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(Notification) BOI : Recruitment of Officers upto Scale IV Project No. 2021-22/3

(Notification) BOI : Recruitment of Officers upto Scale IV Project No. 2021-22/3

Details of the Post/Vacancies/Reservations:

 

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Paper II (B) - 2015 "English"



RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Paper II (B) - 2015

ENGLISH



Q. 1. Write an essay of about 400 words on any one of the following topics:   50 marks

a. How can India gain from China’s stock market crisis   ?
b. India’s GDP growth will keep rising in the next five years.
c. Tolerance should be the new Religion!
d. Indian economy needs Capital   Investment.
e. Man is responsible for Climatic disasters. 

Q.  2. Make a précis of the following passage in about 140 words and give it a suitable title. 50 marks  

A committee set up by the government to review the international competitiveness of the Indian financial sector has flagged capital controls, mistakes in financial sector regulation and taxation as primary reasons for loss to offshore markets.
The finance ministry has sought comments on the first report submitted by a standing council set up by the UPA government. 
"The Report has recommended phasing of the reform process into short-term actions, medium-term goals and long-term goals and clearly indicates the implementing agencies for them," the finance ministry said releasing the report for public comments. 
The standing council is headed by the secretary, department of economic affairs and apart from the chief economic advisor has ten outside experts including SBI chairperson Arundhati Bhattacharya, managing director of UTI Mutual Fund Leo Puri and Ravi Narain, former MD & present Vice chairman, NSE. 
The finance ministry has called for comments by October 6 and the government will thereafter take a view of the recommendations.
This committee has identified five reasons for corrective action to develop Indian finance so that it does not lose any further ground to offshore markets, noting that there has been a  sharp rise in overseas financial activities on Indian assets, especially derivatives on the rupee and the market index, Nifty 
"An active market for these has developed offshore," the report says estimating $20 billion daily turnover in these assets, market that should come to onshore in India for the reasons identified. 
Most importantly, financial services is a labour and technology intensive business and these can allow India to be globally competitive in financial services.It has identified a Bond- Currency- Derivatives nexus for a more effective monetary policy mechanism in India and for that reason too Indian finance needs to develop. "If India is able to regain market share  within the onshore market, and if the Bond-Currency Derivatives Nexus evolves locally, the  central bank will become more effective with a strong monetary policy transmission that is able to help counteract business cycle fluctuations," the report notes. 
"From the viewpoint of a global customer, sending an order to (say) the CME in the US or the Singapore Exchange (SGX) is frictionless," the committee notes why these offshore centres have managed to trade Indian assets in a big way.  
"For India to compete in the new globalised world of finance, our markets must match these competitor markets in three respects: rationalise and ultimately remove capital controls, achieve technically sound financial regulation, and shift to residence-based taxation," the committee suggests flagging KYC contents and its implementation as a typical irritant. 
 (The Economic Times, September 8, 2015)

Courtesy: RBI

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IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Paper II - 2015 "English"



RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Paper II - 2015

ENGLISH



Q. 1. Write an essay of about 400 words on any one of the following topics:  50 marks 

a. Government’s Gold related   Schemes.
b. Will China’s Downturn help India?
c. Is Progress possible without Peace?
d. India needs bold Capital Investment.
e. Climatic Catastrophes are due to Man’s wild constructions. 

Q. 2. Make a précis of the following passage in about 110 words and give it a suitable title.   50 marks    

The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) will start working closely with banks to kick-start the government's Start-Up India initiative in both rural and urban India. Commerce and Industry Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said the government would ensure that startups don't run out of money and that their equity requirements don't go unattended. The minister was talking to the media on the sidelines of a FICCI event. 

The department is spearheading the Start-Up India initiative announced by Prime  Minister Narendra Modi in his Independence Day address. Sitharaman said DIPP would work with banks across the country, espcially in rural areas. "If each of these (bank) branches gives tribal or Dalit population something to start up with, it would take the whole startup and innovate India (initiative) thought to district level," she said.

DIPP is also working on ways to reach out to the urban educated and the deprived section of the society to build entrepreneurship. "All over the country, youngsters are coming up with ideas of entrepreneurship. They don't have time to wait, we don't have time to lose," Sitharaman said. The commerce minister said there is a need for greater participation of  industry in driving ahead the movement of Skill India.

"India needs an ecosystem where talent and skills can be nurtured. Through our. `10,000 crore fund of fund for startups, we will provide soft loans, capital to those who want to start fresh enterprises," she said.

The skill development and entrepreneurship ministry currently offers certified training in 31 different sectors under the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana. Sitharaman, in another event organised by the Confederation of Indian Industry, said India, which ranked 142 in the  World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business' index, is likely to fare better this year as the government has taken several steps to improve the standing. 

(The Economic Times – September 11, 2015) 

Courtesy: RBI

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IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Phase I - 2015

RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Phase I - 2015

1. Who amongst the following has recently been appointed as the first male member of the National Commission for Women (NCW)?

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Jobs: 
Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Phase I - 2018

RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Phase I - 2018

Direction (1-6): In the following passage, there are blanks, each followed by a word given in bold.

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Jobs: 
Bank/Organisation: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Phase I - 2019

RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Phase I - 2019

Direction (1 – 5) : Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given below:

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Jobs: 
Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(FAQ) What is FATCA/CRS in Banking

FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS- FATCA/CRS

1. What is FATCA?

The Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) is tax information reporting regime, which requires Financial Institutions (FIs) to identify their U.S. accounts through enhanced due diligence reviews and report them periodically to the U.S. Internal Revenue Service (IRS) or in case of Inter-Governmental agreement(IGA), to appropriate government authority.

2. What is CRS?

(Notification) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) : Officer in Grade-B Recruitment 2022



(Notification) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) : Officer in Grade-B Recruitment 2022



Important Dates:

  • Starting Date – 28-March-2022
Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Download) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Assistant Question Paper 2014

(Download) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Assistant Question Paper 2014

Section1: General Awareness 

Economy: Budget 2014 related

(Download) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Assistant Question Paper 2016

(Download) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Assistant Question Paper 2016

Direction (1–5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

(Download) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Assistant Question Paper 2017

(Download) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Assistant Question Paper 2017

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

(Download) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Assistant Question Paper 2020

(Download) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Assistant Question Paper 2020

Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Jobs: 
Bank/Organisation: 

Telangana State Co-Operative Apex Bank Ltd. (TSCAB) : Staff Assistant and Assistant Manager Recruitment 2022

Telangana State Co-Operative Apex Bank Ltd. (TSCAB) : Staff Assistant and Assistant Manager Recruitment 2022

Applications are invited for Appointment to the posts of ‘Assistant Manager’ in The Adilabad District Cooperative Central Bank Ltd., Adilabad.

