tables are pictures.

(1) None follows
(2) Only 1 follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) Only III follows

Directions (150-155) : In the following questions, the symbols @, 8, k, $ and % are used with the following meanings as illustrated below :

'P 8 Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P * Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.
'P % Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

150. Statements:

B % N, N 8 F, F H

Conclusions :

I. H $ N
II. F % B
III. B % H

(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only I and III are true
(3) Only II and III are true
(4) None is true
(5) All I, II and III are true

151. Statements:

W 8 F, F % K, K $ M

Conclusions :

I. M % F
II. M 8 F
III. W $ K

(1) Only I is true
(2) Only II true
(3) Only either I or II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) None of these

Directions (156 - 160): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

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SBI PO Exam Solved Paper : English Langauge Held on 18-04-2010

Solved Paper : SBI PO Exam - 2010

ENGLISH LANGUAGE (Held on 18-4-2010)

Direction : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printec in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Governments have traditionally equated economic progress with steel mills and cement factories. While urban centers thrive and city dwellers get rich, hundreds of millions of farmers remain mired in poverty. However, fears of food shortages, a rethinking of antipoverty priorities and the crushing recession in 2008 are causing a dramatic shift in world economic policy in favour of greater support for agriculture.

The last time when the world’s farmers felt such love was in the 470s. At that time, as food prices spiked, there was real concern that the world was facing a crisis in which the planet was simply unable to produce enough grain and meat for an expanding population. Governments across the developing world and international aid organisations plowed investment into agriculture in the early 470s, while technological breakthroughs, like high­yield strains of important food crops, boosted production. The result was the Green Revolution and food production exploded.
But the Green Revolution became a victim of its own success. Food prices plunged by some 60% by the late 480s from their peak in the mid- 470s. Policymakers and aid workers turned their attention to the poor’s other pressing needs, such as health care and education. Farming got starved of resources and investment. By 2004, aid directed at agriculture sank to 3.5% and “Agriculture lost its glitter.” Also, as consumers in high-growth giants such as China and India became wealthier, they began eating more meat, so grain once used for human consumption got diverted to beef up livestock. By early 2008, panicked buying by importing countries and restrictions slapped on grain exports by some big producers helped drive prices upto heights not seen for three decades. Making matters worse, land and resources got reallocated to produce cash crops such as biofuels and the result was that voluminous reserves of grain evaporated. Protests broke out across the emerging world and fierce food riots toppled governments.

This spurred global leaders into action. This made them aware that food security is one of the fundamental issues in the world that has to be dealt with in order to maintain administrative and political stability. This also spurred the U.S. which traditionally provisioned food aid from American grain surpluses to help needy nations, to move towards investing in farm sectors around the globe to boost productivity. This move helped countries become more productive for themselves and be in a better position to feed their own people.

Africa, which missed out on the first Green Revolution due to poor policy and limited resources, also witnessed a ‘change’. Swayed by the success of East Asia, the primary poverty­fighting method favoured by many policymakers in Africa was to get farmers off their farms and into modern jobs in factories and urban centers. But that strategy proved to be highly insufficient. Income levels in the countryside badly trailed those in cities while the FAO estimated that the number of poor going hungry in 2009 reached an all time high at more than one billion.

In India on the other hand, with only 40% of its farmland irrigated, entire economic boom currently underway is held hostage by the unpredictable monsoon. With much of India’s farming areas suffering from drought this year, the government will have a tough time meeting its economic growth targets. In a report, Goldman Sachs predicted that if this year too receives weak rains, it could cause agriculture to contract by 2% this fiscal year, making the government’s 7% GDP-growth target look “a bit rich”. Another green revolution is the need of the hour and to make it a reality, the global community still has much backbreaking farm work to do.

1. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage

(1) Criticising developed countries for not bolstering economic growth in poor nations
(2) Analysing the disadvantages of the Green Revolution
(3) Persuading experts that a strong economy depends on industrialization and not agriculture
(4) Making a case for the international society to engineer a second Green Revolution
(5) Rationalising the faulty agriculture policies of emerging countries

2. Which of the following is an adverse impact of the Green Revolution ?

(1) Unchecked crop yields resulted in large tracts of land becoming barren
(2) Withdrawal of fiscal impetus from agriculture to other sectors
(3) Farmers began soliciting government subsidies for their produce
(4) Farmers rioted as food prices fell so low that they could not make ends meet
(5) None of these

3. What is the author trying to convey through the phrase “making the government’s 7% GDP growth target look “a bit rich” ?

(1) India is unlikely to achieve the targeted growth rate
(2) Allocation of funds to agriculture has raised India’s chances of having a high GDP
(3) Agricultural growth has artificially inflated India’s GDP and such growth is not real
(4) India is likely to rave one of the highest GDP growth rates
(5) A large portion of India’s GDP is contributed by agriculture

4. Which of the following factors was/were responsible for the neglect of the farming sector after the green revolution ?

(A) Steel and cement sectors generated more revenue for the government as compared to agriculture.
(B) Large scale protests against favouring agriculture at the cost of other important sectors such as education and healthcare.
(C) Attention of policy makers and aid organizations was diverted from agriculture to other sectors.
(1) None (2) Only (C)
(3) Only (B) & (C) (4) Only (A) 8s (B)
(5) All (A), (B) & (C)

5. What prompted leaders throughout the world to take action to boost the agriculture sector in 2008?

(1) Coercive tactics by the U.S. which restricted food aid to poor nations
(2) The realization of the link between food security and political stability
(3) Awareness that performance in agriculture is necessary in order to achieve the targeted GDP
(4) Reports that high-growth countries like China and India were boosting their agriculture sectors to capture the international markets
(5) Their desire to influence developing nations to slow down their industrial development.

6. What motivated the U.S. to focus on investing in agriculture across the globe ?

(1) To make developing countries become more reliant on U.S. aid
(2) To ensure grain surpluses so that the U.S. had no need to import food
(3) To make those countries more self sufficient to whom it previously provided food
(4) To establish itself in the market before the high-growth giants such as India and China could establish themselves
(5) None of these

7. What impact did the economic recession of 2008 have on agriculture ?

(1) Governments equated economic stability with industrial development and shifted away from agriculture
(2) Lack of implementation of several innovative agriculture programmes owing to shortage of funds
(3) It prompted increased investment and interest in agriculture
(4) The GDP as targeted by India was never achieved because of losses in agriculture
(5) None of these

8. What encouraged African policymakers to focus on urban jobs ?

(1) Misapprehension that it would alleviate poverty as it did in other countries
(2) Rural development outstripped urban development in many parts of Africa
(3) Breaking out of protests in the country and the fear that the government would topple
(4) Blind imitation of western models of development
(5) None of these

9. Which of the following had contributed to exorbitant food prices in 2008 ?

(A) Hoarding of food stocks by local wholesalers which inadvertently created a food shortage.
(B) Export of foodgrains was reduced by large producers.
(C) Diverting resources from cultivation of foodgrains to that of more profitable crops.

(1) None (2) Only (C)
(3) Only (B) (4) All (A), (B) & (C)
(5) Only (B) & (C)

10. Which of the following is true about the state of agriculture in India at present ?

(A) Of all the sectors, agriculture needs the highest allocation of funds.
(B) Contribution of agriculture to India’s GDP this year would depend greatly upon the monsoon rains.
(C) As India is one of the high-growth countries, it has surplus food reserves to export to other nations.

(1) Only (A) and (C) (2) Only (C)
(3) Only (B) (4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) None of these

Direction: Choose the word/group of words which is most similar it meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. STARVED

(1) Deprived (2) Disadvantaged
(3) Hungry (4) Fasting
(5) Emaciated

12. SLAPPED

(1) Beaten (2) Imposed
(3) Withdrawn (4) Avoided
(5) Persuaded

13. PLOWED

(1) Cultivated (2) Bulldozed
(3) Recovered (4) Instilled
(5) Withdrew

Direction: Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. PRESSING

(1) Unpopular (2) Undemanding
(3) Unobtrusive (4) Unsuitable
(5) Unimportant

15. EVAPORATED

(1) Absorbed (2) Accelerated
(3) Grew (4) Plunged
(5) Mismanaged

Direction: Which of the phrases (1), (2),(3) and (4) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence ? If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.

16. Refuting the rationale behind frequent agitations for formation of separate States, a recent report

(1) proved that such agitations result in loss of governmental property
(2) indicated that the formation of small states does not necessarily improve the economy
(3) suggested that only large scale agitations have been effective in bringing out desired change in the past
(4) recommended dividing large States into smaller ones to improve governance
(5) None of these

17. Overlooking the fact that water scarcity intensifies during summer,

(1) the government issued guidelines to all builders to limit their consumption to acceptable limits
(2) provision for rainwater harvesting has been made to aid irrigation in drought prone areas
(3) the water table did not improve even after receiving normal monsoon in the current year
(4) many residential areas continue to use swimming pools, wasting large quantities of water
(5) None of these

18. He has lost most of his life’s earning in the stock market but

(1) He still seems to be leading his life luxuriously and extravagantly
(2) he could not save enough to repay his enormous debts
(3) stock market is not a safe option to invest money unless done with caution
(4) experts have been suggesting to avoid investments in stock market because of its unpredictable nature
(5) None of these

19. Achieving equality for women is not only a laudable goal,

(1) political reforms are also neglected preventing women from entering legislatures and positions of power
(2) the problem is also deep rooted in the society and supported by it
(3) their empowerment is purposefully hampered by people with vested interests in all sections of the society
(4) it is also equally difficult to achieve and maintain for a long term
(5) None of these

20. _______or else they would not keep electing him year after year.

(1) The party leader gave a strong message to the mayor for improving his political style
(2) Owing to numerous scandals against the mayor, he was told to resign from the post immediately
(3) The mayor threatened the residents against filing a complaint against him
(4) The residents must really be impressed with the political style of their mayor
(5) None of these

Direction: Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. Drawing attention to the pitfalls of______solely on Uranium as a fuel for nuclear reactors, Indian scientists warned that Uranium will not last for long and thus research on Thorium as its____ must be revived.

(1) using, substitute
(2) believing, replacement
(3) depending, reserve
(4) reckoning, option
(5) relying, alternative

22. In an effort to provide ______ for higher education to all, most of the universities have been providing education without adequate infrastructure, thus churning out ______ graduates every year.

(1) chances, fresh
(2) platform, capable
(3) opportunities, unemployable
(4) prospects, eligible
(5) policy, incompetent

23. The move to allow dumping of mercury _____ an outcry from residents of the area who _____ that high levels of mercury will affect their health and destroy ecologically sensitive forest area.

(1) resulted, insist
(2) provoked, fear
(3) incited, determined
(4) activated, accept
(5) angered, believe

24. _______ has been taken against some wholesale drug dealers for dealing in surgical items without a valid license and maintaining a stock of _____ drugs.

(1) Note, overwhelming
(2) Step, impressive
(3) Execution, outdated
(4) Action, expired
(5) Lawsuit, invalid

25. Even as the _____ else where in the world are struggling to come out of recession, Indian consumers are splurging on consumer goods and to _____ this growth, companies are investing heavily in various sectors.

(1) economies, meet
(2) countries, inhibit
(3) governments, measure
(4) nations, inflict
(5) companies, counter

Direction : Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow

(A) While these disadvantages of bio fuels are serious, they are the only alternate energy source of the future and the sooner we find solutions to these problems the faster we will be able to solve the problems wo are now facing with gasoline.

(B) This fuel can also help to stimulate jobs locally since they are also much safer to handle thaw” gasoline and can thus have the potential to turnaround a global economy.

(C) These include dependence on fossil fuels for the machinery required to produce biofuel which ends up polluting as much as the burning of fossil fuels on roads and exorbitant cost of biofuels which makes it very difficult for the common man to switch to this option.

(D) This turnaround can potentially help to bring world peace and end the need to depend on foreign countries for energy requirements.

(E) Biofuels are made from plant sources and since these sources are available in abundance and can be reproduced on a massive scale they form an energy source that is potentially unlimited.

(F) However everything is not as green with the biofuels as it seems as there are numerous disadvantages involved which at times overshadow their positive impact.

26. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?

(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) E (5) F

27. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?

(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) E

28. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?

(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) E

29. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?

(1) A (2) C (3) D
(4) E (5) F

30. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?

(1) A (2) B (3) D
(4) E (5) F

Direction: Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.

31. Soon after the Tsunami had killed thousands of people along the coasts of southern India, parliament psssas a bill that proposed to set up an institutional mechanism to respond promptly to natural disasters.

(1) passed a bill that proposed
(2) passes a bill with purpose
(3) pass a bill proposing
(4) passed a bill which propose
(5) No correction required

32. Denial of wages forced scientists and teachers at the agriculture universities throughout the country to go on strike, crippling crucial research that could help the state of agriculture in the country.

(1) from going on strike
(2) which went on strike
(3) on going for a strike
(4) for going to strike
(5) No correction required

33. In an attempt to boost their profits many edible oil producing companies have been engaging themselves in propaganda against commonly used oils and. promoting exotic and expensive varieties of oils as more healthier options.

(1) as most healthiest options
(2) as less healthy option
(3) as a healthier option
(4) as much healthiest option
(5) No correction required

34. Thanks to numerous government initiatives, rural masses which was earlier unaware of the luxuries of urban ways of living are now connected to the same lifestyle.

(1) who was earlier unaware
(2) which were earlier aware
(3) who were earlier conversant
(4) who were earlier unaware
(5) No correction required

35. Over the last few months, while most industries are busy in restructuring operations, cutting costs and firing, the Indian pharmaceutical and healthcare industry was adding manpower and giving salary hikes.

(1) as many industries are
(2) while most industries were
(3) while many industries is
(4) where many industries were
(5) No correction required

Direction: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which ]’as been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

There is a considerable amount of research about the factors that make a company innovate. So is it possible to create an environment (36 ) to innovation? This is a particularly pertinent (37) for India today. Massive problems in health, education etc. (38) be solved using a conventional approach but (39) creative and innovative solutions that can ensure radical change and (40). There are several factors in India’s (41). Few countries have the rich diversity that India or its large, young population (42). While these (43) innovation policy interventions certain additional steps are also required. These include (44) investment in research and development by (45) the government and the private sector, easy transfer of technology from the academic world etc. To fulfill its promise of beng prosperous and to be at the forefront, India must be innovative.

36.

(1) stimuli
(2) conducive
(3) incentive
(4) facilitated
(5) impetus

37.

(1) objective
(2) controversy
(3) doubt
(4) question
(5) inference

38.

(1) cannot
(2) possibly
(3) should
(4) never
(5) must

39.

(1) necessary
(2) apply
(3) need
(4) consider
(5) requires

40.

(1) quantity
(2) advantages
(3) increase
(4) chaos
(5) growth

41.

(1) challenges
(2) praises
(3) favour
(4) leverage
(5) esteem

42.

(1) blessed
(2) enjoys
(3) endows
(4) prevails
(5) occurs

43.

(1) aid .
(2) jeopardise
(3) promotes
(4) endure
(5) cater

44.

(1) acute
(2) utilising
(3) restricting
(4) inspiring
(5) increased

45.

(1) both
(2) besides
(3) combining
(4) participating
(5) aid

Direction: In each of the following questions four words are given of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination, by darkening the appropriate oval in your answer sheet.

46.

(A) consent
(B) nascent
(C) emerging
(D) insecure

(1) A–C
(2) B–D
(3) B–C
(4) A–D
(5) A–B

47.

(A) elated
(B) eccentric
(C) explicit
(D) abnormal

(1) A–B
(2) B–D
(3) A–C
(4) A–D
(5) D–C

48.

(A) abundance
(B) incomparable
(C) projection
(D) plethora

(1) A–C
(2) A–B
(3) C–D
(4) B–D
(5) A–D

49.

(A) purposefully
(B) inaccurately
(C) inadvertently
(D) unchangeably

(1) A–C
(2) A–B
(3) B–C
(4) B–D
(5) A–D

50.

(A) germane
(B) generate
(C) reliable
(D) irrelevant

(1) B–D
(2) B–C
(3) A–B
(4) C–D
(5) A–D

Answer

1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (5) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (2) 2. (4) 3. (5) 4. (4) 20. (4)
21. (5) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (5) 29. (1) 30. (2)
31. (1) 32. (5) 33. (5) 34. (2) 35. (2) 36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (1) 39. (5) 40. (5)
41. (3) 42. (3) 43. (3) 44. (5) 45. (1) 46. (3) 47. (2) 48. (5) 49. (1) 50. (5)

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (30 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (30 April 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
(b) Stem cells can be used power generation.
(c) Stem cells can be used for coal purification.
(d) None of the above

Q.2- Which of the following is an indirect tax?

1. Income tax
2. Wealth tax
3. Fringe benefit tax
4. Excise tax

Q.3- Which of the following water body is at the west east coast of Australia?

1. Timur sea
2. Arafura sea
3. Gulf of carpentaria
4. Coral sea

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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(Sample Papers) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Test - 3

(Sample Papers) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Test - 3

:: Reasoning ::

Directions (Q. 1-6): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are eight persons J, K, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around the circle but not necessarily in the same order. Four of them are facing away from the centre. They have different type of currencies viz; Pound, Dollar, Rupee, Yen, Yuan, Rouble Peso and Rial but not necessarily in the same order. T is exactly between K and U. K does not have Yen or Rial. No two consecutive persons are facing in the same direction. The person who uses currency Rial third to the right of R, whose neighbours are facing away from the centre. The one who uses Rouble is immediate left of one who uses Dollar. S is exactly between J and the one who uses Rial. V is second to the right of T. One who uses Yuan is immediate right of R. The one who
uses Rupee is facing away from the centre but not the immediate neighbour of R. J does not use Rupee. W is immediate right of V but not the immediate neighbour of one who uses Rupee. V does not have Dollar as a currency. The one who uses Peso is between the one who uses Rupee and one who uses Rouble.

1. Who among the following uses the currency Pound?

1) V
2) T
3) S
4) W
5) Either 2) or 3)

2. Who is second to the right of one who uses Peso?

1) J
2) W
3) R
4) T
5) S

3. Who is exactly in the middle between J and W?

1) R
2) One who has Dollar
3) One who uses Peso
4) Both 1) and 2)
5) K

4. How many persons are there between K and J?

1) One
2) Two
3) None
4) Three
5) Other than given options

5. Four of the following five are alike in some way. Find out the odd one.

1) W
2) T
3) V
4) R
5) S

6. Which of the following match correctly?

1) S- Yuan
2) W- Peso
3) V- Rial
4) K- Pound
5) R- Dollar

Directions (Q. 7-11): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, V and W who work in different fields viz; Journalism, Literature, Music, Sport, Agriculture, Film and Peace, but not necessarily in the same order. Each got different prize for a different field, viz, Booker, Pulitzer, Grammy, Kabir Samman, Arjuna Award, Bourlog Award and Oscar but not necessarily in the same order. R is related to Journalism but got neither Booker nor Arjuna Award. S got Bourlog award and is related to literature. V and T are not related to Music and neither of them got Arjuna Award. Q is related to Sport and got Grammy Award. The one who is related to film got Oscar Award. W is related to peace and got Kabir Samman. T is not related to Agriculture.

7. T is related to which of the following field?

1) Agriculture
2) Film
3) Music
4) Sport
5) Peace

8. Which one of the following prize got by R?

1) Pulitzer
2) Oscar
3) Booker
4) Kabir Samman
5) Grammy

9. Which of the following statements is/are true?

1) S is related to Film
2) T got Pulitzer prize
3) V got Booker prize
4) W is related to Music
5) All are true

10. Who among the following got Arjuna Award?

1) T
2) V
3) P
4) R
5) S

11. Which of the following combination is true?

1) W- Peace- Kabir
2) V- Sport- Pulitzer
3) T- Music- Oscar
4) Q- Peace- Booker
5) Other than given options

Directions (Q. 12–16): In each question given below three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take all the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from all the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) If both conclusion I and II follow.

12. Statements:

All glasses are cups. No cup is spoon. All utensil are spoon.

Conclusions:

I. No glass is utensil.
II. Some glasses being spoon is a possibility.

(13–14): Statements:

No mobile is magnet. Every magnet is money. At least some money is mike.

13. Conclusions:

I. All magnet can never be mobile.
II. Some magnet being mike is a possibility.

14. Conclusions:

I. Some mike are not mobile is a possibility.
II. No money is mobile.

(15–16): Statements:

No packet is purse. All property is poster. All packet is property.

15. Conclusions:

I. All poster being packet is a possibility.
II. Some property is purse.

16. Conclusions:

I. Some property are not packet.
II. Some packet is poster.

Directions (Q. 17-21): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In a certain code language 'India exports raw material' is written as 'ln jt lp nk', 'raw material is cheaper' is written as 'pic lp rj ln', 'export of India is increasing' is written as 'jt no rj pk st', 'how material is increasing' is written as 'ht ln st rj'.

17. What is the code for 'export'?

1) nk
2) no
3) pt
4) Either 2) or 3)
5) st

18. What is the code for 'export of India' in a given code language?

1) no pt rj
2) no pt jt
3) pt jt ln
4) jn pt no
5) pt rj no

19. What does the code 'st' stands for?

1) increasing
2) exports
3) India
4) raw
5) material

20. If 'export in India' is written as 'pt pl jt' then what is the code for 'in school'?

1) pt rj
2) ln pl
3) lp pt
4) pic ln
5) pl ni

21. 'jt rj jk' is the code for which of the following?

1) India is great
2) India was ahead
3) how is India
4) is India growing
5) Either 1) or 4)

Directions (Q. 22-26): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer:

1) If only conclusion I is true.
2) If only conclusion II is true.
3) If either conclusion I or II is true.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) If both conclusion I and II are true.

