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General Awareness Magazine for IBPS, Bank Exams (September - 2016)

General Awareness Magazine for IBPS, Bank Exams (September - 2016)

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Issue : September 2016

Size: 1.34 MB

File Type: PDF

Publisher : BANKPOCLERK.COM

Price: Rs. 50 Free

Current Affairs Topic:

  • National Issues
  • International Issues
  • Economy
  • Science & Technology
  • Sports

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(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 11.12.2011 - General Awareness

(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 11.12.2011 - General Awareness

1. Which of the following is NOT a function of a commercial bank?
(1) Providing project finance
(2) Settlement of payments of behalf of the customers
(3) Deciding policy rates like CRR, SLR, & Repo Rates
(4) Issuing credit/debit/ATM cards
(5) Providing services such as locker facilities, remittances

2. The Election Commission of India is giving training to the electoral officers of which of the following countries in its neighbourhood?
(1) Nepal
(2) Pakistan
(3) China
(4) Bangladesh
(5) Bhutan

3. What is money laundering?
(1) Conversion of assets into cash
(2) Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained
(3) Conversion of cash into gold
(4) Conversion of gold into cash
(5) Conversion of gold with foreign currency

4. As per news reports in various newspapers and journals, 'IAEA' Governors approved the safety plan, so that it can be implemented by all the countries, willing to adopt it. IAEA is an agency/organization working in the area of _________
(1) Nuclear Energy
(2) World Trade
(3) International Banking
(4) Defence
(5) Social Welfare

5. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of debit card?
(1) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery
(2) No interest earning for banks
(3) Works like a normal withdrawal slip
(4) 45 days credit is given to the card holder
(5) All of the above

6. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is given for excellence in the field of _________
(1) Literature
(2) Music
(3) Spots
(4) Science & Technology
(5) Social service

7. Funding of which of the following is not a lending for infrastructure sector?
(1) Highway project
(2) Construction of Educational Institution
(3) Construction of Hospital
(4) Laying of petroleum pipelines
(5) Higher Studies

8. 'Raag Darbari' is a famous book written in Hindi by __________
(1) Shri Amarkant
(2) Shri Shrilal SHukla
(3) Shri Nirmal Verma
(4) Shri Harivansh Rai Bachchan
(5) Smt. Malti Joshi

9. Which of the following is a measure takeny by Reserve Bank of India to control inflation in our country?
(1) Increase in CCR
(2) Increase in SLR
(3) Contraction of supply of currency
(4) Raising of Repo / Revere Repo Rate
(5) Decrease the SLR

10. Leila Lopes who was crowned Miss Universe recently is a citizen of _________
(1) USA
(2) Britain
(3) Brazil
(4) India
(5) Angola

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IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-I Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014, "Quantitative Aptitude"

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject : Quantitative Aptitude

1. A sold an article with 10% loss on the cost price. He bought the article at a discount of 20% on the labelled price. What would have been the percentage loss had he bought it at the labelled price?

(a) 34
(b) 18
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 28
(e) 16

Directions (Q. Nos. 2-6) Refer to the line graph and answer the given questions.

Data Related to Income and Expenditure (In Rs. Hundred) of a Businessman during 7 Years

Note

· Profit = Income – Expenditure
· Loss = Expenditure – Income
· Percent Profit = (Profit/Expenditure) × 100
· Percent Loss = (Loss/Expenditure) × 100

2. What is the average profit earned by the businessman in 2001, 2003, 2004, 2006 and 2007 together?

(a) Rs. 27400
(b) Rs. 28800
(c) Rs. 29200
(d) Rs. 26800
(e) Rs. 28400

3. What is the percent loss incurred by the businessman in 2002 and 2005 together?


 

4. The respective ratio of expenditure of the businessman in 2003 and 2008 was 7 : 13. If the end earned a profit of 19% in 2008, what was his income in that particular year?

(a) Rs. 94060
(b) Rs. 93720
(c) Rs. 92820
(d) Rs. 90560
(e) Rs. 88760

5. What is the approximate percent profit earned by the businessman in 2004 and 2007 together?

(a) 73
(b) 79
(c) 77
(d) 69
(e) 64

6. What is the ratio between profit earned by the businessman in 2003 and 2006 together and loss incurred by him in 2002 and 2005 together?

(a) 9 : 8
(b) 11 : 8
(c) 17 : 14
(d) 7 : 6
(e) 13 : 12

7. In a class, the average age of both male and female students together is 18 years. The total age of these 15 female students is 240. Definitely how many male students are there in the class?

(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 30
(d) Data provided are inadequate to answer the question
(e) 25

Directions (Q. Nos. 8-12) In the given questions, two equations are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.

8.

I. x2 + 3x – 28 = 0
II. y2 – y – 20 = 0

9.

I. 5x2 + 11x + 6 = 0
II. y2 + 34y – 336 = 0

10.

I. 2x2  + 18x + 40 = 0
II. 2y2 + 15y + 27 = 0

11.

I. 6x2 – 29x + 35 = 0
II. 3y2 – 11y + 10 = 0

12.

I. x2 + x – 20 = 0
II. y2 – y – 30 = 0

Directions (Q. Nos. 13-17) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given number series?

13. 3600 1800 600 150 30 ?

(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 15
(e) 7.5

14. 33 16.5 ? 24.75 49.5 123.75

(a) 16.5
(b) 13.5
(c) 22.5
(d) 20.5
(e) 12.5

15. 20 23 30 43 64 ?

(a) 85
(b) 92
(c) 95
(d) 99
(e) 88

16. 44 ? 99 148.5 222.75 334.125

(a) 72
(b) 77
(c) 66
(d) 54
(e) 84

17. 2 4 10 ? 82 244

(a) 28
(b) 30
(c) 46
(d) 48
(e) 34

Directions (Q. Nos. 18-20) Study the table and answer the given questions :

Data Related to Number of Employees in Six

Companies During 6 Years


M = Male; F = Female

18. What is the difference between average number of male employees in all the given companies in 2006 and average number of female employees in all the given companies in 2009?

(a) 68
(b) 64
(c) 58
(d) 52
(e) 74

19. Total number of female employees in company L in 2004, 2005, 2006 and 2007 together is what percent more than the total number of female employees in company T in the same years together? (Rounded off to nearest integer)

(a) 20
(b) 14
(c) 18
(d) 12
(e) 16

20. In which of the given years is percentage increase in the number of male employees of company T from previous year the highest ?

(a) 2009
(b) 2007
(c) 2008
(d) 2005
(e) 2006

21. Total number of female employees in company J during all the given years together is what percent of the total number of male employees in company I during all the given years together?

(a) 87
(b) 93
(c) 89
(d) 91
(e) 95

22. What is the respective ratio between total number of employees (male and female) in companies J, K and N together in 2006 and total number of employees (male and female) in the same companies together in 2007?

(a) 11 : 16
(b) 13 : 16
(c) 9 : 14
(d) 11 : 18
(e) 13 : 18

23. The numerical value of area of a rectangular field is 90 times the numerical value of its breadth. If the perimeter of field is 240 metres, what is the breadth of the field ?

(a) 60 m
(b) Data provided are not inadequate to answer the question
(c) 30 m
(d) 20 m
(e) 15 m

24. A’s monthly income is Rs. 10000 less than B’s monthly income. B’s monthly income is Rs. 15000 less than C’s monthly income. If the total monthly income of A, B and C together is Rs. 65000. What is A’s monthly income?

(a) Rs. 10000
(b) Rs. 15000
(c) Rs. 20000
(d) None of the answers given is correct
(e) Rs. 5000

25. The total present ages of P and Q is 25 years more than the present age of R. If at present Q is 5 years older than R, what is P’s present age?

(in years)

(a) 20
(b) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(c) 40
(d) 35
(e) 30

26. The difference between the total simple interest and total compound interest compounded annually at the same rate of interest on a sum of money at the end of two years is Rs. 50. What is definitely the rate of interest percent per annum?

(a) 10
(b) 4
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 5
(e) 7.5

Directions (Q. Nos. 27-31) What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given questions? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)

27.

(a) 185
(b) 395
(c) 295
(d) 245
(e) 355

28.

(a) 88
(b) 44
(c) 72
(d) 50
(e) 64

29.

(a) 525
(b) 455
(c) 645
(d) 395
(e) 275

30.

(a) 32
(b) 39
(c) 24
(d) 28
(e) 12

31. 12.95 × 7.05 + 85.012 × 10.99 = ?

(a) 77586
(b) 77776
(c) 79566
(d) 78356
(e) 76876

32. One-fourth of two-fifth of 30% of a number is 15. What is 20% of that number?

(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 200
(e) 75

33. The ratio between the base and height of a right angled triangle is 4 : 5, respectively. If the area of the right angled triangle is 80 sq cm, what is the height of the triangle?

Directions (Q. Nos. 34-38) Read the information given in the passage and answer the given questions:

There are 19000 students in College ‘P’. Each of them are studying either one or more of the given languages – Japanese,Korean and Latin. The respective ratio of male and female students is 9 : 11.

14% of the male students study only Japanese. 12% study only Korean and 20% study only Latin. 16% of the male students study only Japanese and Korean, 22% study only Korean and Latin and 8% study only Japanese and Latin. The remaining male students study all the given languages.

22% of the female students study only Japanese, 18% study only Korean and 20% study only Latin. 12% of the female students study only Japanese and Korean, 16% study only Korean and Latin and 10% study only Japanese and Latin. The remaining female students study all the given languages.

34. Number of male students who study more than one of the given languages is what percent more than the number of female students who study more than one of the given languages?

35. How many male students study Japanese?

(a) 3389
(b) 3572
(c) 3933
(d) 3782
(e) 3258

36. What is the respective ratio between number of male students who study Korean and number of female students who study the same?

(a) 58 : 59
(b) 57 : 88
(c) 87 : 88
(d) 63 : 64
(e) 61 : 62

37. What is the difference between number of female students who study Latin and number of male students who study the same?

(a) 43
(b) 76
(c) 83
(d) 62
(e) 57

38. Number of male students who do not study Korean is what percent of the number of female students in college P?

39. The sum of two even numbers is 6 more than twice of the smaller number. If the difference between these two numbers is 6, what is definitely the smaller number?

(a) 18
(b) 20
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 12
(e) 24

40. Sixteen men and twelve women together can complete a work in eight days. Twenty men can complete the same work in sixteen days. How many days will sixteen women take to complete the same work?

(a) 40
(b) 30
(c) 24
(d) 20
(e) 10

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (26 September 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (26 September 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following river is not controlled by India under Indus water treaty?

A. Beas
B. Ravi
C. Sutlej
D. Chenab

Q.2- Which of the following is correct regarding FAST, which was recently in news?

A. It is the fastest submarine developed by Russia
B. It is fastest solar aircraft
C. It is world's largest radio telescope
D. None of the above

Q.3- Which of the following statements are correct?

a) Paris agreement on climate change is effective from 2016.
b) IPCC assess the extent to which the globe is expected to warm up over the medium and long term.

A. a only
B. b only
C. Both
D. None

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (25 September 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (25 September 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following country is not part of G-4 nations?

A. India
B. Germany
C. China
D. Japan

Q.2- Most favoured nation is a concept under which of the following?

A. UN
B. WHO
C. IMF
D. WTO

Q.3- Which of the following is correct regarding Income Declaration scheme 2016?

1. It is applicable to disclosed income of NRI’s
2. Penalty on income disclosure is attached under scheme

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-I Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014, "Computer Knowledge"

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject : Computer Knowledge

1. Another name for a program is

(a) software
(b) procedure
(c) typology
(d) utilities
(e) userware

2. ................ is a communications technology used by some incoming mail services.

(a) Telnet
(b) TCP
(c) FTP
(d) GIF
(e) POP3

3. The two basic parts of URLs are

(a) ICP and IP
(b) TCP/IP and ISP
(c) TCP and ftp
(d) destination and device
(e) the protocol and the domain name

4. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into

(a) information
(b) programs
(c) objects
(d) charts
(e) websites

5. The ........... database is the most widely used database structur

(a) hierarchical
(b) general
(c) standard
(d) table
(e) relational

6. Mail from unwanted senders can be blocked by

(a) not buying anything online so that junk mail senders will not having anything to benefit by
(b) sending them nasty replies when they send any mail
(c) using mail filters
(d) clicking the unsubscribe link
(e) e-mailing them and asking to the removed from the list

7. POP denotes

(a) Post Office Program
(b) Post Office Protocol
(c) Protocol on Program
(d) Protocol on Protocol
(e) Program of of Programmer

8. How many gigabytes are there in a petabyte?

(a) 1000
(b) 001
(c) 100
(d) 1000000
(e) 5000000

9. For a browser to connect to other resources, the location or address of the resources must be specified. These addresses are called

(a) MSN
(b) e-mail forms
(c) packets
(d) IDs
(e) URLs

10. The extensions .gov, .edu, .mil, and .net are c

(a) mail to addresses
(b) add-ons
(c) domain codes
(d) DNSs
(e) e-mail targets

11. Software that is actively utilised by end-users (like Word or Photoshop) is called

(a) actionware
(b) operating system
(c) system software
(d) driver
(e) application software

12. Using a ............ helps to place an image into a live video conference.

(a) printer
(b) digital camera
(c) video camera
(d) webcam
(e) scanner

13. Programs designed to perform specific tasks related to managing computer resources are called

(a) operating system
(b) helper software
(c) system software
(d) application software
(e) utility programs

14. A rectangular area on a computer screen that can contain a document, program or messages is referred to as a (n)

(a) field
(b) opening
(c) window
(d) tuplet
(e) cell

15. The storage locations in the internal storage of a CPU are called

(a) reference points
(b) addresses
(c) contents
(d) mask
(e) locations

16. Of the following types of computers, which is the most powerful?

(a) Laptop
(b) Mainframe computer
(c) Minicomputer
(d) Supercomputer
(e) Microcomputer

17. An input device, which can read characters directly from an ordinary piece of paper, is

(a) OMR
(b) POS
(c) OCR
(d) MSI
(e) CD

18. The radian of a number system

(a) has nothing to do with digit position value
(b) equals the number of its distinct counting digits
(c) is more than the number of its distinctcounting digits
(d) is always an even number
(e) is variable

19. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) passwords are case sensitive.
(b) passwords are not echoed on the screen for security resasons.
(c) A good password should be no more than six characters long.
(d) password is a secret code that authenticates a person to the computer.
(e) passwords should be changed frequently

20. The most common method for gaining access to the internet is through a

(a) dumb terminal
(b) keyboard
(c) provider or host computer
(d) virtual provider provider or computer
(e) point-to-point computer

21. Which of the following is a format for storing and backing up computer data on tape that evolved from the Digital Audio Tape (DAT) technology?

