(Paper) SBI Clerk Main Exam Paper - 2018

::General/Financial Awareness::

51. Direction: In the following question, a sentence is given with some bold words which may contain errors. Below the sentence, a table is given with two columns in which column 'A' contains the list of bold words, and in column 'B' the suggested corrections are listed. You have to choose the best alternative among the four given options. If no correction is required against the given bold words, mark (E), i.e., "None of the above" as your answer.
On the occasion of his golden jubilee, the generous king Maharaja of Bikaner Ganga Singh, participated in the ancient Hindu TulaDaan ceremony whereby he sat on a large set of scales and was measured against gold bars, whose cash equivalent was then donated to the charitable Golden Jubilee Fund.

A. Both (1)-(5) and (4)-(8)

B. (4)-(8)

C. (1)-(5)

D. (3)-(7)

E. None of these

52. Direction: In the following question, a sentence is given with some bold words which may contain errors. Below the sentence, a table is given with two columns in which column 'A' contains the list of bold words, and in column 'B' the suggested corrections are listed. You have to choose the best alternative among the four given options. If no correction is required against the given bold words, mark (E), i.e., "None of the above" as your answer.
The Bill states that companies with more than 10 employees would periodically debate specific terms with their workers, publish their own charter, and create an Employee Welfare Committee consisting of representatives of the company’s workforce.

A. Both (1)-(5) and (4)-(8)

B. (4)-(8)

C. (1)-(5)

D. (3)-(7)

E. None of these

53. Direction : In the following question, a sentence is given with some bold words which may contain errors. Below the sentence, a table is given with two columns in which column 'A' contains the list of bold words, and in column 'B' the suggested corrections are listed. You have to choose the best alternative among the four given options. If no correction is required against the given bold words, mark (E), i.e., "None of the above" as your answer.
A warm story of humility and forgiveness comes from the US city of Fort Smith where a Masjid not only forgave the young man who vandalised the mosque but also helped pay his fine so that he doesn't get charged to jail and his future is saved.

A. Both (1)-(5) and (4)-(8)

B. (2)-(6)

C. (1)-(5)

D. (4)-(8)

E. None of these

54. Direction: In the following question, a sentence is given with some bold words which may contain errors. Below the sentence, a table is given with two columns in which column 'A' contains the list of bold words, and in column 'B' the suggested corrections are listed. You have to choose the best alternative among the four given options. If no correction is required against the given bold words, mark (E), i.e., "None of the above" as your answer.
After learning that Ranjhi Rajak, a pilgrim from Madhya Pradesh had collapsed near Bhairo temple and needed immediate medical attention, SI Bahuguna carried Rajak on his back and walked uphill for over 2 kms till they reached the nearby hospital.

A. Both (1)-(5) and (4)-(8)

B. (2)-(6)

C. (1)-(5)

D. (3)-(7)

E. None of these

55. Direction: In the following question, a sentence is given with some bold words which may contain errors. Below the sentence, a table is given with two columns in which column 'A' contains the list of bold words, and in column 'B' the suggested corrections are listed. You have to choose the best alternative among the four given options. If no correction is required against the given bold words, mark (E), i.e., "None of the above" as your answer.
The condition of the hospital and its services reflecting on the inadequacy of Bihar's healthcare system, with patients usually increasing the number of beds available being treated on the floor, insipid food and long bill of medication and services.

