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(Notification) IBPS Specialist Officers Exam (CRP SPL-VII) - 2017

(Notification) IBPS Specialist Officers Exam (CRP SPL-VII) - 2017

The online examination (Preliminary and Main) for the next Common Recruitment Process (CRP) for selection of personnel in Specialist Officers’ cadre posts listed below in the Participating Organisations is tentatively scheduled in December 2017/ January 2018.

Post Details:

Sr. No    POSTS

01    I.T. Officer (Scale-I)
02    Agricultural Field Officer (Scale I)
03    Rajbhasha Adhikari (Scale I)
04    Law Officer (Scale I)
05    HR/Personnel Officer (Scale I)
06    Marketing Officer (Scale I)
 

PARTICIPATING ORGANISATIONS

  • Allahabad Bank
  • Andhra Bank
  • Bank of Baroda
  • Bank of India
  • Bank of Maharashtra
  • Canara Bank    
  • Central Bank of India    
  • Corporation Bank    
  • Dena Bank  
  •  IDBI Bank    
  • Indian Bank  
  • Indian Overseas Bank    
  • Oriental Bank of Commerce    
  •  Punjab National Bank    
  • Punjab & Sind Bank    
  • Syndicate Bank
  • UCO Bank
  • Union Bank of India
  • United Bank of India
  • Vijaya Bank

(Download) IBPS-SPL : Specialist Officers Papers

Study Kit for IBPS Specialist Officer Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
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(Notification) Union Bank of India : Recruitment of Credit officer (Grade-II)

(Notification) Union Bank of India : Recruitment of Credit officer (Grade-II)

Post Detail's

1. Union Bank of India (herein after called the Bank), a leading listed Public Sector Bank with Head Office in Mumbai and having Pan India, as well as, Overseas presence, invites On-line Applications for recruitment to the following post in Specialized Segment.

Book Cover

Price

Online Purchase

RBI Assistants (Preliminary Exam) 2018 by V.V.K. Subburaj

Rs.389

RBI Assistants Exam Guide by Disha Experts

Rs.198

POST CODE

POST

SCALE /

GRADE

BASIC PAY SCALE*

 

VACANCIES**

01

Credit Officer

II

31705-1145/1-32850-

1310/10-45950

200

*In addition, Special Allowance, Dearness Allowance and other allowances will be

payable as per prevailing rules and regulations in the Bank. Further, the officer will also be eligible for amenities like residential quarters/lease rent in lieu of quarters,

LFC, reimbursement of medical/hospitalization expenses and other perquisites as per

the policy of the Bank.

** The number of vacancies are tentative and can be changed at sole discretion of the Bank.

Note: The selected candidate can be posted at any Branch / Office of the Bank at sole discretion of the Bank. Hence, the candidates willing to work at any of the Branch / Office of the Bank need only apply.

The reservation in the above noted vacancies** is as under:

 

Post

Scale / Grade

SC

ST

OBC

UR

Total

Within which for PWDs

VI

HI

OC

MoD

Credit Officer

II

49

24

65

62

200

2

2

2

2

 

Note: The Bank reserves its right to interchange the number of reserved vacancies in various categories as per Government Guidelines.

Elegibility Criteria :

The applicants intending to apply should ensure that they fulfill the eligibility criteria specified herein below before applying. It should be noted that the eligibility criteria specified herein is the basic criteria for applying for the posts. However, merely applying for / appearing for and/or qualifying at any  stage  of  selection  process  for  the  posts  does  not  imply  that  a  candidate  will necessarily be eligible for employment / confer right on him / her for appointment in the Bank.

(A) Nationality / Citizenship:

An applicant must either be (i)  a citizen of India, or (ii) a subject of Nepal, or (iii)a subject of Bhutan, or (iv) a  Tibetan  refugee,  who  migrated  to  India  before  1st   January  1962,  with  the intention of permanently settling in India, or (v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan / Burma / Sri Lanka / East  African  countries  of  Kenya  /  Uganda  /  the  United  Republic  of  Tanzania (formerly  Tanganyika  and  Zanzibar)  / Zambia  /  Malawi  /  Zaire  /  Ethiopia  or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) / (iii) / (iv) or (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India before the date of this notification.

(B) Age, Educational Qualification and Post Qualification Work Experience

POSTCODE 01: 200 Vacancies of Credit Officers (MMGS-II)

Age : 

Minimum  : 23 years

Maximum : 32 years

Educational Qualifications :

Bachelor’s degree in any discipline with minimum 60% aggregate marks from a University/Institution/Board recognized by Govt. of India/approved by Govt. Regulatory bodies.

Note: Candidates having professional qualification like MBA (Finance) / CA/ ICWA/ CFA/ FRM/ CAIIB from a University/Institution/Board recognized by Govt. of India/approved by Govt. Regulatory bodies will be preferred.

Post Qualification Work Experience:

Post Qualification Work Experience in processing of credit proposals in officer cadre with any Scheduled Commercial Bank  for a  minimum period of two years immediately preceding  the cut-off date of application as per this Notification is mandatory.

Note: A relaxation of 5% would be available in the minimum marks required under the eligibility  criteria of Educational Qualification to the candidates belonging to Reserved Category, as per the Government guidelines.

Syllabus & Selection Process :

The  selection  process  may  comprise  of  Online  Examination  /  Group  Discussion  (if conducted) and / or Personal Interview. The Bank reserves the absolute right to decide as to whether to use all or any of these modes for selection for the notified posts.

(a) Online Examination / Test:

The structure of the Online Written Examination, if conducted, will be online and will consist of the following tests:

SN

Name of the Tests

No. of Questions and Maximum Marks

1.

Reasoning

50  multiple  choice  questions  carrying  a

total of 25 marks

2.

Quantitative Aptitude

50 multiple  choice  questions  carrying  a

total of 50 marks.

3.

Professional knowledge relevant to

the post.

50 multiple  choice  questions  carrying  a

total of 100 marks.

4.

English Language

50 multiple  choice  questions  carrying  a total of 25 marks

Total Duration of Examination will be of

120 minutes

Total   200   multiple   choice   questions

carrying a total of 200 Marks.

The above tests except the test of English language will be available bilingually i.e. English and Hindi. The Bank also reserves the right to alter the structure of the online examination.

NOTE: The Bank will be analyzing the responses (answers) of individual candidates with other  candidates to detect patterns of similarity of right and wrong answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted by the Bank in this regard, it is inferred / concluded that the responses have  been shared and the scores obtained are not genuine / valid, the Bank reserves right to cancel the candidature of concerned candidates.

Penalty for wrong Answers:

There will be a penalty for wrong answers marked in the online examination. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the applicant, one fourth or 25% of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arrive at final score.  If the total of the penalty for a test is in fraction, the marks obtained will be rounded off to the nearest integer. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is marked by the applicant; there will be no penal mark for that question.

(b) Personal Interview

A Personal Interview of  50 marks shall  be conducted to assess the academic  & job knowledge, power of expression, clarity of thought, qualities of leadership, extracurricular activities, hobbies, general demeanor, behavior, communication skills, suitability for the post,  etc.  of the applicant. The minimum qualifying marks for the Personal Interview would be 25  marks (22.5 marks for Reserved Category applicants). The applicants not securing the minimum qualifying marks in the Personal Interview will be disqualified for selection.

(c) Important Notes:

i.  The applicants will be called for the Online Examination Group Discussion (if  conducted), on the basis of the information provided by them in their On-line Applications without verification of their age or qualification or category or any other eligibility criteria. The applicants must, therefore, ensure that they fulfill all the notified eligibility criteria as on the cut-off date prescribed in this notification, have possession of the requisite documents / certificates specified by the Bank,  and that the particulars  furnished in their On-Line Application are complete, true and correct in all respects. Merely appearing in the Online Examination /   Group Discussion (if conducted)and / or passing the Online Examination Group Discussion (if conducted)  and / or being called by the Bank for the Personal Interview shall not imply that the Bank is satisfied about the eligibility of the applicant.

ii.  The applicant shall be required to qualify in each Test of the Online Examination / Group Discussion (if conducted) as per cut-off marks, subject to minimum qualifying marks in the aggregate of 200 marks, both of which will be fixed by the Bank.

iii.  Generally, depending on the number of vacancies, only those applicants who have secured the minimum category-wise and test-wise cut-off marks to be decided for Online  Examination / Group Discussion and rank sufficiently high in the order of merit based on the total marks scored in the Online Examination / Group Discussion shall be called for Personal Interview in the ratio of 1:3 for General / Unreserved applicants and 1:5 in case  of applicants belonging to the Reserved Categories. In other words generally, for every  single post in General and Reserved category, 3 General and 5 Reserved Category applicants respectively would be called for the Personal Interview depending upon their ranking as per the marks obtained by them. However, the  Bank reserves its right to call for the Personal Interview applicants otherwise than in the above ratio at its sole discretion.

iv.  The applicants may also be called directly for Personal Interview without holding of Online  Examination /  Group Discussion. The  Bank reserves its right to call any number of applicants for the Personal Interview at its sole discretion.

v.  After the selection process, the applicants, who secure more than the prescribed minimum  qualifying marks in  the used selection processes,  will be ranked in a descending  order  on  the  basis  of  the  aggregate  marks  obtained  in  the  Online Examination / Group Discussion and / or Personal Interview under the respective SC / ST / OBC / GEN Categories.

vi.  Subject  to  the  vacancies  available  under  the  respective  Category,  only  those candidates, who pass the Online Examination / Group Discussion, if conducted, as well as, the Personal Interview will be short-listed for selection in the order of the Merit / Rank obtained by them under the respective Category.

How to Apply :

The candidates can apply only online from 04.10.2017 to 21.10.2017 (both days inclusive) and no other mode of application will be accepted.

Prerequisite for applying online:

Before applying online, candidates should:

i.  Scan their photograph and signature, ensuring that both conform to the required specifications given as Annexure-I with this notification.

ii.  Keep  the  necessary  details  of  Educational  Qualification,  Post  Qualification  Work Experience and other personal details handy for entering in the online application.

iii.  Create a valid personal email ID, if not already done. The email ID should be kept alive for entire duration of the recruitment process. Under no circumstances, the applicant should share email ID with any other person. Third party email ID is not permitted.

Fee Detail's :

Non-refundable  Application  fees/Intimation  Charges  (payable  only  through  online mode):

Category of Applicant

Amount Payable*

For GEN & OBC

Rs.600.00 (application fees)

For SC/ST/PWD candidates

Rs.100.00 (intimation charges)

*The transaction charges, if any, for Online Payment of application fees / intimation charges will have to be borne by the applicant.

Note: The Payment of application fees by any other mode except online will not be accepted.  Instruments,  like  Demand  Draft  /  Banker’s  Cheque  /  Indian  postal  orders received towards payment of application fees / intimation charges will not be accepted under any circumstance. The application fees / Intimation Charges are non-refundable and once paid will not be refunded on any account nor can be held for in reserve for any other examination or selection.

Procedure for applying online: 

i.     The applicants are required to go to the Bank's website “www.unionbankofindia.co.in” and click on the link "Recruitment" under “Careers” page to access the Recruitment Notification  titled  "UNION  BANK  RECRUITMENT  PROJECT  2017  -  2018  (CREDIT OFFICER ) -  RECRUITMENT NOTIFICATION”. There will be two links named as (1) Link for Notification  (2) Link for Online application. The applicant has to click on first link to download the full  notification. The applicant should carefully read and ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility criteria given in the downloaded notification. If the applicant is eligible then he/she may proceed to fill the online application form available as the second link.

ii.    The applicants should completely fill up the online application form and upload their photograph and signature, as per the specifications given in the notification under

'Guidelines for Scanning’.

iii.    The applicants should very carefully fill in the details in the On-Line Application at appropriate places and click on the “FINAL SUBMIT” button at the end of the Online Application  format.  Before  pressing  the  “FINAL  SUBMIT”  button,  candidates  are advised to verify every field filled  in he application as it cannot   be changed/altered/corrected after final submission.

iv.     The application form is integrated with the payment gateway. The payment can be made by  using Debit Cards (RuPay / Visa / Master Card / Maestro), Credit Cards, Internet Banking, IMPS, Cash Cards / Mobile Wallets.

v.     If the online transaction has been successfully completed, an e-receipt, Registration Number & Password will be generated. The applicants should note their Registration Numbers and Password for future reference.

vi.     If the online transaction has not been successfully completed then the candidates are advised to login again with their provisional registration number and password and pay the Application Fees / Intimation Charges online.

vii.    The applicants are required to take a printout of the e-receipt and the submitted online application form.