Directions (Q. 27-28) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A person goes from point A towards North and walked 5 m. He then turns towards right and walked 10 m, he again turned towards north and walked 6 m. He again turned towards his left and walked 10 m to reach at point T. Then he turned towards south and walked 4 m. He then turned towards right and walked 3 m and reached at point P and then he finally turned towards south and walked 2 m to reach at point B.

27. What is the distance between point P and point T?

1) 8 m
2) 6 m
3) 10 m
4) 5 m
5) 4 m

28. What is total distance covered by person to reach at point B, and B is in which direction with respect to A?

1) 35 m, North East
2) 40 m, North West
3) 40 m, North East
4) 4 m, North East
5) 10 m, South West

29. Statement: India's car sales crossed the two-million mark in last year.

Which of the following may be the reason of increasing in sales?

1) Lower fuel prices.
2) Launching of new modals.
3) Very low prices of cars comparing other country's cars price.
4) All of the above
5) Only 1) and 2)

30. Statement: India signed Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) with Singapore.

Which of the following may be the effect of agreement?

1) This will increase the foreign reserve.
2) This will improve infrastructure of India.
3) Now FDI will increase.
4) Singapore will become the first country to invest in India.
5) Other than given options

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::

31. P, Q and R start a small business. P contributes two-fifth of the total capital invested in the business. Q contributes five-fourth of what P contributed. R contributes two-third of what Q contributed. The total profit at the end of the year was `14430. What was R's share in the profit?

1) ` 3800
2) ` 4300
3) ` 4100
4) ` 3700
5) ` 3900

32. A rectangular plot 110 m long and 90 m broad, has two concrete crossroads (of equal width) running in the middle of it. One parallel to the length and the other parallel to the breadth. The rest of the plot is used as lawn. If the area of lawn is 6624m2, what is the width of each of the cross roads?

1) 16.5 m
2) 18 m
3) 16 m
4) 20 m
5) 15 m

33. Rajat gave 38% of his money to Anubhav, Anubhav gave three-fourth of what he received to his mother. Anubhav's mother gave 5/6 th of the money she received to the grocer. Anubhav's mother is now left with ` 7410. How much money did Rajat have initially?

1) ` 156000
2) ` 146000
3) ` 165000
4) ` 166000
5) ` 158000

Directions (Q.34-38): What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

1) 16
2) 15
3) 19
4) 17
5) 18

1) 3398
2) 3158
3) 3198
4) 3558
5) 3378

36. 48.95% of 1399.98 + ? = 124.95% of 1239.95

1) 874
2) 924
3) 864
4) 868
5) 934

37. 14.95 × 18.01 × 12.45 × 14.01 = ?

1) 41250
2) 49450
3) 48350
4) 40750
5) 47250

38. 11.89 × 4.95 – 6.98 = ?

1) 62
2) 53
3) 42
4) 68
5) 59

Directions (Q. 39–43): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

39. 18, 37, 56, 94, ?, 664

1) 208
2) 216
3) 209
4) 203
5) 214

40. 21, 108, 204, 318, ?, 636

1) 469
2) 449
3) 479
4) 459
5) 489

41. 4.5, ?, 41, 171, 864, 5195

1) 24
2) 14
3) 18
4) 12
5) 32

42. 297, ?, 349, 413, 513, 657

1) 302
2) 313
3) 315
4) 319
5) 330

43. 115, 136, ?, 157, 73, 178

1) 96
2) 92
3) 94
4) 97
5) 98

44. In a 240 litres of mixture of milk and water, water is only 25%. The milkman sold 40 litres of this mixture and then he added 32.4 litre of pure milk and 7.6 litres of pure water in the remaining mixture. What is the percentage of water in the final mixture?

1) 22%
2) 20%
3) 23%
4) 28%
5) 24%

45. Anant can do10% of a piece of work in12 days. 25% of the same work can be done by Neha in 28 days. Rahul can do onethird of the same work in 32 days. Rishi can do two-fifth of the work in 24 days. Who is/are least efficient?

1) Rahul
2) Anant
3) Rishi
4) Neha
5) Cannot be determined

Directions (Q.46-50) : Study the following line graph carefully to answer the following questions given below.

46. What is the ratio of the number of years in which production of company B is below the average production in company B to that of production of company C is below the average production of company C?

1) Other than given options
2) 1 : 2
3) 2 : 3
4) 2 : 1
5) 1 : 1

47. The total production of company A in all the years is approximately what percent of the total production of company C in all the years?

1) Other than given options
2) 100.75%
3) 108%
4) 112.75%
5) 110%

48. The total production in the year 2015 of all the companies together is approximately what percent of the production of all the companies together in the year 2013?

1) 88.6%
2) 84.7%
3) 86.8%
4) 89.8%
5) Other than given options

49. In which of the year the total production taking all the companies together is second highest?

1) 2015
2) Other than given options
3) 2014
4) 2013
5) 2012

50. Which of the following shows the maximum percentage growth with respect to previous year?

1) Company A in 2012
2) Company C in 2012
3) Company A in 2014
4) Company B in 2012
5) Company B in 2013

Directions (Q.51-55) : Study the following pie chart carefully and answer the questions given below:

51. If the total number of professional in state S1 is 12000 which is 75% of that in state S2, then what is the ratio of teacher in state S2 to that in state S1?

1) 40 : 31
2) Other than given options
3) 40 : 37
4) 40 : 33
5) 41 : 33

52. If the number of Doctors in state S1 is 182 and the number of CA's in state S2 is 378, then what is the ratio of the number of professionals in state S1 to that in state S2?

1) 15 : 29
2) 13 : 19
3) 14 : 23
4) 13 : 21
5) Other than given options

53. If the total number of professionals in both the states is same, then the number of Engineers in state S1 is approximately what percent of the number of Lawyers in state S2?

1) 108%
2) 106%
3) 119%
4) Other than given options
5) 102%

54. If the total number of professional is state S2 is 18000 and the ratio of the number of professional in state S1 to that in state S2 is 5 : 6, then what is difference between the number of doctors in state S1 and that of in state S2?

1) 420
2) 408
3) 480
4) Other than given options
5) 460

55. If the number of C.A's in state S2 is 468, then what is the difference between the number of Lawyers and the number of Actors in that state?

1) 338
2) 383
3) Other than given options
4) 343
5) 348

Directions (Q. 56–60): Each of the questions given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and give answer:

1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

56. What will be the average weight of the remaining class after one student is excluded?

I. Average weight of 30 students out of 48 students in the class is 20.5 kg and that of remaining student is 28.25 kg. A student having weight more than 42 kg is excluded.
II. Average weight of a class of 48 students is 24.5 kg. A child weighing 48 kg is excluded.

57. What is the difference between the digits of a two- digit number?

I. The sum of the digits of that number is 12.
II. One-fourth of that number is 15 less than half of 54.

58. How old is Reena now?

I. Three years ago, the average age of two friends Ansh and Bhumika was 19 years.
II. With Reena joining them, now the average of three friends becomes 24 years.

59. What is the cost price of a chair?

I. The profit made when the chair is sold for ` 527 is twice as much as when it is sold for ` 476.
II. The marked price of chair is ` 432. If a discount of 25% is given on the marked price, the profit gained is 8%.

60. What is the rate of interest percent per annum?

I. An amount doubles it self in five years at simple interest.
II. Simple interest of ` 2280 is obtained in two years on an amount of ` 5700.

:: General Awareness and Current Affairs ::

61. 'National Youth day' is observed on–

1) 12th July
2) 13th February
3) 12th August
4) 12th January
5) 13th January

62. _______, Chairperson of SBI, remains the most powerful women in the Indian business sector, according to Fortune India.

1) Chanda Kochhar
2) Shikha Sharma
3) Arundhati Bhattacharya
4) Vinita Gupta
5) Jayanti Sinha

63. The Reserve Bank of India has imposed `______ Penalty on Dhanlaxmi Bank for violation of Know your customer (KYC) and Anti Money Laundering (AML) Norms.

1) 1.5 crore
2) 2.5 crore
3) 2 crore
4) 1 crore
5) 1.75 crore

64. Which Indian state has recently imposed ban on sale of thermocol plates?

1) Bihar
2) Jharkhand
3) Punjab
4) Gujarat
5) Rajasthan

65. A portion of the surplus or profit paid to the stockholders of a corporation is known as–

1) Equity
2) Dividend
3) Debentures
4) Premium
5) Lapse Ratio

66. "Indpay Mobile App" is launched by–

1) ICICI Bank
2) Bank of India
3) SBI Bank
4) RBL Bank
5) Indian Bank

67. Where is the Headquarters of "European Union"?

1) Berlin, Germany
2) Paris, France
3) Brussels, Belgium
4) Rome, Italy
5) Vienna, Austria

68. Who has been appointed as the chairman of Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)?

1) Raghuram Rajan
2) U.K Sinha
3) T.S. Vijayan
4) Ram Sewak Sharma
5) Hemant Sharma

69. The Book titled "APJ Abdul Kalam-One Man, Many Missions" is authored by–

1) Nalini Ramachandran
2) Arun Joshi
3) C. Rajagopalachari
4) Manoj Das
5) Nandini Sahu

70. In which year, Malhotra committee, headed by former finance secretary and RBI Governor R. N. Malhotra, was formed to evaluate the Indian insurance industry and recommend its future direction?

1) 1890
2) 1980
3) 1982
4) 1992
5) 1993

71. Where is the capital of "Laos"?

1) Tehran
2) Ankara
3) Vientiane
4) Muscat
5) Seoul

72. What does 'F' stand for in 'SARFAESI'?

1) Fund
2) Factors
3) Financial
4) Foreign
5) Fixed

73. Recently which Bank entered the country through the Wholly- Owned Subsidiary (WOS) route with wholesale banking operations in Mumbai?

1) Caribbean Development Bank
2) National Bank of Abu Dhabi
3) Islamic Development Bank
4) European Development Bank 5) Other than given options

74. What is the currency of 'Bangladesh'?

1) Riyal
2) Lev
3) Taka
4) Kuna
5) Rupee

75. What is the tagline of United India Insurance Company Limited?

1) Rest assured with us
2) With us, you are sure
3) Aapke Sachhe Advisor
4) India's Premier General Insurance
5) Yogakshemam Vahamyaham

76. Name the Marathi poet from Maharashtra, who died recently.

1) Dilip Chitre
2) Mangesh Keshav Padgaonkar
3) Eknath
4) Guru Thakur
5) Keshav Pandit

77. Recently BHEL commissioned _____ Power Project unit in Uttar Pradesh.

1) Narora Atomic
2) Sant Singaji
3) Mundra Thermal
4) Satpura Thermal
5) Prayagraj Super Thermal

78. Who amongst the following is the Indian badminton player who completed a hat-trick by winning the Macau open Grand Prix Gold?

1) P.V. Sindhu
2) Sourabh Verma
3) Parupalli Kashyap
4) Anand Pawar
5) Prannoy Kumar

79. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the Saansad Adarsh gram Yojana on ______.

1) 11 August 2014
2) 12 August 2014
3) 12 October 2014
4) 2 October 2014
5) 11 October 2014

80. Agents selling Insurance of a specific company are called –

1) Independent Agent
2) Dependent Agent
3) Captive Agent
4) T.P.A
5) Other than given options

81. Recently who is appointed as the Indian Ambassador to the United States?

1) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
2) Abid Hussain
3) Nirupama Rao
4) Arun Kumar Singh
5) Naresh Chandra

82. Jitu Rai is related to which game?

1) Rugby
2) Shooting
3) Athletics
4) Badminton
5) Hockey

83. What is the theme of 'World Cancer Day' 2015?

1) Global Health Priority
2) "Debunk the Myths"
3) "Cancer- Did you know?"
4) "Together it is possible"
5) "Not Beyond us"

84. Recently India was re-elected by the General Assembly for a _____ year term on the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL).

1) 5
2) 3
3) 4
4) 6
5) 7

85. What is called a long term contract sold by an insurance company designed to provide payments to the holder at specified intervals, usually after retirement?

1) Validity
2) Annuity
3) Brokerage
4) Claim Value
5) Surrender Value

86. India-Sri Lanka joint military exercise MITRA SHAKTI 2015 was recently conducted in ______.

1) Lucknow, U.P
2) Pune, Maharashtra
3) Ahmedabad, Gujarat
4) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
5) Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh

87. What is the rank of India in power generation from nuclear source in 2015?

1) 12th
2) 33rd
3) 22nd
4) 122nd
5) 121st

88. Where will the 'Olympic' 2016 be held?

1) Roraima, South America
2) Santa Catarina, Brazil
3) Pyeongchang, South Korea
4) Tokyo, Japan
5) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil

89. Who is head of the Delhi government's Panel that suggested that the BCCI should suspend DDCA?

1) Chetan Sanghi
2) Anil Baijal
3) PDT Achary
4) Ashok Misra
5) Ashok Lahiri

90. Who is the winner of "New Zealand Grand Prix" 2015?

1) Lance Stroll
2) Charlie Eastwood
3) Brandon Maisano
4) Arjun Maini
5) Alfonso Celis

:: Computer Knowledge ::

91. To retrieve any text or other information created by one program and transfer it to another program is called–

1) Import
2) Export
3) Retrieve
4) Indexing
5) Download

92. A small application, that is, a program designed to perform a simple task, is called–

1) Archive
2) Applet
3) Sorting
4) Cache
5) Buffer

93. ______ is common text that appears at the bottom of every page in a document or report.

1) Header
2) Endnote
3) Footer
4) Both 2 and 3
5) Other than given options

94. What does 'R' stand for in 'RPM'?

1) Read
2) Random
3) Redundant
4) Revolutions
5) Rate

95. To record information on a disc such as a CD-R, a CD-RW, a DVD-R, or a DVD-RW is known as–

1) Patch
2) Bugging
3) Testing
4) Burning
5) Spamming

96. In Microsoft office basics, which shortcut key is used to switch to the next window?

1) Alt + Tab
2) Alt + Tab + Shift
3) F6
4) Alt + F5
5) Ctrl + F5

97. _______ is a small box that appears on screen alongside each option displayed in a dialog box.

1) Pop- up box
2) Check box
3) Tab box
4) Click- box
5) Other than given options

98. In e-mail messages, a facial expression symbol constructed with standard characters is known as–

1) Smiley
2) Template
3) Emoticon
4) Both 1 and 3
5) All of the above

99. The physical components of a computer, the central processing unit, the display screen, the keyboard, the disk drive, is called–

1) Software
2) Hardware
3) Hard copy
4) Soft copy
5) Other than given options

100. ______ is termed as a hardware problem that causes a computer to malfunction or crash.

1) Graphics
2) Gateway
3) Glitch
4) Gopher
5) Gamma testing

101. What is called the keys on a keyboard that give special commands to the computer?

1) Modifier keys
2) Function keys
3) Functional keys
4) Toggle keys
5) All of the above

102. Locating and eliminating defects in a program is called–

1) Debugging
2) Bugging
3) Loop-hole
4) Interpreting
5) Compiling

103. An on screen element that allows a user to select one option from a group of items is called–

1) Option button
2) Radio button
3) Modifier key
4) All of the above
5) Both 1 and 2

104. _______ is the time a computer takes to execute a command?

1) Seek time
2) Response time
3) Run time
4) Delay time
5) Save time

105. Which of the following is the device on a laptop computer that takes the place of a mouse?

1) Thread
2) Trackball
3) Touch screen
4) Touchpad
5) USB

106. ______ is software that enables a user to track someone's computer activities without that person's consent.

1) Phishing
2) Virus
3) Worm
4) Spyware
5) Trojan

107. A hardware component that delivers the result of computer operations to the user is called–

1) Input device
2) Output device
3) Software device
4) Function device
5) Both 2 and 4

108. ______ is a command that transfer information from a clipboard and inserts it in another location.

1) Cut
2) Copy
3) Paste
4) Save
5) Save as

109. What does 'I' stand for in 'IRQ'?

1) International
2) Integrated
3) Item
4) Interrupt
5) Information

110. An on screen symbol that indicates where to type a command is known as–

1) Posting
2) Prompt
3) Proportional font
4) Preview
5) Push

111. ______ shortcut key is used to insert a new slide in Power-Point presentation.

1) Ctrl + N
2) Ctrl + A
3) Ctrl + M
4) Ctrl + F2
5) Both 1 and 4

112. What is the process to exit or leave a computer system?

1) Log on
2) Log off
3) Log out
4) Both 2 and 3
5) Both 1 and 3

113. What is called the ability of a computer to execute more than one program at a time?

1) Multi-programming
2) Multi-tasking
3) Multi-processing
4) Multimedia
5) Other than given options

114. A type of software that connects different applications that were not originally designed to work together–

1) Merging
2) Firmware
3) Middleware
4) Freeware
5) Other than given options

115. _____ is a common standard for connecting multiple peripherals to a computer as needed.

1) URL
2) Port
3) Jack
4) USB
5) Mouse

116. One or more related pages created by an individual or an organization and posted on the World Wide Web is called–

1) Webcam
2) Web browser
3) Web site
4) Wide area network
5) Wide-Area information

117. _____ is a software feature that detects when a word will extend beyond the right margin and automatically transfers it to the beginning of the next line.

1) Word pad
2) Word wrap
3) Word of mouse
4) Wizard
5) Webzine

118. 'Blog' is an abbreviated version of '______'.

1) Blogger
2) Blogging
3) Blog-In
4) Weblog
5) Weblog-In

119. What does 'FPS' stand for?

1) Floppy Per Second
2) Frames Per Second
3) File Per Second
4) Folder Per Second
5) Function Per Second

120. Which of the following shortcut keys is used to enter the current date in MS EXCEL?

1) Ctrl + :
2) Ctrl + E
3) Ctrl + 1
4) Ctrl + ; 5) Ctrl + "

:: English Language ::

Directions (Q. 121–130): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The successful negotiations for ending subsidies on agriculture exports, issues relating to public stockholding for food security, special safeguard agreement to curb imports and other issues carried out by trade ministers from 160 odd countries at the Kenyan capital of Nairobi has breathed a new life into the WTO. It showed that despite the stalemate over negotiations on the Doha round agenda for more than a dozen years multilateral forums like the WTO still remain relevant for settling global trade issues.

However, the tying up the settlement on these messy trade issues was no easy deal. The talks which were to be concluded over four days had to be extended by a day so that a final deal could be sorted out. And developing countries like India, which were adamant on completing the agenda worked out at Doha had to climb down from the lofty heights to ensure that some settlement could be worked out to benefit everybody.

But the setbacks due to the change in stance was well worth the effort as any failure of the trade talks would have further eroded the credibility of the multilateral organisation and ended up opening up new regional trade agreements like the Trans Pacific Partnership (TPP) which would have only placed India and a large multitude of other developing countries at a further disadvantage.

However, it is not all loses for the developing countries. The agreement on cessation of trade subsidies requires that developed countries immediately stop almost all export subsidies while it gives developing countries time till end of 2018 to stop all kinds of direct support for promotion of agriculture exports. The deal also provides developing countries flexibility to cover transport and marketing costs of agriculture exports till end of 2023. The leeway for the poorest countries is still larger.

Regarding the public holding of grain stocks to ensure food security the deal worked out at Nairobi allows the countries time till 2017 to find a permanent solution to the issue. Moreover developing countries will now also have rights to raise tariff on agriculture products when they are threatened by a surge in imports or crashing international prices. This would protect farmers across the developing world, including India, from the volatility of global commodity price swings. End of subsidies on agriculture exports also means a more level playing field for agriculture exports from developing countries.

Then there are other decisions which would be of great assistance to the least developed countries. This includes laying out a new set of multilateral guidelines to ensure them preferential market access into developed and developing country markets. The new deal will allow products from LDC with even less than 75% of the final value of the product originating from them to get preferential treatment. Countries from sub-Saharan Africa will be major beneficiaries from this move.

Regarding the agenda worked out at the Doha Round 14 years back the trade ministers noted that though there were different views among member nations on various issues there was still a strong commitment to advance negotiation on the unsettled issues. The meeting also reasserted that special and differential treatment for less developed countries will remain an abiding rule.

121. What can be the suitable title of the above passage?

1) Trans Pacific Partnership
2) Stalemate over negotiations
3) New hopes from WTO deal
4) Developing country markets
5) A successful negotiation

122. For what issues successful negotiation has been carried out?

A) To scrap agricultural export subsidies
B) Public stockholding for food security purposes
C) Special safeguard agreement to curb import.

1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both B and C
4) All of these
5) Both A and C

123.Which of the following best expresses the meaning of ‘breathed a new life’?

1) Taken new birth
2) Given hope of fulfilment
3) Changed its path
4) About to an end
5) Other than the given options

124. How are the farmers in India protected from the volatility of global commodity price swings?

1) Through preferential market access.
2) The developing countries have the rights to raise ban on import
3) Because of the reduction of taxes from govt
4) They can now trade directly with developed countries
5) Other than the given options

125. Choose the word which is the MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word ‘lofty’ as used in the passage?

1) Haughty
2) Towering
3) Soaring
4) Tall
5) Lowered

126. According to the passage, what does the agreement on cessation of trade subsidies requires?

1) That developed countries should stop almost all export subsidies.
2) That developing countries should stop promoting agriculture exports till 2018
3) That developing countries require to cover transport and marketing costs of agriculture exports till the end of 2023
4) All the given options
5) Other than the given options

127. Choose the word which is the MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word ‘adamant’ as used in the passage

1) Pliable
2) Rigid
3) Willing
4) Tolerant
5) Bending

128. Choose the word which is the MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘leeway’ as used in the passage?

1) Scope
2) Margin
3) Freedom
4) Restrictions
5) Advantage

129. Which one of the following sentences is true in the context of the given passage?

1) Negotiations on the Doha round failed
2) Relaxations on the developing countries are more than that on developed countries
3) India including the other developing countries is not satisfied with the Nairobi talks
4) Public stockholding has been totally legalised under WTO agreement.
5) Other than the given options

130. The WTO talks are in favour of:

A) Developed countries
B) Developing countries
C) Poor countries

1) A Only
2) C Only
3) Both A and B
4) Both B and C
5) All of the given options

Directions (Q. 131–135) : Rearrange the following Six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

(A) Earth is a satellite because it moves around the sun.
(B) But usually when someone says “satellite,” they are talking about a “man-made” satellite.
(C) Man-made satellites are machines made by people.
(D) A satellite is an object that moves around a larger object.
(E) These machines are launched into space and orbit Earth or another body in space.
(F) Earth and the moon are called “natural” satellites.