A. Both (1)-(5) and (4)-(8)

B. (2)-(6)

C. (1)-(5)

D. Both (4)-(8) and (1)-(5)

E. None of these

Directions (56-62): Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words/ group of words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these.
Despite the fact that India’s rank in the Global Hunger Index has fallen to 103 (ranked out of 119) countries, the issue of hunger is often relegated to the background. In terms of policy, hunger, as an issue, is not dealt with directly, and with urgency. Instead, it is kept under the larger purview of economic development which expects that wealth will percolate to solve the problem of hunger. This formulation makes a number of incorrect assumptions about the relationship between hunger and other social structures. It is, at best, an indirect method that does nothing to immediately address the alarming issue of hunger that India is facing at present. When the Food Security Bill was being debated in Parliament, there was a need to conceptualise hunger and malnutrition in such a way that would enable the estimation of entitlements that would be made available by the government. In this context, an article titled Lessons on Food and Hunger in 2013 tried to understand the “unconscionable reality” of those who grapple with critical hunger to fill the gaps in the discourse around hunger. The study found out that natural and intimate narrative of food and hunger, reflecting the lives of a majority of children, are generally absent from the discourse of education. What can be found, instead, are clinical and insensitive descriptions of what constitutes a healthy diet, often illustrated with visuals of food far beyond the reach of most children. Contrary to the popularly held belief that food insecurity is a symptom of poverty, we have found that there is a growing divergence in the relationship between poverty and hunger in India. According to a study, India is currently experiencing a “food-budget squeeze” owing to shrinking social expenditure by the government. This makes the urban and rural poor dependent on private entities for essential services like education and transportation. Consequently, the portion of income that can be spent on food also shrinks. Between 2008 and 2014, India’s position on the Global Hunger Index (GHI) seemed to have been improving. Thereafter, India’s position began to deteriorate again. Researchers explain that India’s rank fell from 2016 because, from 2015, the conception of malnutrition was reformulated. New
parameters were introduced to expand what is understood as hunger to include stunting and wasting in children, because of which a more accurate perception of the extent of the problem could be estimated. The inclusion of stunting ensures consideration of rigid cultural factors, while that of wasting represents aspects of diet quality as well. Also, stunting is an indicator of long-term growth failure, and therefore, must be accounted for in any analysis of potential threat a given level of child malnutrition poses for a country. Despite the fact that the rate of global food production has been consistently higher than the rate of population growth, there is a persistent and pervasive crisis when it comes to food security. It is suggested that hunger can only be dealt with by, “carrying out policies of income redistribution, which respond to objectives of social justice rather than economic efficiency as perceived by neo-liberalism.” In most developing countries one of the biggest issues, with respect to public provisioning towards social protection, to address hunger and food insecurity is organically connected with that of adequate “fiscal” or “expenditure” space. Hence, a substantial push in public provisioning towards social protection might go a long way in ensuring food security.
56. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
I. The article, Lessons on Food and Hunger, looked at the theme of food and hunger in the lives of young children and how it formed an interface to their understanding their community and place in society.
II. Hunger is both a cause and a symptom of poverty.
III. A country need not wait to reach relatively high levels of per capita income before it can make adequate progress in public provisioning towards social protection.

A. Only I

B. Both I and II

C. Both II and III

D. Both I and III

E. All of the above

57. Which of the following statements is neither an assumption nor an inference from the third paragraph?
I. Rather than being a matter of choice, the poor have been increasingly forced to spend more on non-food essential items such as education, healthcare, transportation, fuel and lighting.
II. Non-food essential items absorb all the increases in household incomes and keep real expenditures on food from rising.
III. The food budget squeeze could be driven by both demand and supply-side factors.
IV. Private entities are likely to be more expensive than public entities.

A. Only I

B. Both I and II

C. Both I and III

D. Both I and IV

E. Both II and III

58. Which of the following statement cannot be inferred from the passage?
I. Given that malnutrition is a multidimensional phenomenon, the revised GHI formula is able to depict a relatively truer state of hunger in countries across the globe.
II. Wasting and stunting are two forms of malnutrition.
III. “Chronic” hunger is the elephant in the room that the neo-liberals prefer to brush off.
IV. That hunger exists at all shows the urgency of redistributing income and assets to achieve a fairer world.

A. Both I and II

B. Both II and III

C. Only I

D. Both II and IV

E. Both I and III

59. What does the author mean by the last line of the first paragraph?

A. The purview of economic development does not address the alarming issue of hunger.

B. Economic growth does not necessarily trickle down to the hungry poor.

C. Economic efficiency is an indirect method to solve the problem of hunger.

D. The relationship between hunger and other social structures is an indirect method that does not immediately address the problem of hunger.