Note:

Ø   After submitting the payment information in the online application form, DO NOT press the Back or Refresh button in order to avoid double charge.

Ø   For Credit Card users, all prices are listed in Indian Rupee. In case of non-Indian credit card, the Bank will convert the amount based on its prevailing exchange rates.

Ø   To ensure the security of the data, please close the browser window once transaction is completed.

An email / SMS intimation with the Registration Number and password generated on successful registration of the application will be sent as a system  generated acknowledgement to the email ID / Mobile Number specified in the online application form. If  candidates do not receive the email and SMS intimations at the email ID / Mobile number specified by them, they may consider that their online application has not been successfully registered.

An online application, which is incomplete in any respect, such as without photograph and signature uploaded in the online application form / unsuccessful fee payment will not be considered as valid.

Important Date :

Start  Date  for  payment  of  fees  /  intimation  charges  and

submitting the ON-LINE application.

04.10.2017, 00:00 Hrs

Last  Date  for  payment  of  fees  /  intimation  charges  and

submitting the ON-LINE application.

21.10.2017, 24:00 Hrs

 

Click Here to Download Notification

Click Here to Apply Online

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "General Awareness"

IBPS logo


IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  General Awareness


141. Which of the following is a receipt listed in India and traded in rupees declaring ownership of shares of a foreign company?

(1) Indian Depository Receipt (IDR)
(2) European Depository Receipt (EDR)
(3) Global Depository Receipt (GDR)
(4) American Depository Receipt (ADR)
(5) Luxemburg Depository Receipt (LDR)

142. A bank without any branch network that offers its services remotely through online banking, telephone/mobile banking and interbank ATM network alliances is known as

(1) Universal Banking
(2) Indirect Bank
(3) Door Step Bank
(4) A Direct Bank
(5) Unit Banking

143. Which of the following Indian Universities is Asia’s largest residential university?

(1) Allahabad University
(2) Utkal University
(3) Banaras Hindu University
(4) Anna University
(5) Jawaharlal Nehru University

144. In October, 2013, which country has confirmed plans to create a secure mail service to protect its citizens and businesses against foreign espionage?

(1) Mexico
(2) Brazil
(3) Sweden
(4) Germany
(5) None of these

145. The campaign name ‘Heal India’ aims to create awareness about which of the following diseases?

(1) Mental illness
(2) AIDS
(3) Leprosy
(4) Alzheimer
(5) None of these

146. The target set by the UIDAI for issuance of Aadhaar cards upto 2014 is

(1) 50 crore cards
(2) 55 crore cards
(3) 45 crore cards
(4) 40 crore cards
(5) 60 crore cards

147. Which of the following nations has signed a comprehensive free trade agreement with European Union?

(1) Japan
(2) China
(3) Russia
(4) Canada
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "Quantitative Aptitude"

IBPS logo


IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude


Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information given in three Statements I, II and III. You have to study the question along with the statements and decide the information given in which of the statement(s) is necessary to answer the question.

91. In how many days 10 women can finish the work?

I. 10 men finish the work in 6 days.
II. 10 women and 10 men finish the work in days.
III. If 10 men work 3 days and after that 10 women are deployed to work for men, the rest work is finished in 4 days.

(1) I and II
(2) Any two of three
(3) I and III
(4) II and III
(5) None of these

92. What is the present age of Sabir?

I. The present age of Sabir is half of his father’s age.
II. After five years the ratio of ages of Sabir and his father is 6:11.
III. Sabir is younger to his brother by five years.

(1) 1 and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) All of these
(5) Cannot be determined

93. What is two digit number?

I. The difference between the number and the number formed by interchanging the digit is 27.
II. The difference between two digits is 3.
III. The digit at unit’s place is less than that at ten’s place by 3.

(1) 1 and II
(2) I and either II or III
(3) I and III
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

94. What is the rate of interest Percent per annum?

I. An amount doubles itself in 5 yr on simple interest.
II. Difference between the compound interest and the simple interest earned on a certain amount in two years is Rs400.
III. Simple interest earned per annum is Rs2000.

(1) Only I
(2) II and III
(3) Any two of three
(4) I or II and III
(5) Only I or II and III

95. What is the cost of flooring the rectangular hall?

I. Length and the breadth of the hall are in the ratio of 3:2.
II. Length of the hall is 48 m and cost of flooring is Rs850 per sq m.
III. Perimeter of the hall is 160 m and cost of flooring is Rs850 per sq m.
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) Only III
(4) I and either II or III
(5) Any two of the three

96. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and the denominator is increased by 25%, the fraction obtained is . What was the original fraction?

(1) 5/7
(2) 4/7
(3) 3/8
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the three

97. If the positions of the digits of a two-digit number are interchanged, the number obtained is smaller than the original number by 27. If the digits of the number are in the ratio of 1 : 2, what is the original number?

(1) 36 (2) 63
(3) 48
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

98. One of the angles of a quadrilateral is thrice the smaller angle of a parallelogram. The respective ratio between the adjacent angles of the parallelogram is 4:5. Remaining three angles of the quadrilateral are in ratio 4:11:9 respectively. What is the sum of the largest and the smallest angles of the quadrilateral?

(1) 255°
(2) 260°
(3) 265°
(4) 270°
(5) None of these

99. An aeroplane flies with an average speed of 756 km/h. A helicopter takes 48 h to cover twice the distance covered by aeroplane in 9 h. How much distance will the helicopter cover in 18 h? (Assuming that flights are non-stop and moving with uniform speed.)

(1) 5010 km
(2) 4875 km
(3) 5760 km
(4) 5103 km
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 105-109) In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

105. 29, 37, 21,43 ,13, 53, 5

(1) 37
(2) 53
(3) 13
(4) 21
(5) 43

106. 600, 125, 30, 13, 7.2, 6.44, 6.288

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 12
(5) None of these

107. 80, 42, 24, 13.5, 8.75, 6.375, 5.1875

(1) 8.75
(2) 13.5
(3) 24
(4) 6.375
(5) 42

108. 10, 8, 13, 35, 135, 671, 4007

(1) 8
(2) 671
(3) 135
(4) 13
(5) 35

109. 150, 290, 560, 1120, 2140, 4230, 8400

(1) 2140
(2) 560
(3) 1120
(4) 4230
(5) 290

Directions (Q.Nos. 110-114) These questions are based on the following data. The distribution of appeared and qualified aspirants in competitive examination from different States.

Total appeared aspirants = 45000

110. What is the ratio of the number of appeared aspirants from States C and E together to that of the appeared aspirants from States A and F together?

(1) 17:33
(2) 11:13
(3) 13:27
(4) 17:27
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "English Language"

 

IBPS logo

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-58) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through the wealth destruction already taking place in the U.S as a result of the financial crisis. Stock markets tumbled as exports plunged and economic growth deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as credit tightened and buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia swung back to greed as the region shows signs of recovery and property and stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia. Why should this sharp Asian turnaround be greeted with skepticism? Higher asset prices mean households feel wealthier and better able to spend, which could further fuel the region’s nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself saddled with overheated markets similar to the U.S. housing market.

In short, the world has not changed, it has just moved placed. The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response to the global credit crunch of 2008. Policy makers in Asia I slashed interest rates and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing and economies growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a deepening economic crisis. But there is evidence that there is too much easy money around. It’s winding up in stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the undenying economic fundamentals. Much of the concern is focused on China where government stimulus efforts have been large and effective, Money in China has been especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending surged 201% in first half of 2009 from the same period a year earlier, to nearly 51.1 turn on. Exuberance over a quick recovery which was given a boost by China’s surprisingly strong 7.9% GDP growth in the second quarter has buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real estate.

Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be recognised in hand sight. But investors who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too far and that the slightest bit of negative, economic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asia’s central bankers will begin taking stops to shut off the money. Rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening credit led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, there is close to a zero possibility that the Chinese \ government will do anything this year that constitutes tightening. And without a major shift in thinking, the easy-money conditions will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought possible over the past two years. Asia may be neading for another disheartening plunge.

51. To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008 Asian financial crisis?

(A) Reluctance or Asian governments to taper off the economic stimulus.
(B) Greed of Asian investors causing them to trade 1 stocks of American companies at high prices.
(C) Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries.

(1) None
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) Only (B)

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

52. What does the author want to convey through the phrase “The world has not changed it has just moved places”?

(1) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economies than on the US economy
(2) Economies have become interlinked on account of globalisation
(3) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries
(4) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
(5) None of the above

53. Which of the following can be said about the Chinese government’s efforts to revive the economy?

(1) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
(2) The governments only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
(3) These efforts were ineffectual as-the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilising
(4) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
(5) They blindly imitated the economic reforms adopted by the US

54. Why do experts predict that Asian policymakers will not withdraw fiscal stimulus?

(A) The US economy is not likely to recover for a long time.
(B) Stock markets are yet to regain their former levels.
(C) Fear of revolt by greedy citizens.
(1) None of these
(2) Only (C)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) (B) and (C)

55. What do the statistics about loans given by Chinese banks in 2009 indicate?

(1) There was hardly any demand for loans in 2008
(2) The Chinese government has borrowed funds from the US
(3) China will take longer than the US to recover from the economic crisis
(4) The GDP of China was below expectations
(5) None of the above

56. Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored?

(A) Existing property prices which are stable and affordable.
(B) The government has decided to tighten credit.
(C) Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures.

(1) Only (C)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) All (A), (B) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) None of these

57. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?

(1) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed countries
(2) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided
(3) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over sound economic-principles
(4) Extolling China’s incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it
(5) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic fundamentals

58. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics?

(1) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
(2) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash
(3) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
(4) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
(5) None of the above


Directions (Q.Nos. 59-65) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Delays of several months in National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) wage payments and work sites where labourers have lost all hope of being paid at all have become the norm in many states. How are workers who exist on the margins of subsistence supposed to feed their families? Under the scheme, workers must be paid within 15 days, failing which they are entitled, to compensation under the Payment of Wages Act – upto 3000 per aggrieved worker. In reality, compensation is received in only a few isolated instances. It is often argued by officials that the main reason for the delay is the inability of banks and post offices to handle mass payments of NREGS wages. Though there is a grain of truth in this, as a diagnosis it is misleading. The ‘jam’ in the banking system has been the result of the hasty switch to bank payments imposed by the Central Government against the recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council which advocated a gradual transition starting with villages relatively close to the nearest bank. However, delays are not confined solely to the banking system. Operational hurdles include implementing agencies taking more than fifteen days to issue payment orders, viewing of work measurement as a cumbersome process resulting in procrastination by the engineering staff and non maintenance of muster rolls and job card etc. But behind these delays lies a deeper and deliberate ‘backlash’ against the NREGS. With bank payments making it much harder to embezzle NREGS funds, the programme is seen as a headache by many government functionaries the workload has remained without the “inducements”. Slowing down wage payments is a convenient way of sabotaging the scheme because workers will desert NREGS worksites.

The common sense solution advocated by the government is to adopt the business correspondent model. Where in bank agents will go to villages to make cash payments and duly record them on handheld, electronic devices. This solution is based on the wrong diagnosis that distance separating villages from banks is the main issue. In order to accelerate payments, clear timelines for every step of the payment process should be incorporated into the system as Programme Officers often have no data on delays and cannot exert due pressure to remedy the situation. Workers are both clueless and powerless with no provision for them to air their grievances and seek redress. In drought affected areas the system of piece rate work can be dispensed with where work measurement is not completed within a week and wages may be paid on the basis of attendance. Buffer funds can be provided to gram panchayats and post offices to avoid bottlenecks in the flow of funds. Partial advances could also be considered provided wage payments are meticulously tracked. But failure to recognise problems and unwillingness to remedy them will remain major threats to the NREGS.
 