131.Which of the following would be the 'THIRD' sentence after rearrangement?

1) B
2) E
3) C
4) F
5) D

132. Which of the following would be the 'SECOND' sentence after rearrangement?

1) E
2) A
3) C
4) D
5) B

133. Which of the following would be the 'FIFTH' sentence after rearrangement?

1) B
2) C
3) E
4) D
5) A

134. Which of the following would be the 'FOURTH' sentence after rearrangement?

1) A
2) F
3) E
4) B
5) D

135. Which of the following would be the 'FIRST' sentence after rearrangement?

1) C
2) A
3) E
4) B
5) D

Directions (Q. 136–140): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs or group of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of words group of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.

136. The government unveiled ______ measures ______ boost the start-up ecosystem.

1) a raft of, to help
2) a shaft of, to grow
3) a bunch of, to power
4) a pack of, to uplift
5) a bundle of, to assist

137. He was ______ four years old when he was _______ by his maternal aunt.

1) hardly, guide
2) barely, adopted
3) then, take
4) sent, refused
5) tried, brought up

138. ______ rider ship went up, ______were fewer complaints of overcrowding.

1) While, there
2) Few, unlike
3) When, they
4) Only, matched
5) Situation, and

139. ______ the child’s mother called up her husband ________ if he has reached.

1) For, to
2) To, than
3) In, so
4) Meanwhile, to confirm
5) At, about

140. The private sector’s expansion _____ is throwing up a challenge because they have over-stressed _____.

1) meeting, himself
2) itself, themselves
3) himself, yourself
4) themselves, itself
5) trial, itself

Directions (Q. 141–145): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error' the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

141. He contributed a lot 1)/ of resources and money 2)/ for building a hospital 3)/in his hometown. 4)/ No error 5)

142. All our district office 1)/ have received directions 2)/to process all the applications 3)/within ten days. 4)/ No error 5)

143. Now a days researchers 1) are getting 2)/much help from internet 3)/of doing their research work. 4)/ No error 5)

144.We are already 1)/written to the ministry 2)/ last week seeking consent 3)/to set up our own team. 4)/ No error 5)

145. In order to transfer 1)/bulk money for one 2)/bank to another you 3)/ require to fill some additional details. 4)/ No error 5)

Directions (Q. 146–150): In each sentence below, a word/ group of words has been printed in bold. From the five answer choices given below each sentence, pick out the one which can substitute the bold word/group of words correctly, without changing the meaning of the sentence.

146. He acted though it was his mistake, but we were aware that he was not guilty for it.

1) still though it was
2) though it was not
3) as if it was
4) although it was not
5) No correction required

147.It was not of her business to get engaged in somebody else’s personal issue.

1) were never her business
2) was none of her business
3) was of not her business
4) was neither her business
5) No correction required

148. Consciousness is presented to us in a result of our neurones, our brains, out senses.

1) as a result of
2) a result from
3) by the result of
4) the result from
5) No correction required

149. I was taken back by his unexpected remark on this concern.

1) would be taken back
2) was taken backwards
3) was taken back
4) was never taken aback
5) No correction required

150.We come of know of what is happening around the world.

1) came to know of
2) come to be known of
3) come to know
4) are coming to know of
5) No correction required

Directions (Q. 151– 160): In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

The thought behind staging the Olympics in Brazil was to change how the world percept about the country. While to the world, Brazil was known (151) a country of conflicts (152) instability, Brazilians geared up for the (153) by building stadiums, roads, airports and (154) their homes and cities to visitors. With the (155) of hundreds and thousands of fans (156) only did the world’s perception of Brazil (157) as citizens experienced the fine hospitality and kindness of its (158) but more importantly the Brazilians (159) to trust in themselves and in their country’s (160).

151.

1) by
2) to
3) like
4) as
5) for

152.

1) like
2) with
3) and
4) beside
5) for

153.

1) telecast
2) event
3) forecast
4) show
5) broadcast

154.

1) opening
2) shaping
3) occupying
4) coming
5) playing

155.

1) voyage
2) departure
3) population
4) travel
5) arrival

156.

1) never
2) forever
3) that
4) not
5) once

157.

1) upturn
2) transform
3) modify
4) switch
5) replace

158.

1) country
2) nation
3) towns
4) village
5) citizens

159.

(1) desire
2) began
3) include
4) fire
5) dedicate

160.

1) future
2) environment
3) value
4) struggle
5) autonomy

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(Paper) SBI Junior Associates Exam - 2009 "Quantitative Aptitude"

(Paper) SBI Junior Associates (Customer Support & Sales) & Junior Agricultural Associates Exam - 2009

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (81-95) : What will come in place of the quest ion mar k (?) in the following questions ?

81. 182 + V? = 350

(1) 576
(2) 676
(3) 26
(4) 28
(5) None of these

82. 1530 -r 34 x 360 + 24 = ?

(1) 625
(2) 765
(3) 575
(4) 645
(5) None of these

83. 4966 + 285 - 1236 + ? = 4860

(1) 854
(2) 848
(3) 825
(4) 875
(5) None of these

84.

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/2
(3) 2/3
(4) 1/3
(5) None of these


Directions (96-100) : What will come in place of the quest ion mar k (?) in the following number series ?

96. 11 12 26 81 ?

(1) 324
(2) 328
(3) 320
(4) 280
(5) None of these

97. 5120 1280 320 80 ?

(1) 16
(2) 24
(3) 30
(4) 40
(5) None of these

98. 7 11 27 63 ?

(1) 96
(2) 118
(3) 99
(4) 127
(5) None of these

99. 6 10 18 34 ?

(1) 62
(2) 64
(3) 66
(4) 50
(5) None of these

100. 5 11 23 47 ?

( l ) 95
(2) 93
(3) 96
(4) 97
(5) None of these

101. A, B. C, D and E are five consecutive even numbers. Average of A and E is 46. What is the largest number ?

(1) 52
(2) 42
(3) 50
(4) 48
(5) None of these

102. A train running at the speed of 66 kmph crosses a signal pole in 18 s e c o n d s . What is the length of the train ?

(1) 330 met res
(2) 300 met res
(3) 360 metres
(4) 320 metres
(5) None of these

103. Find the average of the following set of numbers. 155, 128. 137, 140, 160, 132

(1) 148
(2) 140
(3) 146
(4) 144
(5) None of these

104. Number obtained by interchanging the digits of a two digit number is less than the original number by 18, and the sum of the digi ts is 6. Wha t is original two digit number ?

(1) 46
(2) 24
(3) 42
(4) 64
(5) None of these

105. An amount of Rs. 45,000 be - come Rs. 77,400 on simple interest in eight years. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a. ?

(1) 9
(2) 11
(3) 8
(4) 10.5
(5) None of these

106. Three-fifth of a number is more than its 4 0 % by 85. What i s 6 0 % of that number ?

(1) 245
(2) 255
(3) 260
(4) 250
(5) None of these

107. Rajesh spends 12% of his monthly income on entertain^ ment, 18% of his monthly income on children's education, 5 0 % of hi s monthl y income on other household items and the remaining amount of Rs. 5,200 he saves. What is his monthly income ?

(1) Rs. 25,400
(2) Rs. 26,200
(3) Rs. 24,800
(4) Rs. 25,600
(5) None of these

108. 24 me n can complete a piece of work in 15 days. In how many days will 18 men complete that work ?

(1) 16 days
(2) 20 days
(3) 22 days
(4) 25 days
(5) None of these

109. Rasika and Nikita invested amounts of Rs. 40,000 and Rs. 75,000 respectively. At the end of five year s they got a total dividend of Rs. 46,000. What is Rasika's share in the dividend ?

(1) Rs. 16,500
(2) Rs. 15,500
(3) Rs. 15,000
(4) Rs. 16,000
(5) None of these

110. Present ages of Rama and Shyama are in the ratio of 4 : 5 respectively. Five years hence the ratio of their ages be come s 5 : 6 respectively. What is Rama's present age ?

(1) 25 years
(2) 22 years
(3) 20 years
(4) 30 years
(5) None of these

111. What is the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 25,000 in two year s at the rate of 12 p.c.p.a. ?

(1) Rs. 6,630
(2) Rs. 6,360
(3) Rs. 6,260
(4) Rs. 6.460
(5) None of these

112. Cost of 10 calculators and 12 watches is Rs. 11,100. What is the cost of 30 calculators and 35 watches ?

(1) Rs. 33,600
(2) Rs. 33,650
(3) Rs. 32,600
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

113. A TV set when sold for Rs. 16,756, the profit earned is 18%. What is the cost pi ice of the TV set ?

(1) Rs. 14,200
(2) Rs. 14,400
(3) Rs. 15,200
(4) Rs. 14,800
(5) None of these

114. Five eighth of a number is equal to 60% of another number. What is the ratio between the first number and the second number respectively ?

(1) 13 : 12
(2) 12 : 13
(3) 25 : 24
(4) 24 : 25
(5) None of these

Directions (116 - 120) : Study the following table carefully to answer these questions.

116. What is the average number of employees working in Marketing department of all the organizations ?

(1) 149
(2) 145
(3) 146
(4) 148
(5) None of these

117. What is the total number of employees working in all the departments of organization B together?

(1) 350
(2) 375
(3) 425
(4) 475
(5) None of these

118. What is the ratio between number of employees from Finance and Marketing departments together of organization B and these two departments together of organisation D respectively ?

(1) 14 : 9
(2) 9 : 14
(3) 11 : 28
(4) 28 : 11
(5) None of these

119. What is the ratio between the total number of employees from all organizations together in HR and Administration departments respectively ?

(1) 132 : 137
(2) 137 : 132
(3) 122 : 137
(4) 137 : 122
(5) None of these

120. Number of employees in IT department of organization C is what per cent of the total number of employees in organization C in all the departments together ?

(1) 26.5
(2) 25.6
(3) 25.4
(4) 20.4
(5) None of these

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SBI PO Exam Solved Paper : General Awareness, Marketing and Computer Held on 18-04-2010

Solved Paper : SBI PO Exam - 2010

General Awareness / Marketing / Computers (Held on 18-4-2010)

1. What is the full form of ‘NBFC’ as used in the Financial Sector ?

(1) New Banking Finance Company
(2) National Banking & Finance Corporation
(3) New Business Finance & Credit
(4) Non Business Fund Company
(5) None of these

2. 100% concession has been given for travelling in the Indian Railways for patients of ...

(1) AIDS (2) Cancer (3) Swine Flu
(4) T. B. (5) None of these

3. Many a times, we read about Special Drawing Right (SDR) in newspapers. As per its definition, SDR is a monetary unit of the reserve assets of which of the following organizations / agencies?

(1) World Bank
(2) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(3) Asian Development Bank
(4) Reserve Bank of India
(5) None of these

4. Which of the following is/are the highlights of the Union Budget 20-1 ?

(A) Number of new steps taken to simplify the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) regime.
(B) Rs. 16,500 crore provided to ensure that the Public Sector Banks are able to attain a minimum 8% capital (Tier I) by March 201.
(C) More than Rs. 1,74,000 crore provided for the development of the infrastructure in the country.

(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Only C (4) All A, B & C
(5) None of these

5. In how many Routes special tourist trains called ‘Bharat Birth’ is to start?

(1) 19 (2) 16 (3) 17
(4) 18 (5) None of these

6. As per the newspaper reports, the Govt. of India made an auction of the Third Generation Spectrum (3G) recently. Which of the following ministries was actively involved in the process a

(1) Ministry of Heavy Industries
(2) Ministry of Science & Technology
(3) Ministry of Commerce
(4) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(5) None of these

7. As per the recent announcement, the Govt. of India will provide an amount of Rs.48,000 crore to develop Rural Infrastructure in the country. This planned development is being undertaken under which of the following schemes ?

(1) Bharat Nirman
(2) Indira Aawas Yojana
(3) Backward Region Grant Fund
(4) Drought Mitigation Fund
(5) None of these

8. Ladies special trains to be renamed with the Name of ...

(1) Bharat Bhoomi Specials
(2) Sonia Gandhi Specials
(3) Matri Bhoomi Specials
(4) Rajiv Gandhi Specials
(5) None of these

9. How much funds has been allocated to the Unique Identification Authority of India?

(1) Rs 1,500 Crore (2) Rs 1,900 Crore
(3) Rs 1,600 Crore (4) Rs 1,800 Crore
(5) None of these

10. What is the rate of Income Tax for incomesz above Rs 1.6 lakh upto Rs 5 lakh?

(1) % (2) 2% (3) 15%
(4) 20% (5) None of these

11. Recently, India took part in “Nuclear New Build 20 Conference” organized in -

(1) New Delhi (2) London
(3) Paris (4) Hong Kong
(5) None of these

12. What is the reduction in Service Charges on e-tickets?

(1) Sleeper Class Rs. 20 & AC Class Rs. 
(2) Sleeper Class Rs.  & AC Class Rs. 20
(3) Sleeper Class Rs. 30 & AC Class Rs. 20
(4) Sleeper Class Rs. 20 & AC Class Rs. 30
(5) None of these

13. As we know, with the launch of Nano by Tatas, India has become favourite Small Car Destination of the world. Other than India, which of the following countries is also a popular destination of small cars ?

(1) Britain (2) France
(3) Germany (4) Thailand
(5) None of these

14. Imports from China in the Year of 2008-09 in Rs...

(1) 0,000 Crore (2) 40,000 Crore
(3) 47,605 Crore (4) 151,000 Crore
(5) None of these

15. How many new teams have been added in IPL 20?

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4
(4) 7 (5) None of these

16. Which countries have recently faced Tsunami Waves?

(1) Japan & Chile (2) Sallie & Korea
(3) China & Thailand (4) Japan & China
(5) None of these

17. North Korea and USA decided to resume their peace talks after a gap of several months. Both the countries have a dispute over which of the following issues ?

(1) Bailout package offered by USA
(2) Membership of ASEAN to North Korea
(3) Nuclear programme of North Korea
(4) Soaring relations of China with North Korea
(5) None of these

18. Who amongst the following was the Chairperson of the 3th Finance Commission which submitted its report to the President of India recently ?

(1) Mr. M. V. Kamath (2) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(3) Dr. D. Subbarao (4) Dr. Rakesh Mohan
(5) Dr. Vijay Kelkar

19. As per the news published in various newspapers, the RBI is considering the grant of licence to some new companies, particularly NBFCs to act as full-fledged banks. Which of the following will be considered NBFC ?

(1) NABARD
(2) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(3) Reliance Capital
(4) SEBI
(5) None of these

20. Who has scored the highest individual ODI Score?

(1) Saeed Anwar (Pak)
(2) Charls Coventry (Zim)
(3) Sachin Tendulkar (IND)
(5) Ricky Pointing (Aus)
(5) None of these

21. What is an ‘intranet’

(1) Internal internet used to transfer information internally
(2) Internal internet used to transfer information to the outside company
(3) Internal network designed to serve the internal informational needs of a single organization
(4) Internal network designed to transfer the information between two organizations
(5) None of these

22. Which of the following groups of cricket teams was declared joint winner of the Col. C K Naidu Trophy for 2009 ?

(1) Tamil Nadu & Gujarat
(2) Maharashtra & Kerala
(3) Punjab & Delhi
(4) West Bengal & Maharashtra
(5) None of these

23. Kaiane Aldorino who was crowned Miss World 2009 is from which of the following countries?

(1) Germany (2) Russia
(3) Austria (4) Belgium
(5) Gibraltar

24. Which of the following teams won the Davis Cup Tennis Finals 2009 ?

(1) Germany (2) Spain
(3) Russia (4) France
(5) None of these

25. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the “CNN-IBN Indian of the Year” Award for 2009?

(1) Ratan Tata (2) A.R.Rahman
(3) Manmohan Singh (4) Sachin Tendulkar
(5) None of these

26. The deficit reduction plan of which of the following countries was reviewed recently in the meeting of the Finance Ministers of the European Union ?

(1) Germany (2) Romania
(3) Brazil (4) Hungary
(5) Greece

27. The database administrator’s function in an organization is —

(1) To be responsible for the more technical aspects of managing the information contained in organizational databases
(2) To be responsible for the executive level aspects of decisions regarding the information management
(3) To show the relationship among entity classes in a data warehouse
(4) To define which data mining tools must be used to extract data
(5) None of these

28. Every device on the Internet has a unique______ address (also called an “Internet address”) that identifies it in the same way that a street address identifies the location of a house.

(1) DH (2) DA (3) IP
(4) IA (5) None of these

29. To send another station a message, the main thing a user has to know is

(1) how the network works
(2) the other station’s address
(3) whether the network is packet-switched or circuit-switched
(4) whether this is a voice or data network
(5) None of these

30. In a client/ server model, a client program -

(1) asks for information
(2) provides information and files
(3) serves software files to other computers
(4) distributes data files to other computers
(5) None of these

31. Control in design of an information system is used to —

(1) inspect the system and check that it is buiit as per specifications
(2) ensure that the system processes data as it was designed to and that the results are reliable
(3) ensure privacy of data processed by it
(4) protect data from accidental or intentional loss
(5) None of these

32. Each of the following is a true statement except—

(1) on-line systems continually update the master file
(2) in on-line processing, the user enters transactions into a device that is directly connected to the computer system
(3) batch processing is still used today in older systems or in some systems with massive volumes of transactions
(4) information in batch systems will always be up-to-date”
(5) None of these

33. A set of interrelated components that collect, process, store, and distribute information to support decision making and control in an organization best defines -

(1) communications technology
(2) a network
(3) an information system
(4) hardware
(5) None of these

34.A is a computer connected to two networks.

(1) link (2) server
(3) gateway (4) bridge way
(5) None of these

35. When you save a presentation,

(1) all slides in a presentation are saved in the same file
(2) two files are created; one for graphics and one for content
(3) a file is created for each slide
(4) a file is created for each animation or graphic
(5) None of these

36. In a customer database, a customer’s surname would be keyed into a —

(1) row (2) text field
(3) record (4) computed field
(5) None of these

37. Who is the new Prime Minister of Hungry ?

(1) Victor Orban (2) Gorden Bajnai
(3) Jeno Fock (4) Ference Gyurcsany
(5) None of these

38. Storing same data in many places is called

(1) iteration (2) concurrency
(3) redundancy (4) enumeration
(5) None of these

39. Which of the following is the first step in the ‘transaction processing cycle’, which captures business data through various modes such as optical scanning or at an electronic commerce website ?

(1) Document and report generation
(2) Database maintenance
(3) Transaction processing
(4) Data Entry
(5) None of these

40. CRM (Customer Relationship Management) is—

(1) Apre-sales activity
(2) A tool for lead generation
(3) An ongoing daily activity
(4) The task of a DSA
(5) All of the above

41. Who is the new Prime Minister of Denmark ?

(1) Anders Fogh Rasmussen
(2) Lars Looke Rasmussen
(3) Poul Nyrup Rasmussen
(4) Poul Hartling
(5) None of these

42. Who is the Author of the book “My China Diary”

(1) Kanwal Sibal (2) Salman Haider
(3) J.N. Dixit (4) Natwar Singh
(5) None of these

43. One of the following is not involved in the Growth Strategies of a Company -

(1) Horizontal integration
(2) Vertical integration
(3) Diversification
(4) Intensification (5) None of these

44. A successful “Blue Ocean Strategy” requires -

(1) Effective communication
(2) Innovative skills
(3) Motivation
(4) All of the above (5) None of these

45. Programs from the same developer , sold bundled together , that provide better integration and share common features , toolbars and menus are known as ....

(1) software suites
(2) integrated software packages
(3) software processing packages
(4) personal information managers
(5) none of these

46. A data warehouse is which of the following ?

(1) Can be updated by the end users
(2) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
(3) Organized around important subject areas
(4) Contains only current data
(5) None of these

47. __________ servers store and manages files for network users.

(1) Authentication (2) Main
(3) Web (4) File
(5) None of these

48. One of the following is not included in the 7 P’s of Marketing. Find the same

(1) Product (2) Price
(3) Production (4) Promotion
(5) None of these

49. The target group for SME loans is -

(1) All Businessmen (2) All Professionals
(3) All SSIs (4) All of the above
(5) None of these

50. Home Loans can be best can vassed among -

(1) Builders (2) Flat owners
(3) Land developers (4) Agriculturists
(5) Individuals wanting to buy a flat or house

Answer

1. (5) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (2) 1. (1)
11. (2) 2. (2) 3. (5) 4. (3) 15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (5) 19. (3) 20. (3)
21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (5) 24. (2) 25. (2) 26. (5) 27. (1) 28. (3) 29. (2) 30. (1)
31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (3) 34. (3) 35. (1) 36. (1) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (5)
41. (2) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (4) 45. (1) 46. (3) 47. (4) 48. (5) 49. (4) 50. (5)

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (29 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (29 April 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following navigational systems is not correctly matched?

1. Glonass : Russia
2. Galileo : Europe
3. BeiDou : South Korea
4. All of the above are correctly matched

Q.2- Papua new guinea is part of which of the following countries?

A. New Zealand
B. Australia
C. Fiji
D. None of the above

Q.3- Which of the following sector has highest share in employment?

A. Information technology
B. Banking
C. Manufacturing
D. Research

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (28 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (28 April 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following is a exclusive jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India?