(a) Audio interchange file format
(b) Digital data storage
(c) Virtual tape system
(d) Tape archive
(e) Data aggregation

22. A compiler means

(a) keypunch operator
(b) computer data collector
(c) a person who compiles source programs
(d) a program which translates source program into object program
(e) the same thing as a programmer

23. Specialised programs designed to allow particular input or output devices to communicate with the rest of the computer system are called

(a) compilers
(b) action drivers
(c) interpreters
(d) device drivers
(e) operating systems

24. .......... get transmitted across the web by harmful chain letters and hoaxes.

(a) Flames and infections
(b) Flames
(c) Wamings
(d) Viruses
(e) Infections

25. ATM machines run .......... OS.

(a) network
(b) web
(c) embedded
(d) disintegrated
(e) open source

26. Moving from one website to another is called

(a) jumping
(b) applying
(c) surfing
(d) moving
(e) shifting

27. In a client/server network, the user's computer is considered the

(a) client
(b) website
(c) library
(d) server
(e) hoster

28. A program that is used to view websites is called a

(a) word processor
(b) spreadsheet
(c) browser
(d) web viewer
(e) viewer

29. The physical component of a computer that processes data in order to create information is called the

(a) specialware
(b) typology
(c) software
(d) hardware
(e) compiler

30. An emerging trend is to free users from owning and storing applications by using

(a) word processing packages
(b) backup applications
(c) applications packages
(d) storage packages
(e) web-based applications

31. Which is a secondary memory device?

(a) Mouse
(b) Floppy disk
(c) Scanner
(d) CPU
(e) ALU

32. Which of the following is possible with open architecture?

(a) A minimum of six new devices to be added to a computer
(b) Hot swapping of devices.
(c) Users to upgrade and add new devices as they come on the market.
(d) All hardware, input and output devices to be located in one efficient box
(e) A minimum of four new devices to be added to a computer.

33. ............. are special visual and sound effects contained in presentation graphics file.

(a) Attractions
(b) Simulations
(c) Animatronics
(d) Graphics
(e) Animations

34. Step-by-step instructions that run the computer are

(a) CPUs
(b) Programs
(c) Solutions
(d) Hardware
(e) Documents

35. The process of writing computer instructions in a programming language is known as

(a) processing
(b) algorithming
(c) coding
(d) file
(e) instrucitoning

36. Which of the following refers to too much electricity and may cause a voltage surge

(a) Shock
(b) Anomaly
(c) Splash
(d) Spike
(e) Virus

37. Rules for exchaning data between computers are called

(a) procedures
(b) protocols
(c) hyperlinks
(d) programs
(e) hyper-actions

38. Which of the following is used to write webpages?

(a) URL
(b) HTML
(c) HTTP
(d) FTP
(e) Telnet

39. ........... is the most important/powerful computer in a typical network.

(a) Network client
(b) Desktop
(c) Network switch
(d) Network station
(e) Network server

40. Raw, unprocessed facts, including text, numbers, images and sounds, are calle

(a) applets
(b) data
(c) melaware
(d) items
(e) java

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(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 11.12.2011 - Computer Knowledge

(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 11.12.2011 - Computer Knowledge

1. The smallest unit of information a computer can understand and process is known as a _____
(1) digit
(2) byte
(3) megabyte
(4) kilobyte
(5) bit
2. Compatibility, with regard to computers, refers to _________
(1) the software doing the right job for the user
(2) it being versatile enough to handle the job
(3) the software being able to run on the computer
(4) software running with only other previously installed software
(5) software permanently available in the computer

3. A _________ use pressure as a use r presses it with a stylus to sent signals.
(1) touchpad
(2) TrackPoint
(3) graphics tablet
(4) trackpad
(5) keyboard

4. The justification that aligns text on both margins of a document in Word is ________
(1) Justify
(2) Bold
(3) Center
(4) Right
(5) Balanced

5. A partially completed workbook that contains formulas and formatting, but no data is called a _____
(1) prototype
(2) template
(3) model
(4) function
(5) None of these

6. A byte can represent any number between 0 and ______
(1) 2
(2) 255
(3) 256
(4) 1024
(5) 1025

7. Connectivity for a new computer means ________
(1) allowing a printer to be connected to it
(2) having a modern and/or network connection to communicate with other computers
(3) connecting to software to the hardware of the system
(4) connecting a mouse, a keyboard, and a printer-all essential hardware pieces for the average user
(5) software permanently available in the computer

8. A ________ is used to read handwritten or printed text to make a digital image that is stored in memory.
(1) printer (2) laser beam
(3) scanner (4) touchpad
(5) keyboard

9. The shortcut key Ctrl + F in Word is used for __________
(1) To view document in full view
(2) To open the Formula dialog box
(3) To save the file
(4) To open the Find and Replace dialog box
(5) None of these

10. Each cell in a Microsoft Office Excel document is referred to by its cell address, which is the _______
(1) cell's column label
(2) cell's column label and worksheet tab name
(3) cell's row label
(4) cell's row and column labels
(5) cell's contents

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Tips & Tricks for IBPS Clerk Exam

Tips & Tricks for IBPS Clerk Exam

The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) is going to conduct the IBPS clerk exam 2016 through the Common Recruitment Process (CWE Clerk VI) from November 26, 2016 onwards. The process will have two stages — online exam (preliminary) and online exam (main). The provisional allotment of candidates is expected to happen in April 2017.

Over 19,000 vacancies have been released this time around. As a candidate, you can expect stiff competition from other aspirants who also wish to embark upon a career in public sector banking. Thus, it is best to understand the exam pattern and prepare yourself accordingly.

Stage – I (online exam: preliminary)

The preliminary exam will be computer-based where objective type questions of 100 marks will be asked. It will have to be completed in one hour. The exam will have three sections and the following breakup:

  • Numerical ability – 35 questions and 35 marks
  • English language – 30 questions and 30 marks
  • Reasoning ability – 35 questions and 35 marks

Please note that one hour is the composite time duration allotted to complete this exam. No section-wise time limit is applicable.

Stage – II (online exam: main)

The main exam will also be computer-based. It will be a 200 mark exam divided into five sections. Each section will have a separate time limit. Once the time limit for a particular section is over, you will not be able to go back to that section again. The breakup of marks and time limit allotted to the 5 sections are as follows:

  • Reasoning – 40 questions and 50 marks (Time: 30 minutes)
  • English language – 40 questions and 40 marks (Time: 30 minutes)
  • Quantitative aptitude – 40 questions and 50 marks (Time: 30 minutes)
  • General awareness – 40 questions and 40 marks (Time: 25 minutes)
  • Computer knowledge – 40 questions and 20 marks (Time: 20 minutes)

Things you need to keep in mind

(I) In order to get shortlisted for the main exam, you have to attain a sufficiently high overall score.
(II) In addition to the overall score, you must clear the sectional cut-offs for all the sections.
(III) For each incorrect answer, 25 per cent marks allocated to that question will be deducted from your aggregate score.
(IV) All the sections, except English language can be attempted in either English or Hindi.

Noteworthy points – exam pattern

  • The numerical ability / quantitative aptitude section will be primarily focused on arithmetic, data interpretation and algebra. Calculation based questions will be there in ample number.
  • English language section will mainly test you on reading, grammatical and word usage skills. To crack this section, effective reading ability and strong vocabulary are needed.
  • General awareness section will have questions from Banking GK and current affairs. Important national and international developments of the last six months comprise the current affairs portion.
  • Reasoning ability questions can be a little time consuming. Sitting arrangement, syllogisms, series, ranking test, direction test, coding-decoding, puzzle test, mathematical inequalities, input-output and blood relations are the topics to be covered.
  • Computer knowledge section will comprise areas such as : Computer hardware, computer terminology and abbreviations, internet knowledge and protocols, evolution of computer systems and programming languages, basics of networking, commonly used software packages like MS Office, cyber security, et al.

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Courtesy: The Indian Express

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Reasoning" (South Zone)

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: Reasoning

1. The positions of how many digits in the number 523169 will remain unchanged if the digits within the number are written in ascending order? (from left to right)

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

2. In a certain code ‘BUILD’ is written as ‘5#31@’ and ‘LIKES’ is written as ‘13©*8’. How is ‘SKID’ written in that code?

(1) 8©*@
(2) 8@3©
(3) 8©3@
(4) 83©@
(5) None of these

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘DAREDEVIL’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (in both forward and backward directions)

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

4. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the third, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word STEADFAST, which of the following will be the second letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y as the answer.

(1) E
(2) A
(3) T
(4) X
(5) Y

5. In a certain code ’TASK’ is written as ‘BUJR’ and ‘BIND’ is written as ‘JCCM’. How is ‘SUIT written in that code?

(1) VTSH
(2) VSTH
(3) TRUJ
(4) TRJU
(5) None of these

Directions (6-10): In the following questions, the symbols ,*,$,@ and © are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’.
‘A B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.
‘A © B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B’.
‘A * B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true,
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true,
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true,
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true,
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

6. Statements:

W $ F, F R, R * M

Conclusions:

I. R * W
II. R $ W

7. Statements’:

V T, T@N, N $ J

Conclusions:

I. J * T
II. N * V

8. Statements:

K © R, R M, M * F

Conclusions:

I. F @ R
II. K * M

9. Statements:

B @ J, J * H, H © N

Conclusions:

I. N @ J
II. N @ B

10. Statements:

T * K, K © M, M D

Conclusions:

I. D K
II. M @ T

Directions (11-15): Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below:

R 4 $ M E 7 T # A 2 J @ U K 9 P I % 1 8 Q W 3 d Z 5 * N 6 F © V G

11. Which of the following should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the elements in the above arrangement?

M$7 A#J KU P ?

(l) 1 % W
(2) 11 Q
(3) 1 I W
(4) 1 %Q
(5) None of these

12. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four

13. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not, immediately preceded by a letter?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

14. If the positions of twenty-five elements from the right end are reversed, which of the following will be the sixteenth element from the left end?

(1) Z
(2) P
(3) W
(4) Q
(5) None of these

15. Which of the following is the eighth to the left of the twenty- third element from the left end of the above arrangement?

(1) 9
(2) I
(3) $
(4) ©
(5) None of these

Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, Q, A, B, D, Rand F are sitting around a circular table [acing the centre. R is not second to the left of D and D is not an immediate neighbour of B, A is third to the right of F. B is second to the left of F. Q is not an immediate neighbour of B or F.

16. Who is second to the right of P ?

(1) R
(2) Q
(3) D
(4) A
(5) Data inadequate

17. Who is to the immediate left of F?

(1) R
(2) P
(3) D
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

18. Who is to the immediate right of D?

(1) Q
(2) A
(3) F
(4) P
(5) None of these

19. What is D’s position with respect to B ?

(1) Second to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the left
(4) Fourth to the right
(5) Third to the right

20. Who is to the immediate right of Q?

(1) D
(2) R
(3) A
(4) B
(5) None of these

Directions (21-25): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

21. Who among P, Q, R. S and T, each having a different age, is definitely the youngest?

I. R is younger than only T and P.
II. Q is younger than T but not the youngest.

22. Towards which direction was Q facing after he stopped walking?

I. Q walked 30 metres towards West, took a left turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a left turn and stopped after walking 30 metres,
II. Q walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 metres and he took a left turn and stopped after walking 30 metres.

23. How is ‘always’ written in a code language?

I. ‘rain is always good’ is written as ‘5 3 9 7 in that code language.
II. ‘he is always there’ is written as ‘3 6 8 5’ in that code language.

24. How is M related to D?

I. M has only one son and two daughters.
II. D’s brother is son of M’s wife:

25. On which date in April is definitely Pravm’s mother’s birthday?

I. Pravin correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is after fourteenth but before nineteenth of April.
II. Pravin’s sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is after sixteenth but before twenty-first of April.

Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Following are the conditions for selecting a Marketing Manager in an organisation:

The candidate must ______
(i) be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years old as on 01.12.2011.
(ii) be a graduate In any discipline with at least 55% aggregate marks.
(iii) have completed Post Graduate Degree/Diploma in Management with specialization in Marketing Management with at least 60% marks.
(iv) have post qualification work experience of at least 5 years as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organization.
In the case of a candidate who fulfills all the conditions except ______

(a) at (ii) above, but has secured at least 50% in graduation and at least 65% in Post Graduate Degree/Diploma in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management his/her case is to be referred to Head- Marketing.
(b) at (i) above, but is not more than 40 years old and has work experience of 8 years as Assistant Marketing Manager, his/her case is to be referred to Managing Director.
In each question below, details of one candidate are provided. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the conditions given above and the information provided in each question and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01-12-2011.

Mark answer (1) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
Mark answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer (3) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer (4) if the case is to be referred to Head-Marketing.
Mark answer (5) if the case is to be referred to Managing Director.

Now read the information provided in each question and mark your answer accordingly.

26. Mansi was born on 8th March 1982. She has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organization for the past six years after completing her Post Graduate Degree in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management with 70% marks. She has secured 53% marks in B.Com.

27. Manoj was born on 24th July 1980. He has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after completing his Post Graduate diploma in marketing management with 60% marks. He has secured 54% marks in graduation.

28. Rajat has secured 59% marks in graduation and has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after completing his Post Graduate Diploma in Management with specialization in Marketing Management. He was born on 15th February 198l.

29. Tarun was born on 2nd January 1978. He has secured 58% marks in B.Sc. and 65% marks in Post Graduate Degree in Marketing Management. He has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organization for the past six years after completing his post graduation.

30. Mohini has secured 60% marks in graduation. She has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past nine years after completing her Post Graduate degree in marketing management with 65% marks. She was born on 18th August 1972.

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F and G study in Standard IV, V and VI with at least two in any of these Standards. Each one of them has a favourite (likes) colour, viz. black, red, yellow, green, white, blue and pink not necessarily in the same order.

B likes yellow and does not study in Standard VI. The one who likes black studies in the same Standard as E, C likes blue and studies in the same Standard as G. D studies in Standard V only with the one who likes pink. G does not study either in Standard V or VI. F does not like black. G does not like either green or white. D does not like green. E does not like pink.