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Notification) Recruitment of Officer Grade A (Assistant Manager) at SEBI - 2022



(Notification) Recruitment of Officer Grade A (Assistant Manager) at SEBI - 2022



SEBI invites applications from Indian citizens for the post of Officer Grade A (Assistant Manager) for the General Stream, Legal Stream, Information Technology Stream, Engineering Stream, Research Stream and Official Language Stream. SEBI reserves the right to fill up the posts or not to fill up the posts at all.

Post Details Education Qualification :

Stream

Number of posts

Out of which PwBD**

Educational Qualification

UR

OBC@

SC

ST

EWS$

Total

General

32

22

12

6

8

80

1 (Autism/ intellectual disability/ specific learning disability/mental illness) *

1 (D & HH)

1 (B & LV)

2 (Autism/ intellectual disability/ specific learning disability/mental illness)

Master’s    Degree    in    any discipline, Bachelors’ Degree in Law, Bachelors’ Degree in Engineering from a recognized university, CA / CFA / CS / Cost Accountant.

Stream

Number of posts

Out of which PwBD**

Educational Qualification

UR

OBC@

SC

ST

EWS$

Total

 

Legal

 

12

4*

2*

 

2

NA

6*

1 (B & LV)*

1 (B & LV)

Bachelor’s  Degree  in  Law from a recognized University / Institute.

8

4

2

28

Information Technology

 

 

8

3*

1*

1*

NA

5*

1 (D & HH)*

1 (LV)*

Bachelor’s Degree in Engineering (Electrical / Electronics / Electronics And Communication / Information Technology / Computer Science) OR Masters in Computers  Application  OR

Bachelor’s Degree in any discipline with a post graduate qualification (minimum 2 years duration) in Computers / Information Technology.

5

2

1

1

17

Engineering (Civil)

0

0

1*

0

NA

1*

1 (D & HH)*

Bachelor’s  Degree  in  Civil Engineering from a recognized University / Institute.

Engineering (Electrical)

2

1

1*

 

0

NA

1*

1 (D & HH)*

Bachelor’s Degree in Electrical Engineering from a recognized University / Institute.

0

0

3

Research

3

1

 

0

1*

NA

1*

1 (D & HH)

Master’s Degree in Statistics /  Economics /  Commerce / Business Administration (Finance) / Econometrics from a recognized University / Institute.

0

0

4

Official Language

1

0

0

0

0

1

1 (HH)*

Master’s Degree in Hindi with English  as  one  of  the subjects  at  Bachelor’s Degree level or Master’s Degree in Sanskrit / English / Economics / Commerce with Hindi as a subject at Bachelor’s Degree level from a recognized University / Institute.

* Indicates backlog vacancies.
@ Candidates belonging to OBC category but coming in the 'Creamy Layer' are not entitled to OBC reservation.
$ Reservations for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) in recruitment is governed by Office Memorandum No.36039/1/2019-Estt(Res) dated 31.01.2019 of Department of Personnel & Training, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions, Government of India.

Age Limit (as on 29/02/2020):

  • A candidate must not have exceeded the age of 30 years as on February 29, 2020 i.e., candidate must have been born on or after March 01, 1990.
Jobs: 
Bank/Organisation: 

SBI PO (Prelims) Exam Paper - 2017 "Reasoning Ability"

SBI PO (Prelims) Exam Paper - 2017 "Reasoning Ability"

Direction (66-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the question based on it.
8 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H have their birthdays on 14th and 21st of four different months, January, March, April and June not necessarily in the same order. A has birthday on even date and a month which having 31 days. Number of persons between C and F is same as the number of persons between B and H. H’s birthday is neither on even number date nor in a month which having 31 days. B is not born after H. C is born before F and B, who is not born in January. D is not born in June. F was born on even number date. D’s birthday is on odd number date and a month which having 31 days. B and H were not born in the same month. E was born after F. D is born before G.

66. How many persons born after F?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

67. Who among the following is not born in the month having 30 days?

A. F

B. D

C. B

D. H

E. E

68. Who among the following does not belongs to the group?

A. A

B. D

C. G

D. B

E. H

69. How many persons have birthday between D and E?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

70. Who among the following in not born before F?

A. A

B. D

C. C

D. H

E. G

Directions (71-73): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely true.
71. Statements: A > B = C < D < E > F
Conclusions:

I. F < C
II. A>D

A. If only Conclusion I is true.

B. If only Conclusion II is true.

C. If either Conclusion I or II is true.

D. If neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

E. If both Conclusions I and II are true.

72. Statements: A < B > C > D; A > E, D > F
Conclusions:
I. F > B
II. B > E

A. If only Conclusion I is true.

B. If only Conclusion II is true.

C. If either Conclusion I or II is true.

D. If neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

E. If both Conclusions I and II are true.

73. Statements: A = B < C > D; E > C < F
Conclusions:
I. E > A
II. F > D

A. If only Conclusion I is true.

B. If only Conclusion II is true.

C. If either Conclusion I or II is true.

D. If neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

E. If both Conclusions I and II are true.

74. Which of the following symbols should replace the sign ($) and (#) in the given expression in order to make the expression S > J and M ≥ J is definitely true?
S ≥ T $ P > K ≤ N, O < M = K # J > L

A. =, <

B. >, ≤

C. <, ≥

D. <, ≤

E. >, ≥

75. Which of the following symbols should replace the $ and # in the given expression in order to make the expression L ≥ S and N > T is definitely true?
N > O ≤ L = P $ T, H > M ≤ T # S < N

A. >, <

B. ≥, ≤

C. >, =

D. <, ≤

E. >, ≥

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Direction (76-80): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a straight line and facing north direction. Their ages are, 12, 14, 18, 26, 29, 35 ,42 and 67. The one who is 12 years old is 4 th to the left of the eldest person, who is sitting at the end. The sum of the ages of S and Q is equal to P. S is not the youngest person. S and W are neighbours of Q. R’s age is not an even number and he is older than W and younger than U. Only 3 persons are sitting between S and U. Only 2 persons are sitting between Q and T, who is 29 years old. P is not the neighbour of U. R is not sitting to the left of Q.