1. Violation of Fundamental Rights
2. Dispute between Centre and State
3. Dispute between two states

A. 1,2
B. 2 only
C. 2,3
D. All

Q.2- Which planet is closest to the Earth ?

A. Venus
B. Mercury
C. Mars
D. Jupiter

Q.3- Which of the following does not come under small savings schemes?

A. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana
B. Senior citizens savings scheme
C. Farmers deposit less than 10 lakh
D. Monthly income scheme

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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(Paper) SBI Junior Associates Exam - 2009 "General English"

(Paper) SBI Junior Associates (Customer Support & Sales) & Junior Agricultural Associates Exam - 2009

Subject: General English

Directions (41-55): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

King Hutamasan felt he had everything in the world not only due to his riches and his noble knights, but because of his beautiful queen, Rani Matsya. The rays of the sun were put to shame with the iridescent light that
Matsya iEuminated, with her beauty and brains. At the right hand of the king she was known to sit and aid him in all his judicial probes. You could not escape her deep — set eyes when you committed a crime as she always knew the victim and the culprit. Her generosity preceded her reputation in the kingdom and her hands were always full to give. People in the kingdom revered her because if she passed by, she always gave to the compassionate and poor.

Far away from the kingly palace lived a man named Raman with only ends to his poverty and no means to rectify it. Raman was wrecked with poverty as he had lost all his land to the landlord. His age enabled him little towards manual labour and so beg^ ging was the only alternative to salvage his wife and children. Every morning he went door to door for some work, food or money. The kindness of people always got him enough to take home.

But Raman was a little seli-eenteied. His world began with him firstlilftjkvsd by his tamlly and the rest. 8© He would eat and drink to his delight and return home with whatever he found excess. This routine followed and he never let anyone discover his interests as he always put oma long face when he reached home.

One day afe he.was relishing the bowl of nee.he had just received from a humble tipiiiK»»i he. heard that Rani Matsya was Jo pass from the very place he was standing. Her generosity had reached his ears and he knew if he pulled a loo glace and showed how poor he wa,s, she would hand him a bag full of gold coins — enough for the rest of his iff?1, enough to buy food and supplies' ibr his family. He thought - he could keep some coins for himself and only repeal a few to his wife; so he can fulfill his own wishes.

He ran to the chariot of the Rani and begged her soldiers to allow him to speak to the queen. Listening to the arguments omsideRani Matsya opened the curtains of her chariot and asked R irrtan what he wanted. Raman went on his knee.and praised the queen. I haye heard you are most generous and most chaste, show this beggar some charityvRanJ narrowed her brows and asked Raman what he could give her in return. Surprised by such a question, Raman looked at his bowl full of rice. With r-pite in him he just picked up a few grains of rice and gave it to the queen. Rani Matsya counted the 5 grains and looked at his bowl full of rice and said, you shall be given what is due to you. Saying this the chariot galloped away.

Raman abused her under his breath. This he never thought would happen. How could she ask him for something in return when she hadn't given him anything ? Irked with anger he stormed home and gave his wife the bowl of rice. Just then he saw a sack at the entrance. His wife said some men had come and kept it there. He opened it to find it full of rice. He put his hand inside and caught hold of a hard metal only to discover it was a
gold coin. Elated he upturned the sack to find 5 gold coins in exact for the five rice grains. If only I had given my entire bowl, thought Raman, I would have had a sack full of gold.

41. According to the passage, which of the following is definitely true about Rani Matsya?

(A) She was beautiful'
(B) with intelligent
(C) She was kind.

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) All the three (A), (B) and (C)

42. What does the phrase 'pulled a long face' as used in the passage mean ?

(1) Scratched his face
(2) Looked very sorrowful
(3) Disguised himself
(4) Put on makeup
(5) None of these

43. What can possibly be the moral of the story ?

(1) Do onto ethers as you would want others to do to you
(2) Patience is a virtue
(3) Winning is not everything, it is the journey that counts
(4) Change is the only constant thing in life
(5) Teamwork is more we and less me

44. Why was begging the only option for Raman to get food ?

(1) As Raman belonged to a family of beggars
(2) As begging was the easiest way for him to obtain food
(3) As Raman's family had forced him to beg r
(4) As he had lost all his property and was too old to do manual work
(5) None of these

45. Which of the following words can be used to describe Raman?

(A) Deceitful
(B) Selfish
(C) Timid

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) All the three (A), (B) and (C)

46. What did Raman find after he returned home from his meeting with Rani Matsya ?

(1) The Rani's soldiers
(2) An empty house
(3) The five grains of rice that he had given to Rani Matsya
(4) A sack full of rice and five gold coins
(5) None of these

47. What emotion did Raman feel when he saw that the Rani had given him five gold coins ?

(1) Determination
(2) Regrti
(3) Hatred
(4) Suspicion Thrill

48. What did Raman do when Rani Matsya asked him for something in return for her charity ?

(1) He gave her five grains of rice out of his full bowl of rice
(2) He gave her the five gold coins that he had saved
(3) He handed over the entire bowl of rice that he possessed
(4) He refused to give her anything as he was offended with her request
(5) None of these

49. Why was Raman angiy with Rani Matsya ?

(1) As she had not stopped despite Raman's calling out to her
(2) As she had insulted him in front of his family
(3) As she had taken the rice grains from him and had not given him anything in return
(4) Not mentioned in the passage
(5) None of these

50. How did Raman treat his own family?

(1) He gave his family plenty to eat
(2) He saved whatever food and money he got and handed it over to his family.
(3) He loved his familly a lot and always put. their interests before his
(4) He beat up bis wife and children out of frustration
(5) None of these

Directions (51- 53) : Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

51. GALLOPED

(1) hurtled
(2) stumbled
(3) slumbered
(4) jumped
(5) ran

52. REVERED

(1) remembered
(2) feared
(3) talked about
(4) embraced
(5) respected

53. HAND

(1) arm
(2) throw
(3) give
(4) limb
(5) lend

Directions (54 - 55) : Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

54. REVEAL

(1) stop
(2) conceal
(3) present
(4) pending
(5) tell

55. ELATED

(1) afraid
(2) poor
(3) happy
(4) depressed
(5) grounded

Directions ( 56 - 60) : Rearrange! the following six. sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph: then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Because of the black and white rats the branch would fall on the ground very soon and the man woke up with a start oniy to realize that it was a dream.
(B) On climbing, he looked down and saw that the lion was still there waiting for him.
(C) Once a man dreamt that a Hon was chasing him.
(D) One rat was black and the other one was white.
(E) The man then looked to his side where the branch he was sitting on was attached to the tree and saw that two rats were circling around and eating the branch.
(F) The man ran to a tree, climbed on to it and sat on a branch.

56. Which of the follovving should be the THIRD sentence alter rear rangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

57. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after re arrangement ?

(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F

58. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?

(1)A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F

59. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F

60. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Directions (61- 65) : Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as i t is given and No correction is required', mark (5) as the answer.

61. In order to forget his worries Rahul take to smoke day and night.

(1) took to smoke
(2) taking to smoking
(3) take to smoking
(4) took to smoking
(5) No correction required

62. Prerna was very please with the gift she had received from her best friend on her birthday.

(1) was very pleased
(2) was very pleasing
(3) is very pleased
(4) is very pleasing
(5) No correction required

63. She wa s so scared on seeing the lion that she shooked like a leaf.

(1) shaked l ike a leaf
(2) shook l ike a leaf „
(3) shook l ike a leaves
(4) shake l ike a leaf
(5) No correction required

64. Meena had the presence of mind to get out of the way as the bus sped out of control past her.

(1) present of mind
(2) present mind
(3) presence in mind
(4) presence to mind
(5) No correction required

65. Finally Suhas had gather the courage to speak against his father's atrocities.

(1) gathering the courage
(2) gathers courage
(3) gathered the courage
(4) gather the couraged
(5) No correction required

Directions (66-70) : In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1 ) , (2) , (3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sent enc e . Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. I f all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. 'All correct ' as your answer.

66. The designer will showcash (1)/ her collection (2)/at an upcoming (3)/ fashion (4) / event in the city. All correct (5).

67. Our mind is l ike a garden (1)/ which can either be intelligently (2)/ cultivated (3)/ or be allowed to run wilde. (4)/ All correct (5}

68. Researchers (1)/ have identified (2) / the early master cel ls that make up the human heart could be used t o make patches (3)/ to fix damaged hearts. (4)/ All correct (5)

69. The girl spends (1)/every knight (2)/studying, as she wants to graduate (3) / from a wel l known college with good marks. (4) / Al l correct (5)

70. The next t ime your g ym instructor (1) / tells you to do some stretching (2)/ exersises (3)/ before starting the workout, say no. (4) / Al l correct (5).

Directions (71-80) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.

Find out the appropriate word in each case. There was a man who had four sons. He (711 his sons to learn not to judge things too quickly. So he sent them each on a (721 in turn, to go and look at a pear tree that was a great  distance away. The first son went in the winter, the second in the spring, the third in summer, and the youngest son in autumn. When they had all gone and come back, he 1731 them together to (74) what they had seen. The first son said that the tree was ugly, bent , and twisted. The second son said, "No I t was covered with green buds and full of promise." The third son disagreed; he said i t was laden with blossoms that (75) so sweet and looked so beautiful, it was the most graceful thing he had (761 seen. The last son disagreed with all of them; he said it was ripe and drooping wi th fruit, full of life and fulfillment. The man then (77) to hi s sons that they all were right, because they had each seen but only one (78) in the trees life. He told them that you (79) judge a tree, or a person, by only one season, and that the ( 8 0 ) of who they are and the pleasure, joy, and love that come s from that life can only be measured at the end, when all the seasons are over.

71.

(1) created
(2) wanted
(3) placed
(4) meant
(5) teach

72.

(1) quest
(2) airplane
(3) expedition
(4) pilgrimage
(5) requested

73.

(1) followed
(2) tied
(3) called
(4) said
(5) bound

74.

(1) all
(2) predict
(3) maintain
(4) describe
(5) talk

75.

(1) was
(2) fell
(3) colour
(4) smelled
(5) cooked

76.

(1) worriedly
(2) mostly
(3) ever
(4) forever
(5) forcefully

77.

(1) tell
(2) feaked
(3) reprimanded
(4) stood
(5) explained

78.

(1) flower
(2) season
(3) ground
(4) more
(5) leaf

79.

(1) let
(2) not
(3) must
(4) should
(5) cannot

80.

(1) essence
(2) danger
(3) tree
(4) fear
(5) journey

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Online Coaching for SBI Junior Associates (Pre.) Examination

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Printed Study Material for SBI Junior Associates (Pre.) Exam

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SBI PO Exam Solved Paper : Data Analysis and Interpretation Held on 28-04-2013

Solved Paper: SBI PO Exam - 2013 

Data Analysis and Interpretation (Held on 28-4-2013)

Directions: Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Cost of three different fruits (in rupees per kg. in five different cities)

1. In which city is the difference between the cost of one kg of apple and cost of one kg of guava second lowest?

(1) Jalandhar (2) Delhi
(3) Chandigarh (4) Hoshiarpur
(5) Ropar

2. Cost of one kg of guava in Jalandhar is approximately what percent of the cost of two kgs of grapes in Chandigarh?

(1) 66 (2) 24
(3) 28 (4) 34
(5) 58

3. What total amount will Ram pay to the shopkeeper for purchasing 3 kgs of apples and 2 kgs of guavas in Delhi?

(1) Rs. 530/- (2) Rs. 450/-
(3) Rs. 570/- (4) Rs. 620/-
(5) Rs. 490/-

4. Ravinder had to purchase 45 kgs of graphs from Hoshiarpur. Shopkeeper gave him discount of 4% per kg. What amount did he pay to the shopkeeper after the discount?

(1) Rs. 8208/- (2) Rs. 8104/-
(3) Rs. 8340/- (4) Rs. 8550/-
(5) Rs. 8410/-

5. What is the respective ratio between the cost of one kg of apples from Ropar and the cost of one kg of grapes from Chandigarh?

(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 22 : 32 (4) 42 : 92
(5) 92 : 42

Directions: Study the radar graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Number of students (in thousands) in two different universities in six different years

Number of Students

6. What was the difference between the number of students in university-1 in the year 2010 and the number of students in university-2 in the year 2012?

(1) Zero (2) 5,000
(3) 15,000 (4) 1,0000
(5) 1,000

7. What is the sum of number of students in university-1 in the year 2007 and the number of students in university-2 in the year 2011 together?

(1) 50,000 (2) 55000
(3) 45000 (4) 57000
(5) 40000

8. If 25% of the students in university-2 in the year 2010 were females, what was the number of male students in the university-2 in the same year?

(1) 11250 (2) 12350
(3) 12500 (4) 11500
(5) 11750

9. What was the percent increase in the number of students in University-1 in the year 2011 as compared to the previous year?

(1) 135 (2) 15
(3) 115 (4) 25
(5) 35

10. In which year was the difference between the number of students in university-1 and the number of students in univeisity-2 highest?

(1) 2008 (2) 2009
(3) 2010 (4) 2011
(5) 2012

Directions: Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow

Number of players participating in three different games in five different schools

11. What is the total number of players participating in hockey from all the five schools together?

(1) 324 (2) 288
(3) 342 (4) 284
(5) 248

12. What is the respective ratio between number of players participating in basketball from school-1 and the number of players participating in Kho-Kho from school-3?

(1) 5 : 7 (2) 7 : 9 (3) 7 : 8 (4) 9 : 7
(5) 5 : 8

13. In which school is the number of players participating in hockey and basketball together second highest?

(1) School – 1 (2) School – 2
(3) School – 3 (4) School – 4
(5) School – 5

14. Number of players participating in Kho-Kho from school-4 is what percent of number of players participating in hockey from school-2?

(1) 42 (2) 48 (3) 36 (4) 40
(5) 60

15. 25% of the number of the players participating in hockey from School-5 are females. What is the number of the hockey players who are males in school-5?

(1) 15 (2) 18 (3) 30 (4) 21
(5) 27

Directions: Study the following bar-graph carefully and answer the following questions.

Earnings (in rupees) of the three different persons on four different days

16. What is Gita’s average earnings over all the days together?

(1) Rs. 285 (2) Rs. 290
(3) Rs. 320 (4) Rs. 310
(5) Rs. 315

17. What is the total amount earned by Rahul and Naveen together on Tuesday and Thursday together?

(1) Rs. 1040/- (2) Rs. 1020/-
(3) Rs. 980/- (4) Rs. 940/-
(5) Rs. 860/-

18. Gita donated her earnings of Wednesday to Naveen. What was Naveen’s total earnings on Wednesday after Gita’s donation?

(1) Rs. 520/- (2) Rs. 550/-
(3) Rs. 540/- (4) Rs. 560/-
(5) Rs. 620/-

19. What is the difference between Rahul’s earnings on Monday and Gita’s earnings on Tuesday?

(1) Rs. 40/- (2) Rs. 20/-
(3) Rs. 50/- (4) Rs. 30/-
(5) Rs. 10/-

20. What is the respective ratio between Naveen’s earnings on Monday, Wednesday and Thursday?

(1) 7 : 3 : 5 (2) 8 : 6 : 5
(3) 8 : 7 : 4 (4) 9: 5 : 4
(5) 9 : 3 : 4

Directions: Study the following pie-chart and answer the following questions.

Percentage-wise distribution of employees in six different professions

Total number of employees = 26800

21. What is the difference between the total number of employees in teaching and medical profession together and number of employees in management profession?

(1) 6770 (2) 7700
(3) 6700 (4) 7770
(5) 7670

22. In management profession three-fourth of the number of employees are female. What is the number of male employees in management profession?

(1) 1239 (2) 1143
(3) 1156 (4) 1289
(5) 1139

23. 25% of employees from film production profession went on a strike. What is the number of employees from film production who have not participated in the strike?

(1) 3271 (2) 3819
(3) 3948 (4) 1273
(5) 1246

24. What is the total number of employees in engineering profession and industries together?

(1) 5698 (2) 5884
(3) 5687 (4) 5896
(5) 5487

25. In teaching profession if three-fifth of the teachers are not permanent, what is the number of permanent, what is the number of permanent teacher in the teaching professions?

(1) 1608 (2) 1640
(3) 1764 (4) 1704
(5) 1686

Direction: Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Monthly Bill (in rupees) of landline phone, electricity, laundry and mobile phone paid by three different people in five different months

26. What is the total of bill paid by Dev in the month of June for all the four commodities?

(1) Rs. 608 (2) Rs. 763
(3) Rs. 731 (4) Rs. 683
(5) Rs. 674

27. What is the average electricity bill paid by Manu over all the five months together?

(1) Rs. 183 (2) Rs. 149
(3) Rs. 159 (4) Rs. 178
(5) Rs. 164

28. What is the difference between the mobile phone bill paid by Ravi in the month of May and the laundry bill paid by Dev in the month of March?

(1) Rs. 180 (2) Rs. 176
(3) Rs. 190 (4) Rs. 167
(5) Rs. 196

29. In which months respectively did Manu pay the second highest mobile phone bill and the lowest electricity bill?

(1) April and June (2) April and May
(3) March and June (4) March and May
(5) July and May

30. What is the respective ratio between the electricity bill paid by Manu in the month of April and the mobile phone bill paid by Ravi in the month of June?

(1) 27 : 49 (2) 27 : 65
(3) 34 : 49 (4) 135 : 184
(5) 13 : 24

Directions: Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Chart showing schedule of train from Dadar to Bhuj and number of passengers boarding from each station

31. What is the distance travelled by the train from Surat to Nadiad Jn. ?

(1) 176 km (2) 188 km
(3) 183 km (4) 193 km
(5) 159 km

32. How much time does the train take to reach Ahmedabad after departing from Anand Jn. (including the halt time)?

(1) 1 hr. 59 min. (2) 1 hr. 17 min.
(3) 1 hr. 47 min. (4) 1 hr. 45 min.
(5) 1 hr. 15 min.

33. What is the respective ratio between the number of passengers boarding from Vasai Road and from Ahmadabad in the train?

(1) 21 : 17 (2) 13 : 9
(3) 21 : 19 (4) 15 : 13
(5) 13 : 15

34. If halt time (stopping time) of the train Vadodara is decreased by 2 minutes and increased by 23 minutes at Ahmedabad. At what time will the train reach Bhuj?

(1) 6.10 am (2) 6.01 pm
(3) 6.05 pm (4) 6.50 pm
(5) 6.07 pm

35. Distance between which two station is second lowest?

(1) Nadiad Jn. To Ahmedabad
(2) Anand Jn. To Nadiad Jn.
(3) Dadar to Vasai Road
(4) Anand Jn. To Vadodara
(5) Vasai Road to Surat

Directions: Study the table carefully to answer the question that follow.

Maximum and minimum temperature (in degree Celsius) recorded on 1st day of each month of five different cities

36. What is the difference between the maximum temperature of Ontario on 1st November and the minimum temperature of Bhuj on 1st January?

(1) 3°C (2) 18°C
(3) 15°C (4) 9°C
(5) 11°C

37. In which month respectively the maximum temperature of Kabul is second highest and minimum temperature of Sydney is highest?

(1) 1st October and 1st January
(2) 1st October and 1st November
(3) 1st December and 1st January
(4) 1st September and 1st January
(5) 1st December and 1st September

38. In which month (on 1st day) is the difference between maximum temperature and minimum temperature of Bhuj second highest?

(1) 1st September
(2) 1st October
(3) 1st November
(4) 1st December
(5) 1st January

39. What is the average maximum temperature of Beijing over all the months together?

(1) 8.4°C
(2) 9.6°C
(3) 7.6°C
(4) 9.2°C
(5) 8.6°C

40. What is the respective ratio between the minimum temperature of Beijing on 1st September and the maximum temperature of Ontario on 1st October?

(1) 3 : 4 (2) 3 : 5
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 1 : 5
(5) 1 : 4

Directions: Study pie-chart and table carefully to answer the question that follow:

Pie-chart showing percentage-wise distribution of cars in four different states

Total cars = 700

Distribution of Cars

41. What is the difference between the number of diesel engine cars in state-2 and the number of petrol engine cars in state-4?

(1) 159 (2) 21
(3) 28 (4) 34
(5) 161

42. Number of petrol engine cars in state-3 is what percent more than the number of diesel engine cars in state-1?

(1) 100
(2) 200
(3) 300
(4) 125
(5) 225

43. If 25% of diesel engine cars in state-3 are AC and remaining cars are non-AC, what is the number of diesel engine cars in state-3 which are non-AC?

(1) 75
(2) 45
(3) 95
(4) 105
(5) 35

44. What is the difference between the total number of cars in state-3 and the number of petrol engine cars in state-2?

(1) 96 (2) 106
(3) 112
(4) 102
(5) 98

45. What is the average number of petrol engine cars in all the states together?

(1) 86.75 (2) 89.25
(3) 89.75 (4) 86.25
(5) 88.75

46. A bag contains 7 blue balls and 5 yellow balls. If two balls are selected at random, what is the probability that none is yellow?

(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(5)

47. A die is thrown twice. What is the probability of getting a sum of 7 from both the throws?

(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(5)

Directions: Study the information carefully to answer these questions.

In a team there are 240 members (males and females). Two-third of them are males. Fifteen percent of males are graduates. Remaining males are non-graduates. Three-fourth of the females are graduates. Remaining females are non-graduates.

48. What is the difference between the number of females who are non-graduates and the number of males who are graduates?