31. Who likes white?

(1) A
(2) G
(3) D
(4) F
(5) None of these

32. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(1) A- Black - V
(2) D - White - IV
(3) B - Red - IV
(4) C - Blue - IV
(5) All are correct

33. What is A’s favourite colour?

(1) Red
(2) Black
(3) White
(4) Black or White
(5) None of these

34. Which of the following students study in Standard IV?

(1) BC
(2) BG
(3) BCD
(4) BCG
(5) None of these

35. Who likes red?

(1) G
(2) D
(3) A
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to lake the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.

36. Statements:

All cards are sheets.
All files are cards.

Conclusions:

I. All cards are files.
II. All files are sheets.

37. Statements:

Some questions are answers.
All questions are issues.

Conclusions:

I. At least some answers are issues.
II. Some answers are definitely not questions.

38. Statements:

All roads are streets.
No road is a highway.

Conclusions:

I. No highway is street.
II. All streets are roads.

39. Statements:

No book is library. ,
Some books are diaries.

Conclusions:

I. Atleast some libraries are diaries.
II. No diary is library.

40. Statements :

No pin is a clip.
All pins are fans.

Conclusions:

I. All fans are pins.
II. No clip is fan.

Directions (41 -50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

 

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (23 September 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (23 September 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following information is not mandatory to the manufacturer to put on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards Regulations, 2011?

1. List of ingredients including additives
2. Nutrition information
3. Recommendations, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions
4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian

Q.2- Who among the following is not a member of Monetary policy committee?

A. PamiDua
B. Chetan Ghate
C. Ravindra Dholakia
D. Raghuram Rajan

Q.3- Tehri dam is situated at which of the following rivers?

A. Alaknanda
B. Mandakini
C. Bhagirathi
D. Tons

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - English Language" (South Zone)

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: English Language

Directions (1-15): Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Though the U.S. prides itself on being a leader in the world community a recent report shows that it lags far behind other industrialised countries in meeting the needs of its youngest and most vulnerable citizens. The U.S. has a higher infant mortality rate a higher proportion of low birth weight babies, a smaller proportion of babies immunized against childhood diseases and a much higher rate of adolescent pregnancies. These findings described as a “quiet crisis” requiring immediate and far-reaching action appeared in a report prepared by a task force of educators. Doctors, politicians and business people. According to the report, a fourth of the nation’s 12 million infants and toddlers live in poverty. As many as half confront risk factors that could harm their ability to develop intellectually physically and socially. Child immolations are too low more children are born into poverty more are in substandard care while their parents work and more are being raised by single parents. When taken together these and other risk factors can lead to educational and health problems that are much harder and more costly to reverse.
The crisis begins in the womb with unplanned parenthood. Women with unplanned pregnancies are less likely to seek pre-natal care. In the U.S. 80% of teenage pregnancies and 56% of all pregnancies are unplanned. The problems continue after birth where unplanned pregnancies and unstable partnerships often go hand in hand since 1950, the number of single parent families has nearly tripled. More than 25 per cent of all births today are to unmarried mothers. As the number of single parent families grows and more women enter the work force infants and toddlers are increasingly in the care of people other than their parents.

Most disturbingly recent statistics show that American parents are increasingly neglecting or abusing their children. In only four years from 1987-1991 the number of children in foster care increased by over 50 per cent. Babies under the age of one are the fastest growing category of children entering foster care. This crisis affects children under the age of three most severely the report says. Yet it is this period-from Infancy through preschool years-that sets the stage for a child’s future.

1. The main focus of the passage is on the plight of

(1) orphaned children
(2) teenage mothers
(3) low birth weight babies
(4) unwed mother
(5) None of these

2. Children failing in which age group are most severely affected by the ‘quiet crisis’?

(1) Below 1 year
(2) Below 3 year
(3) Below 3 years
(4) Between 2 and 3 years
(5) None of these

3. Which of the following does not constitute the ‘quiet crisis’ in the U.S. as per the task force report?

(1) Lower proportion of new born babies with normal weight
(2) Higher incidence of adolescent girls becoming mothers
(3) Lower rate of babies surviving childhood diseases
(4) Larger proportion of babies who are deprived of immunization
(5) Increasing cases of teenage couples getting divorced

4. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?

(1) The number of single-parent families today is approximately three times that four decades ago.
(2) The number of children in the U.S. entering foster care has decreased after 1991.
(3) In the U.S. the number of infants living in poverty is about 3 million.
(4) Only 20 per cent of all the pregnancies in the U.S. are planned.
(5) About 6 million infants in the U.S. are likely to develop educational and health problems.

5. The number of children born to married mothers in the U.S. is approximately how many times the number of children born to unwed mothers?

(1) 1.5 times
(2) 2 times
(3) 3 times
(4) 3.5 times
(5) Not mentioned in the passage

6. Children born out of unplanned pregnancies are highly vulnerable because

(1) they are raised by single parents.
(2) their parents are mostly poor.
(3) they are mostly malnourished.
(4) they are less likely to receive prenatal care.
(5) their parents are emotionally immature.

7. Decide which of the following factors is/ are responsible for the physical, intellectual and social under-development of infants in the U.S.?

A. Illiteracy of parents
B. Lack of parental care
C. Poverty

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Both A and C
(5) Both Band C

8. An increasing number of infants in the U.S. are in foster care on account of

(1) an increasing number of single parent families with the female member working
(2) an increasing number of women maintaining the status of unwed motherhood and becoming economically independent
(3) an increasing number of employed couples who are required to stay apart
(4) an increasing number of women getting divorced and abandoning their babies
(5) an increasing number of parents who lack awareness about baby-care

9. The task force report seems to be based on the data pertaining to the period

(1) 1987-91
(2) 1950 onwards till data
(3) 1987 onwards till data
(4) 1950-91
(5) 1991 onwards till date

Directions (60-62): Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the given word as used in the passage.

10. CONFRONT

(1) Face
(2) Tolerate
(3) Succumb
(4) Eliminate
(5) Oppose

11. VULNERABLE

(1) Insecure
(2) Indispensable
(3) Risky
(4) Promising
(5) Challenging

12. ABUSING

(1) Cursing
(2) Beating
(3) III treating
(4) Accusing
(5) Oppressing

Direction (63-615): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the given word as used in the passage.

13. SEVERELY

(1) Drastically
(2) Intensely
(3) Minutely
(4) Normally
(5) Slightly

14. UNSTABLE

(1) Changing
(2) Steady
(3) Stagnant
(4) Confined
(5) Accelerating

15. SUBSTANDARD

(1) Impoverished
(2) Compassionate
(3) Excellent
(4) Valuable
(5) Beneficial

Directions (16-20): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

16.

Another advantage (1)/ is that technology (2)/ can be quickly (3)/ adapted (4)/ to the client’s needs. All correct (5)

17.

It freed me to enter (1)/ one of the most (2)/ creatively (3)/ periods (4)/ of my life. All correct (5) .

18.

 About 4,500 private (1)/ and 2000 government hospitols (2)/ are empanelled (3)/ under the scheme. (4)/ All correct (5)

19.

 More often (1)/ then (2)/ not we feel concerned (3)/ with the development around (4)/ us. All correct (5)

20.

 Software (1) / makers in India are facing (2)/ a huge (3)/ pressure. (4)/ All correct (5)

Directions (21-25): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer. 

21. I. The truck stopped _ .
II. We take a _ walk every day.

(1) suddenly 
(2) long
(3) short
(4) distant
(5) near

22. I. I got the grains _ in the machine,
II. I do not have any _ for doubting him.

(1) done
(2) basis
(3) ground
(4) crushed
(5) tune

23. I. We were asked to design a___ of the dam.
II. This Institute is a ____ of modern thinking.

(1) picture
(2) type
(3) function
(4) fabric
(5) model

24. I. Keep a _ grip on the railing.
II. He was _ asleep.

(1) fast
(2) firm
(3) deep
(4) strong
(5) sure

25. I. He asked me to ___ over the fence.
II. We should keep the valuables in the ____ .

(1) vault
(2) cross
(3) safe
(4) tie
(5) locker
 
Directions (26-30): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.

26. Most of time, strangers have helped me in critical situations.

(1) Many a time
(2) At time
(3) More of time
(4) At odd period
(5) No correction required

27. The reality is that India needs a strong, efficient and competitive aviation sector.

(1) what India needs
(2) that India need
(3) therefore India need
(4) needs India
(5) No correction required

28. I have known this industry since the last two decades.

(1) since last two decade
(2) ever since the last two decades
(3) for the last two decades
(4) from the last two decades
(5) No correction required

29. Today’s children have far most knowledge and far less patience compared to our generation.

(1) much most knowledge
(2) far most knowledgeable
(3) by far higher knowledge
(4) far more knowledge
(5) No correction required

30. Of late, Bonsai trees have attracted the attention of one and all.

(1) some and all
(2) many and all
(3) everyone and all
(4) none and all
(5) No correction required

Directions (31-40): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark (5).

31.

 All companies must (1)/ send its annual report to (2) / its share- holders twenty-one days (3)/ before the Annual General Body Meeting.(4)/ No error (5)

32.

To be an effective manager (1)/ it is vital to (2) / know the goals and vision (3) / of your organization. (4)/ No error (5).

33.

His aim is (1)/ provided cheap and (2)/ reliable internet facilities (3)/ to every village within five years. (4)/ No error (5).

34.

Bank notes have (1) / many special features so (2) / that bank staff can (3)/ easier identity fake notes.(4) / No error (5).

35.

According to the Census Bureau, (1)/ India will have (2)/ a more population (3)/ than China by 2025. (4)/ No error (5).

36.

The state government has (1)/ issued licences to farmers (2)/ allowing them to sell (3)/ its vegetables to hotels. (4)/ No error (5)

37.

Many people decide (1)/ not to buy a car (2)/ last Diwali because of (3)/ the high price of petrol last year. (4) No error (5).

38.

We plan to (1)/ sell part of our (2)/ business therefore we have (3)/ to repay a loan. (4)/ No error (5)

39.

The Reserve Bank of India is (1)/ the only central bank in (2)/ Asia which have (3)/ raised interest rates in September. (4) No error (5)

40.

Under this scheme, (1)/ insurance companies will reimburse (2) / any expenditure on medicines (3)/ if you submitting the original bills. (4)/ No error (5).

Directions (41-50): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Today experts all over the world are of the opinion that agriculture will affect the future of the world.
The world has a serious food (41) and the only way to solve (42) is If more people take up (43). Moreover since the 1980s, technology and finance job (44) been the basis of America’s economy. (45) in recent times, fanners’ incomes have risen (46) It has also been a long time (47) fanning was a major source of employment, but data (49) that unemployment in America is (49) in states where farming is the (50) occupation.
As the demand for food is rising what the world needs today is more fanners.

41.

(1) trouble
(2) Problem
(3) doubt
(4) discussion
(5) production

42.

(1) how
(2) usually
(3) it
(4) these
(5) which

43.

(1) farming
(2) time
(3) matter
(4) offer
(5) job

44.

(1) also
(2) has
(3) not
(4) have
(5) were

45.

(1) However
(2) Instead
(3) Despite
(4) Again
(5) Still

46.

(1) much
(2) up
(3) above
(4) sharpy
(5) highly

47.

(1) when
(2) since
(3) while
(4) as
(5) after

48.

(1) collected
(2) informs
(3) calculate
(4) aanlysed
(5) show

49.

(1) lowest
(2) smaller
(3) decreased
(4) important
(5) not

50.

(1) mostly
(2) best
(3) suitable
(4) Supperior
(5) main

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (22 September 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (22 September 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following is correct regarding Rail budget?

1. Railway finances were separated from the general government finances for the first time in 1954
2. At present railway revenue is not the part of consolidated fund of India

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

Q.2- Which of the following days were designated as Earth day in 2016?

A. 22nd Sept
B. 22nd Mach
C. 22nd April
D. 23rd Dec

Q.3- India has highest trade deficit with which of the following countries?

A. Japan
B. China
C. USA
D. Russia

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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Telangana Grameena Bank

About Bank:

The Bank was established by amalgamating four RRBs Sponsored by State Bank of Hyderabad, viz. 1) Sri Saraswathi Grameena Bank, Adilabad 2) Sri Satavahana Grameena Bank, Karimnagar 3) Sri Rama Grameena Bank, Nizamabad and 4) Golconda Grameena Bank, Ranga Reddy (Hyderabad) with an aggregate net work of 363 branches. The Area of operation of the Bank covers the districts of Adilabad, Karimnagar, Nizamabad, Hyderabad and Ranga Reddy districts of Telangana. The Authorised share capital of the Bank is Rs.5 crores. The paid-up capital is Rs.4 crores which is contributed by Government of India, Sponsor Bank i.e. State Bank of Hyderabad & Government of Telangana in the ratio of 50: 35: 15 respectively.

Vision:

To be the premier RRB in the state providing technologically advanced, committed and quality service in all spheres of banking and be the most trusted bank for rural development.

Mission:

Providing transparent and efficient Banking Services at a reasonable cost at the doorsteps of our customers by ensuring 100% Financial Inclusion, empowerment of rural customers, promote Self Help Group (SHG) movement with special emphasis on women and earn continuous profits by having a healthy business mix thus becoming a leading Bank in our area of operation.

Contact Details:

Head Office:

2-1-520, 2nd Floor,
Vijaya Sri Sai Celestia,
Street No.9,
Nallakunta,
Shankermutt Road,
Hyderabad - 500 044.
Phone No: 040-27602091, 27600821
FAX : 040-27662623, 27661742
Website: www.tgbhyd.in

Courtesy: Telangana Grameena Bank

Odisha Gramya Bank

Odisha Gramya Bank

About Bank:

Odisha Gramya Bank is established on 7th January 2013 with the amalgamation of Neelachal Gramya Bank, Kalinga Gramya Bank and Baitarani Gramya Bank as per the Government of India ,Department of Financial Services,Ministry of finanace,Notification No. F.1/1/2012-RRB dated 07.01.2013 issued under sub-section(1) of section 23A of Regional Rural BankAct 1976(21 of 1976).The share capital of the Bank is contributed by the Government of India(50%),the Government of Odisha(15%) and the Indian Overseas Bank(35%) .Indian Overseas Bank is the sponsor bank.