76. Who among the following sits at the end?

A. T

B. P

C. Q

D. S

E. W

77. Who among the following sits third to the left of W?

A. S

B. The one who is 12 years old

C. The one who is 26 years old

D. T

E. U

78. Which of the following pair is neighbour of U?

A. R and W

B. S and P

C. W and V

D. R and V

E. Q and R

79. Who among the following is 14 years old?

A. P

B. Q

C. R

D. U

E. S

80. How many persons are younger than W?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. None

81. Direction: If 1 number is added in even digit in the given number 9458732 and 2 is subtracted in odd digit, then how many digit is repeated in the newly formed number?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

82. In a certain code language ‘green grass everywhere’ is written as ‘dik pa sok’ and ‘cow eats grass’ is written as ‘nok ta pa’. How is ‘cow’ written in that code language?

A. nok

B. ta

C. nok or ta

D. Data inadequate

E. None of these

Direction (83-85): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Each of the six students got different marks in an exam. D got less marks than only B. E got more marks than only two students. A didn’t get less marks than E. C did not get least marks. The one who got second lowest, got 160 marks. A got 205 marks. 83. The one who got maximum marks, got 100 marks more than C. Which of the following mark is got by one who got maximum marks?

A. 225

B. 270

C. 260

D. 300

E. None of these

84. Which of the following is true with respect to F as per the given information?

A. The possible marks, got by F is 165

B. F got minimum marks.

C. Only two students got more marks than F

D. F definitely got more marks than C

E. None of these

85. Which of the following may be the possible number of marks which E got?

A. 210

B. 140

C. 185

D. 159

E. None of these

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Direction (86-90): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:
There are eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. They are born in the month (Same for each person) of different years i.e. 1976, 1980, 1982, 1990, 1991, 1995, 2000 and 2005. There ages are considered as on the same month of 2017. B is born in odd number year but he is not the youngest. E is 37 years old now. C was born in 1990. G is at least 9 years older than B. D is younger than B and born in odd number year. A is 18 years younger than G. F is older than D but not the older person. Not more than 2 persons are younger than F.

86. Who among the following is youngest person?

A. A

B. C

C. D

D. B

E. G

87. How many persons are older than C?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 1

D. None

E. more than 3

88. What is the difference of age between F and E?

A. 15 years

B. 10 years

C. 30 years

D. 4 years

E. 12 years

89. If all the persons are arranged according to their names according to alphabet series from youngest to oldest then how many of them position will remain unchanged?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

E. 4

90. Who among the following is born in 1982?

A. D

B. G

C. A

D. C

E. H

Direction (91-96): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G attends seminar on different dates starting from 21st June to 27th June but not necessarily in the same order. They like different brands laptop, Lenovo, Dell, Apple, Sony, Samsung, Asus, and HP. They have different brands of watch, Sonata, Rolex, Titan, Maxima, Casio, Fossil and Diesel. The one who has Diesel attends a seminar on an even numbered date. E has Rolex and F doesn’t have Maxima. G attends the seminar on the last day. The one who has Diesel likes either Apple or Asus laptop. A has Titan but he doesn’t like HP and is not attend the seminar just before or just after B. F likes Dell and attends the seminar three days before the one who likes Samsung. D neither likes Samsung nor Asus laptop. The one who likes HP attends the seminar on 25th June. B likes Sony wearing also have Sonata watch and not attends the seminar just before or just after F, who attends the seminar on an odd numbered date. The one who likes Apple neither has Casio nor Maxima. B attends the seminar just before D and none of them likes HP. The one who has Casio attends the seminar on the 2nd day.

91. Who among the following attends the seminar on 3rd day?

A. D

B. The one who likes Dell

C. C

D. The one who has Diesel

E. The one who likes Samsung

92. Which of the following is correct combination for D?

A. Lenovo-Casio

B. Dell-Sonata

C. Samsung-Rolex

D. Sony-Fossil

E. HP-Rolex

93. How many persons attend the seminar between the one who likes Samsung and the one who has Fossil?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

E. 4

94. If all the persons rearranged according to their names (alphabetically) from the starting date then who among the following likes Apple?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

95. Which of the following combination is correct?

A. D-Lenovo-Fossil

B. E-HP-Titan

C. A-Sony-Maxima

D. F-Dell-Diesel

E. A-Samsung-Titan

96. ‘B’ is related to ‘Dell’ and ‘F’ is related to ‘Rolex’ in the same way then who among the following is related to ‘Maxima’?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

Directions (97-98): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
* D is the mother of E, who is the sister of F.
* A is the father of C. B is wife of A.
* F is son of C.
97. How is E related to A?

A. Son

B. Grandson

C. Granddaughter

D. Daughter

E. None of these

98. How is B related to D?

A. Mother-in-law

B. Sister

C. Mother

D. Can’t be determined

E. None of these

Directions (99-100): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Rahul starts running from point A and runs 15 km towards south. He takes a left turn and runs 20 km. Now he runs 9 km after taking a right turn. He finally takes a right turn and runs 20 km and stops at point B.

99. How far is point B with respect to point A?

A. 24 km

B. 40 km

C. 45 km

D. 29 km

E. 49 km

100. Towards which directions was Rahul moving before he stopped at point B?

A. North

B. East

C. West

D. South

E. North-West

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

SBI PO (Prelims) Exam Paper - 2017 "Quantitative Aptitude"

SBI PO (Prelims) Exam Paper - 2017 "Quantitative Aptitude"

31. I.2x2-7x+6=0
II.y2-3y+2=0

A. x < y

B. x > y

C. x ≤ y

D. x ≥ y

E. x = y or no relation can be established.

32. I.3x2+4x+1=0
II.y2+5y+6=0

A. x < y

B. x > y

C. x ≤ y

D. x ≥ y

E. x = y or no relation can be established.

33. I.2x2+5x+2=0
II.y2+9y+20=0

A. x < y

B. x > y

C. x ≤ y

D. x ≥ y

E. x = y or no relation can be established.

34. I. x2-7x+10=0
II. y2-12y+35=0

A. x < y

B. x > y

C. x ≤ y

D. x ≥ y

E. x = y or no relation can be established.

35. I. (x-12)2=0
II. y2 = 144

A. x < y

B. x > y

C. x ≤ y

D. x ≥ y

E. x = y or no relation can be established.

36. Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
14, 8, 9, 14.5, 30, ?