(1) 2
(2) 24
(3) 4
(4) 116
(5) 36

49. What is the sum of number of females who are graduates and the number of males who are non-graduates?

(1) 184
(2) 96
(3) 156
(4) 84
(5) 196

50. What is the ratio between the total number of males and the number of females who are non-graduates?

(1) 6 : 1
(2) 8 : 1
(3) 8 : 3
(4) 5 : 2
(5) 7 : 2

Answer

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (5) 8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (5)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (4) 15. (5) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (5)
21. (3) 22. (5) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (4) 30. (1)
31. (3) 32. (5) 33. (1) 34. (2) 35. (4) 36. (5) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (5) 40. (2)
41. (2) 42. (1) 43. (4) 44. (5) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (5) 48. (3) 49. (5) 50. (2)

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(Sample Paper) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Test - 2

(sample Papers) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Test - 2

:: Reasoning ::

Directions (Q. 1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are two groups having 4 persons in each group sitting in two rows L, N, J and M are in one group and all of them facing north in row 1, while, E, C, D and A are in 2nd group and all of them facing south in row 2. In each group there is a one student, one director, one teacher and one principal. But they are not necessarily in the same order. E is facing director but
himself is not a Director. Teacher of both the rows are at extreme ends. C is a principal and facing student. M is facing the person who is third to the left of C. L is third to the left of M. A and D are neighbours and A is not facing teacher. E has at least two people in his left but not facing N.

1. Which of the following is facing N?

1) C
2) E
3) A
4) D
5) Both 3) and 4)

2. Which of the following pairs are students?

1) JC
2) AN
3) LE
4) EN
5) ME

3. In row-2 how many persons are there between Director and E?

1) One
2) None
3) Two
4) Three
5) Other than given options

4. The four of following five are same in the certain way on the seating arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that of group?

1) L
2) E
3) A
4) N
5) J

5. Which of the following does match correctly?

1) J – Principal
2) N – Teacher
3) A – Teacher
4) J – Director
5) L – Teacher

Directions (Q. 6 -10) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, H, J and K live on eight floor building. Ground floor is numbered 1, and so on till topmost floor numbered 8 but not necessarily in the same order. Only one person lives between E and K. E lives above K. H does not live on odd–numbered floor. A lives on the floor numbered five. Only two people live between A and B. A lives below B. J lives immediately above D. E live immediately above C. H lives immediately above E. There are two persons live between J and H, C does not live on floor no 2.

6. Who lives on the floor immediately above A?

1) C
2) K
3) D
4) H
5) Other than given options

7. How many people live between the floors on which D and C live?

1) Two
2) Three
3) More than four
4) One
5) Four

8. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

1) Only one person lives between K and H.
2) H lives on floor number 1.
3) J lives on 8th floor.
4) Only two people live between D and E.
5) A lives immediately above K

9. Who among the following lives on floor no. 2?

1) E
2) D
3) K
4) C
5) J

10. Which of the following lives between C and H?

1) A
2) K
3) None
4) E
5) J

Directions (Q. 11–15) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In a certain code language 'Rajiv is a handsome boy' is written as 'ha ji si na by'. 'each boy likes a beautiful movie' is written as 'by ke ch na ut rl' 'Rajiv loves each movie' is written as 'rl ch ji vr' and 'Delhi is a beautiful place' is written as 'na lh si cp ut'.

11. What will be the code for 'Rajiv' in the given code language?

1) si
2) by
3) ji 4) ch
5) Other than given options

12. What is the code for "Delhi" in the given code language?

1) rl
2) lh
3) vs
4) cp
5) Either 2 or 4

13. What will be the code for 'movie is beautiful'?

1) rl vs ut
2) si rl by
3) ut rl si
4) si ji rl
5) Cannot be determined

14. What will be the code for 'likes' in the given code language?

1) rl
2) ke
3) si
4) ut
5) Other than given options

15. In the given code language, what does the code "cp" stand for?

1) Handsome
2) Delhi
3) Either 'place' or 'Delhi'
4) Cannot be determined
5) Other than given options

Directions (Q. 16–20): In each question given below three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take all the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from all the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) If both conclusion I and II follow.

16. Statements:

All fruit are white. No black is a fruit. Some grapes are black.

Conclusions:

I. Some fruits are not grapes.
II. All white being not grapes is a possibility.

17. Statements:

Some singers are dancer. No hero is a heroine. All heroes are not singer.

Conclusions:

I. All singers are not heroes.
II. No heroine is a singer.

18. Statements:

Some circles are not triangle. All triangles are square. No square is a Polygon.

Conclusions:

I. Some squares are circle.
II. No polygon is a triangle.

19. Statement:

No good is a bad. Some beautiful are good. All bad are black.

Conclusions:

I. Some black are not good.
II. Some bad are not black is a possibility.

20. Statements:

All inks are blue. Only red is blue. No white is red.

Conclusions:

I. All blue is inks.
II. All white being a blue is a possibility.

Directions (Q. 21–25): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer:

1) If only conclusion I is true
2) If only conclusion II is true
3) If either conclusion I or II is true
4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Directions (Q. 26 – 28): In the following questions, the symbols ÷, +, × and – are used with following meaning as illustrated below:

If 'P × Q' means 'P is sister of Q'
If 'P + Q' means 'P is wife of Q'
If 'P ÷ Q' means 'P is brother of Q'
If 'P– Q' means 'P is father of Q'

26. If the given expression is T – N + J ÷ S × V then which of the following statement is definitely true?

1) T is father of S
2) J is son–in–law of T
3) V is brother of S
4) S is sister–in–law of N
5) Both 2 and 4

27. In the expression V ÷ K + J – E, how is V related to E?

1) Maternal Aunt
2) Maternal Uncle
3) Paternal Uncle
4) Father
5) Other than given options

28. Which of the following expression is true that K is daughter of L?

1) V ÷ K + J ÷ E – L
2) R ÷ L – K × T
3) R ÷ K – L × P
4) J × K – T – L
5) Other than given options

Directions (Q. 29–30): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

Statements: Bihar government has decided to ban totally on sale and consumption of liquor in the state, trying to fulfill the election promise.

29. Which of the following has been assumed in the above statement?

1) It is banned only because of election promise made by state government.
2) It is urgent need of the hour as far as Bihar is concerned.
3) People of Bihar were consuming too much liquor.
4) Government is only trying to follow the other states step like Gujarat.
5) Other than given options

30. Which of the following may be the effect of such step?

1) The black marketing of liquor will become rampant.
2) Government will have to incur a huge revenue loss.
3) Health problems related to liquor will decrease
4) This will end the major source of income
5) All of the above

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::

1) 1158
2) 1485
3) 1358
4) 1458
5) 1258

32. (12.29)2 + (18.01)2 = ?2 × 117 ÷ 9.01

1) 6
2) 8
3) 7
4) 5
5) 9

33. 399 – 13.95 × 19.9 + ? = 23.022

1) 420
2) 510
3) 410
4) 310
5) 540

34. 18.08% of 7869.98 + ? + 29.9% of 429.9 = 2048. 6

1) 403
2) 603
3) 593
4) 503
5) 568

35. 930 – 29.05 × 3.99 – ? = 250

1) 574
2) 564
3) 584
4) 544
5) 546

Directions (Q. 36 –40): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below:

Data regarding number of visitors (in thousands) visiting a Zoo in a city in a different months

Months Number of Visitors Respective ratio of male
and female visitors
Percentage of visitors of
age group less than or
equal to 25 years in the
respective months
July 2014 45 4 : 5 45
August 2014 65 8 : 5 58
September
2014
75 5 : 7 62
October 2014 136 5 : 3 65
November
2014
126 3 : 4 68

36. What is the average number of visitors who had visited the zoo of the age group less than or equal to 25 years in all the months together?

1) Other than given options
2) 56706
3) 55806
4) 55706
5) 58106

37. In November 2014, out of the total number of visitors in the age group less than or equal to 25 years, who visited the zoo, 65% of the visitors were females. What is the difference between the number of male visitors in the age group above 25 years and the number of female visitors in the age group above 25 years?

1) 7604
2) Other than given options
3) 7704
4) 7724
5) 7614

38. Number of female visitors in September 2014 forms what percent of the total number of female visitors in July 2014 and August 2014?

1) 87.5%
2) 86.25%
3) Other than given options
4) 87.75%
5) 84.5%

39. What is the respective ratio of the number of female visitors to the zoo in the month of October 2014 to the number of male visitors to the zoo in the month of November 2014?

1) 17 : 19
2) 16 : 19
3) 17 : 20
4) Other than given options
5) 17 : 18

40. What is the total number of male visitors to the zoo taking all the months together?

1) 240250
2) 238250
3) Other than given options
4) 251250
5) 230250

Directions (Q. 41 – 45): In the following number series one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

41. 2580, 2460, 2364, 2200, 1892, 1152

1) 2580
2) 2200
3) 2364
4) 2460
5) 1892

42. 7, 17, 55, 235, 1131, 6793

1) 55
2) 235
3) 17
4) 1131
5) 6793

43. 4, 15, 41, 134, 547, 746

1) 41
2) 746
3) 547
4) 15
5) 4

44. 5, 15, 20, 55, 165, 520

1) 15
2) 20
3) 520
4) 5
5) 165

45. 129, 126, 118, 103, 79, 64

1) 126
2) 129
3) 64
4) 79
5) 103

46. Two trains starts from station A and station D at 5 am and 7 am respectively and travels toward station D and station A respectively. The distance between both the station A and D is 1066 km. The speed of both the trains is 93 km/hr and 88.5 km/hr. At what time will they meet?

1) 6 pm
2) 4 pm
3) Other than given options
4) 3 pm
5) 5 pm

47. Surbhi is four times as old as her daughter Anu and Surbhi's husband Rajeev is 28 years more than Anu. The difference between thrice the age of Rajeev ten years ago and twice the age of Surbhi ten years ago was 39. What will be the respective ratio of Surbhi's age 18 years hence and Rajeev's age 15 years hence?

1) 23 : 26
2) 23 : 25
3) 24 : 25
4) 23 : 27
5) 24 : 27

48. Anamika borrowed ` 9600 from Kavita at 9% p.a simple interest for 3 years. She then added some more money to the borrowed sum and lent it to Abhishek for the same period at 12% p.a rate of interest. If Anamika gains ` 1404 in the whole transaction, how much money did she add from her side?

1) Other than given options
2) ` 1800
3) ` 1250
4) ` 1500
5) ` 1450

49. 32 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days. 2 days after the work started, 6 men left the work. How many days will remaining men now take to complete the work?

1) 16 days
2) 18 days
3) 14 days
4) 17 days
5) 15 days

50. A dealer marked the price of an item 40% above the cost price. Once he gave successive discount of 22% and 25% on that item to a customer. As a result he incurred a loss of ` 543. At what price did he sell the item to the mentioned customer?

1) ` 2475
2) ` 2487
3) ` 2467
4) ` 2357
5) ` 2457

Directions (Q. 51 – 55): Each of the questions given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and give answer:

1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

51. What is the average age of a group of 24 boys?

I. Average age of first twelve boys of the group is 30 years.
II. Average age of last twelve boys of the group is 34 years.

52. What is the radius of a circle whose area is equal to the area of square?

I. Perimeter of square is 112 m.
II. Diagonal of square is 28 2 m.

53. What is the marked price of the table?

I. The marked price of the table is 45% above the cost price of the table.
II. The table was sold for ` 585 after two successive discounts. The percentage of discount given for second time is double the percentage of discount given for the first time while selling the table.

54. What is the speed of the train whose length is 560 m?

I. The train crosses a 165 m long platform in 29 seconds.
II. The train crosses another train in15 seconds.

55. What is the average speed of the car over the entire distance?

I. The total time taken is 72 minutes.
II. The car covers the whole distance in four equal stretches at speeds of 60 km/hr, 30 km/hr, 20 km/hr and 10 km/hr respectively.

Directions (Q. 56–60): Study the following line graph carefully and answer the following questions:

Number of cars manufactured by two companies over the years.

56. In which of the following years, the difference between the number of cars manufactured by companies X and Y was the second highest?

1) Other than given options
2) 2012
3) 2013
4) 2014
5) 2011

57. The number of cars manufactured by company Y in 2013 was approximately what percent of the number of cars manufactured by company X in 2011?

1) Other than given options
2) 129.6%
3) 124.6%
4) 128.6%
5) 138.5%

58. What is the average number of cars manufactured by company X over the given period?

1) 13500
2) 12800
3) 12500
4) 12600
5) Other than given options

59. The number of cars manufactured by company X in 2012 and 2015 together is approximately by what percent more than the number of cars manufactured by company Y in 2010?

1) 116%
2) Other than given options
3) 112%
4) 108%
5) 114%

60. The number of cars manufactured by company X in 2013 and 2014 together is approximately what percent of the number of cars manufactured by company Y in 2011 and 2012 together?

1) 91%
2) 94%
3) 89%
4) 88%
5) Other than given options

:: General Awareness and Current Affairs ::

61. Indian actress who was one of the top actresses in the 1960s and early 1970s, who died recently–

1) Jiah Khan
2) Sadhana Sargam
3) Sadhana Shivdasani
4) Divya Bharati
5) Aarthi Agarwal

62. Which day is observed as "International Street Children's day"?

1) 3rd January
2) 12th April
3) 31st March
4) 3rd February
5) 3rd April

63. Where is the Headquarters of "Food and Agriculture Organization" (FAO)?

1) Rome, Italy
2) Geneva, Switzerland
3) Ottawa, Canada
4) Paris, France
5) London, UK

64. Where is the Capital of "Canada"?

1) Juba
2) Cairo
3) Oslo
4) Nuuk
5) Ottawa

65. In which year the Indian Life insurance Companies Act came into force for regulating the life insurance business?

1) 1912
2) 1928
3) 1938
4) 1956
5) 1948

66. "Nizam Gold Cup" is related to which game?

1) Football
2) Cricket
3) Hockey
4) Polo
5) Golf

67. What does 'J' stand for in "NJAC"?

1) Judiciary
2) Judgement
3) Justice
4) Judicial
5) Judge

68. "Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant" is located in which state?

1) Tamil Nadu
2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Chhattisgarh
4) Odisha
5) Madhya Pradesh

69. The Book titled "What happened to Netaji" is authored by–

1) Nandan Nilekani
2) Uday Satpathy
3) Viral Shah
4) Vikram Seth
5) Anuj Dhar

70. Who among the following is the current chairman of Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India?

1) Vimal Jain
2) S. K. Roy
3) A. K. Saxena
4) A. V. Girija Kumar
5) Milind Kharat

71. Who among the following is recently conferred with Jnanpith Award 2015?

1) Raghuveer Chaudhari
2) Bhalchandra Nemade
3) Kedarnath Singh
4) Rajiv Sharma
5) Ravuri Bharadwaj

72. Recently, who was appointed as Governor of Himachal Pradesh?

1) Dr. Syed Ahmed
2) Nitin Gadkari
3) Acharya Dev Vrat
4) Ramvilas Paswan
5) V. Shanmuganthan

73. What is the currency of "Spain"?

1) Euro
2) Dollar
3) Peso
4) Yen
5) Rial

74. Roger Federer is related to which game?

1) Tennis
2) Cricket
3) Football
4) Golf
5) Hockey

75. The amount of risk retained by an insurance company which is not re–insured, is called–

1) Gratuity
2) Annuity

3) Retention
4) Brokerage
5) Surrender Value

76. Who is head of the National Informatics centre (NIC)?

1) Mitali Chatterjee
2) Dr. M. R. Anand
3) Dr. Ajay Kumar
4) Dr. Govind
5) Rajesh Bahadur

77. Who has been appointed as the Executive Director of the United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)?

1) Meena Hemchandra
2) Anthony Lake
3) Subhash Chandra Garg
4) Aakar Patel
5) Arun Tiwari

78. Where will the 'Commonwealth games' 2018 be held?

1) Australia
2) North Korea
3) China
4) Scotland
5) Phillippines

79. FDI limit in defence sector is–

1) 48%
2) 46%
3) 49%
4) 50%
5) 47%

80. "Aapke Sachhe Advisor" is the tagline of which Indian Insurance company?

1) New India Assurance Company Limited
2) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
3) United India Insurance Company Limited
4) MAX life Insurance Company Limited
5) SBI Life Insurance Company Limited

81. Full form of 'ATAS' is–

1) Agency Training Assurance System
2) AlternateTrain Accommodation Scheme
3) Assurance Training Agency Scheme
4) Alternative Train Assurance System
5) Agency Train Adjustment Scheme

82. Operation Blackboard is related to–

1) Supply the bare minimum crucial facilities to secondary schools in the country.
2) Provide only Books to all Primary Schools in the country.
3) Provide only food to all Primary Schools in the country.
4) Provide only Blackboard to all Primary Schools in the country.
5) Supply the bare minimum crucial facilities to all Primary Schools in the country.

83. Which of the following city has a nick name of 'Queenof Deccan'?

1) Pune
2) Cochi
3) Nilgiri
4) Kolkata
5) Lucknow

84. What is the rank of India on the Global Peace Index 2015?

1) 134th
2) 144th
3) 142nd
4) 133rd
5) 143rd

85. _____ is the amount charged every year by the insurer to provide the life cover to the Policyholder on the life of the life Insured.

1) Terminal bonus
2) Third Party charge
3) Policy charge
4) Maturity charge
5) Mortality charge

86. Who is the winner of "Australian Grand Prix" 2015?

1) Nico Roseberg
2) Felipe Massa
3) Sebastian Vettel
4) Lewis Hamilton
5) Felipe Nasr

87. Which state represents the highest sex ratio (1084– 1000) in the latest census report?

1) Bihar
2) Punjab
3) Kerala
4) Tamil Nadu
5) Andhra Pradesh

88. Which bank launched M.Visa Electronic card less Transactions for Pocket App?

1) ICICI Bank
2) SBI Bank
3) RBL Bank
4) Bank of India
5) Indian Bank

89. The amount of cash funds that the Banks have to maintain with RBI in cash as reserves, is called–

1) Repo Rate
2) Reverse Repo Rate
3) CRR Rate
4) SLR Rate
5) MSF Rate

90. The current Repo rate of RBI is

1) 6.25%
2) 6. 70%
3) 6. 75%
4) 7.75%
5) 7.25%

::Computer Knowledge ::

91. Which of the following is needed to run a CD in a computer?

1) Flash drive
2) Zip drive
3) Hard drive
4) Disc drive
5) Other than given options

92. _____ is used by the central processing unit (CPU) of a computer to reduce the average time to access data from the main memory.

1) Cookies
2) ROM
3) Cache
4) Flash–drive
5) Buffer

93. What does 'R' stand for in 'VIRUS'?

1) Ridge
2) Resources
3) Report
4) Random
5) Read

94. 'Kimball Tag Reader' is which type of device?

1) Input device
2) Output device
3) Pointing device
4) Both 1 and 3
5) Other than given options

95. The octal number 17 is equivalent to the Binary number _____.

1) 1011
2) 1100
3) 1101
4) 1110
5) 1111

96. Which of the following is the first computer network of world?

1) VSF net
2) Arpanet
3) I–net
4) V–net
5) Infra – net

97. In which network topology each node connects to exactly two other nodes, forming a single continuous pathway?

1) Ring
2) Bus
3) Mesh
4) Star
5) All of the above

98. A link to a website address saved electronically in a browser to facilitate quick access to the web page is called–

1) Source page
2) Home page
3) Search Page
4) Bookmark
5) Main page

99. Which option is used to increase or decrease a speed of mouse cursor?

1) Icon
2) My computer
3) Task bar
4) Default Program
5) Control Panel

100. _____ is a way of organizing windows on your desktop.

1) Portrait
2) Landscape
3) Cascading
4) Maximizing
5) Other than given options

101. Computer language FORTRAN is appropriate for–

1) Commercial purpose
2) Graphic Purpose
3) Scientific Purpose
4) Business Purpose
5) Other than given options

102. _____ is a device that provides battery backup when the electrical power fails or drops to an unacceptable voltage level.

1) USB
2) Battery
3) Power Plug
4) Sockets
5) UPS

103. Which function key is used to rename a highlighted icon, file, or folder in all versions of windows?

1) F1
2) F2
3) F3
4) F4
5) F5

104. Built in memory of computer is _____.

1) ROM
2) RAM
3) Flash memory
4) S–RAM
5) D–RAM

105. What is the full form of 'MAC'?

1) Multi Area Control
2) Micro Access Control
3) Multi Access Control
4) Media Access Control
5) Motherboard Access Control

106. An image of a graphic or document that is reduced in size so that it serves as an icon of a larger image is called–

1) Icon
2) Window
3) Thumbnail
4) Graphics
5) Symbol

107. A compiler is used to translate a programme written in ______ language.

1) high level
2) low level
3) assembly
4) machine
5) Other than given options

108. ______ is a collection of pictures or images that can be imported into a document or another program.

1) Draft
2) Peripherals
3) Clip art
4) Firefox
5) Templates

109. Which command is given to displays a list of a folder's files and subfolders?

1) dir
2) cls
3) echo
4) disp
5) driver query

110. Safari is a _____ .

1) Operating System
2) Programming Language
3) Anti Virus Software
4) Web Browser
5) Other than given options

111. Which of the following is used for memory measurement?

1) GHz
2) Lb
3) Hz
4) Ub
5) Pb

112. In a programming Language, ______ is the set of rules that define the combinations of symbols that are considered to be correctly structured programs in that language.

1) logic
2) assembler
3) syntax
4) compiler
5) bugging

113. Which of the following shortcut keys is used to switch between open applications on Taskbar?

1) Alt + Tab
2) Alt + Enter
3) Shift + Esc
4) Ctrl + Enter
5) Ctrl + Esc

114. Which database package is used on Ms–Dos based personal computers?

1) Auto CAD
2) Dbase III
3) Coral
4) Word star
5) Other than given options

115. What does 'A' denotes in 'AMD'?

1) Asymmetric
2) Arithmetic
3) Advanced
4) American
5) Application

116. Which test is performed during booting process, when you turn on the computer?

1) ROM test
2) RAM test
3) Memory test
4) Power–on–self–test
5) Disk drive test

117. ______ is a method of software that is distributed free on a trial basis with the built–in expiration data, so that the user can no longer get access to the Program.