The Head Office of the Bank is loacated at Bhubaneswar.The bank has 9 regional offices located at Balasore, Baripada, Cuttack, Chandikhol, Dhenkanal, Jashipur, Khurda, Keonjhar and Pipli. The bank has a network of 547 branches spread over13 Districts in Odisha State viz.,Angul, Balasore, Bhadrak, Cuttack, Dhenkanal, Jajpur, Jagatsinghpur, Kendrapada, Keonjhar,Khurda, Mayurbhanj, Nayagarh, Puri.

To provide training to our Staff members a Learning Centre is established at HO.Bank has set up Central Clearing Office at Bhubaneswar.Bank has a house magazine called ‘SRUSTI’ .

Contact Details:

Head Office
At- Gandamunda, Po- Khandagiri Bhubaneswar-7510300
Telephone-: 0674 -2353031 / 2353032
Fax-: 0674 2353011,2353029,2353035
Website: www.odishabank.in

Courtesy: Odisha Gramya Bank

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (21 September 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (21 September 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Recently, linking of which of the following rivers was undertaken?

A. Cauvery and Tungabhadra
B. Godavari and Krishna
C. Mahanadi and son
D. Nirmada and tapti

Q.2- Cauvery River Authority is headed by which of the following?

A. Prime Minister
B. Water Resources Minister
C. Water Resources Secretary
D. Home Minister

Q.3- United States recently suspended all aid convoys to which of the following countries?

A. North Korea
B. Iran
C. Syria
D. Israel

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - General Awareness" (South Zone)

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: General Awareness

1. Which of the following organization/agencies is specifically set up to boost overall rural development in India?

(1) RBI
(2) SIDBI
(3) NABARD
(4) SEBI
(5) EXIM

2. Which of the following States has expressed its unhappiness over the agreement on sharing of Teesta water between India and Bangladesh? (Agreement was not signed because of the objection)

 (1) Jharkhand
(2) Assam
(3) Manipur
(4) Bihar
(5) West Bengal

3. Banks in India are regulated under——

(1) Companies Act, 1956
(2) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(3) Reserve Bank of India Act. 1934
(4) Special powers conferred on the RBI
(5) None of these

4. Which of the following countries is a major producer of Jute?

(1) Pakistan
(2) Afghanistan
(3) South Africa
(4) Bangladesh
(5) Sri Lanka

5. Compilation of data on industrial production in India is done by which of the following agencies / organizations?

(1) National Testing Lab
(2) Reserve Bank of India
(3) Census Commission of India
(4) Planning Commission of India
(5) Central Statistics Office

6. The President of India visited which of the following countries In July 2011 and held discussions with Mr. Lee Myung-bak, the President of the country?

 (1) South Korea
(2) Mongolia
(3) China
(4) North Korea
(5) Thailand

7. India is providing financial help to which of the following countries for building a large harbour there named as Kankasanthurai Harbour?

(1) Nepal
(2) Myanmar
(3) Bangladesh
(4) Sri Lanka
(5) Vietnam

8. A Savings Bank Account opened with a commercial bank with zero balance or very minimal balance is known as

(1) Savings Bank-Ordinary Account
(2) Student Savings Bank Account
(3) No Frill Account
(4) Current Account
(5) Call Deposit

9. What does the letter ‘R’ denote in the abbreviation ‘BR Act’ which controls banking activities in the country?

(1) Reformation
(2) Regulation
(3) Reporting
(4) Resolution
(5) Ranking

10. ‘Base Rate’ in banks is

 (1) Rate of Interest payable on demand deposits
(2) Rate of interest payable on fixed deposits
(3) Rate of interest charged by RBI on long term borrowings of Public Sector Banks
(4) Minimum lending rate decided by RBI which shall be adopted by all Public Sector Banks
(5) The minimum interest rate fixed by individual banks, below which they cannot lend funds, except cases like Government sponsored scheme

11. Banking Sector will fall under which of the following?

 (1) Agricultural Sector
(2) Service Sector
(3) Manufacturing Sector
(4) Industrial Sector
(5) Small Scale Sector

12. The Government of India has recently added the following currency for allowing Indian companies to raise debts through External Commercial Borrowings.

 (1) EURO
(2) Dinar
(3) Great Britain Pound
(4) Chinese Yuan
(5) Japanese Yen

13. A Saving Bank Deposit Account is one where _______


(1) The deposits are made ‘only once in a year
(2) Amounts are deposited and are withdrawn as per requirement of the customers
(3) Periodical Fixed amount are deposited monthwise and withdrawal are allowed after a fixed period
(4) The deposits are made once in every month
(5) None of these

14. ASBA scheme is related to Purchase of _______

(1) IPO
(2) CP
(3) CD
(4) TCs
(5) None of these

15. Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha at present?

 (1) Mrs. Pratibha Patil
(2) Sri Mohammad Hamid Ansari
(3) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(4) Ms. Miera Kumar
(5) Sri L. K. Advani

16. Which of the following States at the instance of the Supreme Court of India, has decided to conduct electronic auction of Iron Ore stocks to be allotted of Iron and Steel producers?

 (1) Gujarat
(2) Bihar
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Uttar Pradesh
(5) Karnataka

17. Mobile banking requires -

(1) account with a bank with mobile phone linked to interbank mobile payment service
(2) account with mobile post office
(3) account with bank along with mobile phone- linked to international mobile payment service
(4) account with bank and mobile phone linked to interstate mobile payment service
(5) account with bank along with mobile phone linked to inter-district mobile payment service

18. Saina Nehwal is a famous player associated with the game of

(1) Hockey
(2) Badminton
(3) Golf
(4) Lawn Tennis
(5) Table Tennis

19. Who among the following is the Prime Minister of Japan at present?

(1) Mr. Yoshlhlko Noda
(2) Mr. Naoto Kan
(3) Mr. Abe Shinzo
(4) Mr. Yasuo Fukuda
(5) None of these

20. Central Drug Research Institute is located in which of the following cities in India?

(1) Jamshedpur
(2) New Delhi
(3) Jaipur
(4) Lucknow
(5) Dhanbad

21. Which of the following books is written by the Classic Russian author Maxim Gorky?

 (1) As You Like It
(2) Lolita
(3) The Mother
(4) War and Peace
(5) Alice in Wonderland

22. Summer Olympic of 2016 will be organised is a city in _____

(1) China
(2) India
(3) Brazil
(4) Russia
(5) South Africa

23. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the game of Hockey?

(1) Bully
(2) Follow-on
(3) Penalty comer
(4) Centre pass
(5) Scoop

24. In a bank the following are the usual types of deposit accounts

(1) Savings accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
(2) Fixed deposits, Post office savings bank accounts and current deposit accounts
(3) Current accounts savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(4) Loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(5) Current bill accounts and term deposit accounts

25. When a bank dishonours a cheque _______

(1) it is called settlement of the cheque
(2) it is called withdrawing of the cheque
(3) it is called nullifying of the cheque
(4) it is called truncating of the cheque
(5) it is called return of the cheque unpaid

26. The latest merger of bank with State Bank of India is

 (1) State Bank of Hyderabad
(2) State Bank of Indore
(3) State Bank of Saurashtra
(4) State Bank of Travancore
(5) None of these

27. Mr. Salva Kiir Mayardit has taken over as the first President of

(1) Republic of South Sudan
(2) Vietnam
(3) Myanmar
(4) Libya
(5) Iraq

28. The most powerful tool used by the Reserve Bank of India to control inflation is _______

(1) Raise interest rates
(2) Reduce interest rates
(3) Raise Currency Supply
(4) Reduce Currency Supply
(5) Raise I nterest rates and reduce currency supply

29. ‘Sub Prime Lending’ which was the root cause for global meltdown in banks during 2008 means _

(1) Bank finance for non-productive activities
(2) Bank finance not properly disclosed in its Balance Sheet
(3) Bank finance in violation to the directives of the Central Bank
(4) Bank finance to fictitious entities
(5) Bank finance who do not qualify for the best market “interest rates

30. Which of the following represents female literacy rate in India? (As per provisional figures of Census 2011)

 (1) 60%
(2) 62%
(3) 65%
(4) 70%
(5) None of these

31. Crossing of cheques makes them

(1) Invalid document
(2) Ineligible to endorse to a person other than the payee
(3) Remain the same in all respect, it is only a practice
(4) Eligible for payment irrespective of sufficient balance in the account
(5) Ineligible to get cash across the bank counter

32. NEFT and RTGS in banking terminology speaks of ______

(1) Various deposit products
(2) Various loan products
(3) Electronic Payment Products within a bank
(4) Electronic Fund Transfer from bank to bank
(5) Cheque Truncation Process

33. The Head Quarters of the World Bank is located in

(1) London
(2) Paris
(3) New York
(4) Tokyo
(5) Washington D. C.

34. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Government of India only for school children?

 (1) Kutir Jyoti
(2) Kishor Jeevan
(3) Aadhaar
(4) SEWA
(5) Mid Day Meal

35. Which of the following days is observed as ‘World Ozone Day’?

(1) 10th August
(2) 16th October
(3) 16th September
(4) 10th December
(5) 19th January

36. Which of the following Awards is given by the Government of Madhya Pradesh for excellence in the field of classical music/dance etc.?

(1) Saraswati Samman
(2) Kalidas Samman
(3) Vyas Samman
(4) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(5) Sahitya Akademi Award

37. The ownership of Public sector banks rests

(1) Wholly with Government of India
(2) Jointly with Government of India and State Bank of India
(3) Wholly with shareholders from the public
(4) Jointly with Government of India and Reserve Bank of India
(5) Jointly with Government of India and shareholders from the public

38. Which of the Cups/Trophies is associated with the game of Cricket?

(1) Azlan Shah Cup
(2) Davis Cup
(3) Nehru Gold Cup
(4) Ranji Trophy
(5) Wimbledon Trophy

39. Which of the following is the currency of South Korea?

(1) Yen
(2) Kyat
(3) Won
(4) Rupee
(5) Ringit

40. Who among the following is the Railway Minister of India at present?

(1) Sri Sharad Pawar
(2) Sri Virbhadra Singh
(3) Smt. Ambika Soni
(4) Sri Dinesh Trivedi
(5) None of these

41. Who among the following was a famous Scientist and is known as the ‘Father of India’s Nuclear Programme’?

 (l) Dr. Horni J. Bhabha
(2) Dr. Satyendra Nath Bose
(3) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
(4) Dr. Satish Dhawan
(5) Dr. C. V. Raman

42. Which of the following Awards was given to Dr. M. S. Ahluwalia in 2011 by the Government of India?

(1) Padma Vibhushan
(2) Padmashree
(3) Bharat Ratna
(4) Man of the Year
(5) Man of the Decade

43. Which of the following awards is given to Dr. Harish Hande and Ms. Nileema Mtshra recently?

(1) Ramon Magsaysay
(2) Booker Prize
(3) Golden Pen Award
(4) Mercy Ravi Award
(5) Sangeet Natak Akademi Award

44. Which of the following pacts/ agreements will allow Afghanistan to sell its goods in India without paying any tax?

(1) SAFTA
(2) Free Market Agreement
(3) Most Favoured Nation Pact
(4) Agreem ent for Direct Foreign Investment
(5) Agreement to help Least Developed Countries

45. Nonperforming assets mean ______

(1) the assets have stopped giving losses to a bank
(2) the assets have stopped giving capital to a bank
(3) the assets have stopped giving income to a bank
(4) the assets have stopped giving income and expenses to a bank
(5) the assets have stopped giving expenses to a bank

46. Which of the following banks in India has maximum number of branches and ATMs in India?

 (1) IDBI Bank
(2) Bank of India
(3) Punjab National Bank
(4) ICICI Bank
(5) State Bank of India

47. EFT means

 (1) Effective Funds Transfer
(2) Efficient Funds Transfer
(3) Easy Funds Transfer
(4) Electronic Funds Transfer
(5) Electric Funds Transfer

48. UNESCO is an organisation working in the field of

 (1) Social Welfare
(2) Protecting interest of prisoners of war
(3) Framing international laws
(4) International collaboration through education, culture and science
(5) Protecting children’s right

49. If a cheque is post dated

(1) bank on whom it is drawn will not honour the cheque before the date of the cheque
(2) bank on whom it is drawn has to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque
(3) bank on whom it is drawn has the option to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque or not
(4) bank on whom it is drawn has to refer to RBI to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque
(5) bank on whom it is drawn has to refer to the court to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque

50. Which of the following countries is a Member of G-8?

(1) Iran
(2) Turkey
(3) France
(4) Brazil
(5) China 

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Numerical Ability" (South Zone)

  

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: Numerical Ability

Directions (101-115): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. 6.2 × 5.5 × 4.5 = ?

(1) 156.35
(2) 135.54
(3) 155.54
(4) 145.45
(5) None of these

2.



3.

4. 2615 - 4361 + 2881 = ? × 20

(1) 63.75
(2) 57.75
(3) 56.25
(4) 66.28
(5) None of these

5. 3.5 x (48 ÷1.5) = ?

 (1) 113
(2) 112
(3) 124
(4) 126
(5) one of these

6. 16. 8% of 705 = ?

(1) 114.88
(2) 119.66
(3) 118.44
(4) 123.22
(5) None of these

7. 13% of 190 + ? = 111

(1) 66.7
(2) 95.3
(3) 28.7
(4) 73.3
(5) None of these

8. 628.88 - 41 0.25 + 1 53.05 = ?

(1) 371.68
(2) 76.58
(3) 317.68
(4) 67.58
(5) None of these

9. (5 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5) 2 × (5 × 5 × 5 × 5) 8 ÷ (5 × 5) 3 = (25)?

(1) 21
(2) 15
(3) 17
(4) 16
(5) None of these

10.

11. 8282 + 2828 = ? × 40

(1) 277.75
(2) 267.75
(3) 277.50
(4) 257.75
(5) None of these

12. 5% of 420 × ? % of 150 = 252

(1) 14
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 8
(5) None of these

13. 25 ÷ 0.5 - 0.5 = ?

 (1) 23
(2) 13
(3) 34.5
(4) 49.5
(5) None of these

14. 5 × ? = 2862 ÷ 3

 (1) 4790
(2) 185.4
(3) 4076
(4) 180.6
(5) None of these

15. 8080 ÷ 80 ÷ 8 = ?

(1) 860
(2) 12.625
(3) 806
(4) 14.225
(5) None of these

 Directions (16-20): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

16. 9125 ÷ 90 ÷ 9 = ?