A. 72

B. 73

C. 74

D. 75

E. 76

37. Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
77, 85, 69, 101, 37, ?

A. 105

B. 125

C. 145

D. 165

E. 185

38. In the following number series, one number is missing. What should come at the place of missing number (?)
20, 29, 54, 103, 184, ?

A. 301

B. 302

C. 303

D. 304

E. 305

39. Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
7, 8, 18, 57, ?, 1165

A. 212

B. 217

C. 232

D. 247

E. 275

40. Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
5, 7, 18, 47, 103, ?

A. 155

B. 175

C. 195

D. 215

E. 235

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

SBI PO (Main) Exam Paper - 2017 "General/Economy/Banking Awareness"

SBI PO (Main) Exam Paper - 2017 "General/Economy/Banking Awareness"

1. Recently, RBI revised PCA framework for banks. Here PCA stands for-

A. Prompt Clear Action

B. Primary Corrective Action

C. Primary Corporate action

D. Prompt Corrective Action

E. None of the above

2. Which bank has launched ‘Mingle’?

A. SBI

B. ICICI

C. PNB

D. Axis

E. BOB

3. RBI has said in a notification that all existing asset reconstructions companies (ARC) must have minimum net owned corpus of how much amount by March 2019?

A. Rs. 500 crores

B. Rs. 100 crores

C. Rs. 200 crores

D. Rs. 400 crores

E. None of these

4. In the year 2017, the Indian government has revised base year of which of the following indices?

A. CPI

B. WPI

C. IIP

D. b and c only

E. All the above

5. How much fiscal deficit target in terms of GDP percent, fixed by government for financial year 2018?

A. 4.2 Percent

B. 3.7 percent

C. 3.2 Percent

D. 2.9 Percent

E. 2.7 percent

6. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) constituted Technical Committee Under _______ to give recommendations for layingdown Technical Standards for performance of core services and other services under IBBI  (Information Utilities) Regulations 2017.

A. Dinesh Sharma

B. Asim Dasgupta

C. R B Barman

D. Sushil Mitra

E. None of the above

7. Recently IMF revised India’s GDP growth rate forecast from earlier estimated 7.2 Percent to ______.

A. 7 Percent

B. 6.9 Percent

C. 6.8 Percent

D. 6.7 Percent

E. 6.5 Percent

8. Which of the following country hosted the 14th Edition of United Nations International Day of Vesak 2017?

A. Greece

B. France

C. Belgium

D. Sri Lanka

E. None of these

9. Which of the following country has topped in the World Economic Freedom (WEF) Index 2016?

A. Belgium

B. Algeria

C. Hong Kong

D. Switzerland

E. None of these

10. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) tightened the rules around making the JLF more effective, directing banks not to break any rules and to meet all deadlines. Here JLF stands for-

A. Joint Lending Firms

B. Joint Lending Forum

C. Joint Lender’s Forum

D. Joint liability Forum

E. Joint litigation Forum

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Printed Study Material for SBI PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 

SBI PO (Prelims) Exam Paper - 2018 "Reasoning Ability"

SBI PO (Prelims) Exam Paper - 2018 "Reasoning Ability"

Direction (31-35): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : 30 69 20 96 50 56 76 19
Step I : 20 30 69 96 50 56 76 21
Step II : 31 20 69 96 56 76 21 51
Step III : 57 31 20 96 76 21 51 70
Step IV : 77 57 31 20 21 51 70 97
and Step IV is the last step of the rearrangement the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input given below:
Input: 50 17 85 34 88 55 11 92 10 78

31. How many steps will be needed to complete the arrangement?

A. Five

B. Six

C. Four

D. Seven

E. None of these

32. Which of the following would be Step IV?

A. 79 50 18 11 88 92 12 35 56 86

B. 79 51 18 10 88 92 12 35 56 86

C. 79 51 18 11 88 92 12 35 56 86

D. 79 51 18 11 87 92 12 35 56 86

E. None of these

33. In Step V, which of the following number would be at 6th position from the right?

A. 88

B. 92

C. 11

D. 12

E. 17

34. Which of the following would be the final arrangement?

A. 89 79 51 18 11 12 35 55 86 93

B. 89 79 51 18 11 12 35 56 86 93

C. 89 79 51 18 11 12 34 56 86 93

D. 89 79 51 18 10 12 35 56 86 93

E. None of these

35. What will be the position of '92' in step IV?

A. Fifth from the left

B. Eight from the left

C. Fifth from the right

D. Sixth from the right

E. None of these

Direction (36-40): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions.
In a certain code language, 'business is easy to do' is written as 'pa ro se yo ze', 'business arise difficulty in life' is written as 'lo fe pa so te', 'life is easy' is written as 'so ro yo', 'difficulty to do work' is written as 'se lo ze me' and 'easy business life' is written as 'pa yo so'.