1) Firmware
2) Shareware
3) Public domain software
4) Boot strap
5) Other than given options

118. What is called to restart a computer that is already ON?

1) Cold booting
2) Log In
3) Hibernation
4) Warm booting
5) Switch user

119. Creating a Presentation in Power–Point, ______ keys is used to Broadcast the open Presentation to a remote audience using the Power Point Web application.

1) Shift + F6
2) Ctrl + O
3) Ctrl + W
4) Ctrl + F5
5) Ctrl + F6

120. Which of the following is an extension used for an audio file?

1) .AIF
2) .RA
3) .MP4
4) Only 1 and 3
5) All of the above

:: English Language ::

Directions (Q. 121–125) : Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

(A) Now we, in India, need to step-up on gas.
(B) It is welcome that Petronet LNG, India’s biggest importer of liquefied natural gas, has struck a deal with Qatar’s RasGas that would about halve the price to $6-7 per million British thermal unit.
(C) The global gas market has turned on its head in the past few months.
(D) Petronet will also not have to pay the Rs 12,000-crore penalty for lower off take last year.
(E) Prices have tumbled, demand is weak and there is unprecedented ramp-up of liquefaction capacity globally.
(F) It makes perfect sense to deregulate gas prices, to shore up supplies to meet rising demand.
(G) The price reduction has everything to do with much easier trend in oil prices, massive new LNG export facilities coming on stream in the foreseeable future, the huge potential for stepped-up gas usage here and India’s rising geopolitical heft.

121.Which of the following would be the 'THIRD' sentence after rearrangement?

1) B
2) E
3) C
4) A
5) D

122.Which of the following would be the 'SECOND' sentence after rearrangement?

1) E
2) A
3) F
4) D
5) B

123.Which of the following would be the 'FOURTH' sentence after rearrangement?

1) A
2) F
3) D
4) G
5) B

124.Which of the following would be the 'FIFTH' sentence after rearrangement?

1) G
2) C
3) E
4) B
5) F

125.Which of the following would be the 'FIRST' sentence after rearrangement?

1) F
2) A
3) E
4) B
5) C

Directions (Q. 126–135): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

India is busy patting itself on the back for having overtaken China as the world’s fastest growing major economy. But, for all that, China has – and will continue to have – far greater clout on the international scene than India. The world takes China seriously, and treats it with respect. The world doesn’t take India seriously, and often treats it with disrespect. A case in point is the recent summary deportation of a number of Indian citizens – students, business travelers, tourists – by US immigration authorities. All the Indians had valid US visas, but no explanation was given by the US authorities as to why they were denied entry into that country.

Nothing has been done from the Indian side about this shabby treatment of its citizens by a foreign country, except of issuing a travel advisory telling Indian travelers to the US to carry with them as much documentation as possible to establish their bonafides with US officials who might otherwise send them packing back home, with no reasons given for the expulsion. If you are an Indian going to the US – to study, do business, to visit friends and relatives, or just for a holiday – you should have with you your most recent bank statement, proof of sufficient funds for the duration of your stay, your income tax returns for the last couple of years and ‘anything else which you think might be relevant to your case. The source for this report is the US department of homeland security, customs and border protection. If Chinese citizens had been treated the way Indians have been by the US authorities, Beijing would have raised an almighty ruckus about it, and flexed its economic and political muscle, both of which are considerable. But more than anything else, China has time and again shown that it will not take lying down any disrespect of it or its citizens.

India, on the other hand, lets the world and its brother walk all over it. The Indian government hasn’t taken the matter up at the highest level with the US. Indian-origin Americans, said to be the most prosperous of any immigrant community in America, including the Chinese community, haven’t raised a stink about the issue. Unlike China and the Chinese we lack self-confidence regarding our international stature.

126.What can be the suitable title of the above passage?

1) Tensions between India and China
2) Respecting China
3) World’s growing indifference towards India
4) Experience of Indian citizen
5) The growing dragon

127. According to the passage, which of the following statements is/are true?

A. India is the world’s fastest growing major economy.
B. World disrespects China.
C. World treats India casually.

1) Only A
2) Both A and C
3) Only B
4) Both A and B
5) Other than the given options

128. Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of “patting itself on the back” as used in the passage?

1) To boast about one’s achievements
2) To prepare
3) To praise one’s efforts
4) To complain about delays
5) Other than the given options

129. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word 'EXPULSION' as used in the passage?

1) Ejection
2) Proscription
3) Eviction
4) Welcoming
5) Discharge

130. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word 'SHABBY' as used in the passage?

1) Scruffy
2) Ragged
3) Tidy
4) Respectable
5) Dilapidated

131. According to the passage, Indian travelers need to carry with them as much documentation as possible because

1) they treat us like we are antisocial elements.
2) India policy of support for other countries.
3) they require to gain the confidence of the US officials
4) All the above
5) Other than the given options

132. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'Clout' as used in the passage?

1) Impotence
2) Start
3) Source
4) Cause
5) Prestige

133. According to the passage, for what the term “anything else” has been used?

1) any reference person
2) any other document
3) recent bank statements
4) income tax returns
5) All the above

134. According to the author, what are the points made about India and China?

1) India is not much concerned about its international stature while China is.
2) China can’t bear disrespect of it or its citizens.
3) US is afraid of China flexing its economic and political muscle.
4) All the above
5) Only 1) and 2)

135. The author in the passage can be seen as being

1) happy about rising China’s influence over the world
2) angry about how India is treating its citizen
3) worried about India losing its credibility in the eye of the world
4) concerned about India – US relations
5) Other than the given options

Directions (Q. 136–140): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.

136. The talks ______ originally ______ for Friday.

1) is, structured
2) were, scheduled
3) was, organised
4) had, planned
5) will, programmed

137. A trial court ______ there was ______ evidence to proceed against all convicts.

1) said, sufficient
2) believed, many
3) told, some
4) hold, few
5) told, great

138. A______ of Army dogs will ______ the majestic Rajpath.

1) group, run up
2) contingent, march down
3) herd, travel
4) party, stroll down
5) delegation, walk up

139. India ______ that both countries had ______ to hold foreign secretary level talks.

1) declared, centered
2) broadcasted, determined
3) signaled, committed
4) forecasted, organised
5) announced, decided

140. The SC asked the Manipur government _____ the Army should be _____ in the state.

1) how far, shown
2) how lengthy, implemented
3) how much, invested
4) how long, deployed
5) how more, grounded

Directions (Q. 141–145): IRead each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error' the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

141. What bails 1)/ the film out of 2)/ these tricky mistakes 3)/ is its solid performances. 4)/ No error 5)

142. The director pushes 1)/all buttons 2)/to be evoked 3)/ the audience’s emotions. 4)/ No error 5)

143. Even more chilling 1)/than the storm outside 2)/ are equations between 3)/the humans inside. 4)/ No error 5)

144. By this time 1)/ the police was informed 2)/ and a team from 3)/ police station reached there. 4)/ No error 5)

145. The bench, however,1)/ was not satisfied and said 2)/under the Air Act, the committee had the power 3)/ to initiate prosecutions. 4)/ No error 5)

Directions (Q. 146–150): In each sentence below, a word/ group of words has been printed in bold. From the five answer choices given below each sentence, pick out the one which can substitute the bold word/group of words correctly, without changing the meaning of the sentence.

146. Three games in which I participated earlier brought this home point to me fairly spectacularly.

1) bring this point
2) brought this point home
3) brought point this home
4) this point brought home
5) No correction required

147. As if it had a pastoral and rural look from outside, inside the building was quite modernised.

1) Though it had
2) As it had
3) Even when
4) But for
5) No correction required

148. Uniqueness of Indian cultures does not simply refer to its esoteric nature.

1) The uniqueness of the Indian culture
2) Indian culture and its importance
3) The Indian
4) Unique culture
5) No correction required

149. Mumbai has been more preferred target for most terrorist organisations.

1) the preferred
2) highly preferable
3) the most preferred
4) probably prefer
5) No correction required

150. He writes to share only those few daily instants, which his followers can recognise with.

1) those only to share
2) to share only this
3) only to share those
4) only those to share
5) No correction required

Directions (Q. 151 – 160): In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

The Supreme Court has ruled that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and commercial banks must (151) the names of defaulters to people (152) such information under the Right to Information Act (RTI). On the face of it, this sounds fair to citizens. But the regulator seems to be getting a raw deal. The RTI Act is meant to reveal (153) that inform policymaking. A citizen can seek clarifications on what the government (154) to do about something of vital interest to her. Banks (155) deposits from the public and are accountable to the RBI for the (156) use of such deposits. It would be naïve to expect any citizen who seeks (157) from banks on, say, their (158) reports to assess the financial strength of the bank or the efficiency of its operations. Deposits collected by banks are repayable (159) demand. So, the key consideration for the RBI is (160) depositor interest.

151.

1) ask
2) suggest
3) question
4) endorse
5) reveal

152.

1) prompting
2) seeking
3) discussing
4) answering
5) viewing

153.

1) result
2) reasons
3) plan
4) issue
5) resources

154.

1) solves
2) proposes
3) sanction
4) pay
5) permit

155.

1) allow
2) grant
3) reward
4) collect
5) follow

156.

1) clear
2) prudent
3) ultimate
4) has
5) great

157.

1) prosperity
2) information
3) hope
4) equality
5) authority

158.

1) examination
2) test
3) check
4) verification
5) inspection

159.

1) under
2) in
3) on
4) of
5) strategy

160.

1) to show
2) to view
3) to like
4) to protect
5) to make

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(Paper) SBI Junior Associates Exam - 2009 "General Awareness"

(Paper) SBI Junior Associates (Customer Support & Sales) & Junior Agricultural Associates Exam - 2009

Subject: General Awareness

1. The changed management programme ol which of the following banks is named as "Parivartan" ?

(1) Reserve Bank of India
(2) Bank of India
(3) Union Bank of India
(4) BankofBaroda
(5) State Bank of India

2. The Government of India recently increased its allocation of funds of which of the following schemes by 37% to make it Rs. 12,886 crores ?

(1) Midday Meal Scheme ,.
(2) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yqjana
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewable Mission (JNNURM)
(4) National Watershed Development Programme
(5) None of these

3. Which of the following countries has decided to give a 20% subsidy to its farmers even though they are rich ?

(1) France
(2) England
(3) Italy
(4) USA
(5) Germany

4. Which of the following statement is/are true about the Rail Budget 2009-10 presented in July 2009 ?

(A) A new scheme 'Izzat' was un* veiled for the workers in unorganised sector. In this scheme, monthly season tickets will be available at the rate of Rs. 25 only.
(B) No charges will be levied for "TatkalTickets" if booked 72 hours in advance.
(C) Now passengers can buy their reserved tickets from 5000 post offices.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Both A and C
(5) All A, B and C

5. As per the report published recently, Income Tax Department has found about Rs. 1,200 crores lying in Frozen Demat Accounts in India. Why were these Demat Accounts frozen ?

(A) Funds in these accounts were coming from unknown foreign sources.
(B) These account holders were not able to produce their Permanent Account Number, which is mandatory for such transactions.
(C) There are the accounts of those who expired without making a will or nominating someone as their heir apparents.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) All A, B and C
(5) None of these

6. As per the reports published in various newspapers/magazines, the Indo-US trade dropped by 25% in January to March 2009. But there are certain items whose exports were on increase.

Which of the following is/are these items ?

(A) Sugar
(B) Steel
(C) Apparels

(1) Only B and C
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A
(5) All A, B and C

7. Which of the following clearly defines what corporate taxes are?

(A) It is a direct tax levied on the income of a company or association.
(B) It is a tax which is levied to the companies on their production and commonly known as Value Added Tax (VAT).
(C) This is the tax levied on the income of the Directors, Promoters of a company/association on the profits earned by them during the year.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) All A, B and C
(5) None of these

8. The Government of India is planning to infuse how much amount in 12 public sector banks to make their capital base strong ?

(1) Rs. 10,000' crores
(2) Rs. 12,000 crores
(3) Rs. 16,000 crores
(4) Rs. 22.000 crores
(5) Rs. 24,000 crores

9. How much amount did the Government of India allocate the National Housing Bank i.NHB) for making up of the shortfall in priority sector lending by commercial banks? (Announcement was made in Union Budget 2009-10).

(1) Rs. 1,000 crores
(2) Rs. 2,000 crores
(3) Rs. 2,500 crores
(4) Rs. 3,000 crores
(5) Rs. 5,000 crores

10. After J.L. Nehru, who amongst the following was/is the other Prime Minister-who completed his/her first term and immediately carne for the second term ?

(1) Iviisvlndira Gandhi
(2) Dr. Manmchan Singh
(3) Mr. Htal Bihari Vajpayee
(4) Mr. Rajiv Gandhi
(5) None of these

11. Which of the following teams won the 'Asia Cup HockeyTournament' held in May 2009 ?

(1) South Korea
(2) Iran
(3) India
(4) Pakistan
(5) China

12. Which of the following countries recently conducted 2nd nuclear test and also test fired some missiles defying the condemnation of various nations ?

(1) North Korea
(2) China
(3) South Korea
(4) Pakistan
(5) USA

13. An epidemic of infectious diseases which is passed on through population across a large region or worldwide is called—

(1) Pandemic
(2) Endemic
(3) Global
(4) Non infectious
(5) None of these

14. Which of the following is the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) at present ?

(1) 3%
(2) 4% ,
(3) 5%
(4) 6%
(5) None of these

15. Who amongst the following is the winner of Women's Singles "French Open Tennis Tournamcnt- 2009' ?

(1) Dinara Safina
(2) Virginia Ruaho Pascual
(3) Anabcl Medina Garrigues
(4) Svetlana Kuznetsova
(5) None of these

16. Many times we read in newspapers/ magazines about the increase or decrease in tax collection.

Which of the following taxes is not included in the tax collection levied by the Union Government ?

(1) property Tax
(2) Education. Cess
(3) Corporate Tax
(4) Income Tax r
(5) Fringe Benefit Tax

17. Sheikh Sharif Ahmed who is heading a UN backed Central Government in his country, is the President of—

(1) Somalia
(2) Iran
(3) Uganda
(4) Israel
(5) None of these

18. Which of the following is the name of the international treaty which was signed by many nations to curb production of atomic bombs and other such Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) ?

(1) 123 Agreement
(2) Rio Declaration
(3) Rotterdom Convention
(4) Nuclear Non Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
(5) None of these

19- Which of the following nations celebrated its first Republic Day on 29th May, 2009 ?

(1) Fiji
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Myanmar
(4) Nepal
(5) None of these

20. Which of the following is/are the objectives of the National Mission on Sustainable Habitat ?

(A) Greater emphasis on urban waste management and recycling.
(B) Emphasis on use of items made of plastics and other such material and not of metals,as they need deep digging of earth.
(C) It suggests incentive for use of public transportation more and more.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Both A and C
(4) Both A and B
(5) All A, B and C

21. As per the National Food Security Act, how much wheat or rice, the people below poverty line, will get every month at the rate of Rs. 3 per kg.?

(1) 10 kg.
(2) 15 kg.
(3) 20 kg.
(4) 25 kg.
(5) None of these

22. As we all know, emission of certain gases is responsible for the level of Global Warming. Which of the following gases makes maximum contribution in the same ?

(1) Ammonia
(2) Oxygen
(3) Carbon Dioxide
(4) Nitrogen
(5) None of these

23. Sayali Gokhale who won an international title recently in associated with which of the following games/sports ?

(1) Lawn Tennis
(2) Badminton
(3) Golf
(4) Chess
(5) None of these

24 . Who amongst the following is NOT a member of the Council of Ministers headed by Dr. Manmohan Singh ?

(1) Mr. Vilasrao Deshmukh
(2) Mr. Praful Patel
(3) Mr. Kama! Nath
(4) Ms. AmbikaSoni
(5) Mr. Rahul Gandhi

25 . Which of the following is NOT a banking or finance related term ?

(1) Letter of Credit
(2) Back up Guarantee
(3) LIBOR
(4) Polymerisation
(5) Factoring Services

26 . Twang I and Twang II. two big hydropower projects are being developed in the slate of—

(1) Assam
(2) Meghalaya
(3) West Bengal
(4} Tripura
(5) Arunachal Pradesh

27 . "Navrauia Status" is awarded to which of the following organisation/units?

(1) Those IITs/IIMs who are doing good research work
(2) Defence production units/ factories who are showing good profits
(3) Any public sector manufacturing unit doing well and earning good profits
(4) A public sector bank rated very high by the RBI in the area of customer service andrecovery of NPAs
(5) None of these

28 . 'IraniTrophy" is associated with which of the following games ?

(1) Badminton
(2) Golf
(3) Cricket
(4) Football
(5) Hockey

29 . Which of the following awards is , given for the excellence in the field of literature in India ?

(1) Arjun Award
(2) Bharatiya Jnanpiih Award
(3) Shanti Swamp Bhatnagarj Award
(4) Dronacharya Award
(5) Tansen Sanman

30 . The World Population Day is observed on—

(1) 10th July
(2) 11th July
(3) 10th August
(4) 11th August
(5) 15th September

31 . An Indian citizen can open a Savings Account in which ol the following ?

(1) SIDBI
(2) RBI
(3) NABARD
(4) A Private Sector Bank
(5) None of these

32 . Indian citizens generally make investments in many schemes.

Which of the following is not the name of any such scheme in which investment for the purpose of saving income tax can be made?

(1) National Savings Certificate
(2) White Papers
(3) Mutual Funds
(4) Infrastructure Bonds
(5) L1C policies

33. Which of the following has written the book "Between the Lines" ?

(1) V.S.Naipaul
(2) PremBhatia
(3) Kuldeep Nayyar
(4) C. Rangarajan
(5) Saul Bellow

34. Which of the following countries has decided to use the revenue collected from newly discovered oil field to make a Special Sovereign Fund ?

(1) Iraq
(2) Russia
(3) Iran
(4) Indonesia
(5) Brazil

35. Many times, we read a term 'ISO'. What is the full form of the same?

(1) International Social Organisation
(2) Insurance and Social Obligationsr
(3) International Space Organisation
(4) Integrated Security Organisation
(5) International Standards Organisation

36. As per the reports published by the Government of India, what is the approximate percentage of the people in rural India who hold a bank account ?

(1) 10%
(2) 20%
(3) 25%
(4) 15%
(5) 35%

37. Mr. Kurmanbek Bakiev has taken over as President of—

(1) Honduras
(2) Lithuania
(3) Venezuela
(4) Kyrgyzstan
(5) None of these

38. If some people wish to start a banking company in India, they certainly need a permission of the—

(1) I ndian Banks' Assocation
(2) Institute of Chartered Acccounts in India
(3) Ministry of Finance
(4) Banking Ombudsman
(5) Reserve Bank of India

39. The number of people living Below Poverty Line (BPL) is maximum in—

(1) Gujarat
(2) Tamil Nadu
(3) Jammu and Kashmir
(4) Maharashtra
(5) Orissa

40. Basel Norms are related with further strengthening and performance of—

(1) Public sector manufacturing units
(2) Banking Industry
(3) Educational Institutes
(4) Hotels
(5) None of these

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(Sample Paper) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Test - 1

(Sample Paper) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Sample Test - 1

:: Reasoning ::

Directions (Q. 1–5): In each question given below three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.

You have to take all the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from all the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:
1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) If both conclusion I and II follow.

(1–2): Statements:

Some classes are college.
No college is a school.
All schools are states.

1. Conclusions:

I. No state is a class.
II. All colleges being states is a possibility.

2. Conclusions:

I. All schools being colleges is a possibility.
II. Some states are not colleges.

(3–4): Statements:

No browser is website.
Some internet are computer.
All websites are computers.

3. Conclusions:

I. A few internets is being website is a possibility.
II. All website can never be browser.

4. Conclusions:
I.
All computer being browser is a possibility.
II. Some internet are not browser.

5. Statements:

All gold is gift.
Some gifts are gadget.
No gadget is gate.

Conclusions:

I. All gate being gift is a possibility.
II. Some gold being gate is a possibility.

Directions (Q. 6– 10): In the following questions, the symbols @, $,  ,% and © are used with following meaning as illustrated below:

'P @ Q' means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
'P $ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P  Q' means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P © Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.
'P % Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'.

Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer:

1) If only conclusion I is true.
2) If only conclusion II is true.
3) If either conclusion I or II is true.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) If both conclusions I and II are true.

Directions (Q. 11-16) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around the square table. Those four persons who sit at the four corners are facing towards centre and rest are facing away from the centre and sitting exactly at the middle of four sides. They are related to different professions viz. Doctor, Politician, Actor, Teacher, Pilot, Writer, Artist and Engineer but not necessarily in the same order. P is second to the left of Pilot. There are three persons between Teacher and W. Actor is facing away from the centre. Q is between T and W. Z is an Artist. S and Politician are not at the corners of the square. Doctor is an immediate left of Teacher. Pilot and Engineer are facing each other. The one who is an Engineer is third to the right of Artist, who is not facing towards the centre. T is not Teacher but facing away from the centre. Engineer is not the immediate neighbour of Q. V is not a Pilot, but an immediate neighbour of actor. The politician sits second to the left of Z. Q is not an Engineer and second to the left of V. P is a doctor.

11. Who among the following is a Politician?

1) R
2) T
3) W
4) S
5) Z

12. Who among the following is exactly between Teacher and Artist?

1) Doctor
2) Pilot
3) Politician
4) Writer
5) Actor

13. Four of the following are alike in some way, thus form the group find out the odd one?

1) S
2) Z
3) W
4) Q
5) T

14. Who among the following is second to the right of an Engineer?

1) S
2) P
3) Z
4) W
5) T

15. How many persons are there between Artist and Actor?

1) One
2) Two
3) None
4) Three
5) Other than given options

16. Which of the following does match correctly?

1) S- Writer
2) Z- Politician
3) R- Pilot
4) V- Doctor
5) All are correct

Directions (Q.17 – 21): Following sentences are written in a certain code language–

'business is easy in India - 'lk tx bi na tp'
'in business everything is fair' - 'nic bi tx jk lk'
'doing business was not fair' - 'lk hr jk pt nt'
'how everything is not easy' - 'et bi nic na pt'

Based on the above information. Give the answers of the following questions.