E. Economic growth alone may not necessarily lead to poverty reduction.

60. Which of the following statements can replace the highlighted statement from the passage:
When the Food Security Bill was being debated in Parliament, there was a need to conceptualise hunger and malnutrition in such a way that would enable the estimation of entitlements that would be made available by the government.?

A. The Food Security Bill failed to ensure the right to food as part of the right to life.

B. The debates on Food Security Bill failed to address the unconscionable reality of the unrelentingly precarious and uncertain existence of those who grapple with critical hunger and starvation as a part of their lived everyday experience.

C. During the debates on Food Security Bill, there was a need to ensure that the rights of children become entitlements through transformative justice.

D. With the unprecedented stocks of food-grains, the paradox of high levels of hunger and malnutrition in times of abundance has raised serious concerns about policy discourse and public perceptions that shape the Food Security Bill.

E. None of these.

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61. Which of the following correctly describes the tone of the passage?

A. Disdainful

B. Evocative

C. Partisan

D. Pragmatic

E. Peremptory

62. Which of the following expresses a meaning similar to “percolate” as used in the passage?
I. Permeate
II. Filter
III. Spread

A. Only III

B. Both I and III

C. Both II and III

D. Both I and II

E. All of the above

63. Direction: Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text. Issue of money, in the form of banknotes and current accounts subject to cheque or payment at the customer's order. These claims on banks can act as money because they are negotiable and/or repayable on demand, and hence valued at par and effectively transferable by mere delivery in the case of banknotes, or by drawing a cheque that the payee may bank or cash. Banks act as both collection and paying agents for customers, participating in interbank clearing and settlement systems to collect, present, be presented with, and pay payment instruments. This enables banks to economize on reserves held for settlement of payments, since inward and outward payments offset each other. It also enables ____________.

A. The offsetting of payment flows between geographical areas, increasing the cost of settlement between them.

B. The offsetting of payment flows between geographical areas, reducing the cost of settlement between them.

C. The offsetting of payment flows only in urban areas, reducing the cost of settlement between them.

D. The offsetting of payment flows only in rural areas, increasing the cost of settlement between them.

E. None of these

64. Direction: Read the following passage and complete the paragraph with the help of correct options given below. Working overseas is always a challenge for any professional and if you are an Indian, always strive to give-your best as Indians have always been considered intelligent, hardworking, talented and spiritual. Working overseas was something many Indians desired but few achieved until the information technology boom opened several white collar job opportunities for them in global markets. However, securing employment abroad may be an achievement but retaining it is quite a challenge as a professional requires constant demonstration of professionalism and exact the standards of competence.

A. Indians have always excelled in a competitive working environment.

B. This makes them more enjoyable company.

C. Indians have always tried to bring out their best in competitive working environment.

D. Indians are hard-working, competitive and professional employees.

E. Indians love to work overseas and therefore they come in cheap too.

65. Direction: In the following question, a short passage with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank is given. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent (coherent means logically complete and sound).
There is a fairly universal sentiment that the use of nuclear weapons is clearly contrary to mortality and that its production probably so, does not go far enough. These activities are not only opposed to mortality but also to the law. If the legal objection can be added to the moral, the argument against the use and manufacture of these weapons will considerably be reinforced. Now the time is ripe to evaluate the responsibility of scientists who knowingly use their expertise for the construction of such weapons, which has a deleterious effect on mankind. How appropriate it is that all this valuable skill should be devoted to the manufacture of weapons of death in a world of poverty is a question that must touch the scientific conscience.

A. Almost 50% of the skilled scientific manpower in the world is now engaged in the armaments industry.

B. To think that majority of the scientists are promoting the manufacturing of the armaments is hurtful.

C. Scientists should use their conscience before taking up these contracts to manufacture the weapons of mass destruction.

D. Scientific manpower is used to the interests of some selfish and careless people who want to threaten the existence of homo-sapiens.