(1) 23
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 25
(5) 11

17. 6666.009 - 585.999 - 79.989 = ?

(1) 5000
(2) 5500
(3) 6500
(4) 4500
(5) 6000

18. 11.003 × 10.998 + 111.010 = ?

(1) 255
(2) 195
(3) 230
(4) 270
(5) 210

19. (14.5)2 = ?

(1) 235
(2) 190
(3) 250
(4) 185
(5) 210

20. 765.0003 ÷ 44.999 = ?

(1) 17
(2) 11
(3) 6
(4) 22
(5) 30

Directions (21-25): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number sereis?

21. 2 26 286 ? 18018  90090  270270

(1) 2088
(2) 3667
(3) 2862
(4) 2574
(5) None of these

22. 358  356  352  344  328  296 ?

(1) 232
(2) 237
(3) 227
(4) 245
(5) None of these

23. 8 ? 30 105 472.5 2598.75 16891.875

(1) 22
(2) 12
(3) 12
(4) 14
(5) None of these

24. 3 4 ? 21 85 110 326

(1) 9
(2) 11
(3) 12
(4) 16
(5) None of these

25. 50000 10000 2500 500 125 ? 6.25

(1) 55
(2) 25
(3) 60
(4) 33.5
(5) None of these

26.6 women and 10 children together take 6 days to complete a piece of work. How many days will 1 0 children alone take to complete the piece of work if 6 women alone can complete the piece of work in 10 days?

(1) 23
(2) 16
(3) 14
(4) 15

27. The respective ratio between Sarita’s, Tina’s and Aartis monthly income is 95: 110: 116. If Sarita’s annual income is Rs. 3,42,000, what is Aarti’s annual income? (In some cases monthly income and in some cases annual income are used.)

(1) Rs. 3.86.000
(2) Rs. 4.63.500
(3) Rs. 4.17.600
(4) Rs. 3.86.000
(5) None of these

 28. Kamini walks 3.36 kms. in 4 weeks by walking an equal distance each day. How many metres does she walk each day?

 (1) 100
(2) 80
(3) 130
(4) 120
(5) None of these

 29. The average of four consecutive even numbers A. B. C and D respectively is 37. What is the product of A and C ?

(1) 1420
(2) 1468
(3) 1292
(4) 1226
(5) None of these

 30. The product of 5% of a positive number and 2% of the same number is 211.6. What is half of that number?

(1) 230
(2) 260
(3) 920
(4) 115
(5) None of these

31. Find the missing number if the average of all the eight numbers is 474.

533, 128, 429, 225, ____ 305, 601, 804

 (1) 767
(2) 783
(3) 776
(4) 658
(5) None of these

 32. The perimeter of a square is twice the perimeter of a rectangle. If the perimeter of the square is 56 cms. and the length of the rectangle is 9 cms., what is the difference between the breadth of the rectangle and the side of the square?

 (1) 8 cms.
(2) 9 cms.
(3) 13 cms.
(4) 5 cms.
(5) None of these

 33. A truck covers a distance of 256 km. at the speed of 32 km./hr. What is the average speed of a carwhich travels a distance of 160 kms. more than the truck in the same time?

(1) 46 km./hr.
(2) 52 km./hr.
(3) 49 km./hr.
(4) 64 km./hr.
(5) None of these

34. Manoj got 103·marks in Hindi, 111 marks in Science, 98 marks In Sanskrit, 110 marks in Maths and 88 marks in English. If the maximum marks of each subject are equal and If Manoj scored 85 percent marks in all the subjects together, what are the maximum marks of each subject?

(1) 110
(2) 120
(3) 115
(4) 100
(5) None of these

35. A man riding a bicycle, completes one lap of a square field along its perimeter at the speed of 39.6 km/hr in 1 minute 20 seconds. What Is the area of the field?

(1) 52900 sq. mts.
(2) 44100 sq. mts.
(3) 48400 sq. mts.
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

36. At present Barun is twice Vishal’s age and half of Tanvi’s age. After four years Barun will be 1.5 times Vishal’s age and Tanvi will be 2.5 times Vishal’s age then. What is Tanvt’s present age?

 (1) 12 years
(2) 8 years
(3) 20 years
(4) 16 years
(5) None of these

37. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest accrued on an amount at the end of three years at the rate of 15% is Rs. 453.6. What is the amount?

(1) Rs. 4.500
(2) Rs. 6,400
(3) Rs. 7.200
(4) Rs. 8,000
(5) None of these

 38. Jayesh, Sudhir and Parvati start running around a circular stadium and complete one round in 12 seconds. 8 seconds and 15 seconds respectively. In how much time will they meet again at the starting point?

(1) 3 minutes 30 seconds
(2) 1 minute
(3) 3 minutes
(4) 2 minutes
(5) None of these

 39. On teacher’s day 3200 sweets were to be equally distributed amongst a certain number of children. But on that particular day 80 children remained absent; hence each child got 2 sweets extra. How many children were originally supposed to be there?

(1) 320
(2) 500
(3) 540
(4) 400
(5) Cannot be determined

 40. What will come in place of both the question marks (?) in the following question?

 
(1) 58
(2) -38
(3) 46
(4) 36
(5) - 48

41. The area of a circle is equal to the area of a rectangle with perimeter equal to 35 metres and breadth equal to 5.5 metres. What is the area of the circle?

(1) 88 sq.mts.
(2) 72 sq.mts.
(3) 66 sq.mts.
(4) 54 sq.mts.
(5) None of these

 42. In an examination the maximum aggregate marks that a student can get are 1020. In order to pass the exam a student is required to get 663 marks out of the aggregate marks. Shreya got 612 marks. By what percent did Shreya fail in the exam?

(1) 5
(2) 8
(3) 7
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

43. Sujit incurred a loss of 45 percent on selling an article for Rs. 3.740. What was the cost price of the article?

(1) Rs. 5.725
(2) Rs. 5,080
(3) Rs. 6.250
(4) Rs. 6,400
(5) None of these

44. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘VIRTUAL’ be arranged?

(1) 840
(2) 5040
(3) 2520
(4) 1680
(5) None of these

 45. A 480 metre long train crosses a platform in 140 seconds. What is the speed of the train?

(1) 5m/s
(2) 7m/s
(3) 4.5 m/s
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

 46. The compound interest accrued in 2 years on a principal of Rs. 16.250 is Rs. 5.616. What is the rate of interest p.c. p.a. ?

(1) 22
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of thes
e

47. The average height of 21 girls was recorded as 148 cms. If the teacher’s height was added, the average increased by one. What was the teacher’s height?

(1) 156 cms.
(2) 168 cms.
(3) 170 cms.
(4) 162 cms.
(5) None of these

 48. What would be the area of a circle whose diameter is 35 cms?

(1) 962.5 sq.cm.
(2) 875.5 sq.cm.
(3) 981.5 sq.cm.
(4) 886.5 sq.cm.
(5) None of these

 49. Suresh sold an item for Rs. 5,625 and incurred a loss of 25%. At what price should he have sold the item to have gained a profit of 25% ?

 (1) Rs. 9,375
(2) Rs. 10,500
(3) Rs. 8,250
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

50.

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(Paper) IBPS RRB CWE (IV) Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam Paper - 2015 "held on 12th September 2015"

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(Paper) IBPS RRB CWE (IV) Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam Paper - 2015 "held on 12th September 2015"

Memory Based

Directions (1-5): In the questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer

(a) If either conclusion I or II is true
(b) If only conclusion I is true
(c) It both conclusion I and II are true
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) If only conclusion II is true

1. Statements

Conclusions

I. C > D
II. H < S

2. Statements

Conclusions

I. E = P
II. P > E

3. Statements

S > J = T < O; T < P

Conclusions

I. S > O
II. P < S

4. Statements

Conclusions

I. R < A
II. V > G

5. Statements

Directions (6-10): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 T, U, V, W, X and Y are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2 B, C, D, E, F and G are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. Only two people sit to the left of E. only one person sits between E and F. V is an immediate neighbor of the one of the who faces F. X sits second to the right of V. Only two people sit between X and T. G faces one of the immediate neighbours of X. Y sits second to the right of U. D faces W. B does not face X.

6. What is the position of U with respect to T?

(a) Second to the left
(b) Second to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Third to the right
(e) Fourth to the right

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence from a group. Which of them does not belong to that group?

(a) V
(b) E
(c) U
(d) W
(e) B

8. Who amongst the following is facing V?

(a) B
(b) E
(c) G
(d) F
(e) C

9. Who amongst the following is facing T?

(a) B
(b) G
(c) E
(d) C
(e) F

10. Which of the following statements is true regarding C?

(a) C sits at one of the extreme ends of the row.
(b) C is an immediate neighbour of B.
(c) C faces U.
(d) C faces one of the immediate neighbour of V
(e) None of the given statements is true.

Directions (11-12): Study the following information and answer the given questions.

11. Which of the following represents the direction of Point A with respect to Point C?

(a) North-West
(b) North
(c) North-East
(d) South-West
(e) South-East

12. How far is point B from point F?

(a) 7 am
(b) 5 m
(c) 4 m
(d) 10 m
(e) 2 m

Directions (13-17): In the following questions, two/three statements followed by two conclusions (I and II) have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer

(a) if neither conclusion I nor II is true
(b) if both conclusion I and II are true
(c) if either conclusion I or II is true
(d) if only conclusion II is true
(e) if only conclusion I is true

13. Statements

All roses are lotuses.
Some lotuses are orchids.
No orchid is a daisy.

Conclusions

I. All rows are orchids.
II. No daisy is a lotus

14. Statements

Some huts are canopies.
Some canopies are tents.

Conclusions

I. No tent is a hut.
II. At least some tents are hunts.

15. Statements

Some salads are vegetables.
All vegetables are fruits.
All fruits are juices.

Conclusions

I. All vegetables are juices.
II. Some salads are definitely not fruits.

16. Statements

No stem is a root.
Some roots are trunks.
Al trunks are woods.

Conclusions:

I. All trunks can never be stems.
II. At least some roots are woods.

17. Statements

All flowers are garlands.
No garland is an accessory.

Conclusions

I. All garlands are flowers.
II. No flower is an accessory.

18. This question is based on the given four-digit numbers:

2413 9406 8492 6736 4940

Which of the following will be the sum of the fourth digit of the number which is third from the left and the second digit of the number which is first from the right?

(a) Other than those given as options
(b) 5
(c) 12
(d) 9
(e) 11

19. How will the word GEAPES be written, if all its letters are arranged in alphabetical order and then each letter is replaced by its immediately next letter is replaced by its immediately next letter in the English alphabetical series?

(a) CGIPRS
(b) BEIQSR
(c) BFHQST
(d) CEUPTS
(e) BFHQUW

20. In certain code language, BAKED is coded as ‘YZPVW’ and PRINT is coded as “KIRMG’. How will SHRED be coded in the same code language?

(a) HSIVW
(b) HSITH
(c) GRJVW
(d) GRJJV
(e) Cannot be determined

Directions (21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones those who sit in the middle of the sides face the centre while those who sit at the four corners face outside (i.e. opposite to the centre). R sits to immediate left of T.

T sits at one of the corners of the table. Only two people sit between R and W. X sits second to right of S. S faces the same direction as W (i.e. if W faces the centre then S also faces the centre and vice-versa). U is neither an immediate neighbour of X nor T. V is not an immediate neighbour of W.

21. Four the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) X
(b) Q
(c) V
(d) R
(e) U

22. Who sit exactly between R and W when counted from the left of W?

(a) Q, T
(b) S, V
(c) S, U
(d) V, X
(e) U, X

23. Who sits second to the right of U?

(a) X
(b) R
(c) W
(d) T
(e) Q

24. Which of the following is true regarding Q?

(a) None of the given options is true.
(b) Q is an immediate neighbour of R.
(c) T sits to immediate left of Q.
(d) Q sits exactly between U and S.
(e) Q faces outside.

25. What is the position of X with respect to T?

(a) Third to the left
(b) Second to the right
(c) Fourth to the left
(d) Second to the left
(e) Third to the right

Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

‘Keep your eyes open’ is written as ‘nx co kh wd’

‘eyes on school bus’ is written as ‘vy co rs te’

‘keep bag is bus’ is written as ‘rs ef bn kh’

‘open your school bag’ is written as ‘wd ef nx vy’

(All codes are two-letter coded only)

26. What is the code for ‘bus’ in the given code language?

(a) rs
(b) vy
(c) bn
(d) df
(e) Other than those given as options

27. In the given code language, what does the code ‘nx’ stand for?

(a) in
(b) Either ‘your’ or ‘open’
(c) eyes
(d) school
(e) Either ‘bag’ or ‘keep’

28. What may be the possible code for ‘garbage bag’ in the given code language?

(a) av bn
(b) ef av
(c) kh bn
(d) ef kh
(e) nx rs

29. What is the code for ‘school’ in the given code language

(a) vy
(b) nx
(c) co
(d) wd
(e) ef

30. If ‘keep on track’ is coded as ‘kh pe te’ in the given code language, then what is the code for ‘track’?

(a) te
(b) rs
(c) kh
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) pe

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A building has eight floors numbered one to eight, in such a way that the ground floor is numbered one, the floor above it, number two and so on such that the topmost floor is numbered eight. One out of eight people viz, J, K, L, M, R, S, T and U lives on one of these floors.

L lives on an even numbered floor but not on floor number 2. Only three people live between L an R. J live on ad number floor. Only two people live between J and M. J lives on a floor above M. U lives immediately below T. U does not live on any of the floors above R. K does not live on the lowermost floor.

31. Which of the following is true with respect to the given arrangement?

(a) S live on the lowermost floor.
(b) L lives on a floor immediately above M’s floor.
(c) None of the given options is true.
(d) K lives on an even numbered floor.
(e) L lives on floor number 6.

32. Who lives on floor number 3?

(a) U
(b) M
(c) T
(d) J
(e) K

33. Who lives on the topmost floor (i.e. floor number 8)?

(a) R
(b) T
(c) K
(d) S
(e) L

34. Who amongst the following live on the floor immediately below the floor on which U lives?

(a) K
(b) L
(c) J
(d) M
(e) No one as U lives on the lowermost floor

35. Who lives exactly between the floors on which J and M live?

(a) L, S
(b) L, T
(c) R, U
(d) S, T
(e) K, L

36. All the letters of the word CRUMBLE are arranged as per the English alphabetical series. Then a meaningful English word (starting with L) is formed with the second, fourth, sixth and seventh alphabets so formed, which of the following will be the third letter of the word from the left?