36. What may be the possible code for 'difficulty arise in business'?

A. lo, te, fe, pa

B. lo, te, so, pa

C. lo, so, pa, yo

D. te, lo, me, so

E. lo, fe, pa, ro

37. What may be the possible code for 'life is complicated' in the given code language?

A. so ro fe

B. so pa ro

C. ze pa ro

D. so fa ro

E. None of these

38. What is the code for 'arise' in the given code language?

A. fe

B. te

C. lo

D. pa

E. Either 'fe' or 'te'

39. What is the code for 'difficulty' in the given code language?

A. pa B. lo

C. so D. te

E. yo

40. What is the code for 'do' in the given code language?

A. se

B. ze

C. ro

D. pa

E. Either 'se' or 'ze'

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SBI PO (Prelims) Exam Paper - 2018 "Quantitative Aptitude"

SBI PO (Prelims) Exam Paper - 2018 "Quantitative Aptitude"

66. Directions: Find out the wrong no. in the following series?
59, 60, 61,64 ,79 ,185 ,1129

A. 185

B. 61

C. 60

D. 1129

E. 79

67. Directions: Find out the wrong no. in the following series?
330, 80, 280, 120, 250, 130, 240

A. 330

B. 130

C. 240

D. 120

E. 250

68. Directions: Find out the wrong no. in the following series?
291, 147, 75, 39, 22,12,7.5

A. 39

B. 147

C. 22

D. 7.5

E. 291

69. Directions: Find out the wrong no. in the following series?
1, 3, 9, 31, 129, 652

A. 1

B. 3

C. 652

D. 31

E. 129

70. Directions: Find out the wrong no. in the following series?
26, 27, 34, 58, 106, 186, 306

A. 27

B. 34

C. 186

D. 106

E. 306

Directions (71-75): Bar graph given below shows pens sold by a retailor on five different days. Study the data carefully and answer the following questions.
Pen sold on different days

71. Out of total pens sold on Tuesday ratio between total defective pens sold to total pens sold is 7: 15. Find total number of non - defective pens sold on Tuesday by retailer?

A. 40

B. 15

C. 60

D. 45

E. 90

72. Total number of pens sold on Saturday is 40% more than total number of pens sold on Wednesday. Find total number of pens sold on Friday and Saturday together?

A. 92

B. 122

C. 172

D. 125

E. 105

73. Find the difference between total number of pens sold on Monday and Tuesday together to total number of pens sold on Thursday and Friday together?

A. 25

B. 40

C. 5

D. 22

E. 10

74. Total number of pens sold on Tuesday is 25% more than total number of pens sold on Sunday. Find total of pens sold on Sunday?

A. 72

B. 60

C. 94

D. 43

E. 75

75. Out of the total pens sold on Thursday,20% are blue ink pen. Out of remaining 25% are red ink pen and remaining are black in pen. Find total number of blue and black in pen. Find total no. of blue and black ink pen sold on Thursday?

A. 36

B. 46

C. 56

D. 66

E. 55

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SBI PO (Prelims) Exam Paper - 2018 "English Language"

SBI PO (Prelims) Exam Paper - 2018 "English Language"

1. Direction: In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the option as your answer.
I. A) Most farmers depend on

B) It is important to plan recruitments in advance
C) As the city has experienced a continuous downpour
II. D) for the past two days, the condition of the roads has deteriorated.
E) a rather than waiting until a vacancy occurs.
F) urban markets to secure their livelihoods

A. B-E and C-F

B. A-E, B-F and C-D

C. A-F and C-D

D. B-F

E. A-E and C-F

2. Direction: In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the option as your answer.
I. A) What you see typically in a workplace is that
B) You may be well equipped to go for an excursion
C) More often than not it is the PR that is responsible
II. D) but that doesn’t safeguard from all possible hurdles in your journey.
E) only a fewer people shoulder most responsibilities.
F) for the image and valued of a celebrity

A. B-D

B. A-E and C-F

C. CE

D. A-E, B-F and C-D

E. C- D and A- F

3. Direction: In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the option as your answer.
3. I. A) Determining and planning your staff needs
B) The study documents the impacts of corruption
C) Acquiring quality certificates and patents is
II. D) is crucial for run the department effectively.
E) a must for business in order for them to safeguard their products.
F) for both smaller and larger sized firms.

A. B-F and C-E

B. A-D and C-D

C. C-D and A-F

D. C-E

E. B- D

4. Direction: In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the option as your answer.
I. A) A skilled supervisor is an effective communicator
B) The fundamental right to asylum for
C) They had long suspected the existence of a neutral atomic
II. D) particles, the neutron, which James Chadwick found in 1932.
E) problem- solving and employee motivating
F) for the politically persecuted knows no upper limit.

A. A-E and B-D

B. A-F, A-E and B- D

C. B-F

D. C- D

E. C-D and B-F

5. Direction: The given sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of the sentences from among the five given choices to construct a coherent paragraph keeping 1 as the first statement

1. Worthless currency is not necessarily useless.
A. It can be a pointed way of shaming someone who asks for a bribe.
B. The members of the 5th pillar, the group which founded the anti-bribery campaign that launched the notes, calls them a non-violent weapon of non-co-operation.
C. They look roughly like 50 rupee notes and people are encouraged to hand them to corrupt officials, signalling resistance to sleaze.
D. That is the thinking behind zero rupee notes, an anti-corruption Indian gimmick now attracting worldwide interest.

A. BDAC

B. ADCB

C. CDAB

D. DABC

E. ACDB

6. Direction: The given sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of the sentences from among the five given choices to construct a coherent paragraph keeping 1 as the first statement
1. Besides the loss of life, infrastructure destruction is by far the most obvious type of damage that comes to mind when we think about natural disasters.
A. Reuters reported that after a series of earthquakes hit Japan, factories for manufacturers like Sony, Honda, and Toyota were closed.
B. Thus, one of the biggest problems for areas affected by natural disasters is business disruption.
C. In today's increasingly interconnected economy, the economic fallout from a natural disaster is rarely relegated to the geographic area that it hits; in fact, even natural disasters that take place thousands of miles away can shake up your portfolio here at home.
D. With road, communication infrastructure, and building damage common after sizable disasters, it's not uncommon for local businesses to be shut down for some time after the aftershocks settle.

A. ABDC

B. BDAC

C. ACDB

D. DBAC

E. BACD

7. Direction: The given sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of the sentences from among the five given choices to construct a coherent paragraph keeping 1 as the first statement
1. One of the traditional arguments for a free market economy is that it provides businesses with a tangible incentive to offer goods and services that people want.
A. Such a system, they say, necessarily creates clear winners and loser
B. That is, firms that successfully respond to the needs of the consumer get rewarded with higher profits.
C. This is because the means of production are in private hands and those who own them not only accumulate a disproportionate share of wealth but have the power to suppress the rights of those they employ.
D. Nevertheless, some economists and political philosophers have contended that the capitalist model is inherently flawed.