E. Scientists must take action and follow their conscience to abandon all nuclear related projects.

66. Direction: In the question given below, three paragraphs are given, which are jumbled. Find the correct sequence of these paragraphs so that they form a meaningful passage.
A. Climate change is warming the ocean, but it’s warming land faster and that’s really bad news for air quality all over the world, says a new University of California, Riverside study. The study, published February 4 in Nature Climate Change, shows that the contrast in warming between the continents and sea, called the land-sea warming contrast, drives an increased concentration of aerosols in the atmosphere that cause air pollution. Aerosols affect the climate system, including disturbances to the water cycle, as well as human health. They also cause smog and other kinds of air pollution that can lead to health problems for people, animals, and plants.
B. To determine this, the researchers ran simulations of climate change under two scenarios. The first assumed a business-as-usual warming model, in which warming proceeds at a constant, upward rate. The second model probed a scenario in which the land warmed less than expected. In the business-as-usual scenario, enhanced land warming increased continental aridity and, subsequently, the concentration of aerosols that leads to more air pollution.
C. A robust response to an increase in greenhouse gases is that the land is going to warm faster than the ocean. This enhanced land warming is also associated with increased continental aridity. The increase in aridity leads to
decreased low cloud cover and less rain, which is the main way that aerosols are removed from the atmosphere.

A. ACB

B. BCA

C. BAC

D. CAB

E. CBA

67. Direction: In the question given below, three paragraphs are given, which are jumbled. Find the correct sequence of these paragraphs so that they form a meaningful passage.
A. The power of compounding works the way it does because you are reinvestingthe interest that you earn back into the instrument, besides giving it time to grow. Let’s simplify it further. Say in the first year you invest 100 and you get 10% annual return of 10. Next year, along with 110 (the first year principal amount and the interest amount), you will put another 100. The 10 you earned as interest gets reinvested, helping you grow your money faster.

B. To get a perspective, let’s turn to some numbers. Say you started investing 3,000 a month when you were 25, and go on till you are 60. At an average annual rate of 7% returns, your corpus will grow to 53.24 lakh. If you decide to start investing at the age of 35 years, even if you put aside double the amount— 6,000 per month — till the age of 60, the value of your corpus will be only 48.72 lakh. The example shows that you would need half the amount to get more in returns if you start investing early.
C. Adulting can’t wait when it comes to savings and investing. Why you may ask? If you delay your investments, how will you see the magic of compounding? When it comes to investing, you need to start early. In fact, you should start saving and investing as soon as you start earning. Compounding allows you to build a bigger corpus with a smaller amount.

A. BAC

B. CAB

C. BCA

D. ABC

E. CBA

68. Direction: A passage with three blanks, followed by five options, each containing one word, is given. Choose the word that can fill all the three blanks.
An __________ is a process of buying and selling goods or services by offering them up for bid, taking bids, and then selling the item to the highest bidder. Participants bid openly against one another, with each subsequent bid required to be higher than the previous bid. An auctioneer may announce prices, bidders may call out their bids themselves (or have a proxy call out a bid on their behalf), or bids may be submitted electronically with the highest current bid publicly displayed. In a Dutch ____________, the auctioneer begins with a high asking price for some quantity of like items; the price is lowered until a participant is willing to accept the auctioneer's price for some quantity of the goods in the lot or until the seller's reserve price is met. In economic theory, an ____________ may refer to any mechanism or set of trading rules for exchange.

A. Assets

B. Auction

C. Autarky

D. Arbitrage

E. Amortisation

69. Direction: A passage with three blanks, followed by five options, each containing one word, is given. Choose the word that can fill all the three blanks. In finance, a __________ is an instrument of indebtedness of the issuer to the holders. The ___________ is a debt security, under which the issuer owes the holders a debt and is obliged to pay them interest (the coupon) or to repay the principal at a later date, termed the maturity date. Interest is usually payable at fixed intervals (semi- annual, annual, sometimes monthly). Very often it is negotiable, that is, the ownership of the instrument can be transferred in the secondary market. This means that once the transfer agents at the bank medallion stamp the same, it is highly liquid on the secondary market. Thus, a __________ is a form of loan or IOU.