(a) U
(b) No meaningful English word can be formed.
(c) R
(d) E
(e) C

37. How many alphabets (as per the English alphabetical order) are there between the second and seventh letters of the word SACREDLY?

(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 7
(d) 10
(e) 15

Directions (38-40): Study the following information and answer the given questions.

K is father of J. J is the sister of L. L is the mother of D. K is married to T. T has only two daughters. T is the mother of U. T is the sister of M.

38. How is T related to D?

(a) Mother
(b) Aunt
(c) Grand-mother
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) Grand-daughter

39. How is M related to L?

(a) Brother
(b) Sister
(c) Father
(d) Mother
(e) Cannot be determined

40. If R is married to U, then how is R related to T?

(a) Son
(b) Daughter
(c) Cannot be determined
(d) Daughter-in-law
(e) Son-in-law

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (20 September 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (20 September 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following is/ are part of India’ external debt?

1. IMF loans
2. NRI deposits
3. Commercial borrowings

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above

Q.2- BS-VI norms are related to which of the following?

A. Jet engine
B. Coal mining emissions
C. Two wheeler and Four wheeler engine
D. None

Q.3- Non-Aligned movement was first started in which of the following years?

A. 1950
B. 1955
C. 1960
D. None of the above

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Computer Knowledge" (South Zone)

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. Which of the following is not true about computer files?

(1) They are collections of data saved to a storage medium.
(2) Every file has a filename.
(3) A file extension is established by the user to indicate the computer on which it was created
(4) All files contain data.
(5) None of these

 2. Which of the following is not an example of hardware?

(1) WORD
(2) Printer
(3) Monitor
(4) Mouse
(5) Scanner

3. Which of the following is a secondary memory device?

(1) Keyboard
(2) Disk
(3) ALU
(4) Mouse
(5) Printer

4. The result of a formula in a cell is the

(1) label
(2) value
(3) range
(4) displayed value
(5) None of these

 5. Which of the following is not a storage medium?

(1) hard disk
(2) flash drive
(3) DVD
(4) CD
(5) monitor

6. Choose the odd one out _______

(1) Micro computer
(2) Minicomputer
(3) Supercomputer
(4) Notebook Computer
(5) Digital Computer

7. The ALU performs ______ operations

(1) logic
(2) ASCII
(3) algorithm-based
(4) logarithm-based
(5) final operations

 8. ______ is the part of the computer that does the arithmetical calculations.

 (1) OS
(2) ALU
(3) CPU
(4) Memory
(5) Printer

9. In a sequence of events that takes place in an instruction cycle, the first cycle is _______

(1) Store cycle
(2) Execute cycle
(3) Fetch cycle
(4) Decode cycle
(5) Code cycle

 10. Peripheral devices such as printers and plotters are considered to be _______ .

(1) hardware
(2) software
(3) data
(4) information
(5) None of thes

 11. Which of the following Excel charts represents only one value for each variable?

(1) function
(2) line
(3) pie
(4) bar
(5) None of these

 12. To see the document before the printout is taken, use _

(1) Insert Table
(2) Paste
(3) Format Painter
(4) Cut
(5) Print Preview

13. ALU works on the instructions and data held in the

 (1) Notebook
(2) Registers
(3) Copy Pad
(4) I/O devices
(5) None of these

14. To move data from one part of the document to another, following is used ______

(1) Cut and Paste
(2) Copy and Paste
(3) Cut and Delete
(4) Copy and Undo
(5) Cut and Insert

15. Another name for a pre-programmed formula in Excel is _________ _

(1) range
(2) graph
(3) function
(4) cell
(5) None of these

16. To save a document for the first time, ______ option is used

(1) Save as
(2) Save first
(3) Save on
(4) Copy
(5) Paste

17. What is a device that can change images into codes for the computer?

 (1) mouse
(2) printer
(3) joystick
(4) keyboard
(5) scanner

18. Two basic types of graphics used in Word 2000 are ______

(1) Autoshapes and ClipArt
(2) Header and Footer
(3) Drawing Objects and Pictures
(4) Spelling and Grammar
(5) Word Count

19. User can use ________ commands to search for and correct words in a document.

(1) Print and Print Preview
(2) Header and Footer
(3) Find and Replace
(4) Spelling and Grammar
(5) Copy and Paste

20. What is the advantage of using basic HTML to create a document?

(1) HTML is very easy to use
(2) The document can be displayed by all word processors
(3) The document can be displayed by all programs
(4) The document can be displayed by all browsers
(5) None of these

21. Which of the following functions is not performed by the CPU?

 (1) Graphical Display of Data
(2) Arithmetic Calculations
(3) Managing Memory
(4) Managing Input and Output
(5) None of these

22. The feature that keeps track of the right margin is ______

(1) find and replace
(2) word wrap
(3) right justified
(4) left justified
(5) ragged right

23. Keyboard shortcuts are used to move the _______

(1) I-beam
(2) insertion point
(3) scroll bar
(4) mouse
(5) None of these

24. To specify margins in Word, the user has to select Page Setup option from the ______ menu.

(1) Edit
(2) Table
(3) Autocorrect
(4) File
(5) Format

25. What is the name of the package which helps to create, manipulate and analyse data arranged in rows and columns?

(1) Application package
(2) Word processing package
(3) Outlining package
(4) Outline processors
(5) Spreadsheet package

26. What does an electronic spreadsheet consist of? (Choose the best answer)

(1) Rows
(2) Columns
(3) Cells
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

27. ROM is an example of which of the following?

 (1) volatile memory
(2) cache memory
(3) nonvolatile memory
(4) virtual memory
(5) None of these

28. Which of the following options is used to display information such as title, page number of the document?

(1) Insert Table
(2) Auto correct
(3) Thesaurus
(4) Spelling and Grammar
(5) Header and Footer

29. Which part of the computer can display the user’s work?

(1) Mouse
(2) Keyboard
(3) Disk Drive
(4) Monitor
(5) None of these

 30. When a computer prints a report, this output is called _

(1) Program
(2) Soft copy
(3) Hard copy
(4) Execution
(5) None of these

31. The processor is a _____ chip plugged onto the motherboard in a computer system.

(1) LSI
(2) VLSI
(3) ULSI
(4) XLSI
(5) WLSI

32. A register that keeps track of the next instruction to be executed is called a

(1) Data Register
(2) Instruction Register
(3) Action Register
(4) Program Counter
(5) Accumulator

 33. The microprocessor of a computer

(1) does not understand machine language
(2) understands machine language and high level languages
(3) understands only machine language
(4) understands only high level languages
(5) understands only assembly language

 34. A set of choices on the screen is called a(n) __

(1) menu
(2) reverse video
(3) action plan
(4) editor
(5) template

35. What is the full form of PROM?

(1) Programmable Read-Only Memory
(2) Progressive Read-Only
(3) Periodic Read-Only Memory
(4) Perfect Read-Only Memory
(5) Program Read-Only Memory

36. Which of the following will be used if a sender of e-mail wants to bold, itlaics etc. the text message?

(1) Reach Signature
(2) Reach Text
(3) Reach Format
(4) Plain Format
(5) Plain Text

37. Which of the following terms is not related to Internet?

(1) Link
(2) Function key
(3) Browser
(4) Search Engine
(5) Hyperlink

38. Which of the following justification align the text on both the sides - left and right - of margin?

(1) Right
(2) Justify
(3) both Sides
(4) Balanced
(5) None of these

39. What is the full form of LIS?

(1) Low-Scale Internet
(2) Large-Scale Internet
(3) Low-Scale Integration
(4) Large-Scale Integration
(5) Local-Scale Integration

40. To move the text from its original position to another position without deleting it is called-

(1) Scrolling
(2) Searching
(3) Moving
(4) Copying
(5) Halting

41. Which of the following is an active cell in Excel?

(1) Current Cell
(2) Formula
(3) Range
(4) Cell Address
(5) None of these

 42. What is included in an e-mail address?

 (1) Domain Name followed by User’s Name
(2) User’s Name followed by Domain Name
(3) User’s Name followed by Postal address
(4) User’s Name followed by street address
(5) None of these

 43. What the secret code is called which prohibits entry into some programs?

 (1) Access Code
(2) Passport
(3) Entry Code
(4) Password
(5) Keyword

44. Which of the following types of menu shows the further sub-choices?

(1) Reverse
(2) Template
(3) Scrolled
(4) Rapped
(5) Pull-Down

45. Which of the following operations is safe if an e-mail from an unknown sender is received?

(1) Open it to know about the sender and answer it
(2) Delete after opening it
(3) Delete it without opening it
(4) Open and try to know who is the sender
(5) None of these

46. The other name of motherboard is

 (1) Mouse
(2) Computer Board
(3) System Device
(4) Central Board
(5) System Board

47. By which of the following any art of a document can be seen on the screen?

(1) Searching
(2) Pasting
(3) Scrolling
(4) Editing
(5) Copying

48. Which of the following characteristics is used to compute dynamically the results from Excel data?

(1) Gotu
(2) Table
(3) Chart
(4) Diagram
(5) Formula and Function

 49. Which type of storage is hard disc?

(1) Non-permanent
(2) Volatile
(3) Temporary
(4) Non-volatile
(5) None of these

50. Which of the following hardwares is not a software?

(1) Excel
(2) Printer-Driver
(3) Operating System
(4) Power point
(5) Mouse

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (19 September 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (19 September 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following lakes is not correctly matched?

1. Lake Pichola. : Rajasthan
2. Lake Bhimtal. : Uttarakhand
3. Chandubi Lake. : Arunachal Pradesh
4. Pangong lake. : Jammu and Kashmir

Q.2- Consider the following actions which the Government can take:

1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.

Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3

Q.3- Islamic state seen in news operates mostly from which of the following parts?

A. Europe
B. USA
C. South East Asia
D. Middle East



 

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (18 September 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (18 September 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the

A. Human Rights Commission
B. Finance Commission
C. Law Commission
D. Planning Commission

Q.2- Who among the following heads the panel to review FRBM Act?

A. C. Rangarajan
B. Abhijeet sen
C. N. K. Singh
D. Raghuram Rajan

Q.3- Nadia Murad Basee Taha, who recently appointed as UN goodwill ambassador, is from which of the following countries?

A. Iran
B. Iraq
C. Syria
D. Israel

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 15-12-2012, Reasoning Ability"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Reasoning Ability

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence from a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) Walk
(2) Cry
(3) Play
(4) Study
(5) Alive

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘VIRTUAL’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

3. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘ILP’ using all the letters only once in each word ?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

4. If each alternate letter in the word ‘FLIPPER’ starting with F is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each of the remaining letters Is. changed to the previous letters in the English alphabetical series. then how many letters will appear more than once in the new arrangement?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four

5. Pointing to a girl, Mr. Arun said, “She is the daughter of my mother’s only child”. How is the girl related to Mr. Arun ?

(1) Sister
(2) Mother
(3) Cousin
(4) Daughter
(5) Cannot be determined

6. In a certain code language, ‘LISP’ is coded as ‘MJTQ’, similarly ‘PLAN’ is coded as ‘QMBO’. How will ‘FORT’ be coded in the same code language?

(1) ENSQ
(2) GPUS
(3) ENQS
(4) GPSU
(5) None of these

7. ‘Artificial’ is related to ‘Natural’ in the same way as ‘Private’ is related to ‘_______’.

(1) Future
(2) Personal
(3) Public
(4) Closed
(5) Confidential

8. Four of the following five are alike on the basis of being divisible by a particular number and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) 21
(2) 91
(3) 65
(4) 77
(5) 35

9. In a class of 25 students, Lata’s rank is 13th from the top and Parul’s rank is 19th from the bottom. If Vishal’s rank is exactly between Lata’s and Parul’s rank what is Vishal’s rank from the top?

(1) 10th
(2) 8th
(3) 9th
(4) 7th
(5) Cannot be determined

10. What should come next in the number series given below?
1 1 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 6 1 2 3 4 5 6

(1) 5
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 1
(5) None of these

Directions (11-15): Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle lacing the centre. not necessarily in the same order, F sits fourth to the F, C sits third to the left of A. G sits third to the right of E.

11. What is D’s position with respect to B?

(1) Immediate left
(2) Sixth to the right
(3) Second to lhe left
(4) Seventh to the left
(5) Fifth to the right

12. What are the immediate neighbors of G?

(1) F and H
(2) A and F
(3) C and H
(4) A and B
(5) Band C

13. If C is related to E in a certain way and similarly F is related B in the same way, to whom is A related to ?

(1) H
(2) D
(3) G
(4) C
(5) None of these

14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) F E
(2) H A
(3) D G
(4) B E
(5) C F

15. If all the eight friends are made to sit alphabetically in the clockwise direction starting from A, positions of how many will remain unchanged (excluding A)?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four

Directions (16-20): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.

You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow.

16. Statements:

Some windows are grills.
All glasses are grills.

Conclusions:

I. All grills are windows.
II. At least some grills are glasses.

17. Statements :

Some painters are artists. Some dancers are painters.

Conclusions:

I. All artists are dancers.
II. All painters are dancers.

18. Statements :

All cabins are rooms.
All rooms are buildings.

Conclusions:

I. All buildings are rooms
II. All cabins are buildings.

19. Statements:

All rings are necklaces.
No necklace is a bracelet.

Conclusions:

I. No ring is a bracelet.
II. All necklaces are rings.

20. Statements :

All hands are arms.
Some hands are muscles.

Conclusions:

I. Some muscles are arms.
II. All muscles are arms.

Directions (21-25): Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Seven friends - L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in a straight line facing North, not necessarily in the same order. M sits fifth to the right of O. P sits third to the right of L. Both L and P
do not sit at the extreme ends of the line. Q and Rare immediate neighbours of each other. N sits third to the left of Q.

21. What is O’s position with respect of R?

(1) Second to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the left
(4) Third to the right
(5) None of these

22. Which of the following represents the friends sitting at the extreme ends of the line?

(1) O, M
(2) Q,O
(3) N, M
(4) O, N
(5) None of these

23. If all the seven friends are made to sit in alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many will remain unchanged?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Two
(5) None

24. Who sits exactly in the middle of the row?

(1) P
(2) L
(3) Q
(4) R
(5) None of these

25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group

(1) MP
(2) RQ
(3) ON
(4) LN
(5) QL

Directions (26 - 28): In each question below is given a group of numbers/symbols followed by five combinations of letter codes numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).