59. What impact have late wage payments had on NREGS workers?

(1) They cannot obtain employment till their dues are cleared
(2) They have benefited from the compensation awarded to them
(3) They have been unable to provide for their families
(4) They have been ostracised by their families who depend on them for sustenance
(5) None of the above

60. Which of the following factors has not been responsible for untimely payment of NREGS wages?

(1) Communication delays between agencies implementing the scheme
(2) Improper record keeping
(3) Behind schedule release of payments by banks
(4) Drought conditions prevalent in the country
(5) Delays in work measurement

61. What has the outcome of disbursing NREGS wages through banks been?

(1) Theft of funds by administration officials responsible for the scheme has reduced
(2) Increased work load for local government officials
(3) Protests by workers who have to travel long distances to the nearest bank to claim their wages
(4) Time consuming formalities have to be completed by workers
(5) None of the above

62. According to the passage, which of the following has/have been the consequence (s) of delayed wage payments?

(A) Compensation to victimised workers has amounted to crores.
(B) Banks will no longer be entrusted with remitting wages.
(C) Regulations to ensure punctual wage payments have come into force.

(1) None of these
(2) Only (A)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) (B) and (C)

63. To which of the following has the author attributed the delay in wage payments?

(1) Embezzlement of funds by corrupt bank staff
(2) Lack of monitoring by the Central Employment Guarantee Council
(3) An attempt to derail the NREGS by vested interests
(4) Overworked bank staff deliberately delay payments to protest against extra work
(5) Engineers’ efforts to wreck the NREGS because of low wages

64. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?

(A) Workers are reluctant to open bank accounts as branches are not conveniently located.
(B) Local officials often delay wage payments in drought prone areas to benefit workers.
(C) The Government has not implemented every recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council.

(1) Only(B)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and (C) (4) (A) and (C)
(5) All of these

65. Which of the following can be considered a deficiency in the NREGS?

(1) Lack of co-ordination among Programme Officers
(2) Local officials are unaware of correct operational procedures
(3) Workers have no means of obtaining redressal for untimely wage payments
(4) Disbursing wages through banks instead of readily accessible post offices
(5) The Central Employment Guarantee Council is reluctant to award compensation to workers
Directions (Q. No. 66-70) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) (E) and (F) into a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it.
(A) Moreover salaries in public sector enterprises are not as competitive as those offered by private or foreign corporates.
(B) This trend should be a wake up call for stakeholders to examine why employees are seeking better opportunities with private companies in India and abroad.
(C) Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) have been experiencing severe challenges in attracting motivating and retaining their key staff.
(D) Having identified these as the reasons employees leave PSEs it is important empower stakeholders to find ways to remedy the situation.
(E) One reason is that young employees lured away to private firms are more willing to undertake professional risks.
(F) Employees in specialist roles especially have become increasingly difficult to retain.

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "Quantitative Aptitude"

 

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude


Directions (Q. 51 -55) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

51. 4003 × 77 – 21015 = ? × 116

(1) 2477
(2) 2478
(3) 2467
(4) 2476
(5) None of these

52. [(5Ö7 + Ö7) × (4Ö7 + 8Ö7)] – (19)2 = ?

(1) 143
(2) 72Ö7
(3) 134
(4) 70Ö7
(5) None of these

53. (4444÷ 40) + (645 ÷ 25) + (3991 ÷ 26) = ?

(1) 280.4
(2) 290.4
(3) 295.4
(4) 285.4
(5) None of these

54.

(1) 37
(2) 33
(3) 34
(4) 28
(5) None of these

55.

(1) 303.75
(2) 305.75
(3) 303
(4) 305
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 56-60): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

56.

 8787 ÷ 343 × Ö50=?

(1) 250
(2) 140
(3) 180
(4) 100
(5) 280

57.

(1) 48
(2) 38
(3) 28
(4) 18
(5) 58

58.

of 4011.33 + of 3411.22 = ?

(1) 4810
(2) 4980
(3) 4890
(4) 4930
(5) 4850

59.

23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?

(1) 6460
(2) 6420
(3) 6320
(4) 6630
(5) 6360

60.

 335.01 × 244.99 ÷ 55 = ?

(1) 1490
(2) 1550
(3) 1420
(4) 1590
(5) 1400

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "English Language"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Computer Knowledge


151. _________ allows users to upload files to an online site so they can be viewed and edited from another location.

(1) General-purpose applications
(2) Microsoft outlook
(3) Web-hosted technology
(4) Office Live
(5) None of these

152. What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins so that the text is centered vertically on the printed page?

(1) Vertical justifying
(2) Vertical adjusting
(3) Dual centering
(4) Horizontal centering
(5) Vertical centering

153. Which of these is not a means of personal communication on the Internet?

(1) chat
(2) instant messaging
(3) instanotes
(4) electronic mail
(5) None of these

154. What is the overall term for creating, editing, formatting, storing, retrieving, and printing a text document?

(1) Word processing
(2) Spreadsheet design
(3) Web design
(4) Database management
(5) Presentation generation

155. Fourth-generation mobile technology provides enhanced capabilities allowing the transfer of both data, including full-motion video, high-speed Internet access, and videoconferencing.

(1) video data and information
(2) voice and non-voice
(3) music and video
(4) video and audio
(5) None of these

156. _________ is a form of denial of service attack in which a hostile client repeatedly  attack in which a hostile client repeatedly sends SYN packets to every port on the server, using fake IP addresses.

(1) Cybergaming crime
(2) Memory shaving
(3) Syn flooding
(4) Software piracy
(5) None of these

157. Which of these is a point-and-draw device?

(1) mouse
(2) scanner
(3) printer
(4) CD-ROM
(5) keyboard

158. The letter and number of the intersecting column and row is the

(1) cell location
(2) cell position
(3) cell address
(4) cell coordinates
(5) cell contents

159. A set of rules for telling the computer what operations to perform is called a

(1) procedural language
(2) structures
(3) natural language
(4) command language
(5) programming language

160. A detailed written description of the programming cycle and the program, along with the test results and a printout of the program is called

(1) documentation
(2) output
(3) reporting
(4) spec sheets
(5) directory

161. Forms that are used to organise business data into rows and columns are called

(1) transaction sheets
(2) registers
(3) business forms
(4) sheet-spreads
(5) spreadsheets

162. In PowerPoint, the Header & Footer button can be found on the Insert tab in what group?

(1) Illustrations group
(2) Object group
(3) Text group
(4) Tables group (5) None of these

163. A(n)_____ is a set of programs designed to manage the resources of a computer, including starting the computer, managing programs, managing memory, and coordin-ating tasks between input and output devices.

(1) application suite
(2) compiler
(3) input/output system
(4) interface
(5) operating system (OS)

164. A typical slide in a slide presentation would not include

(1) photo images, charts and graphs
(2) graphs and clip art
(3) clip art and audio clips
(4) full-motion video
(5) content templates

165. The PC productivity tool that manipulates data organised in rows and columns is called a(n)

(1) spreadsheet
(2) word processing document
(3) presentation mechanism
(4) database record manager
(5) EDI creator

166. In the absence of parentheses, the order of operation is

(1) exponentiation, addition or subtraction, multiplication or division
(2) addition or subtraction, multiplication or division, exponentiation
(3) multiplication or division, exponen-tiation, addition or subtraction
(4) exponentiation, multiplication or divi-sion, addition or subtraction
(5) addition or subtraction, exponentiation, multiplication or division

167. To find the Paste Special option, you use the Clipboard group on the _______ tab of PowerPoint.

(1) design
(2) slide Show
(3) page layout
(4) insert
(5) home

168. A(n) program is one that is ready to run and does not need to be altered in any way.

(1) interpreter
(2) high-level
(3) compiler
(4) COBOL
(5) executable

169. Usually downloaded into folders that hold temporary Internet files,_________ are written to your computer’s hard disk by some of the Web sites you visit.

(1) anonymous files
(2) behaviour files
(3) banner ads
(4) large files
(5) cookies

170. What is the easiest way to change the phrase “revenues, profits, gross margin,” to read “revenues, profits, and gross margin”?

(1) Use the insert mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(2) Use the insert mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(3) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(4) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(5) None of these

171. A program, either talk or music, that is made available in digital format for automatic download over the Internet is called a

(1) wiki
(2) broadcast
(3) vodcast
(4) bIog
(5) podcast

172. Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the presentation as a thumbnail and is useful for rearranging slides?

(1) Slide sorter
(2) Slide show
(3) Slide master
(4) Notes page
(5) Slide design

173. Different components on the motherboard of a PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called?

(1) Conductors
(2) Buses
(3) Connectors
(4) Consecutives
(5) None of these

174. What is the name given to those applications that combine text, sound, graphics, motion video, and/or animation?

(1) motionware
(2) anigraphics
(3) videoscapes
(4) multimedia
(5) maxomedia

175. A USB communication device that supports data encryption for secure wireless commu-nication for notebook users is called a

(1) USB wireless network adapter
(2) wireless switch
(3) wireless hub
(4) router
(5) None of these

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "Computer Knowledge"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Computer Knowledge


151. _________ allows users to upload files to an online site so they can be viewed and edited from another location.

(1) General-purpose applications
(2) Microsoft outlook
(3) Web-hosted technology
(4) Office Live
(5) None of these

152. What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins so that the text is centered vertically on the printed page?

(1) Vertical justifying
(2) Vertical adjusting
(3) Dual centering
(4) Horizontal centering
(5) Vertical centering

153. Which of these is not a means of personal communication on the Internet?

(1) chat
(2) instant messaging
(3) instanotes
(4) electronic mail
(5) None of these

154. What is the overall term for creating, editing, formatting, storing, retrieving, and printing a text document?

(1) Word processing
(2) Spreadsheet design
(3) Web design
(4) Database management
(5) Presentation generation

155. Fourth-generation mobile technology provides enhanced capabilities allowing the transfer of both data, including full-motion video, high-speed Internet access, and videoconferencing.

(1) video data and information
(2) voice and non-voice
(3) music and video
(4) video and audio
(5) None of these

156. _________ is a form of denial of service attack in which a hostile client repeatedly  attack in which a hostile client repeatedly sends SYN packets to every port on the server, using fake IP addresses.

(1) Cybergaming crime
(2) Memory shaving
(3) Syn flooding
(4) Software piracy
(5) None of these

157. Which of these is a point-and-draw device?

(1) mouse
(2) scanner
(3) printer
(4) CD-ROM
(5) keyboard

158. The letter and number of the intersecting column and row is the

(1) cell location
(2) cell position
(3) cell address
(4) cell coordinates
(5) cell contents

159. A set of rules for telling the computer what operations to perform is called a

(1) procedural language
(2) structures
(3) natural language
(4) command language
(5) programming language

160. A detailed written description of the programming cycle and the program, along with the test results and a printout of the program is called

(1) documentation
(2) output
(3) reporting
(4) spec sheets
(5) directory

161. Forms that are used to organise business data into rows and columns are called

(1) transaction sheets
(2) registers
(3) business forms
(4) sheet-spreads
(5) spreadsheets

162. In PowerPoint, the Header & Footer button can be found on the Insert tab in what group?

(1) Illustrations group
(2) Object group
(3) Text group
(4) Tables group (5) None of these

163. A(n)_____ is a set of programs designed to manage the resources of a computer, including starting the computer, managing programs, managing memory, and coordin-ating tasks between input and output devices.

(1) application suite
(2) compiler
(3) input/output system
(4) interface
(5) operating system (OS)

164. A typical slide in a slide presentation would not include

(1) photo images, charts and graphs
(2) graphs and clip art
(3) clip art and audio clips
(4) full-motion video
(5) content templates

165. The PC productivity tool that manipulates data organised in rows and columns is called a(n)

(1) spreadsheet
(2) word processing document
(3) presentation mechanism
(4) database record manager
(5) EDI creator

166. In the absence of parentheses, the order of operation is

(1) exponentiation, addition or subtraction, multiplication or division
(2) addition or subtraction, multiplication or division, exponentiation
(3) multiplication or division, exponen-tiation, addition or subtraction
(4) exponentiation, multiplication or divi-sion, addition or subtraction
(5) addition or subtraction, exponentiation, multiplication or division

167. To find the Paste Special option, you use the Clipboard group on the _______ tab of PowerPoint.

(1) design
(2) slide Show
(3) page layout
(4) insert
(5) home

168. A(n) program is one that is ready to run and does not need to be altered in any way.

(1) interpreter
(2) high-level
(3) compiler
(4) COBOL
(5) executable

169. Usually downloaded into folders that hold temporary Internet files,_________ are written to your computer’s hard disk by some of the Web sites you visit.

(1) anonymous files
(2) behaviour files
(3) banner ads
(4) large files
(5) cookies

170. What is the easiest way to change the phrase “revenues, profits, gross margin,” to read “revenues, profits, and gross margin”?