A. BDAC

B. BCAD

C. DCAB

D. DBCA

E. BCDA

8. Direction: The given sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of the sentences from among the five given choices to construct a coherent paragraph keeping 1 as the first statement
1. Science merely reflects the social forces by which it is surrounded and hence it is war and not science which is considered as the enemy of mankind.
A. Our main problem, therefore, is not to curb science, but to stop war, to substitute law for force and international governments for anarchy in the relations between nations.
B. It is found that there is peace, science is constructive; when there is war science is perverted to destructive ends.
C. Until now, they have brought us to the doorstep of doom.
D. The weapon which science gives us do not necessarily create war, these make war increasingly more terrible.

A. ADBC

B. BADC

C. CDAB

D. DABC

E. BDCA

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SBI PO (Main) Exam Paper - 2018 "Data Analysis & Interpretation"

SBI PO (Main) Exam Paper - 2018 "Data Analysis & Interpretation"

81. Direction: Read the following Caselet and answer the questions:
There are three 3 types of stores namely retail, online and door to door and certain number of people were working in all these stores. Each person was working on one store or the other. 72% people were in retail stores. People working in door to door store only was 1/36 of the retail store. Person working in both the online and door to door store except retail store were 55. Person working in only online store is equal to person in door to door only + 65. What is the total number of people working in online store only?

A. 65

B. 75

C. 10

D. 140

E. None of the above

82. Direction: Read the following Caselet and answer the questions:
There are three 3 types of stores namely retail, online and door to door and certain number of people were working in all these stores. Each person was working on one store or the other. 72% people were in retail stores. People working in door to door store only was 1/36 of the retail store. Person working in both the online and door to door store except retail store were 55. Person working in only online store is equal to person in door to door only +65. What is the total number of people working in any of the stores?

A. 500

B. 120

C. 75

D. 140

E. Cannot be determined

83. Direction: Answer the questions based on the information given below:
Two person A and B work in a call center. They receive calls of which they execute some percentage. Below bar graph shows the percentage of calls executed by them on 2 days i.e. Monday and Friday. Based on the following graph, answer the questions given below:

If B executes 200 calls on Friday and he received 25% more calls than A on Friday. Then A executed what number of calls on Friday?

A. 160

B. 80

C. 125

D. 200

E. None of these

84. Direction: Answer the questions based on the information given below: Two person A and B work in a call center. They receive calls of which they execute some percentage. Below bar graph shows the percentage of calls executed by them on 2 days i.e. Monday and Friday. Based on the following graph, answer the questions given below:

Total calls received by A and B on Friday is?
a) Total calls executed by them on Friday is 100
b) Difference between the calls executed by them on Friday is 8

A. Data in A is sufficient alone

B. Data in B is sufficient alone

C. Both A and B are required

D. Can’t be determined even after using both

E. None of the above

85. Direction: The following question has three statements. Study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to answer the question.
What is the ratio of the volume of the cube to the volume of the cuboid?
I. The Total Surface Area of the cuboid is 352 cm2 and the ratio of the length, breadth and height of the cuboid is3:2:1.
II. The Total Surface Area of the cube is 726 cm2.
III. The length of the cuboid is 1.5 times of the breadth of the cuboid and 3 times of the height of the cuboid. The difference between the height and the length of the cuboid is 8 cm.

A. Any two of the statements

B. All the statements

C. II and III together

D. I and II together

E. Either statement I and II or statement II and III

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SBI PO (Main) Exam Paper - 2018 "English Language"

SBI PO (Main) Exam Paper - 2018 "English Language"

Direction (46-55): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these.
Paragraph 1: The distressing news of three young girls dying of starvation in the heart of New Delhi last week raises a number of questions; not only on the failure of the state to protect its citizens from hunger 70 years after independence but also on the development model that India seems to be following. (A) It is a paradox to note that India has moved into consumer capitalism from industrial capitalism.
Paragraph 2: The death of these children follows a series of reports of alleged starvation deaths over the last six months, mostly from Jharkhand but also from other states such as Karnataka, Chhattisgarh and Uttar Pradesh. In each of these cases, fact- finding reports and newspaper stories have documented failures of the system in reaching entitlements to the affected families. The National Food Security Act (NFSA) includes provisions for subsidised grains from the public distribution system (PDS), school meals for schoolgoing children, maternity entitlements and supplementary nutrition for young children through Anganwadi centres. A fact-finding report prepared by the Delhi Rozi Roti Adhikar Abhiyan revealed that while these services were available in the area, the girls and their parents did not have access to any of these in the months preceding their deaths. This was presumably because it was more difficult for them to get enrolled as they were migrants and did not have the necessary documents. Or, probably because the quota of ration cards in Delhi have already been distributed.
Paragraph 3: In all cases of alleged starvation deaths reported so far, there has been a documentation of denials of either NFSA entitlements or social security pensions (for the aged/single women) due to bureaucratic hurdles and/or resource constraints imposed by the state. These cases of deaths associated with protracted periods of hunger highlight the fact that despite the availability of such an elaborate system of social sector schemes, the
most marginalised are being left out. Along with tightening the implementation mechanism for the existing schemes, other initiatives such as community kitchens in urban areas, diversified food baskets through the PDS particularly in tribal areas, provision of school meals during vacations and soon; that have been tried and found successful in different states need to be replicated across the country. Further, requirements such as mandatory
Aadhaar authentication, which in a number of these cases, has been an underlying cause for exclusion should not be allowed. A truly universal system of social security that pays special attention to reaching out to the most
vulnerable communities needs to be put in place.
Paragraph 4: The deep-rooted inequity in the current economic model which, while benefiting a few, is resulting in many being deprived of basic livelihood security and dignified employment opportunities, needs to be acknowledged. Cases like these expose the vulnerability of millions of Indians who are living such precariouslives in the absence of livelihood security. (B) The state is conspicuous by its absence. (C) There must be a national debate on issues of equitable distribution of resources. At the very least, what the state and political parties can do is to initiate such a discussion and offer creative solutions rather than spending their energy in trying to establish whether the deaths were due to starvation at all or not. There must be accountability for this state of affairs. It simply cannot be business as usual anymore.