A. Brand

B. Stock

C. Bond

D. Barter

E. Bankruptcy

70. Direction: A passage with three blanks, followed by five options, each containing one word, is given. Choose the word that can fill all the three blanks. Emission ____________ are the legal requirements governing air pollutants released into the atmosphere. Emission ___________ set quantitative limits on the permissible amount of specific air pollutants that may be released from specific sources over specific timeframes. They are generally designed to achieve air quality standards and to protect human life. Many emissions ____________ focus on regulating pollutants released by automobiles (motor cars) and other powered vehicles. Others regulate emissions from industry, power plants, small equipment such as lawn mowers and diesel generators, and other sources of air pollution. While this have been used to dictate limits for conventional pollutants such as oxides of nitrogen and oxides of sulphur (NOx and SOx), this regulatory technique may be used to regulate greenhouse gasses, particularly carbon dioxide (CO2). In the US, this is given in pounds of carbon dioxide per megawatt-hour (lbs. CO2/MWhr), and kilograms CO2/MWhr elsewhere.

A. Norms

B. Pollutants

C. Factors

D. Standards

E. Limits

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71. Direction: A passage with three blanks, followed by five options, each containing one word, is given. Choose the word that can fill all the three blanks. The ability of humans to ___________ the landscape and recognize the consequences of doing so puts us in a peculiar position. There are several animals on earth that show this same kind of intelligence. Some animals have extensions to ___________ their environment and some do not. As a species we are assigned the duty to provide and proliferate. Our goal is to achieve stability for ourselves and our kin. However, we also have an obligation to maintain the environment, as we depend on the resources and services it provides. The question then becomes: what is our role in nature? Do we have the right to _________ the land, factory farm animals, and pollute waterways? Or do we have an obligation to reduce our numbers and merely subsist? In order to answer these questions, we must rely on our knowledge of Earth, evolution, and our influence on the environment.

A. Aspects

B. Pollutants

C. Employ

D. Operate

E. Manipulate

72. Direction: A passage with three blanks, followed by five options, each containing one word, is given. Choose the word that can fill all the three blanks.
Modern public administration has taken a leaf not only from the legislature’s book but also from that of the judiciary. Administrative _____________ is the latest addition to the admin istrative techniques. Administrative ____________ means the determination of questions of a judicial or quasi-judicial nature by an administrative department or agency. Like a regular court, administrative bodies hear the parties, sift evidence, and pronounce a decision in cases where legal rights or duties are involved. The main point of difference between administrative _____________ and administration of justice by the courts is that administrative justice is administered by administrative agencies instead of regular courts. The administrative courts follow the principles of natural justice and common good whereas the courts of law follow the settled principles of law and evidence. The administrative courts are manned by officers belonging to the executive branch whereas the judges are the members of the judiciary independent of executive control.

A. Adjudication

B. Division

C. Hearing

D. Service

E. Legislation

73. Direction: In each of the questions given below, a passage has been given which are either situational based or describes a scenario. Below each passage, a question has been given which is framed to make you to infer something out of it. Mark out the correct inference as your answer. A former lawmaker, Rewati Raman Bhandari, who drafted the measure that criminalised chhaupadi, said the push to eradicate the practice from villagers, the police and local politicians was still far too muted. Which of the following describes the reaction of the authorities of towards the eradication of chhaupadi?

A. Subdued

B. Softened

C. Dampened

D. Quite

E. Silenced

74. Direction: In each of the questions given below, a passage has been given which are either situational based or describes a scenario. Below each passage, a question has been given which is framed to make you to infer something out of it. Mark out the correct inference as your answer. India's leading and most popular food delivery start-up, Swiggy landed in a soup on Wednesday, after four people claiming to be current and former employees allegedly revealed fraudulent and unethical means practiced at the company, in a blog post. Which of the following can be said about the allegations?