(1) Use the insert mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(2) Use the insert mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(3) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(4) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(5) None of these

171. A program, either talk or music, that is made available in digital format for automatic download over the Internet is called a

(1) wiki
(2) broadcast
(3) vodcast
(4) bIog
(5) podcast

172. Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the presentation as a thumbnail and is useful for rearranging slides?

(1) Slide sorter
(2) Slide show
(3) Slide master
(4) Notes page
(5) Slide design

173. Different components on the motherboard of a PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called?

(1) Conductors
(2) Buses
(3) Connectors
(4) Consecutives
(5) None of these

174. What is the name given to those applications that combine text, sound, graphics, motion video, and/or animation?

(1) motionware
(2) anigraphics
(3) videoscapes
(4) multimedia
(5) maxomedia

175. A USB communication device that supports data encryption for secure wireless commu-nication for notebook users is called a

(1) USB wireless network adapter
(2) wireless switch
(3) wireless hub
(4) router
(5) None of these

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "General Awareness"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: General Awareness


101. A money deposited in a bank that cannot be withdrawn for a preset fixed period of time is known as a

(1) Term deposit
(2) Checking Account
(3) Savings Bank Deposit
(4) No Frills Account
(5) Current Deposit

102. A worldwide financial messaging network which exchanges messages between banks and financial institutions is known as

(1) CHAPS
(2) SWIFT
(3) NEFT
(4) SFMS
(5) CHIPS

103. Which of the following ministries alongwith the Planning Commission of India has decided to set up a Corpus Fund of Rs 500 crore, so that tribals in Naxal-hit areas can be provided proper means of livelihood?
 

(1) Ministry of Rural Development
(2) Ministry of Home Affairs
(3) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(4) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(5) Ministry of Finance

104. Which of the following was the issue over which India decided to vote against Sri Lanka in the meeting of one of the UN-governed bodies/agencies?

(1) Violations of human rights in Sri Lanka
(2) Allowing China to establish a military base in the Indian Ocean
(3) Issue of subsidy on agricultural products in the meeting of the WTO
(4) Allowing part of Sri Lanka to become an independent country governed by LTTE
(5) Sri Lanka’s claim to become a permanent member of UN Security Council

105. The term ‘Smart Money’ refers to

(1) Foreign Currency
(2) Internet Banking
(3) US Dollars
(4) Travellers’ Cheques
(5) Credit Cards

106. Which of the following is not a ‘Money Market Instrument’?

(1) Treasury Bills
(2) Commercial Paper
(3) Certificate of Deposit
(4) Equity Shares
(5) None of these

107. Which of the following is a retail banking product?

(1) Home Loans
(2) Working capital finance
(3) Corporate term loans
(4) Infrastructure financing
(5) Export Credit

108. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the political situation in Mali, where a military coup burst out recently?

(1) General elections were due there in March/April 2012 but did not take place.
(2) The country has been under the control of the US army for the last 18 months.
(3) The army of the country was not happy as Amadou Toure was made President without elections for the next five years.
(4) A coup broke out in Mali when Amadou Toure, the military chief, got seriously injured in a bomb blast.
(5) NATO and its associates had planned a coup there.

109. In the summit of which of the following organizations/ group of nations it was decided that all members should enforce Budget Discipline?

(1) G-8 (2) OPEC
(3) European Union (4) SAARC
(5) G-20

110. As per newspaper reports, India is planning to use ‘SEU’ as fuel in its 700MW nuclear reactors being developed in new planets. What is the full form of 'SEU’ as used here?

(1) Safe Electrical Units
(2) Small Electrical Units
(3) Slightly Enriched Uranium
(4) Sufficiently Enriched Units
(5) Safely Enriched Uranium

111. Technological advancement in recent times has given a new dimension to banks, mainly to which of the following aspects?

(1) New Age Financial Derivatives
(2) Service Delivery Mechanism
(3) Any Banking
(4) Any Type Banking
(5) Multilevel Marketing

112. When there is a difference between all receipts and expenditure of the Govt of India, both capital and revenue, it is called

(1) Revenue Deficit
(2) Budgetary Deficit
(3) Zero Budgeting
(4) Trade Gap
(5) Balance of payments problem

113. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Reserve Bank of India?

(1) Fiscal Policy Functions
(2) Exchange Control Functions
(3) Issuance, Exchange and Destruction of currency notes
(4) Monetary Authority Functions
(5) Supervisory and Control Functions

114. Which of the following is NOT required for opening a bank account?

(1) Identity Proof
(2) Address Proof
(3) Recent Photographs
(4) Domicile Certificate
(5) None of these

115. The Golden Jubilee of Afro-Asian Rural Development Organisation was organized in which of the following places in March 2012?

(1) Dhaka (2) Tokyo
(3) Cairo (4) Kuala Lampur
(5) New Delhi

116. What is the maximum deposit amount insured by DICGC?

(1) Rs 2,00,000 per depositor per bank
(2) Rs 2,00,000 per depositor across all banks
(3) Rs 1,00,000 per depositor per bank
(4) Rs 1,00,000 per depositor across all banks
(5) None of these

117. The present Foreign Trade policy of India will continue till

(1) December 2012
(2) March 2013
(3) March 2014
(4) June 2013
(5) December 2014

118. With reference to a cheque, which of the following is the ‘drawee bank’?

(1) The bank that collects the cheque
(2) The payee’s bank
(3) The endorsee’s bank
(4) The endorser’s bank
(5) The bank upon which the cheque is drawn

119. In which of the following fund transfer mechanisms, can funds be moved from one bank to another and where the transaction is settled instantly without being bunched with any other transaction?

(1) RTGS
(2) NEFT
(3) TT
(4) EFT
(5) MT

120. What was the reason owing to which Enrica Lexie, an Italian ship, was detained by the Port Authorities in Kerala and was brought to Cochin port for inspection and search?

(1) It was carrying objectionable material.
(2) It was involved in sea piracy.
(3) It was detained as the crew killed two Indian fishermen.
(4) The ship started sailing without making payments of iron ore it loaded.
(5) It was detained as it was dumping nuclear waste in deep sea.

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "Reasoning"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  Reasoning


Directions (Q.No. 1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

An organization wants to recruit system analysts. The following conditions apply.

The candidate must

(i) be an engineering graduate in computer/IT. with at least 60% marks.
(ii) have working experience in the field of computer at least for 2 yr after acquiring the requisite qualification,
(iii) have completed minimum 25 yr and maximum 30 yr of age As on 1.12.2013.
(iv) be willing to sign a bond for Rs 50000.
(v) have secured minimum 55% marks in selection test.

However, if a candidate fulfils all other conditions Except

(a) at (i) above, but is an Electronics Engineer with 65% or more marks the case is to be referred to the General Manager (GM)-IT.
(b) at (iv) above, but has an experience of atleast 5 yr as a Software Manager, the case is to be referred to the VP.

In each question below, detailed information of candidate is given. You have to carefully study the information provided in each case and take one of the following courses of actions based on the information and the conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.12.2013. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows

Give Answer

(1) If the case is to be referred to VP
(2) If the case is to be referred to GM
(3) If the data provided is not sufficient to take a decision
(4) If the candidate is to be selected
(5) If the candidate is not to be selected

1. Ms. Suneeta is an IT Engineer with 60% marks at graduation as well as in selection test. She is working as a Software Engineer for last 3 yr after completing engineering degree and has completed 27 yr of age. She is willing to sign the bond of Rs 50000.

2. Rakesh Rao is a Computer Engineer Graduate and thereafter is working as a Software Manager for last 6 yr. He has secured 72% marks at graduation and 67% marks in selection test. His date of birth is 5th December, 1984. He is not willing to sign the bond for Rs50000.

3. Ramkumar is an Engineering graduate in computers with 78% marks passed out in 2007 at the age of 23 yr. Since, then he is working as a Software Manager in an engineering firm. He doesn’t want to sign the bond for Rs 50000. He has cleared the selection test with 72% marks.

4. Nishant is an Electronics Engineer passed out in June, 2010 at the age of 22 yr. Since, then he is working as a Programmer in a software company. He has passed the selection test with 66% marks and is willing to sign the bond.

5. Kalyani is an Engineer with 72% marks in Telecommunication. She has just completed 27 yr of age. She has cleared the selection test with 59% marks. She is willing to sign the bond.

Direction (Q.No. 6) Analyse the following passage and answer the question.


Some words are highly inflammable. Fusion is one of them. You can get two sets of people into a war mode by just uttering the words ‘fusion music’. One set will breathe fire and say it violates the purity of music the other set will tell you earnestly that it opens up the borders of music.

6. From the purists perspective, the ‘war’ between the two set of people can best be

(1) categorized as an ideological conflict between two ideas
(2) termed as a conflict between generations the younger versus the older generation
(3) an attempt to preserve the core principles
(4) seen as an attempt of people at the margin to occupy centre stage
(5) seen as preserving the social identity of purists
 

7. Unlike other retail outlets, where items are purchased in any number of units the customer wants, in super-markets items are grouped in bulk packages. This bulk buying offers saving to the customer. The option to buy at wholesale prices by buying in bulk makes super-market a “practical choice for budget-conscious consumers.

Which of the following assumption may be drived from the above information.
 

(1) Super-markets often have greater buying power and lower overhead costs, so they can offer a greater variety of products than regular retail outlets
(2) Super-markets are often more conveniently located and have better parking facilities
(3) The emergence of super-markets has caused many small retail stores to close down and thus eliminate competitions
(4) It is economically wise to buy single items since bulk packages seldom offer significant savings
(5) The financial savings from purchasing bulk packages may outweigh the inconvenience of being unable to purchase in any number of units that suits the customers’ need

8. Nations do not complete with each other in the way corporations do.

Which of the following most favours the weakness of the argument ?

(1) Trade deficit is a sign of national strength, profits are a sign of corporate strength
(2) Increase in human development index improves national standing, increase in market share improves corporate standing
(3) Climate change negotiations lead to global improvement; CSR initiatives lead to image improvement
(4) Nations go to war to capture territory, corporates contend against each other to capture market share
(5) None of the above

9. Civilization has taught us to be friendlier towards one another
Which of the following most favours the strengthens of the argument?

(1) Cats are loyal to their children, whereas men are loyal to their communities
(2) Elephants move in a herd, whereas men live in nuclear families
(3) Lions protect their own territories, whereas men capture other men’s territories
(4) Nilgai and Cheetal stay together, whereas men of one race dominate another
(5) None of the above

10. The mushrooming of business schools in the country is a cause for shortage of faculty with Ph.D qualification. In addition, the higher pay and generous fringe benefits given by industry has encouraged qualified people to not seek academic positions.
Which of the following statements, if true, would tend to STRENGTHEN the argument?

(1) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is more than the average salary for faculty positions in some business schools in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(2) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is less than the average salary for faculty positions in a top business school in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(3) The average salary for recent Ph.D graduates in the industry is 20% higher than that in academics
(4) The rate of growth of salaries for the industry positions has been higher than the rate of growth of salaries for academic positions for the past three years
(5) None of the above


Directions (Q. Nos 11 -13) Study the information given below carefully to answer the following questions.
In a certain code language the following lines written as

 

‘lop eop aop fop’ means ‘Traders are above laws’
‘fop cop bop gop’ means ‘Developers were above profitable’
‘aop bop uop qop’ means ‘Developers stopped following traders’
‘cop jop eop uop’ means ‘Following maps were laws’

11. ‘Developers are following laws’ would be correctly written as

(1) ‘bop cop uop eop’
(2) ‘lop bop eop uop’
(3) ‘oup cop lop aop’
(4) ‘gop cop uop qop’
(5) None of these

12. ‘qop gop cop eop’ would correctly mean

(1) profitable laws were stopped
(2) developers stopped following laws
(3) traders were above profitable
(4) were laws profitable traders
(5) None of the above

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13. ‘aop qop bop’ would correctly mean

(1) following were above
(2) traders stopped developers
(3) developers are laws
(4) traders above stopped
(5) laws are stopped

Directions (Q.Nos. 14-18) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements- to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

14. Statements All petals are flowers. Some flowers are buds. Some buds are leaves. All leaves are plants.

Conclusions

I. Some petals are not buds.
II. Some flowers are plants.
III. No flower is plant.

(1) Only I follows
(2) Either II or III follows
(3) I and II follow
(4) Only III follows
(5) None of the above

15. Statements Some pens are keys. Some keys are locks. All locks are cards. No card is paper.

Conclusions

I. No lock is paper.
II. Some cards are keys.
III. Some keys are not paper.

(1) I and II follow
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) All follow
(5) None follows

16. Statements Some pearls are gems. All gems are diamonds. No diamond is stone. Some stones are corals.

Conclusions

I. Some stones are pearls.
II. Some corals being diamond is a possibility.
III. No stone is pearl.

(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Either I or III follows
(4) I and II follow
(5) None of these

17. Statements Some apartments are flats. Some flats are buildings. All buildings are bungalows. All bungalows are gardens.