17. Which of the following is code for 'how'?

1) bi
2) na
3) et
4) nic
5) wt

18. What is the code for 'how fair'?

1) et jk
2) jk nt
3) et nic
4) et na
5) pt et

19. What is the code for 'doing'?

1) hr
2) nt
3) jk
4) lk
5) Either 1) or 2)

20. What does the code 'tp' stand in the given code language?

1) business
2) India
3) is
4) easy
5) in

21. 'bi nic fa' is the possible code for which of the following?

1) is everything fair
2) everything is easy
3) is something fine
4) is everything fine
5) are something fair

Directions (Q. 22-24) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are eight people in a family viz. J, L, P, R, S, T, N and V consists of 3 generations. (Note- order is not necessarily same) Four of them are female. S and P are daughter and son of L respectively and both are married. T is sister of V whose father is R. J and N are of 3rd generation and J is son-in-law of T. L is brother-in-law of V.

22. Who among the following is sister-in-law of S?

1) V
2) P
3) J
4) N 5) R

23. If K is child of S then how P is related to that child?

1) Paternal uncle
2) Maternal uncle
3) Father
4) Cannot be determined
5) Grandfather

24. How is V related to S?

1) Sister
2) Mother
3) Grandmother
4) Sister-in-law
5) Aunt

25. Statement: Lakhs of banking employees are on strike protesting the merger of the subsidiary bank of SBI in SBI.

Which of the following may be the effect of that strike?

1) Customers are unable to deposit or withdraw cash in branches.
2) Cheques worth crores could not be cleared.
3) Public will start protest against the employees.
4) All of the above
5) Only 1 and 2

Directions (Q. 26-30) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

P, R, S, T, V, W and Z are seven books to be launched in a week, (from Monday to Sunday) but not necessarily in the same order. Not more than one book is launched in a day. Only two books will be launched between book W and Z. Only two books will be launched after the book Z. Three books will be launched between R and V. Book S will be launched after the book T. Book P will be launched before the book T and S are launched. Book R is not be launched on Sunday.

26. Which of the following book will be launched on Monday?

1) T
2) P
3) R
4) S
5) Other than given options

27. Book T will be launched on which of the following day?

1) Wednesday
2) Thursday
3) Tuesday
4) Friday
5) Saturday

28. Which of the following book will be launched immediately before the book V?

1) P
2) T
3) Z
4) S
5) W

29. How many books will be launched between P and T?

1) Three
2) One
3) None
4) Can’t be determined
5) Two

30. Which of the following does match correctly?

1) W- Sunday
2) T- Monday
3) V- Saturday
4) Z- Wednesday
5) R- Wednesday

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::

31. 14.98 ×15.98 × 12.49 – 1132.874 = ?

1) 1787
2) 1967
3) 1876
4) 1867
5) 1837

32. 5796 ÷ 44 ÷ 2 = ?

1) 66
2) 64
3) 62
4) 88
5) 67

33. 19.999 × 12.005 × 26.084 = ? × 39.99

1) 134
2) 148
3) 165
4) 152
5) 156

34. 13.95% of 664.98 + 19.93% of 885 = ?

1) 260
2) 265
3) 270
4) 275
5) 285

1) 5178
2) 5079
3) 5048
4) 5278
5) 5018

Directions (Q. 36–40): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

36. 15, ?, 21, 45, 105, 225

1) 19
2) 18
3) 20
4) 15
5) 16

37. 27, 29, 62, ?, 776

1) 296
2) 196
3) 192
4) 256
5) 184

38. 126, 143, 177, 228, ?

1) 294
2) 296
3) 276
4) 286
5) 268

39. 12, 12, 52, ?, 7824

1) 486
2) 496
3) 586
4) 576
5) 686

40. 37, 42, ?, 64, 81, 102

1) 52
2) 54
3) 56
4) 50
5) 51

Directions (Q. 41–45): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and give answer:

1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

41. By how many years Saurav is older than his sister Rashmi?

I. The ratio between the Saurav's age after four years and the present age of Rashmi is 7 : 5.
II. The ratio between the present age of Saurav and Rashmi's age four years ago is 3 : 2.

42. What is the cost of painting two adjacent walls of a hall having no door or window at ` 95 per m2?

I. Length and breadth are in the ratio of 5 : 3.
II. Perimeter of the hall is 80 m and height is one-fourth of the perimeter.

43. A vessel contains mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 7 : 5. What is the quantity of milk in the vessel?

I. If 9 litres of mixture is replaced by equal quantity of milk, the ratio of milk to water in the mixture becomes 11 : 5.
II. If 9 litres of mixture is replaced by equal quantity of water, the ratio of milk to water in the mixture becomes 7 : 9.

44. Two friends A and B start running towards each other at the same time from points P and Q respectively and meet after 150 minutes. At what speed is A running?

I. Point Q is 82.5 km away from point P and speed of A is 120% of the speed of B.
II. Distance covered by B was 37.5 km.

45. Neha invested certain amount in scheme I and scheme II for 2 years in the ratio of 4 : 5 respectively. The scheme I and II offers compound interest compounded annually and simple interest respectively. What is the amount invested in scheme I?

I. Rate of interest offered by scheme I is 25% p.a and the rate of interest offered by scheme II is 20% less than that offered by scheme I.
II. Amount of interest accrued from scheme II is less than the amount of interest accrued from scheme I by ` 580.

46. The radius of cylinder is 6 m more than its height. If the curved surface area of the cylinder is 704 m2. What is the volume of the cylinder?

1) 4968 m3
2) 5500 m3
3) 7392 m3
4) 4878 m3
5) 4928 m3

47. Abhishek started a business with an investment of ` 56000. After two months, Rishab joins with ` 40,000 and after another two months Nikhil joins with ` 36000. At the end of tenth month from the start of the business, if Rishab withdraws ` 4000 and Nikhil withdraws ` 4000. At the end of the year, the profit earned is ` 48960. What is the share of Nikhil in the profit?

1) ` 10600
2) ` 10200
3) ` 10800
4) ` 11400
5) ` 11200

48. The ratio of Pulkit's present age to Manya's present age is 8 : 5. The sum of their ages after six years from now will be 64. After how many years, Manya's age will be equal to Pulkit's present age?

1) 6 years
2) 8 years
3) 10 years
4) 14 years
5) 12 years

49. The speed of boat in still water is six times the speed of the current. It takes 2.1 hours to row to point Q from point P downstream. The distance between point P and point Q is 58.8 km. How much distance will it cover it 372 minutes upstream?

1) 120 km
2) 116 km
3) 124 km
4) Other than given options
5) 126 km

50. 40 kg of a type of pulse (type A) which costs ` 61.4 per kg was mixed with certain amount of another type of pulse (type B), which costs ` 69.5 per kg. Then the mixture was sold at `76.7 per kg and 18% profit was gained. What was the amount of type B pulses in the mixture?

1) 28 kg
2) 36 kg
3) 34 kg
4) 32 kg
5) 30 kg

Directions (Q.51-55) : Study the following line graph and pie-chart carefully to answer the following questions given below.

The line graph shows the number of students in various courses in different colleges. The pie-chart shows the percentage of faculty members in the different colleges.

 

51. The number of students studying History (H) in KMC is approximately what per cent less than the number of students studying Economics (H) in DRC?

1) 64%
2) 62%
3) Other than given options
4) 66%
5) 68%

52. In which courses is the number of students the minimum taking all the colleges together?

1) Bcom (H)
2) Economics (H)
3) History (H)
4) Chemistry (H)
5) Both 1 and 3

53. The number of faculty members in Ramjas College is approximately what per cent of the number of students in Economics (H) in Hindu college?

1) 16%
2) 13%
3) 11%
4) 18%
5) 15%

54. In which college, the number of students per faculty member is the maximum?

1) DRC
2) Hindu
3) Ramjas
4) Hansraj
5) Other than given options

55. What is the ratio of the total number of students in all the courses together in KMC to the number of faculty members in Hans Raj and Ramjas College together?

1) 29 : 6
2) 27 : 8
3) 29 : 5
4) Other than given options
5) 29 : 3

Directions (Q. 56–60): Study the following table carefully and answer the following questions.

Number of employees (Male and Female) from six different companies located in different cities.

Note : M = Male, F = Female

56. What is the approximate average of the number of males working in all the companies together in Kolkata?

1) 78
2) 74
3) 68
4) 76
5) Other than given options

57. The number of females working in all the companies together in Delhi is approximately what per cent of the number of males working in all the companies together in the same city?

1) 88%
2) 86%
3) 84%
4) Other than given options
5) 82%

58. The number of females in company C2 from Chandigarh is approximately what per cent of the number of females in company C4 and C5 together from Mumbai?

1) 16%
2) 12%
3) Other than given options
4) 14%
5) 11%

59. What is the ratio of the number of males to the number of female employees in Pune from company C1, C3 and C5 together?

1) 87 : 86
2) Other than given options
3) 89 : 85
4) 89 : 87
5) 89 : 86

60. What is the ratio of the number of female employees to the number of male employees in company C6 from all the cities together?

1) 63 : 88
2) 61 : 88
3) 64 : 85
4) 61 : 87
5) Other than given options

:: General Awareness and Current Affairs ::

61. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international organisation headquartered in _______, of ''188 countries working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world''.

1) Geneva, Switzerland
2) Washington DC, United States
3) The Hague, Netherlands
4) Rome, Italy
5) Glasgow, Scotland

62. The 2340 MW coal- based thermal power station at Durlovpur, is situated in the Indian state of–

1) Tripura
2) Uttarakhand
3) Odisha
4) West Bengal
5) Gujarat

63. ______ is the money charged for the insurance coverage reflecting expectation of loss.

1) Standard Risk
2) Release
3) Penalty
4) Premium
5) Policy Lapse

64. The Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) increased the life insurance cover of its subscribers from 3.6 lakh to ______ rupees.

1) 5 lakh
2) 6.5 Lakh
3) 4.5 Lakh
4) 5.5 Lakh
5) 6 lakh

65. Which of the following risk is the potential for a person to experience illness, injury or other physical or psychological impairment, whether temporary or permanent?

1) Market Risk
2) Standard Risk
3) Preferred Risk
4) Global Risk
5) Morbidity Risk

66. Which of the following bank became first bank in India to fully own an insurance business after Reserve Bank of India (RBI) gave permission to set up a wholly- owned non- life Insurance company?

1) HDFC Bank
2) Kotak Mahindra Bank
3) Canara Bank
4) Bank of India
5) SBI Bank

67. Full form of PMMY is–

1) Pradhan Mantri Monetisation Yojana
2) Pradhan Mantri Meteorological Yojana
3) Pradhan Mantri Multi Yojana
4) Pradhan Mantri Media Yojana
5) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana

68. 'Playing It My Way' is the autobiography of–

1) Yuvraj Singh
2) Rahul dravid
3) Kapil Dev
4) Sachin Tendulkar
5) M.S Dhoni

69. The currency of the Croatia is–

1) Forint
2) Lek
3) Kuna
4) Lev
5) Euro

70. Which state does represent the least literate state with a literacy rate of 63.82% according to census 2011?

1) Uttarakhand
2) Meghalaya
3) Haryana
4) Bihar
5) Sikkim

71. 'Shillong' is the capital of which Indian state?

1) Sikkim
2) Mizoram
3) Nagaland
4) Tripura
5) Meghalaya

72. Nominee is the person selected by the _______ to receive the benefit in case of death of the insured.

1) policy holder
2) insurance company
3) insurance advisor
4) insurance policy
5) All of the above

73. Situation in which the same risk is insured by two overlapping but independent insurance policies. It is lawful to obtain ______, and the insured can make claim to both insurers in the event of a loss because both are liable under their respective policies.

1) Single Insurance
2) Reinsurance
3) Double insurance
4) Void-insurance
5) Co- insurance

74. The theme for 'World Cancer Day 2016' to be observed on 4th Feb, 2016 is–

1) 'We can I can'
2) 'Not beyond us'
3) Debunk the Myths!
4) Together it is possible
5) 'Cancer can be prevented too'

75. _______ is an Insurance Regulatory body of India.

1) PFRDA
2) IRDA
3) RBI
4) FMC
5) SEBI

76. In Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana, what is the minimum age to be enrolled into this scheme for the saving bank account holder?

1) 17 year (completed)
2) 18 year (completed)
3) 20 year (completed)
4) 21year (completed)
5) 19 year (completed)

77. The Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC) will execute the Vijayawada Metro Rail Project. It will be constructed a estimated cost of ______ rupees by 2018.

1) 9796 crore
2) 6767 crore
3) 7696 crore
4) 6769 crore
5) 9667 crore

78. Under the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana what is sum assured on death of the insured member for any reason is payable to the nominee?

1) Rs 1.5 lakh
2) Rs 2.5 lakh
3) Rs 3.5 lakh
4) Rs 2 lakh
5) Rs 3 lakh

79. The Brand Ambassador for Sanitation programme is–

1) Aamir Khan
2) Vidya Balan
3) Salman Khan
4) Priyanka Chopra
5) Amitabh Bachchan

80. _______ is a form of permanent life Insurance policy.

1) Term Life Insurance Policy
2) Whole Life Insurance Policy
3) Dual Insurance policy
4) Variable Life Insurance Policy
5) Universal Life Insurance Policy

81. Where is the Headquarter of state-owned life Insurance Corporation of India?

1) New Delhi
2) Chennai
3) Kolkata
4) Lucknow
5) Mumbai

82. Rangaswamy cup is related to which game?

1) Hockey
2) Cricket
3) Golf
4) Badminton
5) Football

83. Which of the following bank announced to launch 'green bonds' in India for raising funds for investment in environmental projects?

1) AXIS Bank
2) Indian Bank
3) HSBC Bank
4) Bandhan Bank
5) ICICI Bank

84. ______ Prime Minister, Victor Ponta has resigned after some 20,000 people took to the streets to protest over a nightclub fire that killed 32 people.

1) Romania's
2) Syria's
3) Pakistan's
4) Poland's
5) Russia's

85. A person who is licensed by state to sell insurance product is known as–

1) A Broker
2) A policy holder
3) An Agent
4) An Insurance Company
5) Third Party

86. Recently the two-day international conference on Innovation trends in Electronics Communication and Applications was held at.

1) Ahmedabad, India
2) Kerala, India
3) London, UK
4) Tokyo, Japan
5) Chennai, India

87. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) declared _______ and _______ as Domestic systemically Important Banks (D- SIBs) in line with the D- SIB frame work.

1) HSBC Bank, Bank of India
2) SBI, ICICI Bank
3) Bank of India, SBI
4) ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank
5) Axis Bank, Indian Bank

88. Who is the current Chair person of Central Board of film certification?

1) Pahlaj Nihalani
2) Durgabai Deshmukh
3) S. Krishnan
4) Satbir Bedi
5) Sharad Kumar

89. Who among the following has emerged as the 'most generous Indian' in the hurun philanthropy list 2015?

1) Mukesh Amabani
2) N.Rg Narayan Murthy
3) Azim Premji
4) Dilip Shanghvi
5) Nandan Nilekani

90. Recently India's largest private sector lender ICICI Bank has partnered with ______ to foray into the payments bank space.

1) Free charge
2) FINO Paytech
3) Paytm
4) Mobiwik
5) Other than given options

:: Computer Knowledge ::

91. A program embedded in a semi- conductor chip during their manufacture is called–

1) Utility program
2) Liveware
3) All of the above
4) Sourceware
5) Firmware

92. In all modern internet browsers, pressing _____ will refresh or reload the page or document window.

1) F1
2) F2
3) F3
4) F8
5) F5

93. Which of the following is a software facility used for short-term data storage and/or data transfer between documents or application?

1) Spreadsheets
2) Copy
3) FTP
4) Clipboard
5) Pagemaker

94. Which of the following is an example of flash-drive?

1) Memory chip
2) Pen drive
3) Hard drive
4) Both 2 and 3
5) All of the above

95. _____ is usually at the bottom of the screen or window, showing information about a document being edited or a program running.

1) Title bar
2) Menu bar
3) Scroll bar
4) Status bar
5) Presentation bar

96. ______ is a program that controls a particular type of device that is attached to your computer.

1) Digital virtual disc
2) Spam
3) Disc-drive
4) Device driver
5) USB

97. Which EXCEL formula is used to perform multiplication between cell A1 and A2, then adds the value of A3 to the result?

1) = A1* A2 + A3
2) = A1 (A2 + A3)
3) A1 * (A2 + A3)
4) = A1* A2 + A2* A3
5) = A1* A2 + A1* A3

98. In computer science, arranging in an ordered sequence is called ______.

1) Formatting
2) Sorting
3) Chart Wizard
4) Categorizing
5) Resizing

99. 'OMR' is the process of capturing human marked data from document forms, OMR stands for–

1) Optical Mark Response
2) Original Mark Response
3) Output Making Response
4) Optical Making Reader
5) Optical Mark Recognition

100. What is the shortcut keys to close current workbook in Microsoft EXCEL?

1) Ctrl + F2
2) Ctrl + F3
3) Ctrl + F4
4) Alt + F2
5) Ctrl + F10

101. _____ allows for the user to access different parts of a menu, program window, or web page.

1) Ctrl key
2) Shift key
3) Tab key
4) Enter key
5) Alt key

102. Which of the following is a filename extension of Hyper Text Mark-up Language?

1) .hml
2) .htm
3) .html
4) Both 2 and 3
5) All of the above

103. ______ means performing a non- automated procedure by which the contents of two or more pages are united within a single page.

1) Updating
2) Merging
3) Linking
4) Upgrading
5) Coincide

104. How to delete an incorrect character in a document to the right of the insertion point?

1) Press the BACKSPACE key
2) Press Ctrl + Right arrow
3) Press DELETE key
4) Press Shift + Right arrow
5) Press Shift key

105. Data cable is–

1) Software
2) Hardware
3) Connecting device
4) Pointing device
5) Both 2 and 3

106. ______ is a collection of data items (all of the same type).

1) Relation
2) Entity
3) Pointer
4) Array
5) Degree

107. 1024 bits equals to how many byte?

1) 64
2) 256
3) 128
4) 512
5) Cannot be determined

108. A ______ is a computer program that transforms source code written in a programming language into another computer language.

1) Compiler
2) HTML
3) FORTRAN
4) Debugger
5) Thesaurus

109. Which of the following is a computer printer for printing vector graphics?

1) Scanner
2) Plotter
3) Touch screen
4) Typewriter
5) Light- pen

110. Which shortcut keys is used to switch to another open Microsoft word document?

1) Ctrl + Shift + F2
2) Alt + Ctrl + F2
3) Shift + Ctrl + F4
4) Alt + Ctrl + F4
5) Ctrl + Shift + F6

111. Which is a package file format typically used to aggregate many Java class files into one file?

1) JAR
2) Zip
3) ZAR
4) Winzip
5) Winrar

112. The instruction of a program which is currently being executed are stored in which place?

1) HTML
2) ROM
3) Main memory
4) Secondary memory
5) Other than given options

113. _____ is the attempt to acquire sensitive information by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication.

1) Trojan
2) Worm
3) Viruses
4) Phishing
5) Malware

114. Which of the following time is time taken for a disk drive to locate the area on the disk where the data to be read is stored?

1) Machine time
2) Seek time
3) Execution time
4) Run time
5) Other than given options

115. What does 'DVD' stand for?

1) Digital Video Disk
2) Digital Versatile Disc
3) Digital Virtual Disc
4) Both 1 and 2
5) All of the above

116. What is called a stored link to a web page, in order to have a quick and easy access to it later?

1) Bookmark
2) TP- link
3) URL
4) PDF
5) Other than given options

117. A _____ is a connection point or interface between a computer and an external or internal device.

1) USB
2) Data cable
3) Plung-point
4) Computer part
5) Jack

118. Which of the following are the types of video files formats?

1) AVI
2) Matroska
3) MPEG
4) All of the above
5) Both 1 and 3

119. Which shortcut key is used to display the properties of the object?

1) Ctrl + double – click
2) Alt + double – click
3) Shift + double – click
4) Tab + double – click
5) Space + double-click

120. Transistors were first used in which generation of computer?

1) 2nd generation
2) 3rd generation
3) 4th generation
4) 5th generation
5) Other than given options

:: English Language ::

Directions (Q. 121–125) : Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

(A) Now they must enrol these NGOs’ help to make their business model socially inclusive.
(B) As part of NVG, Essilor runs Eye Mitra, an initiative in India that engages NGOs like ASSIT to train thousands of underprivileged rural youth to conduct basic vision screening and prescribe glasses.
(C) This unit aims to improve vision for 2.5 billion people globally, including 550 million in India.
(D) For example, Essilor, the world leader in corrective lenses, has set up a new business unit called New Vision Generation (NVG).
(E) Indian companies have long partnered NGOs as part of their CSR initiatives.

121.Which of the following would be the 'THIRD' sentence after rearrangement?

1) B
2) E
3) C
4) A
5) D

122. Which of the following would be the 'SECOND' sentence after rearrangement?

1) E
2) A
3) C
4) D
5) B

123. Which of the following would be the 'FIFTH' sentence after rearrangement?

1) B
2) C
3) E
4) D
5) A

124. Which of the following would be the 'FOURTH' sentence after rearrangement?

1) A
2) B
3) E
4) C
5) D

125. Which of the following would be the 'FIRST' sentence after rearrangement?

1) C
2) A
3) E
4) B
5) D

Directions (Q. 126–135): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The high-speed rail project between Mumbai and Ahmedabad has lessons for other infrastructure. The project gets 80 percent of its funding as a 50-year loan from the Japanese, at a rate of interest of 0.1 percent. The world is awash in liquidity, pushing interest rates down. Developed country governments are eager to help their corporate champions find markets for their products and services. The British government has dispensed with the pretence that aid is about altruism and linked overseas assistance to British economic interests. Turbines for power plants, radars for airports, heavy machinery for mining and road building, expertise in town planning and sustainable construction, mass urban transport systems, anything and everything is available for the asking, provided India can come up with a credible project that will generate an assured return. That is entirely doable.