A. Defragmented

B. Ambiguous

C. Definitive

D. Anecdotal

E. Speculative

75. Direction: In each of the questions given below, a passage has been given which are either situational based or describes a scenario. Below each passage, a question has been given which is framed to make you to infer something out of it. Mark out the correct inference as your answer. Set in the glittering balls of genteel rural society of 18th century England and verdant landscape of the idyllic Pemberley, “Pride and Prejudice” is the story of young Elizabeth Bennett whose property is entailed to the nearest male heir. What can be said about the position of young Elizabeth Bennett in the rural society of 18th century England?

A. Marginal

B. Immaterial

C. Unrelated

D. Extraneous

E. Academic

76. Direction: In the following question, a passage is given which describes a situation. From the given options, mark the correct inference that can be drawn from the passage. If none of the inferences follow, mark option E, “None of these” as the answer. In nearly all human populations a majority of individuals can taste the artificially synthesized chemical phenylthiocarbonide (PTC). However, the percentage varies dramatically-- from as low as 60% in India to as high as 95% in Africa. That this polymorphism is observed in non- human primates as well indicates a long evolutionary history which, although obviously not acting on PTC, might reflect evolutionary selection for taste discrimination of other, more significant bitter substances, such as certain toxic plants.

A. Human beings show the same taste profile as primates.

B. Humans prefers substances that are naturally sweet.

C. Only a minority of the human population have an indeterminant taste profile.

D. A majority of the human population have an indeterminant taste profile.

E. None of these

77. Direction: In the following question, a passage is given which describes a situation. From the given options, mark the correct inference that can be drawn from the passage. If none of the inferences follow, mark option E, “None of these” as the answer. The philosophy of pragmatism goes something like this. The mind is such that it deals only with ideas. It is not possible for the mind to relate to anything other than ideas. Therefore, it is not correct to think that the mind actually can ponder reality. All that the mind can ponder is its ideas about reality. (Whether or not that is the way reality actually is, is a metaphysical issue). Therefore, whether or not something is true is not a matter of how closely it corresponds to the absolute truth, but of how consistent it is with our experience.

A. Our experiences define our concept of reality.

B. Reality is a metaphysical issue.

C. Pragmatism and reality are two sides of the same coin.

D. Our experiences enable us to determine the truth.

E. None of these.

78. Direction: In the question below, there is a word given in bold which is followed by five options. In each of the options, a pair of words is given which is either the pair of synonyms or antonyms or synonym & antonym of the word given in bold. Choose that pair as your answer. Tremulous

A. Stringent, Garrulous

B. Quivery, Steady

C. Conjunctive, Desist

D. Abstain, Defer

E. Terse, Abrupt

79. Direction: In the question below, there is a word given in bold which is followed by five options. In each of the options, a pair of words is given which is either the pair of synonyms or antonyms or synonym & antonym of the word given in bold. Choose that pair as your answer. Histrionic

A. Melodramatic, Theatrical

B. Conscientious, Diligent

C. Tenacious, Retentive

D. Thrive, Tussle

E. Pertinent, Appropriate

80. Direction: In the question below, there is a word given in bold which is followed by five options. In each of the options, a pair of words is given which is either the pair of synonyms or antonyms or synonym & antonym of the word given in bold. Choose that pair as your answer. Nefarious

A. Sloppy, Flurry

B. Unassertive, Ignoble

C. Modest, Subtle

D. Gregarious, Magnanimous

E. Iniquitous, Atrocious

81. Direction: In the question below, there is a word given in bold which is followed by five options. In each of the options, a pair of words is given which is either the pair of synonyms or antonyms or synonym & antonym of the word given in bold. Choose that pair as your answer. Recalcitrant

A. Peculiar, Convivial

B. Amenable, Docile

C. Taciturn, Withering

D. Voluble, Turgid

E. Pendulous, Jocular

82. Direction: In the question below, there is a word given in bold which is followed by five options. In each of the options, a pair of words is given which is either the pair of synonyms or antonyms or synonym & antonym of the word given in bold. Choose that pair as your answer. Zealous

A. Droopy, Gigantic

B. Tenacity, Assiduity

C. Fervent, Apathetic

D. Conceited, Capacious

E. Hilarity, Livid

83. Direction: In the following questions a part of a sentence is given in bold, it is then followed by four sentences which try to explain the meaning of the idiom/phrase given in bold. Choose the alternative from the four given below each question which explains the meaning of the phrase correctly without altering the meaning of the sentence given as question. If none of the sentence explains the meaning of the highlighted phrase, choose option (e) i.e., “None of these” as your answer choice We are used to giving benefit of a doubt to people we are closest to, the ones who we know very well. This comes to us naturally as we know for a fact they are good people; and even more - we know they like/ love us so they wouldn't do anything against us.