Conclusions

I. All apartments being building is a possibility
II. All bungalows are not buildings.
III. No flat is garden.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Either I or III follows
(4) II and III follow
(5) Only II follows
 

18.  Statements All chairs are tables. All tables are bottles. Some bottles are jars. No jar is bucket.

Conclusions

 I. Some tables being jar is a possibility.
II. Some bottles are chairs.
III. Some bottles are not bucket.
(1) Only I follows (2) I and II follow
(3) All follow (4) Only II follows
(5) None of these

19. A person starts from point P in East and moves 12 m to point Q. Then, he moves right 8 m to point R. Again he moves right for 6m to point S. Then, he moves 6 m in the North to point T. Finally from there he goes to left for 6 m to point U. Which of three point he would form a triangle whose all the angles are less than 90°.

(1) PTQ
(2) QTR
(3) UTS
(4) TSR
(5) SQR


Directions (Q.Nos. 20-25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing either the centre or outside. Each one of them belongs to a different department viz. Finance, Marketing Sales, HR, Corporate Finance, Investment Banking and Operations but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits third to the right of G.C faces the centre. Only one person sits between C and the person working in the HR department immediate neighbours of C face outside. Only one person sits between F and D. Both F and D face the centre. D does not work in the HR department. A works in Investment Banking Department. A faces the centre. Two people sit between the persons who work in Investment Banking and Marketing Departments. The person who works in Corporate Finance sits to the immediate left of E. C faces same direction as E. The person who works in corporate finance sits to the immediate left of the person who works for Operations department.

 

20. For which of the following departments does B work?

(1) Finance
(2) Marketing
(3) HR
(4) Corporate Finance
(5) Operations

21. What is position of B with respect to the person who works for Sales department ?

(1) Immediate right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the right
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the right

22. Who sits to the immediate right of E ?

(1) The person who works for Marketing department
(2) C
(3) B
(4) The person who works for HR department
(5) A

23. Who amongst the following sits exactly between C and the person who works for HR department?

(1) B
(2) The person who works for Marketing department
(3) The person who works for Operations department
(4) D
(5) G

24. Who amongst the following sit between the persons who work for Marketing and Investment banking departments when counted for the left hand side of the person working for Marketing department?

(1) F and G
(2) E and C
(3) C and B
(4) F and D
(5) B and D

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "Reasoning"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Reasoning


Directions (Q. 1-4) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
Input : tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn
Step I : 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt
StepII : 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn
Step III : 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high
Step IV : 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar
Step V : 56 48 32 28 13 ta99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise
Step VI : 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall
Step VII : 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise
And Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtainied.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)

1. Which step number is the following output?

32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink
(1) StepV (2) Step VI
(3) Step IV (4) Step III
(5) There is no such step.

2. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V?

(1) 14 (2) 92
(3) feet (4) best
(5) why

3. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between ‘feet’ and ‘32’ as they appear in the last step of the output?

(1) One (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five
(5) Seven

4. Which of the following represents the position of ‘why’ in the fourth step?

(1) Eighth from the left
(2) Fifth from the right
(3) Sixth from the left
(4) Fifth from the left
(5) Seventh from the left


Directions (Q. 5-11) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.

  •  B sits second to the left of H’s husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.
  •  D’s daughter sits second to the right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H’s husband.
  •  Only one person sits between A and F. A is father of G. H’s brother D sits on the immediate left of H’s mother. Only one person sits between H’s mother and E.
  •  Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

5. What is the position of A with respect to his mother-in- law?

(1) Immediate left (2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the right
(5) Fourth to the left

6. Who amongst the following is D’s daughter?

(1) B
(2) C
(3) E
(4) G
(5) H

7. What is the position of A with respect to his grand child?

(1) Immediate right
(2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the left

8. How many people sit between G and her uncle?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) F
(2) C
(3) E
(4) H
(5) G

10. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

(1) C is cousin of E.
(2) H and H’s husband are immediate neighbours of each other.
(3) No female is an immediate neighbour of C.
(4) H sits third to the left of her daughter.
(5) Bis mother of H.

11. Who sits on the immediate left of C?

(1) F’s grandmother
(2) G ‘s son
(3) D’s mother-in-law
(4) A
(5) G

Directions (Q. 12-18): In each group of questions below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/three statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer

(1) if only conclusion I follows.
(2) if only conclusion II follows.
(3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

12.

Statements:

Some exams are tests.
No exam is a question.

Conclusions:

I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.

(13-14):

Statements:

All forces are energies.
All energies are powers.
No power is heat.

13.

Conclusions:

 I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.

14.

Conclusions:

 I. No energy is heat.
II. Some forces being heat is a possibility.

(15-16):

Statements: No note is a coin.
Some coins are metals.
All plastics are notes.

15.

Conclusions:

I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.

16.

Conclusions:

 I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plastics.

17.

Statements:

Some symbols are figures.
All symbols are graphics.
No graphic is a picture.

Conclusions:

I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.

18.

Statements:

 All vacancies are jobs.
Some jobs are occupations.

Conclusions:

I. All vacancies are occupations.
II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.

Directions (Q. 19-21):

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

Each of the six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F - scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

19. Which of the following could possibly be C’s score?

(1) 70
(2) 94
(3) 86
(4) 61
(5) 81

20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

(1) D’s score was definitely less than 60.
(2) F scored the maximum marks.
(3) Only two people scored more than C.
(4) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks.
(5) None is true

21. The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F’s marks. Which of the following can be D’s score?

(1) 94
(2) 60
(3) 89
(4) 78
(5) 81

Directions (Q. 22-29): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Eight persons from different banks, viz UCO Bank. Syndicate Bank. Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra, are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement.)

  • C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
  • Only one person sits between R and the person from PNB. The immediate neighbour of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
  • The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
  • Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
  • B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.

22. Which of the following is true regarding A?

(1) The person from UCO Bank faces A.
(2) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A.
(3) A faces the person who sits second to the right of R.
(4) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce.
(5) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.

23. Who is seated between R and the person from PNB?

(1) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(2) P
(3) Q
(4) The person from Syndicate Bank
(5) S

24. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?

(1) D and the person from PNB
(2) The persons from Indian Bank and UCO Bank
(3) The persons from Dena Bank and P
(4) The persons from Syndicate Bank and D
(5) C,Q

25. Who amongst the following faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra?

(1) The person from Indian Bank
(2) P
(3) R
(4) The person from Syndicate Bank
(5) The person from Canara Bank

26. P is related to Dena Bank in the same way as B is related to PNB based on the given arrangement. Who amongst the following is D related to, following the same pattern?

(1) Syndicate Bank
(2) Canara Bank
(3) Bank of Maharashtra
(4) Indian Bank
(5) Oriental Bank of Commerce

27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) Canara Bank
(2) R
(3) Syndicate Bank
(4) Q
(5) Oriental Bank of Commerce

28. Who amongst the following is from Syndicate Bank?

(1) C
(2) R
(3) P
(4) D
(5) A

29. C is from which of the following banks?

(1) Dena Bank
(2) Oriental Bank of Commerce
(3) UCO Bank
(4) Syndicate Bank
(5) Canara Bank

Directions (Q. 30-34) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give answer

(1) if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question.
(2) if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question.
(3) if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question.
(4) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone or in Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.

30. Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V, each lives on a different floor of a six-storey building having its six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2, and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 6).

Who lives on the topmost floor?

I. There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live. P lives on an even-numbered floor.
II. T does not live on an even-numbered floor. Q lives on an even-numbered floor. Q does not live on the topmost floor.
III. S lives on an odd-numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R’s floor.

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Current Affairs

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Institute of Banking Personnel Selection
Common Written Examination :2011 (Current Affairs)

Nilekani Panel Submits Report on Cash Transfer Scheme

UIDAI Chairman Nandan Nilekani submitted the report of the committee headed by him regarding direct transfer of subsidy to the beneficiaries, to the Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee. The interim report of the task force on direct transfer of subsidies on Kerosene, LPG and Fertilisers suggested creation of a Core Subsidy Management System (CSMS) for maintaining information on entitlements and subsidies for all beneficiaries. The CSMS, as indicated in the report, will provide increased transparency in the movement of goods, level of stocks, prediction and aggregation of demand and identification of beneficiaries.

Nilekani Panel on Cash Transfer Scheme

Highlights of Recommendations Nade in Interim Report Submitted by the Panel

LPG:

  • Phase I: Cap consumption of subsidised cylinders (Policy decision of government and not a specific task force recommendation).
  • Phase II: Consumers buy LPG at market price, with direct transfer of subsidy to their bank account.
  • Phase III: Identify and target segmented customers for subsidy.

Fertiliser:

  • Phase I: Information visibility up to the retailer level. Phase II: Direct transfer of subsidy to the retailer.
  • Phase III: Farmers buy fertilisers at market price, with direct transfer of subsidy to their bank account.

Kerosene:

Phase I: Cash transfer through state governments.

Phase II: Cash transfer to accounts of beneficiaries.

Report recommends creation of centralised software for the product and service transfer. The poors have been recommended to get the share of subsidies directly through bank branches, Automated Teller Machines (ATMs), business correspondents, the internet or mobile banking channels. Pilot projects for such direct cash transfers have been recommended to begin in seven places— Tamil Nadu, Assam, Maharashtra, Haryana, Delhi Rajasthan and Orissa—from October 2011.

Country’s Exports Register 45.7% Growth in Q 1 Of 2011-12:

Country’s exports in June 2011 rose for the third month in a row by growing 46.4 per cent to $ 29.2 billion, driven by high-end products such as engineering goods. Imports increased 42.4 per cent to $ 36.2 billion. About one-third of this import bill was accounted for by petroleum, oil and lubricant. This resulted trade deficit at $ 7.7 billion.

During the first quarter of 2011-12 (i.e. April- June 2011), exports rose 45×7% to $ 79 billion. With imports growing 36×2% to $ 110.6 billion, the trade deficit stood at $ 7.7 billion.

Export sector’s good performance was well supported by various industries like engineering, oil, electronics, drugs, chemicals and readymade garments. The main components in the import bill on the other hand were oil, gold and silver, machinery, electronics and pearls/ precious stones. Oil import bill has been a major head in country’s total import bill. During the first quarter of 2011-12, oil imports rose 18 per cent to $ 30.5 billion and it is projected to be around $ 120-130 billion during the entire financial year 2011-12. Machinery imports valued at $ 9 billion showing 49 per cent growth. With 71 per cent growth electronics imports went to $ 7.6 billion.

It may be recalled that during last year 2010-11, merchandise exports had grown 37.55% to $ 246 billion compared with 2009-10 while imports were up 21.6 per cent at $ 350 billion, resulting trade deficit at $ 104 billion.

The government has set a target of $ 500 billion worth of exports by 2014 and doubling of India’s share of global exports by 2020.

RBI Asks Government To Improve Expenditure Quality:

RBI in its quarterly review of Monetary and Credit Policy 2011-12 pointed out the risk of high fiscal deficit pushing up inflation and consequently it suggested central government to improve the quality of expenditure to contain demand in the economy.

Trade Figures (Ap11)
Exports–The Break-up Imports–The Break-up
Sector Value ($ b) (% growth) Sector Value ($ b) (% growth)
Engineering 23 94 Oil 30.5 18
Oil 14 60 Pearls, gems 7.5 10
Gems &jewellery 9.25 19 Gold & silver 17.7 200
Readymade garments 3.6 34 Machinery 9 49
Manmade yarn & fabrics 1.2 30 Electronics 7.6 71
Cotton yarn & fabrics 1.5 9.1 Chemicals 4.5 19
Electronics 2.8 69 Coal 3.7 27
Drugs & pharma 3.08 25 Iron & steel 2.7 -10
Chemicals 2.9 52 Transport equipment 2.5 34
Plastics & linoleum 1.5 50 Ores & scrap 3.4 37
Leather 1.1 26 Vegetable Oil 2 55
Mica, coal & ores 2.7 270 Resins & plastics 1.8 0
Marine products 0.6 27 Fertilisers 1.28 -28

As per RBI’s viewpoint, the large fiscal deficit has been a key source of demand pressures, therefore, fiscal consolidation is critical to maintain inflationary pressure in the economy. The government can support RBI’s efforts to achieve low and stable inflation by re-allocating resources to finance supply bottle-necks in food and infrastructure.