You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of numbers/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the number of that combination as your answer.

Conditions:

(i) If the first element is a symbol and the last element is a number, then the codes for both are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and last elements are symbols, then the last element is to be coded as the code for the first element.
(iii) If the group of elements contains only one symbol. then that symbols is to be coded as A.

26. 28%956

(1) RNBXHS
(2) RNAXSH
(3) RNBXSH
(4) RNAXHS
(5) RNASHX

27. @62+74

(1) PSRGFT
(2) TSRFGP
(3) PSRFGT
(4) PSRGGT
(5) TSRFGP

28. +5963%

(1) GHXSDG
(2) GSHXDB
(3) GHXDSG
(4) GHSXDB
(5) GXHSDG

Directions (29-31): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Poverty measurement is an unsettled issue, both conceptually and methodologically. Since poverty is a process as well as an outcome; many come out of it while others may be falling into it. The net effect of these two parallel processes is a proportion commonly identified as the ‘head count ratio’, but these ratios hide the fundamental dynamism that characterizes poverty in practice.The most recent poverty reestimates by an expert group has also missed the crucial dynamism. In a study conducted on 13,000 households which represented the entire country in 1993-94 and again on 2004-05, it was found that in the ten-year period 18.2% rural population moved out of poverty whereas another 22.1 % fell into it over this period. This net increase of about four percentage points was seen to have a considerable variation across states and regions.

29. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the above paragraph?

(1) Accurate estimates of number of people living below poverty line in India is possible to be made.
(2) Many expert groups in India are not interested to measure poverty objectively.
(3) Process of poverty measurement needs to take into account various factors to tackle its dynamic nature.
(4) People living below poverty line remain in that position for a very long time.
(5) None of these

30. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the facts stated in the above paragraph?

(1) It may not be possible to have an accurate poverty measurement in India.
(2) Level of poverty in India is static over the years.
(3) Researchers avoid making conclusions on poverty measurement data in India.
(4) Government of India has a mechanism to measure level of poverty effectively and accurately.
(5) None of these

31. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the above paragraph?

(1) Poverty measurement tools in India are outdated.
(2) Increase in number of persons falling into poverty varies considerably across the country over a period of time.
(3) Government of India has stopped measuring poverty related studies.
(4) People living in rural areas are more susceptible to fall into poverty over the time
(5) None of these

Directions (32-35): In these questions relationships between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow.

32. Statement:

A < L < T < R H > K

Conclusions:

I. H > L
II. K > T

33. Statement:

P = N > D G < B = J .

Conclusions:

I. G < P
II. G < J

34. Statement :

F C V = Z < X = U

Conclusions:

I. V < U
II. Z < F

35. Statement :

Q E = I > N R S

Conclusions:

I. E = S
II. S N

Directions (36-40): Study the following arrangement or consonants, vowels, numbers and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below:

H @ F ! 3 U 6 %G I T * P L 8 $ ^
9 S 2 7 & A M K + J © D 4 # 5 & E

36. Which of the following is ninth to the right of the twentieth from the right end of the above arrangement?

(1) K
(2) M
(3) U
(4) A
(5) None of these

37. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each or which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a symbol?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

38. If all the symbols are dropped from the arrangement, which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end?

(1) 9
(2) 2
(3) S
(4) 7
(5) None of these

39. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) L$8
(2) AKM
(3) @!F
(4) 6%G
(5) JD©

40. What should come in place or the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement> F3U %IT LS^ ?

(1) 927
(2) 7&A
(3) 7AM
(4) 2&A
(5) 27&

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Current Affairs for BANK, IBPS Exams 17 September 2016


Current Affairs for BANK, IBPS Exams

17 September 2016


:: National ::

Political turmoil in Arunachal Pradesh continues

  • Politics turned a full circle in Arunachal Pradesh when 43 of the 44 Congress MLAs, including Chief Minister Pema Khandu, joined the People’s Party of Arunachal (PPA), a part of the North-East Democratic Alliance (NEDA.

  • Just two months ago, Mr. Khandu and his group of Congress rebels had deserted the PPA and returned to the Congress to form the government.

  • Mr. Khandu became the Chief Minister on July 16, replacing Nabam Tuki, who in turn had replaced Kalikho Pul after the Supreme Court reinstated the Tuki government.

  • Hours after losing its government in the State, the Congress dubbed the new dispensation an “illegitimate child of the BJP” and blamed Prime Minister Narendra Modi and BJP chief Amit Shah.

India sealed three significant deals with Nepal

  • Recognising Nepal’s efforts to build a democratic polity, India expressed the hope that the government of PM Pushpa Kamal Dahal would hold an “inclusive dialogue” while implementing the controversial Constitution of his country.

  • India and Nepal held wide-ranging talks and sealed three significant deals as Mr. Prachanda’s September 15-18 visit to India unfolded.

  • However, differences over the Constitution which led to domestic discord and disturbed ties with Delhi persisted.

  • This remark indicated that Delhi would maintain dialogue with the Madhesi leaders who had demanded that PM Prachanda should address representational and territorial concerns of their community, within a short time span.

Delhi HC held that photocopying of course is not an infringement of copyright

  • The Delhi High Court held that the photocopying of course packs prepared by Delhi University comprising portions from books published by Oxford University Press, Cambridge University Press did not amount to infringement of copyright.

  • Justice Rajiv Sahai Endlaw also lifted the stay on the kiosk from photocopying the course packs. The case had seen protest by students who backed the kiosk.

  • Copyright, especially in literary works, is thus not an inevitable, divine, or natural right that confers on authors the absolute ownership of their creations.

  • It is designed rather to stimulate activity and progress in the arts for the intellectual enrichment of the public.

  • “Copyright is intended to increase and not to impede the harvest of knowledge. It is intended to motivate the creative activity of authors and inventors in order to benefit the public,” Justice said.

Centre warned Kerala and Tamil Nadu about implementation of the NFSA

  • The Centre warned Kerala and Tamil Nadu that foodgrains for distribution to above the poverty line families would be provided at a higher rate to the States if they fail to implement the National Food Security Act (NFSA) at the earliest.

  • Other 34 NFSA implementing States and Union Territories have been asked to address gaps on the list of beneficiaries, computerisation of public distribution system, PDS, Aadhaar linkage with ration cards etc.

  • The NFS Act, aims to abolish the APL and below the poverty line (BPL) criteria and uniformly provides 5 kg of wheat or rice to all beneficiaries every month at a subsidised rate of Rs.1-3 per kg.

  • Kerala and Tamil Nadu are the only two States left where the NFSA has not been implemented yet. Despite being developed States.

  • The Kerala government had earlier said it would implement the NFSA from November but now the State is planning to do it from December.

  • Asking the States to speed up reforms in the PDS to curb leakage of foodgrains, Mr. Paswan said there could be problems in putting up necessary infrastructure for the effective roll-out of the NFSA.

  • While the ration cards have been digitised 100 per cent in the country, States are slow in seeding them with the Aadhaar card, which would help in eliminating bogus beneficiaries.
     

:: India and World ::

All India Radio launched a multi-media and mobile app for Balochi-speaking people

  • All India Radio announced the launch of a multi-media and mobile app for Balochi-speaking people in the Af-Pak region and other parts of the world.

  • Move was part of India’s efforts to reach out to the neighbourhood for a better people-to-people contact.

  • India had also raised the issue of atrocities in Balochistan at the meeting of a U.N. body earlier this week.

  • Prasar Bharati officials said the mobile app and the webpage were just “value addition” as Balochi service of the AIR has been in existence since 1974.

:: Business and Economy ::

Microfinance institutions have seen their business grow faster in urban India

  • Over the last year, microfinance institutions (MFIs) have seen their business grow faster in urban India than in rural, according to an annual report by Sa-Dhan, the self-regulatory body for MFIs.

  • In addition, the report finds that these loans are being put to increasingly productive uses with a higher proportion of them going towards income generation than before.

  • In 2016, total loan amount disbursed increased by Rs.13,433 crore over 2015, there is a growth of 23 per cent where amount increased in rural areas by 14 per cent and in urban areas by 27 per cent.

  • The report also found that 94 per cent of the loans disbursed in 2015-16 were used for income-generating purposes, up from 80 per cent in the previous year.

  • Analysis of the loan portfolio held by reporting MFIs for 2014-15 and 2015-16 shows that the proportion of income generation loan to non income generation loan is 94:06.

  • Within the income-generating loans, the report found that the largest proportion—39 per cent—went to the animal husbandry sector, followed by 29 per cent to the trading & small business category.

  • Agriculture received 15 per cent of the loans, according to the report.

DIPP has decided to set up a Task Force on Innovation

  • The Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP) has decided to set up a Task Force on Innovation.

  • It will comprise members from the industry and the government and will assess India’s position as an innovative country, suggest measures to enhance the innovation ecosystem and improve the country’s ranking in the Global Innovation Index (GII).

  • India’s ranking in GII-2016 rose 15 places to 66th position. Recognising India’s potential, Commerce & Industry Minister Nirmala Sitharaman had sought the setting up of the Task Force.

  • The Cell for intellectual property rights (IPR) Promotion and Management and the DIPP has invited ideas and suggestions from the public, the statement said, adding that the Task Force may hold discussions with some of the contributors.

  • In the GII 2016, India retained the top rank in Information and Communication Technology Service Export.

  • India ranks second on innovation quality amongst middle-income economies. As per the report, “India is a good example of how policy is improving the innovation environment”.

  • India moved up across all indicators within the Knowledge Absorption sub-pillar.

  • It has also recorded a good performance in the GII model’s newly incorporated research talent in business enterprise, where it ranks 31st, according to the statement.

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (17 September 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (17 September 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?

A. Assam and Rajasthan
B. Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
C. Assam and Gujarat
D. Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat

Q.2- Global innovation index is published by which of the following?

A. WTO
B. IMF
C. Cornell University, INSEAD, and the World Intellectual Property Organization
D. None of the above

Q.3- Recently AIR have launched a mobile app for which of the following language people?

A. Nepalese
B. Balochi
C. Myanmarese
D. None of the aboe

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 15-12-2012, English Language"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: English Language

Directions (1-5): In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.

1. The stunt that I recently attempted was a piece of cake.

(1) The stunt that I recently attempted was enjoyable to watch
(2) The stunt that I recently attempted was very challenging
(3) The stunt that I recently attempted was celebrated by all
(4) The stunt that I recently attempted turned out to be a failure
(5) The stunt that I recently attempted was a Simple task

2. The boy broke the window and took to his heels.

(1) The boy broke the window and fell on his heels
(2) The boy broke the window and ran away
(3) The boy broke the window with his heels
(4) The boy ran into the window
(5) The boy broke the window and robbed a pair of heels

3. I pledged myself to serve the king faithfully.

(1) I made a mistake by promising to serve the king faithfully
(2) I made a fool of myself in order to serve the king
(3) I boasted about serving the king faithfully
(4) I was forcibly made to serve the king
(5) I made a solemn and formal promise to serve the king faithfully

4. There is a crying need for improvements to our public transport system.

(1) There is an obvious need for improvements to our public transport system
(2) Tht1e is a well documented need for improvements to our public transport system.
(3) There is a minor need for improvements to our public transport system.
(4) There is a serious need for improvements to our public transport system.
(5) There is no urgency for improvements to our public transport system.

5. In an old bookshop I happened to light upon a volume that belonged to my grandfather.

(1) In an old bookshop I happened to discard a volume that belonged to my grandfather.
(2) In an old bookshop I happened to purchase a volume that belonged to my grand-father.
(3) In an old books hop I happened to look for a volume that belonged to my grandfather.
(4) In an old bookshop I happened to discover by chance a volume that belonged to my grandfather
(5) In an old books hop I happened to reveal  a volume that belonged to my grandfather.

Directions (6-10): Pick out the most effective word/phrases from the given alternatives marked (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) given below each sentence to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningful and grammatically Correct.

6. By the middle of the 19th Century, the urban population of England __ the rural population.

(1) have exceed
(2) exceeded _
(3) was to exceeds
(4) exceeds
(5) will exceed

7. The house that the actress lives in is beautiful, but the surroundings are __ unpleasant.

(1) quite
(2) more and more
(3) a little quite
(4) very little
(5) quite few

8. My friend kand I decided to watch a play, however ______ enjoyed it.

(1) hardly of us
(2) some few of us
(3) we scarcely only
(4) neither of us
(5) no one of us

9. It is difficult to speak a language fluently unless _____ regularly.

(1) it is in practice
(2) it is by practising
(3) it will be practised
(4) it is practised
(5) it had been practised.

10. By the time he was eighteen years old. Peter __ to make a living and support his family.

(1) begins
(2) began
(3) started beginning
(4) would begin
(5) has just begun

Directions (11-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. Lumbini is a beautiful place in the southern part of Nepal. About 2,500 years ago, a baby boy was born to the king and queen. The baby was named Siddharth. His mother. died when he was five days old. The baby boy grew into a handsome prince. His father tried to keep him happy. The little prince had everything he needed fine clothes, the best rood and good toys. But he was not interested in them. He wanted to be alone and was always found in deep thought. Later he was married to a beautiful princess. She was called Yashodhara. They had a son and named him Rahul. The king hoped that Siddharth would become a great ruler.

One day Siddharth was driving through the street in his chariot. He saw an old man and then a sick man. The old man could hardly walk. The sick man groaned in pain. Then he saw some people carrying a dead body others were wailing and weeping at the loss of a dear one. Siddharth was very upset to see so much suffering and unhappiness. He was shocked. Then he saw an entirely different sight. A man in yellow robes was walking along the street. There was no trace of sadness on his radiant face instead it shone with peace. He was a monk who had given up the world to escape the misery of life.

Siddharth wanted to find out why there was so much suffering in the world. He wanted to find out how men could be free of misery. He could find neither peace nor happiness in the life he was leading at the palace. One night Siddharth left his home, his wife and his little son. He went into the forest. He wanted to search for a way out of suffering and sorrow for all mankind. He meditated and got enlightenment. He became Lord Buddha, the enlightened one. Truth was revealed to him and he learnt all the secrets of life and the world.
He found out that the world was full of sorrow and unhappiness. The reason for it was greed and selfishness. To be free from suffering, we must be free from greed and desire. Desire is the root cause of all human suffering. He advocated the Middle Path and asked his followers to avoid the two extremes.