A. Since we love and trust our close ones, we often tend to believe them, even when we are not sure what they are saying is true.

B. Given that we are very attached to our relatives, we often try to hide their crimes and cover up for their lies.

C. Since humans are inherently doubting, there is a tendency to be sceptic about anyone.

D. Humans have nepotism ingrained in them, which means that they would favour only their relatives over and above a fool proof evidence against them.

E. None of these

84. Direction: In the following questions a part of a sentence is given in bold, it is then followed by four sentences which try to explain the meaning of the idiom/phrase given in bold. Choose the alternative from the four given below each question which explains the meaning of the phrase correctly without altering the meaning of the sentence given as question. If none of the sentence explains the meaning of the highlighted phrase, choose option (e) i.e., “None of these” as your answer choice At the start of his presentation, it seemed that he’s out of his mind, but when he finished, we saw that there’s method in his madness.

A. After the presentation, we realised that he deliberately chose to be vague and absurd.

B. Though his presentation appeared a little absurd in the beginning, weultimately found out that he had a rational purpose behind it 

C. There was a stark difference between what he started with and how he concluded his presentation.

D. Since he was not completely in his senses, he presented in an awkward manner.

E. None of these

85. Direction: In the following questions a part of a sentence is given in bold, it is then followed by four sentences which try to explain the meaning of the idiom/phrase given in bold. Choose the alternative from the four given below each question which explains the meaning of the phrase correctly without altering the meaning of the sentence given as question. If none of the sentence explains the meaning of the highlighted phrase, choose option (e) i.e., “None of these” as your answer choice I wouldn't be caught dead wearing an outfit like that – it's like something my grandmother would also not wear!

A. Though the outfit is classy, the speaker does not prefer wearing it.

B. The speaker finds wearing the dress very shameful as people would disapprove of it.

C. The speaker dislikes wearing the particular outfit.

D. Wearing the particular outfit wouldn’t be a great deal as it will not kill her.

E. None of these

Directions (86-90): Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Over the past few years, the popularity of online social networks (OSNs) such as Facebook, Twitter, and Orkut have grown tremendously. OSNs are built on real-world social relationships and provide their users with a wide variety of virtual-interaction mechanisms. As OSNs have become critical online communication platforms integrated into society’s daily life, the security risks accompanying such developments have raised concerns in industry, academia, and government. Users provide an astonishing amount of personal information voluntarily, and OSN service providers store this information. Ralph Gross and Alessandro Acquits studied the Facebook users in the Carnegie Mellon University network and discovered that 90.8 percent of users uploaded their images, 87.8 percent revealed their birth dates, 39.9 percent shared their phone numbers, and 50.8 percent listed their current addresses. Such an abundance of readily available personal information makes privacy breach a unique angle of attack in OSNs. Three primary parties interact with one another in an OSN: the service provider, the users, and third-party applications. Because OSNs are formed by real people, they are tempting targets for viral marketing, which has therefore easily invaded them. The public perception that OSNs encompass friends, family, and acquaintances makes users prone to trust messages they receive in OSNs. In addition, aided with the information extracted from user profiles, spammers can often exploit social-engineering tricks to enhance viral marketing’s effectiveness. A phishing attack targets OSN users’ confidential information (OSN account credentials, email address, online banking, and so on). If it targets OSN account credentials, such an attack is usually combined with spamming to complete the viral-marketing process. Plausible defence mechanisms for phishing attacks are mostly on the client side, given the voluntary nature of users’ sharing their confidential information. Digitally signed emails can prevent spoofed email messages from fooling recipients; browser toolbars can also alert users when they’re prompted for usernames and passwords at suspicious sites. OSNs are playing an increasingly important role in the Internet community today. Their future development hinges on their ability to deliver enjoyable services without undermining users’ information security. 86. Which of the following statements can be correctly inferred from the passage?
I. If you receive friend requests from strangers, it's best to stay away.
II. Viruses and malware often find their way onto your computer through those annoying, but sometimes enticing ads.
III. Once an account has been compromised, it is best to presume all your passwords are compromised.