Outstanding Liabilities and Gross Fiscal Deficit

(as % of GDP)

Year Outstanding Liabilities

Gross Fiscal Deficit

2009-10 53.7 5.4
2010-11 49.9 4.7
2011-12 (BE) 48.5 4.6

Despite the hike in administered prices of fuel products, RBI still finds an element of suppressed inflation in the economy. As per RBI’s estimates, about 1 per cent of gross domestic product is still to be financed and becomes a major portion of this subsidy Bill. This subsidy Bill will result in inflationary pressure which, according to RBI is a major concern on the part of the government.

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Numerical Ability

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Numerical Ability

1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?
1. 25
2. 26
3. 27
4. 30 5. 26
Answer: (3)

2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same rational number. The required rational number is:
1. 1/8
2. 4/9
3. 2/8
4. 3/8
5. 3/8
Answer: (5)

3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as remainders respectively.
1. 36
2. 37
3. 42
4. 29
5. 47
Answer: (2)

4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayesh’s age in years?
1. 29
2. 30
3. 24
4. 25
5. 28
Answer: (3)

5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 5. Their total value is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paise coins is:
1. Rs. 28
2. Rs. 36
3. Rs. 49
4. Rs. 72
5. Rs. 50
Answer: (1)

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Mental Ability

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Mental Ability

Verbal

1. If Step IV reads ‘to restrict the use of air conditioners”, which of the following will definitely be the input?
(1)use to of the air conditioners restrict
(2)restrict the to of air conditioners use
(3)the air conditioners of restrict use to
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security reasons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every batch. Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch.
Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by
Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on…

2. If pass-code for the third batch is ‘night succeed day and hard work-to for’, what will be the pass-code for the sixth batch?
(1)work hard to for succeed night and day
(2)hard work for and succeed night to day
(3)work hard for to succeed night and day
(4)hard work for to succeed night and day
(5) None of these

3. If ‘visit in zoo should the time day’ is the pass-code for the fifth batch, zoo we the should visit day time in’ will be the pass-code for which of following batches?
(1) II
(2) IV
(3) I
(4) III
(5) VI

4. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code ‘to fast rush avoid not do very run’. What would have been the pass-code for him had he visited the museum in the second bitch?
(1)rush do not avoid to run very fast
(2)rush not do-avoid to run very
(3)avoid rush not do to run very fast
(4) Date inadequate
(5) None of these

5. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code ‘length the day equal of an night are’. However, he could not visit the museum in the second batch as he was a little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new pass-code issued to him?
(1)and of are night the length equal day
(2)and are of night the length equal day
(3)and of are night the equal day length
(4 )an d of are th e night len gth day equal
(5) None of these

 

6. If ass-code for the second batch is ‘to confidence hard you leads work and success’, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?(1)leads success to you hard confidence and work
(2)leads success you to hard confidence and work
(3)leads success to you hard confidence work and
(4)leads to success you hard confidence and work
(5) None of these

 

7. If the pass-code issued for the last (sixth) batch is ‘and pencil by all boys used are pen’, what will be the passcode for the first batch?
(1)pencil and pen are used by all boys
(2)pen and pencil used are by all boys
(3)pen and pencil are used by all boys
(4)Pencil and pen are used all by boys
(5) None of these

 

8. If the pass-code for the sixth batch is ‘not go the way to of out do’, what will be the pass-code for the third batch?(1)Of do to out go not way the
(2)of to do out not go way the
(3)of to go out do not way the
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

 

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word rearrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement:
Input: Over you pat me crow easy to.
Steps: (I) pat over you crow easy to me
Steps: (II) crow pat over you to me easy
Steps: (III) over crow pal to me easy you
Steps: (IV) to over crow pat easy you me and so on.
As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate step for the given input in the following questions:

9. If Step II of an input is ‘ge su but he for game free’, what would be step VI?
(1)a for but fine he game su
(2)for free ge game su he but
(3)free ge for but game su he
(4)he ge su but game free for
(5) None of these

10. If step IV of an input is ‘blue navy kit lime se get‘, which of the following would definitely be the input?
(1)navy get lime out kit se blue
(2)lime navy get kit se blue out
(3)lime blue navy kit get out se
(4)kit blue navy se get out lime
(5) None of these

11. Input: but calm free are so not eat. Which of the following will be the 3rd step for this input?
(1)so free but calm eat are not
(2)but calm are free not so eat
(3)are but calm free not eat so
(4)but so free eat are not calm
(5) None of these

 

12. If step V of an input is ‘put down col in as mach sa’ , what would be the 8th step?(1)down in put much sa as col
(2)in put down cot much sa as
(3)much in put down sa as col
(4)col put down as much sa in
(5) None of these

 

13. Input: rim bye eat klin fe to low Which of the following steps would be ‘fe low rim to bye klin eat’?
(1) VIth
(2) vth
(3) IVth
(4) IIIrd
(5) None of these

Directions: A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:

Input: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
Step I: Put for he watch hand pocket them.
Step II: Put he for watch pocket hand them.
Step III: Put hand pocket watch for he them.
Step IV: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
And so on goes the machine. Study the logic and answer the questions that follow:

14. If Step III of a given input be ‘fly sky birds my su fur say’, what is the seventh step of the input?
(1)fly sky birds my su fur say
(2)fly birds sky my fur su say
(3)fly fur su my birds sky say
(4)fly su fur my sky birds say
(5) None of these

15. If Step VII of an input is ‘slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi’, what is step V of that input?
(1)slow dig hak pat dhurwa ran vi
(2)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(3)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(4)slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi
(5) None of these

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - English Language

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - English Language


Direction: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested. One of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out appropriate word in each case.

The Reserve Bank has taken a bold (46) in the development of money, the government securities and the foreign exchange markets in (47) of their critical role in overall growth and development of the economy and (48) in the transmission mechanism of monetary policy. The approach has been one of simultaneous movements on several fronts, graduated and callibrated, with an (49) on institutional and infrastructural development and  improvements in market microstructure. The pace of reforms was contingent (50) putting in place appropriate systems and procedures, technologies and market practices. Initiatives taken by the Reserve Bank have brought about a (51) transformation of various segments of the financial market. These developments by improving the depth and liquidity in domestic financial markets have (52) to better price discovery of interest rates and exchange rates, which, in turn, hae led to greater (53) in resource allocation in the economy. The increase in size and depth of financial market has (54) the way for (55) use of indirect instruments.

1. (1) interest
(2) participation
(3) step
(4) role
(5) None of these

2. (1) point
(2) tune
(3) view
(4) pursuit
(5) None of these

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IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015) "General Knowledge"


IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015)


Subject: General Knowledge

(Based on Memory)

121. India has recently signed a deal to build a $ 1 billion 900 MW hydro-power project on Arun river with

(1) Bhutan
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Myanmar
(4) Nepal
(5) China

122. Indian player ‘Anirban Lahiri’ is associated with the game of

(1) rifle shooting
(2) golf
(3) billiards
(4) wrestling
(5) chess

123. The abbreviation ATS stand for

(1) Anti Terrorism Sensor
(2) Anti Terrorist Set-up
(3) Anti Terrorist System
(4) Anti Terrorism Squad
(5) Anti Terrorism Scheme

124. China has recently announced that it has completed a major hydro-power darn in Tibet over the river Yartung Zangbo known in India as

(1) Indus river
(2) Brahmaputra rive
(3) Zanskar river
(4) Ranganadi rive
(5) Doyanq river

125. According to which of the following acts, a fixed deposit in a bank should not be paid in cash if it is Rs. 20000 and above?

(1) Wealth Tax Act
(2) RBI Act
(3) Income Tax Act
(4) Banking Regulation Act
(5) Negotiation Instruments Act

126. The Commonwealth Association for Public Administration and Management’s (CAP AM) International Innovation Awards for 2014 has recently been conferred upon the Indian State of

(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Gujarat
(4) Karnataka
(5) Maharashtra

127. In 2016, the Olympic Games shall be held in

(1) Beijing (China)
(2) Tokyo (Japan)
(3) Rio de Janeiro (Brazil)
(4) Seoul (South Korea)
(5) Bangkok (Thailand)

128. Banks borrow money from the RBI at which of the following rates?

(1) CRR
(2) Base Rate
(3) Repo Rate
(4) SLR
(5) Reverse Repo Rate

129. Which of the following is not an online travel safe?

(1) Goibibo.com
(2) Thomascook.in
(3) Zomato.com
(4) Arzoo.com
(5) Expedia.co.in

130. Under the PMJDY, the government is looking to open at least . . . . . . . .. basic bank accounts for unbanked tambles in the country.

(1) 7.5 crore
(2) 1.8 crore
(3) 5.7 crore
(4) 3 crore
(5) 4.5 crore

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IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015) "Numerical Ability"


IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015)


Subject: Numerical Ability

(Based on Memory)

161. In an examination, a student scores 6 marks for every correct answer and loses 4 marks for every wrong answer. If he attempted 80 questions and obtained 310 marks, how many questions did he attempted correctly?

(1) 59
(2) 67
(3) 63
(4) 65
(5) 61

162. The diameter of a wheel is 49 m. How many revolutions will it make to cover a distance of 3200 m?

(1) 17
(2) 27
(3) 24
(4) 22
(5) 18

163. The average run of a cricketer after 18 matches was 565. If he made 101 runs and 123 runs in 19th and 20th match respectively. What is his new average run after 20th match?

(1) 62.05
(2) 64.45
(3) 60.45
(4) 61.25
(5) 63.85

164. Two types of rice (type 1 and type 2) were mixed in the respective ratio of 1 : 3. The mixture was then sold at the rate of Rs. 75.60 per kg to gain a profit of 20%. If the price of type 1 rice is Rs. 75 per kg, what is the price of type 2 rice per kg?

(1) Rs. 55
(2) Rs. 53
(3) Rs. 59
(4) Rs. 57
(5) Rs. 62

165. Mr. Shah’s monthly income is Rs. 54550. In an entire year, he spends 32% of his annual salaries on groceries, he spend 12% on repairs and 10% he pays to his servant. If half of the remaining amount he invests in fixed deposits, what is the amount invested by him in fixed deposits?

(1) Rs. 150558
(2) Rs. 155240
(3) Rs. 152610
(4) Rs. 158789
(5) Rs. 154336

166. Two pipes A and B can fill tank in h when opened simultaneously. If B alone can takes 2 h less than A alone takes to fill the tank compleletely. How much does A alone take to fill the tank?

(1) 8 h
(2) 12 h
(3) 4 h
(4) 6 h
(5) 10 h

167. A man can now 10.2 km downstream in 18 min. If the speed of the stream in 3.5 km/h, how much time (in h) he would take to cover 121.5 km upstream?

168. The respective ratio of two numer is 16 : 21. If the first number is increased by 30% and the second number is decreased by 20%, what will be the respective ratio of the first and the second number?

(1) 32 : 21
(2) 26 : 21
(3) 25 : 21
(4) 20 : 21
(5) 22 : 21

169. A bag of fruits was distributed among 4 studens P, Q, R and S. P took 3/8th of the fruits. Q took 1/5th of the remaining fruits and the remaining fruits were equally distributed among R and S. What fraction of fruits did R get?

170. The present population of village P is 2.5 times the present population of village Q. If after a year the population of village Q is 16537 and has been increased at a rate of 15%. What is the present population of village P?

(1) 34740
(2) 38560
(3) 36820
(4) 35950
(5) 30350

Directions (171-175): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

171. 29 31 37 49 69 ?

(1) 108
(2) 99
(3) 94
(4) 103
(5) 88

172. 13 13 20 37.5 83 ?

(1) 233
(2) 216
(3) 234
(4) 235
(5) 239

173. 17 16 30 87 344 ?

(1) 1735
(2) 1760
(3) 1660
(4) 1685
(5) 1715

174. 8 9.4 12.2 17.8 29 ?