11. Which of the following sentences is true according to the passage?

(1) Lord Buddha was born in Lumbini.
(2) The little boy was very happy with fine clothes, good food and toys.
(3) Siddharth divorced his first wife.
(4) Siddharth and Yashodhara had no children and so they were very unhappy
(5) None of these

12. What was Siddharth interested in as a child?

(1) He was interested in making new friends as he did not have any siblings.
(2) His interests were largely in ‘studying and reading books.
(3) He was interested in the best of clothes and good toys.
(4) In spending time alone in deep thought.
(5) In spending time with nature.

13. Which of the following can be inferred about Siddharth?

(A) Siddharth was different from other princes his age.
(B) Siddharth was a spoilt child.
(C) Siddharth was lonely because he did not have a mother.

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (e)
(4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) All (A), (B) and (e)

14. What did the King wish for his son, Siddharth?

(1) He wanted Siddharth to become a great ruler.
(2) He wished that Siddharth would not marry Yashodhara.
(3) He wished that Siddharth’s son would take over his kingdom
(4) He wished that Siddharth would behave like the other princes.
(5) He wished that Siddharth would find the answer to all the suffering in the world.

5. What incident changed Siddharth’s life forever?

(1) His mother’s death.
(2) The incident where he saw a monk free from the misery of life.
(3) The birth of his son
(4) His marriage to Yashodhara.
(5) The time he met Lord Buddha.

16. Why did Siddharth leave his home?

(1) He wanted to run away from his wife and son
(2) He did not want to become heir to his father’s throne
(3) He was in search of a bigger kingdom
(4) He wanted to see the world
(5) He wanted to search for a way out of suffering and spend time in meditation.

17. According to Siddharth what was the reason for suffering and unhappiness in the world?

(1) The increased mumber or deaths
(2) The advocacy of the Middle Path.
(3) Human greed and selfishness
(4) People were unaware of the benefits of meditation.
(5) None of these

18. What according to passage is the root cause for an human suffering?

(A) Desire
(B) Happiness
(C) Meditation
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B) and (C)
(3) Only (B) (4) Only (C)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

19. Why was Siddharth called the enlightened one?

(1) He was smarter than all the princes of his age.
(2) He was the King’s son.
(3) Truth was revealed to him through meditation.
(4) He had a great ability to resist temptation
(5) He always wanted to be left alone

20. Why did Lord Buddha advocate the Middle Path?

(1) He believed that it was the only way to eliminate poverty.
(2) He believed that it was the only way of obtaining true happiness.
(3) He was a staunch believer of living an extreme life.
(4) He did not have a happy life being a prince.
(5) He was not a risk-taker.

Directions (21-23): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

21. Root

(1) Secondary
(2) Common
(3) Burning
(4) True
(5) Main

22. Hardly

(1) Easily
(2) Barely
(3) Suddenly
(4) Carefully
(5) Readily

23. Radiant

(1) Full
(2) Happy
(3) Burning
(4) Sober
(5) Sickly

Directions (24-25): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

24. Revealed to

(1) Hidden from
(2) Exposed to
(3) Presented to
(4) Manifested from
(5) Obtained from

25. Handsome

(1) Dear
(2) Ugly
(3) Precious
(4) Spoilt
(5) Attractive

Directions (26-30): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer.
If there is no error. the answer is (5) i.e. ‘No Error’, (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

36. If tomorrow is (1)/ declared a holiday, (2)/ we shall go (3)/ to a picnic. (4)/ No Error (5)

37. My grandfather used (1) / to go (2)/ for a walk (3)/ every morning. (4)/ No Error (5)

38. The blast from (1)/ the explosion (2)/ knocked the factory worker (3) / to unconsciousness, (4)/ No Error (5)

69. Raju found it difficult (1)/ to explain (2) / his final exam marks (3)/ to his parents. (4)/ No Error (5)

30. My friend become (1)/ terribly upset (2)/ after losing her purse (3) / at the supermarket. (4)/ No Error (5)

Directions (31-40): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time there lived a wise man by the (31) of Mamad. He never lied. All the people in the land, knew about him. The king heard about Mamad and (32) his subjects to bring him to the palace. He looked at the wise man and asked: “Mamad, is it true, that you have never lied ?” “It is true, your Majesty.” “And you will never lie in your life?” questioned the king. “I am sure of that,” replied Mamad. (33) days passed and the king called Mamad once again. There was a big crowd, the king was (34) to go hunting. The king held his horse by the mane, his left foot was already on the stirrup. He. (35) to Mamad, “Go to my summer palace and tell the queen I will be with her for lunch. Tell her to (36) a big feast. You will have lunch with me then.” Mamad bowed down and went to the queen. Then the king laughed and said, “We won’t go hunting and now Mamad will lie to the queen. Tomorrow we will laugh on his behalf. “But the wise Mamad went to the palace and said, “maybe you should prepare a big feast for lunch tomorrow, and maybe you shouldn’t, Maybe the king will come by noon, and maybe he won’t.” “(37) me will he come or will he not?” - asked the queen. “I do not know whether he put his right foot on the stirrup, or he put his left foot on the ground after I left”. Everybody (38) for the king. He came the next day and said to the queen, “The wise Mamad, who never lies, (39) to you yesterday.” But the queen told him Marnads exact words. And the king (40) that the wise man never lies. and says only that, which he see’s with his own eyes.

31.

(1) name
(2) sound
(3) call
(4) identity
(5) label

32.

(1) demanded
(2) send
(3) ordered
(4) request
(5) sanctioned

33.

(1) Several
(2) Most
(3) Lots
(4) Glorious
(5) Long

34.

(1) just
(2) tired
(3) schedule
(4) planned
(5) about

35.

(1) wished
(2) order
(3) said
(4) featured
(5) send

36.

(1) leave
(2) prepare
(3) figure
(4) show
(5) prove

37.

(1) Say
(2) Rescue
(3) Reveal
(4) Tell
(5) Understand

35.

(1) lied
(2) left
(3) heard
(4) ran
(5) waited

39.

(1) wrong
(2) spoke
(3) lied
(4) ran
(5) deceive

40.

(1) felt
(2) understands
(3) realised
(4) convinced
(5) rejoiced

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (15 September 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (15 September 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights has headquarter at which of the following places?

A. Washington
B. New York
C. Geneva
D. Manila

Q.2- With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:

1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.3- DevendraJhajharia is relatwed to which of the following sports?

A. Javelin throw
B. Shot put
C. Chess
D. None

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 15-12-2012, General Awareness"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: General Awareness

1. The Head of the Reserve Bank of India is officially known as

(1) President of RBI
(2) Chief Executive of RBI
(3) Managing Director (MD) or RBI
(4) Executive Director of RBI
(5) Governor of RBI

2. An engineer working in a big City in India wishes to send some money to his/her parents in a small village. How can a bank help him/her? (Both of them have accounts in the branches of the same bank.)

A. By issuing a Demand Draft.
B. By opening a letter of credit in the name of his/her parents.
C. Through E-transfer of money

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Both A and B
(5) Both A and C

3. Which of the following is the Central Bank of our country?

(1) State Bank of India
(2) Central Bank or India
(3) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(4) Reserve Bank of India
(5) None of these

4. People normally go to a bank for withdrawal or/and depositing their money. In addition to that banks provide many other services these days. Which of the following is/are such new services?

A. Sale of insurance policies.
B. Loans for higher studies for children.
C. Acceptance of bills for Telephone / Electric supply services on behalf of such organizations.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Both A and B
(5) All A. B and C

5. Who amongst the following is the Head of the RBI at present?

(1) Mr. K. V. Kamath
(2) Dr. Yaga Venugopal Reddy
(3) Mr. N. R. Narayanamurthy
(4) Mr. O. P. Bhatt
(5) D Subba Rao

6. India has different categories of Commercial banks. Which of the following is not one such category?

(1) Private Banks
(2) Commodity Banks
(3) Nationalised Banks
(4) Co-operative Banks
(5) Foreign Banks

7. Government of India these days is very keen about the credit to the rural people. Which the following is the product launched by the banks to provide loan/credit to the farmers quickly?

(1) Klsan Vikas Patra
(2) Indira Vikas Patra
(3) Klsan Credit Card
(4) National Savings Scheme
(5) All of these

8. Coins of which of the following denominations are easily available in India and are used by all of us in our day-to-day shopping?
A. Rs.5 B. Rs. 2 C. Rs. 50

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Both A and B
(5) All A. B and C

9. Government of India gives subsidy to which of the following products to help farmers indirectly?

(1) Tractors
(2) Power Tillers
(3) Pesticides
(4) Chemical fertilizers
(5) None of these

10. In India Union Budget is always presented in the Parliament in the month of __ .

(1) February
(2) March
(3) April
(4) December
(5) January

11. ‘Rupee’ is the currency of

(1) Nepal
(2) Indonesia
(3) Myanmar
(4) Bangladesh
(5) Libya

12. India’s Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries is very much in news these days?

(1) Russia
(2) Germany
(3) Pakistan
(4) Iran
(5) USA

13. The two main seasons of cropping in India are known as _.

(1) Hot - Cold
(2) Winter - Spring
(3) Summer - Winter
(4) Rainy - Cold
(5) Kharif - Rabi

14. Who among the following was honoured with the US Presidential Medal of Freeborn in May2012?

(1) William Foege
(2) Toni Morrison
(3) Bob Dylan
(4) Only (1) and (2)
(5) All (1), (2) and (3)

15. Government of India is giving much emphasis on ‘Women Empowerment’ these days. What does it mean?

(1) Recruiting only women for various Government jobs
(2) Electing women only for Panchayat Raj institutions
(3) Ensure that women gel equal pay for equal work
(4) Providing opportunities to women so that they can develop themselves
(5) None of these

16. Who amongst the following is/ was not a famous cricket player?

(1) M. S. Dhoni
(2) Kapil Dev
(3) Ramesh Krishnan
(4) Sunil Gavaskar
(5) Sachin Tendulkar

17. The maximum crop area (about 75%) in India is covered by _____

(1) food crops
(2) ornamental plants
(3) cash crops
(4) vegetables
(5) jute and cotton

18. Which of the following terms is Dot related with the banking operations?

(1) Current Account
(2) Exchange rate
(3) Investment rate
(4) Domestic Saving rate
(5) Veto Power

19. Loan taken by a small farmer will be considered a loan for agricultural purpose by a bank:

A. Purchase of tractor
B. Purchase of seeds
C. Purchase of gold for marriage of the daughter

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Both A and B
(4) Only C
(5) None of these

20. Who amongst the following is an Economist of international repute?

(1) Amartya Sen
(2) Shobha De
(3) Nani Palkiwala
(4) Nun Shourie
(5) None of these

21. International Day of Non-violence is observed on the birth day of __ .

(1) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(2) Indira Gandhi
(3) Rajiv Gandhi
(4) Sonia Gandhi
(5) Mahatma Gandhi

22. Who amongst the following presented the Union Budget 2012-13 in the Parliament?

(1) Manmohan Singh
(2) P. Chidambaram
(3) Sonia Gandhi
(4) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(5) Pranab Mukherjee

23. Who amongst the following was the Captain of the India Cricket Team who won the ICC World Cup-2011?

(1) Yuvraj Singh
(2) M. S. Dhoni
(3) Rahul Dravid
(4) Sourav Ganguly
(5) None of these

24. The Reserve Bank of India in June 2012 increased the limit on foreign investment in government securities by

(1) $ 5 billion
(2) $ 10 billion
(3) $ 7 billion
(4) $ 8 billion
(5) $ 15 billion

25. The National Stock Exchange is located in

(1) New Delhi
(2) Mumbai
(3) Kolkata
(4) Chennai
(5) Bangalore

26. Which of the following countries does not play international cricket?

(1) Russia
(2) England
(3) South Africa
(4) Pakistan
(5) India

27. Which of the following commodities is a major item of the export from India to many countries?

(1) Vegetable
(2) Paddy
(3) Tea
(4) Jute
(5) All of these

28. Which of the following is an International Tennis Tournament championship?

(1) Sunfeast Open
(2) Grand Prix
(3) Grand Master Championship
(4) FIFA World Cup
(5) None of these

29. Mrs. Sonia Gandhi is the chairperson of the UPA who has a government in centre. What is the full form of UPA?

(1) Union Progressive Alliance
(2) United Participatory Association
(3) Unanimous Progressive Association
(4) Union Public Alliance
(5) United Progressive Alliance

30. Which of the following is a Private Bank functioning in India?

(1) Axis Bank
(2) Bank of Baroda
(3) Dena Bank
(4) Punjab National Bank
(5) Bank or Maharashtra

31. A person staying in a small village having population of about 50000. If he /she decides to take a loan of Rs. 25000. most probably he/she has to visit a bank in his/her village which will be certainly

A. A Rural Bank
B. A Nationalized Bank
C. Foreign Bank

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Either A or B
(4) Only C
(5) None of these

32. Which of the following is the autobiography of the film actor Dev Anand?

(1) My Story
(2) Sunny Days
(3) Romancing With Life
(4) Wings of Fire
(5) None of these

33. Which of the following ministries of the Central Government presents its own budget every year separately to the Parliament?

(1) Ministry of Social Welfare
(2) Mi nistry of Agriculture
(3) Ministry of Commerce and Industries
(4) Ministry of Railways
(5) None of these

34. Which of the following Prizes/Awards is given for excellence in the field of Sports?

(1) Pulitzer prize
(2) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(3) Arjuna Award
(4) Shram Vir Purushkar
(5) None of these

35. Santosh Trophy is associated with the game of ______ .

(1) Cricket
(2) Football
(3) Hockey
(4) Tennis
(5) Golf

36. Which of the following is a method of ‘Irrigation’ prevalent in India?

(1) Igloo
(2) Fog
(3) Drip
(4) Delta
(5) Lagoon

37. Manavjit Singh Sandhu is a well known

(1) Film Actor
(2) Journalist
(3) Social Worker
(4) Sportsman
(5) Author

38. Which of the following companies is a steel making company?

(1) Hindalco (2) Raymonds
(3) Lakme (4) Corus
(5) None of these

39. ‘LBW’ is the term associated with the game of __ .

(1) Cricket
(2) Hockey
(3) Tennis
(4) Football
(5) None of these

40. Which of the following is not a public sector company?

(1) HPCL
(2) BPCL
(3) BHEL
(4) Gillette
(5) All of these

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