46. A statement is given below followed by two inferences numbered I and II. An inference is a piece of information which can be logically deduced from the given statement. You have to consider the statement and the following inferences and then mark the correct answer.
Statement: Further, requirements such as mandatory Aadhaar authentication, which in a number of these cases, has been an underlying cause for exclusion should not be allowed.
Inference I: The government has to take foolproof measures for seeding of Aadhaar numbers.
Inference II: Most of the people who died of starvation were reportedly denied rations from the Public Distribution System shops for failing to have Aadhaar-based biometric authentication.

A. Only inference I is implicit.

B. Only inference II is implicit.

C. Either inference I or II is implicit.

D. Neither inference I nor II is implicit.

E. Both the inference I and II are implicit.

47. Which of the following statements can be inferred from paragraph 2 of the given passage?
I. The deaths had led to questions about the state government’s ability to ensure regular food supply to the state’s poor and needy.
II. As per the NFSA, the supply of the ration is not allowed to migrants because they do not have the necessary documents.
III. Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand are the most food-insecure States, accounting for most of all neonatal deaths.
IV. The National Food Security Act (NFSA) has four components that can help in the making of a small dent in the scale of the problem of hunger and under nutrition.

A. Only III

B. Both III and IV

C. II, III and IV

D. I, III and IV

E. All of the above

48. Which of the following is neither an antonym nor a synonym for the given word?
Precarious

A. Dubious

B. Secure

C. Arcane

D. Sound

E. Parlous

49. Which of these presents a contrast to the following statement (A) as mentioned
in paragraph 1: It is a paradox to note that India has moved into consumer capitalism from industrial capitalism.

A. India has moved from "crony socialism" to "stigmatised capitalism.”

B. While India has gone from socialism to capitalism, this does not mean that we are likely to see India replace its political aristocracy with an economic one.

C. Adhering to its intended business model, India has successfully become a consumer capitalist.

D. It is absurd that India has moved from "crony socialism" to "stigmatised capitalism.”

E. India opted for a dirigiste model of industrial capitalist development.

50. Which of the following statements can follow paragraph 3 to form a connection with paragraph 4?
I. Our core social and economic challenges are clearly deep-rooted and systemic - rather than the result of a temporary downturn.
II. While there is a need to improve the system of entitlements provided by the state, there is also a need to introspect how despite over two decades of high economic growth, the country is faced with a situation where people are dying of hunger and starvation.
III. The key failures lie not in inadequate resources and technology but in inequalities rooted in economics and politics.

A. Only II

B. Only III

C. Both I and II

D. Both II and III

E. Both I and III

51. Which of the following reflects the author’s viewpoint(s) with respect to paragraph 1?
I. The urban poor has a dystopian existence.
II. In 70 years of independence, India has not addressed the gruelling poverty suffered by millions.
III. The state seems to have failed to gauge ‘the erosion of state’ at the grassroots due to its uncritical faith in the planning driven economic model.
IV. High growth notwithstanding, India seems to have failed on two fronts.

A. Only II

B. Both II and I

C. Both I and IV

D. II, III and IV

E. I, II and IV

52. Which of the following statement can replace the highlighted statement (C) in paragraph 4?

A. The issue of equitable distribution of resources in this country is a major issue.

B. The national discussions, seminar, debates on the social security facilities must be held and all political parties, states should co-operate each-other to find out a present solution.

C. There is a long road to a federal welfare state.

D. The engagement of different groups in the political process increases the likelihood of a fair and equitable distribution of resources.

E. The state must get active to explore and promote various alternatives for resolving resource allocation problems.

53. A statement is given below followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and then mark the correct answer.
Statement: These cases of deaths associated with protracted periods of hunger highlight the fact that despite the availability of such an elaborate system of social sector schemes, the most marginalised are being left out.
Assumption I: The availability of an elaborate system of social sector schemes can save people from dying.
Assumption II: People who died because of protracted periods of hunger belonged to the most marginalised section of our society.

A. Only assumption I is implicit.

B. Only assumption II is implicit.

C. Either assumption I or II is implicit.

D. Neither assumption I nor II is implicit.

E. Both the assumptions I and II are implicit.

54. What does the statement marked as (B) in paragraph 4 refer to?

A. The State was absent because it had some other important agenda to attend to.

B. The State was absent where it should have been.

C. The State made its agenda clear by not being present.

D. The State was unintentionally absent.

E. The State was attracting attention.

55. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE with respect to paragraph 3 of the passage?

A. Denial of social security facilities is to blame in cases of alleged starvation deaths.

B. Because of bureaucratic hurdles and resource constraints imposed by the state, the social security finances for the marginalized were not distributed.

C. The state needs to tighten the loopholes around mechanisms of the existing schemes.

D. Those initiatives that have been tried and found successful in different states need to be replicated across the country.

E. A truly universal system of social security must be established which pays special attention to reaching out to the most vulnerable communities.

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56. Direction: A sentence divided into 5 parts is given, each of which is numbered. One of the parts of the sentence is missing and is marked by a blank. Choose the option as your answer, which when filled in the blank will render the first part of the sentence incorrect. After Sterlite announced its plans to expand the (1)/ Tuticorin plant, villagers around it started fresh protests (2)/ _________ (3)/ the May 22 police firing on protestors that (4)/ claimed 13 lives and left scores injured. (5)

A. Even before the announcements were made, which culminated in

B. While showcasing their agitation through dance and drama, but unfortunately it ended in

C. Which lasted not more than 100 days and resulted in

D. That continued for over 100 days, culminating in

E. None of the above

57. Direction: A sentence divided into 5 parts is given, each of which is numbered. One of the parts of the sentence is missing and is marked by a blank. Choose the option as your answer, which when filled in the blank will render the second part of the sentence incorrect. As far as its applicability to fiduciaries operating (1)/ outside India, the law will apply only to those (2)/ doing business in India, or who have (3)/ collected a significant amount of personal data (4)/ ________________ (5)

A. Which could be used to harm either the State or the citizens.

B. Which is helpful in maintaining the legal sanctity of the State

C. Which may or may not jeopardise the sovereignty of the state

D. Which can act as a tool to tarnish the heritage of the state of its global image

E. None of the above

58. Direction: A sentence divided into 5 parts is given, each of which is numbered. One of the parts of the sentence is missing and is marked by a blank. Choose the option as your answer, which when filled in the blank will render the first part of the sentence incorrect. We will adopt the village of Charoti in Maharahstra (1)/ to train tribal women in garment-making, (2)/ and thereafter encouraged by the success of this initiative, (3) _______ (4)/ with Jawahar, in the same district—Palghar (5)