(1) 53.6
(2) 51.4
(3) 52.1
(4) 48.6
(5) 49.8

175. 26 12 11 15.5 30 ?

(1) 72
(2) 68
(3) 74
(4) 82
(5) 78

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Computer Knowledge

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Computer Knowledge

1. Buffer is device/storage area–
1. Where data are temporarily stored
2. Where data is permanently stored
3. Where data error occurs
4. All of the above 5. None of these

2. A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number of nodes is called–
1. Car Topology
2. Bus Topology
3. Truck Topology
4. All of the above
5. None of these

3. An error in a computer program is referred as–
1. Bug
2. Bit
3. Virus
4. All of the above
5. None of these

4. Circuits that provide a communication path between two or more devices of a digital computer system is–
1. Car
2. Bus
3. Truck
4. All of the above
5. None of these

5. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred as–
1. Byte
2. Octal
3. Bubble
4. All of the above
5. None of these

6. Cache memory is a–
1. Small buffer storage
2. Permanent storage
3. Main memory
4. All of the above
5. None of these

7. The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number system is referred as–
1. Number system
2. Base
3. Power
4. All of the above
5. None of these

8. Cache memory is–
1. Smaller and faster than main storage
2. Bigger and slower than main storage
3. Smaller but slower than main memory
4. Bigger and faster than main memory
5. None of these

9. Cache memory–
1. Is a Static RAM
2. Increases the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate
3. Both 1. and 2. are true .
4. Both 1. and 2. are false
5. None of these

 

10. Following is false for BASIC–1. Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
2. High-level interactive programming language
3. Works in time sharing environment
4. Low level object oriented language
5. None of these

 

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IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015) "Computer Knowledge"


IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015)


Subject: Computer Knowledge

 

41. ...... refers to the unauthorized copying and distribution of software.

(1) Hacking
(2) Software piracy
(3) Software literacy
(4) Cracking
(5) Copyright

42. Which of the following is an operating system?

(1) Umlx
(2) Debugger
(3) Mozilla
(4) Google Chrome
(5) Intel 8085

43. A collection of programs that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called

(1) operating system
(2) computer
(3) office
(4) compiler
(5) interpreter

44. Which of the following statements is a false conceiving file names?

(1) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name
(2) The file name comes before the dot (.)
(3) File extension is another name for the type
(4) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name
(5) Files may share the same name or the same extension, but not both at the same time

45. Which is not a storage device?

(1) Printer
(2) CD
(3) Hard Disk
(4) Floppy Disk
(5) DVD

46. ........ tags, placed on animal’s body can be used to record and track in a database all of the animal’s movements.

(1) pas
(2) RFID
(3) PPS
(4) GPS
(5) Other than those given as options

47. Which of the following cables can transmit data at high speeds?

(1) Flat cables
(2) Coaxial cable
(3) Optic fibre cable
(4) Twisted pair cable
(5) UTP cable

48. The hardware device or software program that sends messages between networks is known as a

(1) bridge
(2) backbone
(3) router
(4) gateway
(5) Other than those given as options

49. If you are performing Windows 98 operating system to Windows XP you are performing a(n)

(1) push up
(2) China
(3) patch
(4) pull down
(5) update

50. . . . . . . . . . technology enables you to carry a powerful’ navigational aid in websites.

(1) Convergence
(2) Locator
(3) Sampling rate
(4) Synchronization
(5) Global Positioning System

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IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015) "English Language"


IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015)


Subject: English Language

(Based on Memory)

Directions (81-85): Choose the best word that fits in the meaning of both the sentences to make them grammatically correct and coherent.

81.

I. Governments in these countries should create education systems since ……. good schools the bulk of people entering the world force will not have the skills they need.
II. We cannot process colour, details of rapid changes in our surroundings ….... the cone shaped cells packed around the centre of the retina.

(1) lack
(2) missing
(3) eficient
(4) without
(5) absence

82.

I. Japan is investing in strengthening bonds with ASEAN countries and Japanese countries recently won a $ 370 million contract to start ………. a new underground railway system in Jakarta.
II. The cost of space vehicles is high no doubt, but the costs of complying with legal and regulatory paperwork and rules is huge too.

(1) construction
(2) manufacture
(3) launch
(4) assembly
(5) building

83.

I. A troubled student and his PhD guide ........ a way for websites to reduce the incidence of spam which troubled internet users in the 2000s.
II. One of the biggest drawback of concrete is that it often develop cracks and scientists have now ………. self-healing concrete.

(1) create
(2) devised
(3) develop
(4) thought
(5) invent

84.

I. Politicians have promised to ....... the goal of eradicating extreme poverty many times but have failed because they cannot agree about what exactly counts as poverty and how exactly to measure it.
II. Reserve Bank hoped that a cut in its benchmark rate will ……. a reduction in inflation and improve confidence in the economy.

(1) achieve
(2) get
(3) end
(4) finish
(5) undertake

85.

I. According to some experts, subsidising crop insurance to a large extent may be bad for the environment since farmers may take .......... such as farming on food plains or sleep hills.
II. In the 1990s, Germany was known as the ‘sick man of Europe’ and had high unemployment but its success today is on account of the huge ........ it took in reforming the labour market

(1) danger
(2) chance
(3) possibility
(4) risks
(5) threats

Directions (86-90): Arrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. If you are transitioning from products to services or vice-versa, you have to know and understand these differences to effectively promote and sell.
B. For example, a product is tangible, which means the customer can touch and see the product before deciding to make a purchase and a service is intangible.
C. Understanding the different changes in product and service marketing can help you establish the right approach for this transition.
D. Unless you understand the basic difference of tangibility, it will be a challenge to promote and sell your product.
E. Companies that are marketing a product face different challenges compared to those that are promoting a service.

86. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

87. Which of the following should be the FIRST ‘sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

88. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

89. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

90. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2014, Computer Knowledge"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. ......... refers to the unauthorised copying and distibution of software.

(1) Hacking
(2) Software piracy
(3) Software literacy
(4) Cracking
(5) Copyright

2. Which of the following is an operating system?

(1) Linux
(2) Debugger
(3) Mozilla
(4) Google Chrome
(5) Intel 8085

3. A collection of programs that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called

(1) operating system
(2) computer
(3) office
(4) compiler
(5) interpreter

4. Which of the following statements is a false conceiving file names?

(1) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name.
(2) The file name comes before the dot (.).
(3) File extension is another name for the type.
(4) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name.
(5) Files may share the same name or the same extension, but not both at the same time.

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5. Which is not a storage device?

(1) Printer
(2) CD
(3) Hard Disk
(4) Floppy Disk
(5) DVD

6. ......... tags, placed on animal’s body can be used to record and truck in a database all of the animal’s movements.

(1) POS
(2) RFID
(3) PPS
(4) GPS
(5) Other than those given as options

7. Which of the following cables can transmit data at high speeds?

(1) Flat cables
(2) Coaxial cable
(3) Optic fibre cable
(4) Twisted pair cable
(5) UTP cable

8. The hardware device or software program that sends messages between networks is known as a

(1) bridge
(2) backbone
(3) router
(4) gateway
(5) Other than those given as options

9. If you are performing Windows 98 operating system to Windows XP you are performing a(n)

(1) push up
(2) China
(3) patch
(4) pull down
(5) update

10. ......... technology enables you to carry a powerful navigational aid in websites.

(1) Convergence
(2) Locator
(3) Sampling rate
(4) Synchronisation
(5) Global Positioning System

11. Which of the following is not true about RAM?

(1) RAM is the same as hard disk storage.
(2) RAM is a temporary storage area.
(3) RAM is volatile.
(4) RAM stands for Random Access Memory
(5) Information stored in RAM is gone when you turn the computer off.

12. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT

(1) spyware
(2) spam
(3) hackers
(4) identity theft
(5) viruses

13. Which of the following commands in Office 2007, can be used to go to first cell in the current row?

(1) Tab
(2) Shift + Tab
(3) Esc + Home
(4) Shift + Home
(5) Home

14. Software such as Viruses, Worms and Trojan Horses that has a malicious content, is known as

(1) malicious software (malware)
(2) adware
(3) scareware
(4) spyware
(5) firewall

15. Chip is a common nickname for a(n)

(1) transistor
(2) resistor
(3) integrated circuit
(4) semi-conductor
(5) other than those given as options

16. What is extension of Microsoft Word document?

(1) doc
(2) ppt
(3) dcc
(4) bd
(5) hml

17. Which of the following enables to determine how often a user visited a website?

(1) Hackers
(2) Spammers
(3) Phish
(4) Identity thefts
(5) Cookies

18. To move to the bottom of a document while working on MS Word, which command is used?

(1) Home key
(2) End key
(3) Ctrl + Page Down
(4) Insert key
(5) Ctrl key + End key

19. What is a person called who uses a computer to cause harm to people or destroy critical systems?

(1) Cyber Terrorist
(2) Black-hat Hacker
(3) Cyber Cracker
(4) Hacktivist
(5) Other than those given as options

20. ........ can interpret voice data into words that can be understood by the computer.

(1) Speech input hardware
(2) Speech recognition software
(3) Word recognition software
(4) Talking software
(5) Other than those given as options

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2014, Numerical Ability"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Numerical Ability

1. 161. In an examination, a student scores 6 marks for every correct answer and loses 4 marks for every wrong answer. If he attempted 80 questions and obtained 310 marks, how many questions did he attempted correctly?

(1) 59
(2) 67
(3) 63
(4) 65
(5) 61

2. The diameter of a wheel is 49 m. How many revolutions will it make to cover a distance of 3200 m?

(1) 17
(2) 27
(3) 24
(4) 22
(5) 18

3. The average run of a cricketer after 18 matches was 56.5. If he made 101 runs and 123 runs in 19th and 20th match respectively. What is his new average run after 20th match?
 

(1) 62.05
(2) 64.45
(3) 60.75
(4) 61.25
(5) 63.85

4. Two types of rice (type 1 and type 2) were mixed in the respective ratio of 1 : 3. The mixture was then sold @ 75.60 per kg to gain a profit of 20%. If the price of type 1 rise is Rs. 75 per kg, what is the price of type 2 price per kg?

(1) Rs. 55
(2) Rs. 53
(3) Rs. 59
(4) Rs. 57
(5) Rs. 62

5. Mr. Shah’s monthly income is Rs. 54550. In an entire year, he spends 32% of his annual salaries on groceries, he spend 12% on repairs and 10% he pays to his servant. If half of the remaining amount he invests in fixed deposits, what is the amount invested by him in fixed deposits?

(1) Rs. 150558
(2) Rs. 155240
(3) Rs. 152610
(4) Rs. 158789
(5) Rs. 154336

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6. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in hours when opened simultaneously. If B alone can takes 2 hours less than A alone takes to fill the tank completely. How much does A alone take to fill the tank?

(1) 8 h
(2) 12 h
(3) 4 h
(4) 6 h
(5) 10 h

7. A man can row 10.2 km downstream in 18 minutes. If the speed of the stream is 3.5 km/h, how much time he would take to cover 121.5 km upstream? (in hours)

8. The respective ratio of two numbers is 16 : 21. If the first number is increased by 30% and the second number is decreased by 20%, what will be the respective ratio of the first and the second number?

(1) 32 : 21
(2) 26 : 21
(3) 25 : 21
(4) 20 : 21
(5) 22 : 21

9. A bag of fruits was distributed among 4 students P, Q, R and S. P took 3/8th of the fruits. Q took 1/5th of the remaining fruits and the remaining fruits were equally distributed among R and S. What fraction of fruits did R get?

10. The present population of village P is 2.5 time the present population of village Q. If after a year the population of village Q is 16537 and has been increased at a rate of 15%. What is the present population of village P?
 

(1) 34740
(2) 38560
(3) 36820
(4) 35950
(5) 30350

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

11. 29 31 37 49 69 ?
 

(1) 108
(2) 99
(3) 94
(4) 103
(5) 88

12. 13 13 20 37.5 83 ?

(1) 233
(2) 216
(3) 234
(4) 235
(5) 239

13. 17 16 30 87 344 ?

(1) 1735
(2) 1760
(3) 1660
(4) 1685
(5) 1715

14. 8 94 12.2 17.8 29 ?

(1) 53.6
(2) 51.4
(3) 52.1
(4) 48.6
(5) 49.8

15. 26 12 11 15.5 30 ?