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Only III

D. Both I and II

E. Both II and III

87. Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to the passage?

A. The number of users of the online social networks like Facebook, twitter, google, LinkedIn are going on increasing tremendously.

B. To become member of the OSN the user has to create his profile by entering information like name, photo, date of birth, Email ID, place of work, home town and so on.

C. Spam is abuse of electronic messaging systems to send unsolicited bulk messages indiscriminately.

D. To avoid such malicious access, it is necessary to be careful while selecting security settings for various fields in the profile.

E. Whenever a user accepts friend request it is assumed that he is having distrust in that user so such access is not provided.

88. On what does the future development of OSNs depend?

A. The ability to provide enjoyable services without compromising user security.

B. The ability to provide cashless entertainment on the go.

C. The ability to provide high level security features to those users who can pay for the same.

D. The ability to provide free downloadable music as a way to stop music piracy.

E. The ability to provide wireless entertainment without comprising the speed and efficiency of the servers.

89. Which of the following options is a good way of preventing spoofed email messages from fooling recipients?

A. Link to another established account

B. Digitally signed emails

C. Network rerouting techniques

D. Automatic resend to the spam folder

E. Digitally verified emails

90. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title of the passage?

A. Online security breaches

B. Common security problems

C. Security issues in online social networks

D. Connecting with strangers online

E. Zendesk, Facebook and more

91. Which of the following day National Statistics Day (NSD) has been celebrated in India?

A. 15th May

B. 10th June

C. 27th June

D. 29th June

E. None of these

92. Which of the following countries have won a united bid to host the 23rd FIFA World Cup 2026?

A. Brazil, France and Argentina

B. Brazil, Mexico and Spain

C. Spain, Portugal and Germany

D. US, Mexico and Canada

E. UK, Germany and France

93. Which of the following Indian payment and commerce company has launched the first wealth management product ‘Digital Gold’?

A. DirecPay

B. BHIM

C. PayU India

D. Paytm

E. None of these

94. Veteran journalist Shujaat Bukhari who was shot dead was the editor of which of the following newspaper?

A. Jehlum Post

B. Kashmir Observer

C. Kashmir Life

D. Rising Kashmir

E. None of these

95. LRS is a facility provided by the Reserve Bank of India for all the resident individuals to freely remit a certain amount in terms of US dollar every financial year for a permissible set of current or capital account transactions. Here ‘LRS’ stands for ____.

A. Liquidity Remittance Scheme

B. Liberalised Remittance Scheme

C. Liberalised Remittance Source

D. Liberalised Revenue Scheme

E. Liberalised Revenue Source

96. The Headquarter of The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is located in?

A. Beijing

B. Shanghai

C. Xinijiang

D. Hong Kong

E. Xian

97. The 2018 ASEAN India Film Festival was held in which of the following cities?

A. Lucknow

B. New Delhi

C. Pune

D. Gurugram

E. Mumbai

98. Which of the following telecommunication will acquire the business of Telenor India for an undisclosed sum in all seven circles?

A. BSNL

B. Tata Docomo

C. Bharti Airtel

D. MTS India

E. None of these

99. India’s first national sports university is to be set in which Indian state?

A. Bihar

B. Punjab

C. Assam

D. Manipur

E. Uttar Pradesh

100. Which state government along with WWF-India conducted the first organized census for the conservation of Indus dolphins on their population?

A. Maharashtra

B. Kerala

C. Punjab

D. Odisha

E. Rajasthan

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