A. We took another step in that direction

B. We will go a step ahead

C. We will aim towards another initiative

D. Another plan will be discussed

E. None of the above

59. Direction: A sentence divided into 5 parts is given, each of which is numbered. One of the parts of the sentence is missing and is marked by a blank. Choose the option as your answer, which when filled in the blank will render the first part of the sentence incorrect. Documents and research recently revealed that (1)/ __________ (2)/ training from Russia and collecting military (3)/ equipment, which some have warned (4)/ could be used to promote separatism. (5)

A. Local police in Republika Srpska are receiving military-style

B. Local police in Republika Srpska have been receiving military-style

C. Local police in Republika Srpska have necessarily received military-style

D. Local police in Republika Srpska are in all probability receiving military-style

E. None of these

60. Direction: A sentence divided into 5 parts is given, each of which is numbered. One of the parts of the sentence is missing and is marked by a blank. Choose the option as your answer, which when filled in the blank will render the first part of the sentence incorrect. The informal food economy, which falls outside official regulation, (1)/ ____________ (2)/ opportunities for livelihoods (3)/ and a way to stay connected to families (4)/ and communities far away. (5)

A. Acts as a boon for the immigrants as it gives

B. Has been a harbinger of change in the lives of migrants as it provides

C. Play a key role in many migrants’ lives as they offer

D. Has established itself as a gamechanger in the democratic nation as it lends

E. None of these

61. Direction: In the following question a short passage is given, in which every sentence is followed by a number. The passage is followed by a statement, which would replace one of these numbers and fit appropriately in the passage to make it complete and coherent (coherent means logically complete and sound). Select the option that mentions the number where the statement should fit. If the given sentence does not fit anywhere, mark “None of these” as your answer. The struggle to combat climate change brings out the best and worst of capitalism. (1) Decarbonisation of the economy requires alternatives for coal and cars that run on diesel, and that plays to capitalism’s strengths. (2) The cost of producing solar- and wind- powered electricity has collapsed. (3) Great advances are also being made in battery technology, which is vital for the new generation of electricity-powered vehicles. (4) Innovation is what capitalism is all about, and there has been staggeringly rapid progress in developing clean alternatives to coal, oil and gas.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. None of these

62. Direction: In the following question a short passage is given, in which every sentence is followed by a number. The passage is followed by a statement, which would replace one of these numbers and fit appropriately in the passage to make it complete and coherent (coherent means logically complete and sound). Select the option that mentions the number where the statement should fit. If the given sentence does not fit anywhere, mark “None of these” as your answer.
(1) Like the railways, electricity, and the theory of evolution, nationalism was also invented in modern Europe. The European model of nationalism sought to unite residents of a particular geographical territory on the basis of a single language, a shared religion, and a common enemy. (2) So to be British, you had to speak English, and minority tongues such as Welsh and Gaelic were either suppressed or disregarded. (3) Finally, to be authentically and loyally British, you had to detest France. (4) To be properly British you had to be Protestant, which is why the king was also the head of the Church, and Catholics were distinctly second-class citizens.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. None of these

Direction (63-66): Given below are six statements A, B, C, D, E and F, which when arranged in the correct order, form a coherent and meaningful paragraph.The sentence marked D is fixed and would fit in the fourth position. Rearrange the other statements in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions that follow.
A. Acts of grand corruption usually involve a set of illegal actions – like the bribery of public officials, substitution of materials or resources, and the complicity of a group of actors – that may lead to fatal consequences.

B. For a number of years, the anti- corruption community has discussed the possibility of prosecuting cases of grand corruption. This could have a positive impact on raising awareness and reform and may fill a vacuum if a state is unable or unwilling to prosecute certain cases of grand corruption.
C. There is a need to protect the universality of human rights, and to do so, we must stop regarding corruption as something cultural or contextual. The ambiguity of the concept makes it more difficult to include anti-corruption among human rights issues.
D. Because of this, dozens of children were given false cancer treatments in Veracruz. Children were given water instead of chemotherapy treatments. Funding was also cut from security and police forces; 2,500 homicides were registered during Duarte’s administration.
E. Corruption affects human rights in a variety of ways, yet it is still not considered a “human rights violation”. Instead, it is solely deemed an international offence.
F. The consequences of corruption are far worse than they appear in plain sight. Between 2012 and 2016, Javier Duarte in Mexico transferred millions of pesos from public funds into his private accounts, including money destined to health providers and security forces.

63. Which of the following will be the first statement after rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. E

E. F

64. Which of the following pairs form two consecutive statements after rearrangement?

A. A-F

B. D-E

C. B-A

D. F-A

E. C-F

65. Which of the following will be the last statement after rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. E

E. D

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114. Which of the following banks has launched a unified integrated app called YONO (You Need Only One) that would offer all kinds of financial and lifestyle products?

A. Central Bank of India

B. State Bank of India

C. Punjab National Bank

D. Bank of Baroda

E. None of these

115. Former Chief of Indian Armed Force Jayant Ganpat Nadkarni passed away. He belonged to _____.

A. Indian Army

B. Indian Navy

C. Indian Coast Guard

D. Indian Air Force

E. Special Frontier Force

116. Which bank launched ‘Social Pay’ for NRIs?

A. ICICI Bank

B. Doha Bank

C. Axis Bank

D. HDFC bank

E. None of the above

117. Which committee has been constituted by the Union Government to upgrade norms for state & district level economic data collection?

A. Goiporia Committee

B. B Venkatappaiah Committee

C. AK Bhuchar Committee

D. L K Jha Committee

E. Ravindra H Dholakia Committee

118. The cultural festival “Behdienkhlam 2018” was celebrated in ______.

A. Tripura

B. Kerala

C. Meghalaya

D. Himachal Pradesh

E. Uttarakhand

119. Which of the following cities will set up India’s first e-waste recycling unit?

A. Lucknow

B. Bengaluru

C. New Delhi

D. Mumbai

E. Chennai

120. The tri-service joint military exercise Indra Exercise 2018 was conducted between India and which of the following countries?

A. France

B. Russia

C. Germany

D. USA

E. China

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