(1) 72
(2) 68
(3) 74
(4) 82
(5) 78

16. Arunika brought some articles and sold half of them at Rs. 22103 thereby making a profit of 15%/ At what price should sell the rest of them so as to earn a total profit of 25%?

(1) Rs. 25947
(2) Rs. 23528
(3) Rs. 27130
(4) Rs. 24682
(5) Rs. 26240

17. The height of a triangle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose diagonal is m and the base of the same triangle is equal to the side of the square whose area is 784 m2. What is the area of the triangle? (in m2)

(1) 504
(2) 558
(3) 478
(4) 522
(5) 496

18. Arunavo invested total sum of Rs. 16000 in two schemes (A and B) for two years. Scheme A offers compound interest (compounded annually) at the rate of 10% per annum and scheme B offers simple interest at the rate of 12% per annum. If the total interest earned by him from both the schemes after two years is Rs. 3504. How much money (principle) did he invest in scheme B?

(1) Rs. 4800
(2) Rs. 4200
(3) Rs. 4600
(4) Rs. 4400
(5) Rs. 5200

19. Ravi is older than Simar by 4 years. Four years from now, the respective ratio between Ravi’s age and Simar’s age will be 9:8. What will be the Ravi’s age 15 years ago? (in years)

(1) 19
(2) 36
(3) 17
(4) 25
(5) 21

20. A started a business by investing Rs. 33600. After three month B joined him by investing Rs. 23100. After 3 months of B’s investment, C joined them by investing Rs. 18900. If the total annual profit earned by them is Rs. 26450, what is C’s share of profit?

(1) Rs. 4630
(2) Rs. 4080
(3) Rs. 4260
(4) Rs. 4420
(5) Rs. 4140

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IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015) "Reasoning"


IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015)


Subject: Reasoning

(Based on Memory)

Directions (1-5): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the given questions.

1. If all the symbols are dropped from the arrangement, then which will be the eleventh element from the right end of the given arrangement?

(1) 9
(2) G
(3) D
(4) 5
(5) P

2. How many such symbols are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a letter and also immediately preceded by a number?

(1) More than three
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None
(5) One

3. Which of the following is sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the given arrangement?

(1) b
(2) *
(3) U
(4) Z
(5) 4

4. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the given arrangement?

UXT 3ZU 4PQ G5J ?

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

Directions (6-10): The questions is based on the five three-digit numbers given below.
476 538 289 814 753

6. Which of the following is the second digit of the three digit number obtained by subtracting the lowest number from the highest number?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6
(5) 7

7. If 1 is added to the first digit in each number and then the position of the first and the third digits are interchanged. Which of the following will be the third digit of the second highest number thus formed?

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 8
(5) 7

8. In which of these digits, the sum of all the three digits is an even number?

(1) 753
(2) 538
(3) 269
(4) 476
(5) 814

9. Which of the following is the sum of the second and third digits of the second lowest number? .

(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 91
(4) 11
(5) 13

10. If 1 is subtracted from third digit in the each number and the position of the first and third digits are interchanged. Which of the following will be the first digit of the third highest number thus formed?

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 8
(5) 9

Directions (11-15): In these questions, the symbols @, %, ©, $ and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller nor greater than Q’.

Assuming the given statements to be true, find which conclusion is definitely true.

11. Statements

H@K, K%M, M©P

Conclusions

I. H @ D II. K % D

(1) Either conclusion I or II is true
(2) Only conclusion I is true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Both conclusions I and II are true

12. Statements

R % H, H © T, T @ K

Conclusions

I. T © R - II. K % H

(1) Either conclusion I or II is true
(2) Only conclusion I is true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Both conclusions I and II are true

13. Statements

R © D, D $ M, M # J

Conclusions

I. J # D II. J % D

(1) Either conclusion I or II is true
(2) Only conclusion I is true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Both conclusions I and II are true

14. Statements

W # D, Z © B, B $ H

Conclusions

I. H # Z II. B % W

(1) Either conclusion I or II is true
(2) Only conclusion I is true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Both conclusions I and II are true

15. Statements

F $ N, N @ D, D % B

Conclusions

I. F @ D II. B @ N

(1) Either conclusion I or II is true
(2) Only conclusion I is true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Both conclusions I and II are true

 

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, Reasoning"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: Reasoning

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Seven persons – A, B, C, D, E, F and G - are standing in a straight line facing north at equal distances but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is a different professional viz. Actor. Reporter, Doctor, Engineer, Lawyer. Teacher and Painter but not necessarily in the same order.

G is standing at the fifth position to the left of C. Reporter is standing at the third position to the right of G. F is standing at the fifth position to the right of A. E is standing second to the left of B. Engineer is standing the second position to the left of D. Three persons are sitting between Engineer and Painter. Doctor is to the immediate left of Engineer. Lawyer is to the immediate right of teacher.

1. How many persons are there to the left of Reporter?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

2. Which o f the following pairs of persons are sitting at the extreme ends?

(1) A and Actor
(2) Engineer and C
(3) Doctor and F
(4) F and Lawyer
(5) Teacher and Doctor

3. Who among the following is Sitting exactly in the middle of the row?

(1) Doctor
(2) F
(3) Lawyer
(4) B (5) Teacher

4. Who among the following is sitting second to the right of Teacher?

(1) Painter
(2) B
(3) A
(4) Actor
(5) Lawyer

5. Who among the following are the immediate neighbours of Painter?

(1) Actor and Teacher
(2) B and Lawyer
(3) B and Engineer
(4) Reporter and C
(5) Doctor and Lawyer

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, Computer Knowledge"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. The advantage of a LAN is

(1) Sharing peripherals
(2) Backing up your data
(3) Saving all your data
(4) Accessing the Web
(5) Automatic printing of data

2. Of the 5 words listed below which one is the odd one out?

(1) Applications
(2) Peripherals
(3) Programs
(4) Software
(5) Operating System

3. What type of device is a computer printer?

(1) Input
(2) Input / Output
(3) Software
(4) Storage
(5) Output

4. What is the biggest number you can get with 8 bits?

(1) 256
(2) 128
(3) 1000
(4) 255
(5) 1024

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, English Language"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: English Language

Directions (1-5): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these. only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer.

1. I. Future generations will be left with a __ of pollution and destruction.

II. They each received a __ of $ 10000.

(1) legacy
(2) sum
(3) fortune
(4) amount
(5) inheritable

2. I. He was ––––– in bringing about an end to the Conflict.

II. Mr. Hart Prasad Chaurasia is an exponent of __ music.

(1) instrument
(2) instrumental
(3) keen
(4) instructor
(5) popular

3. I. Many __ men remarry and have second families.

II. When he was depressed. he felt utterly __ from reality.

(1) divided
(2) separate
(3) disturbed
(4) divorced
(5) destined

4. I. Most of our employees get __ abroad at some stage.

II. The aircraft and its crew were __ missing.

(1) announced
(2) arrested
(3) sent
(4) posted
(5) stationed

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5. I. He admired his __ in the mirror.

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, Numerical Ability"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: Numerical Ability

1. The ratio of monthly salaries of two persons. A and B is 8:7. If the salary of A is increased by 20% and that of B by 11% the new ratio becomes 96: 77. What is A’s salary?

(1) Rs.800
(2) Rs.700
(3) Rs.750
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

2. Simple interest on a certain sum at 7 p.c. p.a for four years is Rs. 3584. What will be the compound interest on the same principal at 4 p.c. p.a. in two years?

(1) Rs. 1054.48
(2) Rs. 1044.48
(3) Rs. 1044.84
(4) Rs. 1064.84
(5) None of these

3. The cost of pure milk is Rs. 16 per litre. On adding water the mixture is sold at Rs. 15/litre. In this way the milkman earns 25% profit. What is the ratio of milk and water in the mixture?

(1) 25 : 7
(2) 7 : 25
(3) 15 : 1
(4) 1 : 15
(5) None of these

4. Four persons - M. N, O and P-distributed a sum of Rs. 44352 among themselves. M got th of total amount. N got th part of the remaining amount. Thereafter, the remaining amount was divided between O and P in teh ratio 3 : 2. The amount received by P is

(1) Rs. 1648
(2) Rs. 1848
(3) Rs. 1884
(4) Rs. 1684
(5) Rs.1448

5. Three persons A. B and C start a business with Rs. 12800. Rs. 16800 and Rs. 9600 respectively. At the end of the year. B received Rs. 13125 as share in total profit. What is the share of Mr. C in the profit?

(1) Rs.7850
(2) Rs.7550
(3) Rs.7500
(4) Rs.8500
(5) None of these

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6. One-third of a diagonal of a square is units. What is the measure or the side or the square?

(1) 6 units
(2) 3 units
(3) 18 units
(4) 9 units
(5) None of these

7. 56 men can do a job in 14 days. How many additional men are required to do the same job in 8 days?

(1) 42
(2) 24
(3) 52
(4) 25
(5) None of these

8. A shopkeeper has goods of worth Rs. 6000. He sold hall’ or the goods at a gain of 12%. At what profit percent should he sell the remaining half of the stock so that he gets 18% profit on the whole?

(1) 25%
(2) 24%
(3) 18%
(4) 21%
(5) None of these

9. A 210 metre long train crosses a man running at 9 kmph in opposite direction in 6 seconds. Find the speed or the train.

(1) 98 kmph
(2) 97 kmph
(3) 107 kmph
(4) 117 kmph
(5) None of these

10. Average score of a cricketer in 13 matches is 42 runs. If the average score in the first five matches be 54 runs what is the average score in the last eight matches?

(1) 36.5
(2) 34.5
(3) 35.4
(4) 38.5
(5) None of these

11. The perimeter- of a rectangle whose length is 6 metre more than its breadth is 84 metre. What is the area of the triangle whose base is equal to the diagonal of the rectangle and height is equal to the length of the rectangle?

(1) 360 sq. metre
(2) 360 sq. metre
(3) 380 metre
(4) 400 sq. metre
(5) None of these

12. Due to decrease of 10% in the price of tea per kg. a consumer buys 250gm of tea more than before for Rs. 270. What is the Original price of tea ?

(1) Rs. 130/kg
(2) Rs. 120/kg
(3) Rs. 115/kg
(4) Rs. 140/kg
(5) None of these

Directions (93-107): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

13.(34.5 × 14 × 42) ÷ 2.8 = ?

(1) 7445
(2) 7425
(3) 7245
(4) 7435
(5) None of these

14. -676.76 + 1237.87 + 897.34 - ? = 1294.25

(1) 168.2
(2) 164.2
(3) 154.2
(4) 164.8
(5) None of these

15. 3/8 of {4624 ÷ (564 - 428)} = ?

(1) 11.75
(2) 12.57
(3) 21.75
(4) 12.75
(5) None of these

16.

 

(1) 18
(2) 17
(3) 28
(4) 19
(5) None of these

17. (216) 4 ÷ (36) 4 x 6 5 = (6)?

(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 7
(4) 10
(5) 11

18. 456 ÷ 24 × 38 - 958 + 364 = ?

(1) 228
(2) 124
(3) 128
(4) 138
(5) 145

19.

 

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, General Awareness"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: General Awareness

1. Derivatives Contract which gives the buyer/holder of the contract the right (but not the obligation) to buy/sell the underlying asset at a predetermined price within or at end of a specified period is known as

(1) Futures Contract
(2) Option Contract
(3) Index Futures contract
(4) Mini Derivative Contract
(5) None of these

2. The first Yash Chopra Memorial Award has been given to

(1) A. R. Rahman
(2) Lata Mangeshkar
(3) Amitabh Bachchan
(4) Rishi Kapoor
(5) Gulzar

3. CASA ratio of bank indicate the

(1) Bank’s deposits
(2) Bank’s Non Performing Assets
(3) Bank’s liabilities
(4) Bank’s base rate
(5) Bank’s total assets

4. The process by which LIC holder can transfer all rights, title and interest under a policy contract to any third person is known as

(1) Subrogation
(2) Escrow
(3) Mortgage
(4) Assignment
(5) Nomination

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 15-12-2012, Reasoning Ability"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Reasoning Ability

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence from a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) Walk
(2) Cry
(3) Play
(4) Study
(5) Alive

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘VIRTUAL’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

3. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘ILP’ using all the letters only once in each word ?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

4. If each alternate letter in the word ‘FLIPPER’ starting with F is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each of the remaining letters Is. changed to the previous letters in the English alphabetical series. then how many letters will appear more than once in the new arrangement?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four

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