In 2016, Indian companies and markets have a chance to pull themselves up by the bootstraps, without relying on the benevolence of the global economy. But to do that, they will need support from policymakers in New Delhi and in states. Between January and December 2015, depending on what exchange rates you assume, foreign institutional investors (FIIs) made a net purchase of $1.6-2 billion the lowest ever in the last four years and less than a fifth of the annual average for the period. Global investors are spooked by a slowdown in all emerging markets, especially China. Another big reason is the sudden drop in wealth with oil exporting nations which run the world’s largest sovereign wealth funds as crude has crashed from $100 to $30 per barrel. Domestic funds have struggled to fill the gap.

Liquidity will return if India sets its house in order. Companies are debt-ridden and struggling because the domestic reform environment is weak. There is much that can and must be done. To start with, a new bankruptcy code will help clean up many corporate balance sheets. But projects have to become viable, especially in the infrastructure sector.

126. What can be the suitable title of the above passage?

1) Depression in the global economy
2) Planning for bullet trains in India
3) Policy for urbanization
4) Lesson for other development from bullet train investments
5) Other than given options

127. According to the passage, which of the following statements is/are true?

A) Projects that can generate an assured return attracts funding easily
B) Companies should approach Japanese investors for funding
C) Anything and everything is available for India

1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both A and C
4) All of these
5) Other than given options

128. According to the author, what do Indian companies and markets need to pull themselves up?

1) Support from policymakers
2) Goodwill of the global economy
3) Low exchange rates
4) All of the above
5) Other than given options

129. The author in the passage can be seen as being–

1) Optimistic
2) Worried
3) Excited
4) Angry
5) Other than given options

130. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'AWASH' as used in the passage?

1) Lacking
2) Soaked
3) Flooded
4) Drenched
5) Saturated

131.Which of the following conclusion could be made about British government?

1) It is indifferent about investing in overseas.
2) It treats funding as a selfless concern for the well-being of others.
3) It treats overseas investment as a matter of economic interests.
4) Both 1 and 2
5) Both 2 and 3

132. According to the passage, the reason/s behind the fall in net purchases by foreign institutional investors (FIIs) in the last four years is/are–

1) Weak domestic reform environment
2) Slowdown in all emerging markets
3) Lowering of crude prices
4) All of the above
5) Both 2 and 3

133. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'altruism' as used in the passage?

1) Selflessness
2) Egotism
3) Self-centeredness
4) Departed
5) Deported

134. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'doable' as used in the passage?

1) Immediate
2) Attainable
3) Unlikely
4) Implausible
5) Worthless

135. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'benevolence' as used in the passage?

1) Munificence
2) Malevolence
3) Kindness
4) Compassion
5) Consideration

Directions (Q. 136–140): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.

136. They ______ invited all the members of the team ______ the selection.

1) had, by
2) cordially, at
3) can, in
4) have, for
5) knowingly, by

137. He ______ his best, but was ______to repair the mobile.

1) gave, sorry
2) showed, able
3) thought, happy
4) sent, unsuccessful
5) tried, unable

138. The______ of rural hospitals is poor as ______to their urban counterparts.

1) quality, like
2) progress, unlike
3) condition, compared
4) state, matched
5) situation, contrast

139. He would prefer ______ travel by train rather ______ by bus.

1) for, to
2) to, than
3) in, so
4) not, if
5) at, about

140. His bag was _____ at the bus stop so he _____ a complaint at police station.

1) taken, registered
2) stolen, filed
3) given, gave
4) left, register
5) sneaked, put

Directions (Q. 141–145): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error' the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

141. He has started 1)/ making a note in 2)/ lectures as 3)/ he tend to forget them. 4)/ No error 5)

142. Ajay was determined 1)/for finishing the 2)/work before leaving 3)/ by the day 4)/ No error 5)

143. His coach was pleasantly 1)/surprised when he learned 2)/ that despite the all injuries 3)/he played well. 4)/ No error 5)

144. His friend is 1)/ not only a good 2)/ singer but also 3)/ a good writer. 4)/ No error 5)

145. The priest then request 1)/all the wealthy people to 2)/donate at least some money 3)/ for building a new sanctum. 4)/ No error 5)

Directions (Q. 146–150): In each sentence below, a word/ group of words has been printed in bold. From the five answer choices given below each sentence, pick out the one which can substitute the bold word/group of words correctly, without changing the meaning of the sentence.

146. The move toward transparency in the company's balance sheet will not be universally welcomed by the greet and god.

1) the great and the good
2) greet and the god
3) greeting and god
4) the great and goods
5) No correction required

147. Came what may, he never skipped a single examination.

1) Come whatever may
2) Come what may
3) Come what may be
4) Came what may be
5) No correction required

147. Charlie won the game fair and square.

1) fare and square
2) fairly and square
3) fair square
4) fair not square
5) No correction required

149. He decided to play in time in the optimism that the rates would increase.

1) play the lime
2) played for time
3) play for time
4) play the timing
5) No correction required

150. Instead of concentrating on allegations we must get to the heart in the matter.

1) heart for the matter
2) heart that mattered
3) heart of matters
4) heart of the matter
5) No correction required

Directions (Q. 151 – 160): In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Eminent agriculture scientists have (151) that India should accelerate field trials of GM crops with the combined services of the Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR) and state agriculture universities. It’s a sensible (152) and must be pursued diligently. The stalemate that’s gripped India’s efforts to accelerate the development of GM crops, after its success with BT cotton, must be broken. Though the national Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee has approved field (153) for new GM strains of important crops like rice, wheat etc, its efforts have been stymied by many state governments refusing (154) for field trials. A joint (155) by central and state research institutions, coordinating all India field trials, will help secure greater acceptance from the states. After all they have an important stake in improving agriculture’s prospects. As the experience with cotton shows, GM crops help reduce the costs of (156), raise crop productivity, boost farmer’s (157), critically raising agriculture output to meet the needs of a growing population. One reason various states remain inhibited about GM trials is (158) over the years some of government’s own expert committees have taken a very negative(159), stressing the need for innovation much less than the need for greater caution in adopting new technologies- instead of seeking a balance. Actually, India’s safety mechanisms for GM field trials are already in line with those advocated by multilateral organizations. Some states like Maharashtra and Gujarat have already proceeded ahead with field trails. But a coordinated approach (160) ICAR and state universities can help bring more states on board, giving a boost to India’s pursuit of greater food security.

151.

1) asked
2) suggested
3) questioned
4) endorsed
5) impressed

152.

1) idea
2) joke
3) question
4) answer
5) plan

153.

1) plans
2) trials
3) journey
4) experience
5) view

154.

1) respect
2) culture
3) logics
4) honour
5) permission

155.

1) practice
2) replacement
3) award
4) intervention
5) intervie

156.

1) materials
2) prosperity
3) business
4) agriculture
5) cultivation

157.

1) loss
2) income
3) inequality
4) equality
5) authority

158.

(1) their
2) these
3) that
4) this
5) thus

159.

1) way
2) target
3) approach
4) journey
5) strategy

160.

1) between
2) with
3) besides
4) among
5) in

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SBI PO Exam Solved Paper : Reasoning Ability Held on 28-04-2013

Solved Paper: SBI PO Exam - 2013

Reasoning Ability (Held on 28-4-2013)

Directions (1-5): Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions:

1. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression R > O = A > S < T as definitely true?

(1) O > T (2) S < R
(3) T > A (4) S = O
(5) T < R

2. Which of the following symbols should replace the questions mark (?) in the given expression in order to make the expression ‘P > A’ as well as ‘T L’ definitely true?

P > L ? A N = T

(1) (2) <
(3) < (4)
(5) Either or <

3. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given such a manner that makes the expressions ‘B>N’ as well as ‘D L’ definitely true?

B_____L_____O____N_____D

(1) =, =, ,
(2) >, , =, > (3) >, <, =,
(4) >, =, =, (5) >, =, , >

4. Which of the following should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression ‘A < P’ definitely false?

____ < ___ < ___ > ___

(1) L, N, P, A (2) L, A, P, N
(3) A, L, P, N (4) N, A, P, L
(5) P, N, A, L

5. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression ‘F > N’ and ‘U > D’ definitely true?

F__O__U__N__D

(1) <, <, >, = (2) <, =, =, >
(3) <, =, =, < (4) , =, =, >
(5) >, >, =, <

Directions (6-10): Study the following and answer the following questions:

A, B, C, D, E, G and I are seven friends who study in three different standards namely 5th, 6th and 7th such that not less than two friends study in the same standard. Each friend also has a different favorite subject namely History, Civics, English, Marathi, Hindi, Maths and Economics but not necessarily in the same order.

A likes Math and studies in the 5th standard with only one other friend who likes Marathi. I studies with two other friends. Both the friends who study with I like languages (Here languages include only Hindi, Marathi and English). D Studies in the 6th standard with only one person and does not like civics. E studies with only one friend. The one who likes history does not study in 5th or 6th standard. E does not like languages. C does not like English, Hindi or Civics.

6. Which combination represents E’s favourite subject and the standard in which he studies?

(1) Civics and 7th
(2) Economics and 5th
(3) Civics and 6th
(4) History and 7th
(5) Economics and 7th

7. Which of the following is I’s favourite subject?

(1) History
(2) Civics
(3) Marathi
(4) Either English or Marathi
(5) Either English or Hindi

8. Which of the following is definitely correct?

(1) G (2) C
(3) E (4) D
(5) Either D or B

9. Which of the following is definitely correct?

(1) I and Hindi (2) G and English
(3) C and Marathi (4) B and Hindi
(5) E and Economics

10. Which of the following subjects does G like?

(1) Either Maths or Marathi
(2) Either Hindi or English
(3) Either Hindi or Civics
(4) Either Hindi or Marathi
(5) Either Civics or Economics

Direction: Study the information and answer the following questions:

In a certain code language- ‘economics is not money’ is written as ‘ka la ho ga’ ‘demand and supply economics’ is written as, ‘mo ta pa ka’ ‘money makes only part’ is written as, ‘zi la ne ki’ ‘demand makes supply economics’ is written as, ‘zi mo ka ta

11. What is the code for ‘money’ in the given code language?

(1) ga (2) mo
(3) pa (4) ta
(5) la

12. What is the code for ‘supply’ in the given code language?

(1) only ta (2) only mo
(3) either pa or mo (4) only pa
(5) either mo or ta

13. What is the code for ‘demand only more’ in the given code language?

(1) xi ne mo (2) mo zi ne
(3) ki ne mo (4) mo zi ki
(5) xi ka ta

14. What may be the possible code for ‘work and money’ in the given code language?

(1) pa ga la (2) pa la tu
(3) mo la pa (4) tu la ga
(5) pa la ne

15. What is the code for ‘makes’ in the given code language?

(1) mo (2) pa
(3) ne (4) zi
(5) ho

Directions: Study the given information and answer the following questions:

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement: (All the numbers are two digit numbers)

Input: 40 made butter 23 37 cookies salt extra 52 86 92 fell now 19

Step I: butter 19 40 made 23 37 cookies salt extra 52 86 92 fell now

Step II: cookies 23 butter 19 40 make 37 salt extra 52 86 92 fell now

Step III: extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 40 made salt 52 86 92 fell now

Step IV: fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 made salt 52 86 92 now

Step V: made 52 fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 salt 86 92 now

Step VI: now 86 made 52 fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 salt 92

Step VII: salt 92 now 86 made 52 fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19

Step VII is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out he appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 32 proud girl beautiful 48 55 97 rich family 61 72 17 nice life

16. How many steps will be required to complete the given input?

(1) Five (2) Six
(3) Seven (4) Eight
(5) Nice

17. Which of the following is the third element from the left end of step VI?

(1) beautiful (2) life
(3) 61 (4) Nice
(5) 17

18. Which of the following is step III of the given input?

(1) proud 72 girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 55 97 rich 61 nice life

(2) life 55 girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 proud 97 rich 61 72 nice

(3) girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 proud girl 48 55 97 rich 61 72 nice life

(4) family 32 beautiful 17 proud girl 48 55 97 rich 61 72 nice life

(5) girl 48 life 55 family 32 beautiful 17 proud 97 rich 61 72 nice

19. What is the position of ‘nice’ from the left end in the final step?

(1) Fifth (2) Sixth
(3) Seventh (4) Eight
(5) Ninth

20. Which element is third to the right of ‘family’ in Step V?

(1) beautiful (2) 17
(3) Proud (4) 97
(5) 32

Directions: Read the information carefully and answer the following questions:

If A + B means A is the father of B
If A × B means A is the sister of B
If A $ B means A is the wife of B
If A % B means A is the mother of B
If A ÷ B means A is the son of B

21. What should come in place of the question mark, to establish that J is the brother of T in the expression?

J ÷ P % H ? T % L

(1) × (2) ÷
(3) $ (4) Either ÷ or ×
(5) Either + or ÷

22. Which among the given expression indicate the M is the daughter of D?

(1) L % R $ D + T × M
(2) L + R $ D + M × T
(3) L % R % D + T ÷ M
(4) D + L $ R × M + T
(5) L $ D ÷ R % M ÷ T

23. Which among the following options is true if the expression ‘ I + T % J × L ÷ K’ is definitely true?

(1) L is the daughter of T
(2) K is the son-in-law of I
(3) I is the grandmother of L
(4) T is the father of J
(5) J is the brother of L

24. Which among the following expression of true if Y is the son of X is definitely false?

(1) W % L × T × Y ÷ X
(2) W + L × T × Y ÷ X
(3) X + L × T × Y ÷ W
(4) W $ X + L + Y + T
(5) W % X + T × Y ÷ L

25. What should come in place of the question mark, to establish that T is the sister-in-law of Q in the expression?

R % T × P ? Q + V

(1) ÷ (2) %
(3) × (4) $
(5) Either $ or ×

Directions: Study the following information and answer the questions given below:

Eight people- E, F, G, H, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each of them is of a different profession – Charted Accountant, Columnist, Doctor, Engineer, Financial Analyst, Lawyer, Professor and Scientist but not necessarily in the same order. F is sitting second to the left of K. the Scientist is an immediate neighbour of K. there are only three people between the Scientist and E only one person sits between the Engineer and E. The Columnist is to the immediate right of the Engineer. M is second to the right of K. H is the Scientist. G and J are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither G nor J is an Engineer. The Financial Analyst is to the immediate left of F. The Lawyer is second to the right of the Columnist. The Professor is an immediate neighbor of the Engineer. G is second to the right of the Chartered Account.

26. Who is sitting second to the right of E?

(1) The Lawyer (2) G
(3) The Engineer (4) F
(5) K

27. Who amongst the following is the Professor?

(1) F (2) L (3) M (4) K
(5) J

28. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) Chartered Account – H
(2) M - Doctor (3) J – Engineer
(4) Financial Analyst – L
(5) Lawyer – K

29. What is the position of L with respect to the Scientist?

(1) Third to the left
(2) Second to the right
(3) Second to the left
(4) Third to the right
(5) Immediate right

30. Which of the following statements is true according to the given arrangement?

(1) The Lawyer is second to the left of the doctor
(2) E is an immediate neighbor of the Financial Analyst
(3) H sits exactly between F and the Financial Analyst
(4) Only four people sit between the Columnist and F
(5) All of the given statement are true

Directions: In each of the questions below, two/three/ statements are given followed by conclusions/group of conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume all the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given two conclusions logically follows from the information given in the statements.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows
Give answer (3) if either I or II follows
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follow
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow

31-32. Statements:

Some squares are circles.
No circle is a triangle.
No line is a square.

31. Conclusions:

I. All squares can never be triangles.
II. Some lines are circles.

32. Conclusions:

I. No triangle is a square.
II. No line is a circle.

33-34. Statements:

All songs are poems.
All poems are rhymes.

No rhyme is a paragraph.

33. Conclusions:

I. No song is a paragraph.
II. No poem is a paragraph.

34. Conclusions:

I. All rhymes are poems.
II. All songs are rhymes.

35. Statements:

Some dews are drops.
All drops are stones.

Conclusions:

I. Atleast some dews are stones.
II. Atleast some stones are drops.

Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and—

Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the questions.
Give answer (4) if the data neither in statement I nor II together are sufficient to answer the questions.
Give answer (5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the questions.

36. Seventeen people are standing in a straight line facing south. What is Bhavna’s positon from the left end of the line?

(1) Sandeep is standing second to the left of Sheetal. Only five people stand between Sheetal and the one who is standing at the extreme right end of the live. Four people stand between Sandeep and Bhavna.
(2) Anita is standing fourth to the left of Sheetal. Less than three people are standing between Bhavna and Anita.

37. Five letters – A, E, G, N and R are arranged to right according to certain conditions. Which letter is placed third?

I. G is placed second to the right of A. E is to the immediate right of G. there are only two letters between R and G.
II. N is exactly between A and G. Neither A nor G is at the extreme end of the arrangement.

38. Six people – S, T, U, V, W and X are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. What is T’s position with respect to X?

I. Only two people sit between U and W. X is second to the left of W. V and T are immediate neighbours of each other.
II. T is to the immediate right of V. There are only two people between T and S. X is an immediate neighbour of S but not of V:

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question:

The convenience of online shopping is what I like best about it. Where else can you shop even at midnight wearing your night suit? You do not have to wait in a line or wait till the shop assistant is ready to help you with your purchases. It is a much better experience as compared to going to a retail store. — A consumer’s view.

39. Which of the following can be a strong argument in favour of retail store owners?

(1) Online shopping portals offer a great deal of discounts which retail stores offer only during the sale season
(2) One can compare a variety of products online which cannot be done at retail stores
(3) Many online shopping portals offer the ‘cash on delivery’ feature which is for those who are sveptical about online payments
(4) Many consumers prefer shopping at retail stores which are nearer to their houses
(5) In online shopping the customer may be deceived as he cannot touch the product he is paying for.

40. Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An= inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)

(1) One can shop online only at night
(2) Those who are not comfortable using computers can never enjoy the experience of online shopping
(3) All retail stores provide shopping assistants to each and every customer
(4) The consumer whose view is presented has shopped at retail stores as well as online
(5) The customer whose view is presented does not have any retail stores in her vicinity

41. Read the following information carefully and answer the given question:

Many manufacturing companies are now shifting base to the rural areas of the country as there is a scarcity of space in urban areas. Analysts say that this shift will not have a huge impact on the prices of the products manufactured by these companies as only about 30% consumers live in urban areas. Which of the following maybe a consequence of the given information?

(1) The prices of such products will decrease drastically in the urban areas
(2) People living in urban areas will not be allowed to work in such manufacturing companies
(3) These manufacturing companies had set-ups in the urban areas before shifting base
(4) Those who had already migrated to the urban areas will not shift back to rural areas
(5) The number of people migrating from rural to urban areas in search of jobs may reduce

42. Read the following information carefully and answer the given question:

‘Pets are not allowed in the park premises’ – A notice put up at the park entrance by the authority that is responsible for maintenance of the park.

Which of the following can be an assumption according to the given information? (An assumption is something that is supposed or taken for granted)

(1) At least some people who visit the park have pets.
(2) This is the only park which does not allows pets
(3) People who ignored this notice were fined
(4) There are more than one entrances to the park
(5) Many people have now stopped visiting the park

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Despite repeated announcements that mobile phones were not allowed in the examination hall, three students were caught with their mobile phones.

(A) Mobile phones nowadays have a lot of features and it is easy to cheat with their help
(B) The invigilator must immediately confiscate the mobile phones and ask the students to leave the exam hall immediately.
(C) Mobile phones are very expensive and leaving them in bags outside the exam hall is not safe.
(D) There have been incidents where students who left the exam hall early stole the mobile phones kept in the bags of the students who were writing the exam
(E) The school authorities must ask the students to leave their phones in the custody of the invigilator before the exam in order to avoid thefts of mobile phones
(F) None of the other students were carrying their phones in the exam hall.

43. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) may be a strong argument in favour of, the three students who were caught with the mobile phone?

(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) and (B)
(3) Both (C) and (D) (4) Only (C)
(5) Both (B and (D)

44. Which of the following among (A), (B), (E) and (F) may be the reason behind the school making such announcements before the exam?

(1) Only (B) (2) Both (B) and (E)
(3) Only (F) (4) Only (A)
(5) Both (E) and (A)

45. Which of the following among (A), (B), (D) and (F) can be an immediate course of action for the invigilator?

(1) Only (B) (2) Both (A) and (D)
(3) Only (A) (4) Both (D) and (F)
(5) Only (F)

Directions: In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer on the right should come after the problem figure on the left, it the sequence were continued?

Answer

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (5) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (2)

11. (5) 12. (5) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (2)

21. (1) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (3) 29. (2) 30. (*)

31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (5) 34. (2) 35. (5) 36. (1) 37. (5) 38. (5) 39. (5) 40. (4)

41. (5) 42. (1) 43. (3) 44. (4) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (1) 50. (3)

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (27 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (27 April 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following Indian States is not touched by China?

A. Uttarakhand
B. Sikkim
C. Assam
D. Arunachal Pradesh

Q.2- Which of the following Indian states has maximum area covered under tubewell irrigation?

A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Punjab
C. Haryana
D. Uttar Pradesh

Q.3- Consider the following statements and mark the correct option:

1. European central banks headquarters is in Brussels
2. Mario Draghi is current president of ECB
3. ECB decides economic policy for European Union

A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 2 only
D. 1,3

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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