Solved Exam Paper - 2009

Q.1. Who has been appointed as the Governor of Madhya Pradesh?

a) Hans Raj Bhardwaj

b) Devanand Konwar

c) Rameshwar Thakur

d) R.L. Bhatia

e) None of these

Q.2. Jeev Milkha Singh is related to _______.

a) Tennis

b) Football

c) Golf

d) Chess

e) None of these

Q.3. Karl Malden who passed away recently was a famous______.

a) Politician

b) Sportsman

c) Actor

d) Singer

e) None of these

Q.4. Who is the author of the book "The Making of Barack Obama”?

a) Imran Sheikh

b) R.S. Sharma

c) Amartya Sen

d) Richard Wolffe

e) None of these

Q.5. When is the International Youth Day celebrated?

a) July 11

b) August 12

c) September 21

d) June 5

e) None of these

Q.6. Central Statistical Organisation is set up during______

a) 1950-57

b) 1951-52

c) 1952-53

d) 1942-43

e) None of these

Q.7. Regional Rural Banks are the Brain child of_____

a) C. Rangrajan

b) M.Swaminathan

c) K.C. Niyogi

d) R. Gadgil

e) None of these

Q.8. The largest source of National Income in India is______-

a) Service sector

b) Agricultural Sector

c) Industrial sector

d) Trade sector

e) None of these

Q.9. Which Indian Bank has maximum branch is abroad?

a) Bank of Hindustan b) State Bank of India

c) Bank of Baroda

d) Canara Bank

e) None of these

Q.10. About how much amount has been approved by Central Government for "Pradhan Mantri Adarsh" Gram Yojana" in Budget 2009-10?

a) Rs. 100 cr.

b) Rs. 250 cr.

c) Rs. 285 cr.

d) Rs. 300 cr.

e) None of these

Q.11. How many community colleges are established by government to trained the unskilled person toimprove their skills?

a) 630

b) 670

c) 600

d) 580

e) None of these

Q.12. How many T-20 tanks are included in Indian Army to strengthen its condition?

a) 50

b) 52

c) 59

d) 49

e) None of these

Q.13. Recently to which bank RBI said to make clearer norm about NPAs?

a) State Bank of India

b) Urban Co-operative Bank

c) Rural Co-operative Bank

d) Allahabad Bank

e) None of these

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A new analysis has determined that the threat of global warming can still be greatly diminished if nations cut emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases by 70% this century. The analysis was done by scientists at the National Center for Atmospheric Research (NCAR). While global temperatures would rise, the most dangerous potential aspects of climate change, including massive losses of Arctic sea ice and permafrost and significant sea-level rise, could be partially avoided. “This research indicates that we can no longer avoid significant warming during this century,”said NCAR scientist Warren Washington, the study paper’s lead author. “But, if the world were to implement this level of emission cuts, we could stabilize the threat of climate change”, he added.Average global temperatures have warmed by close to 1 degree Celsius since the pre-industrial
era. Much of the warming is due to human-produced emissions of greenhouse gases, predominantly carbon dioxide. This heat-trapping gas has increased from a pre-industrial level of about 284 parts per million (ppm) in the atmosphere to more than 380 ppm today. With research showing that additional warming of about 1 degree C may be the threshold for dangerous climate change, the European Union has called for dramatic cuts in emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.To examine the impact of such cuts on the world’s climate, Washington and his colleagues ran a series of global studies with the NCAR-based Community Climate System Model (CCSM). They assumed that carbon dioxide levels could be held to 450 ppm at the end of this century. In contrast,emissions are now on track to reach about 750 ppm by 2100 if unchecked. The team’s results showed that if carbon dioxide were held to 450 ppm, global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius above current readings by the end of the century. In contrast, the study showed that temperatures
would rise by almost four times that amount, to 2.2 degrees Celsius above current readings, if emissions were allowed to continue on their present course. Holding carbon dioxide levels to 45.0 ppm would have other impacts, according to the climate modeling study.

Sea-level rise due to thermal expansion as water temperatures warmed would be 14 centimeters (about 5.5 inches) instead of 22 centimeters (8.7 inches). Also, Arctic ice in the summertime would shrink by about a quarter in volume and stabilize by 2100, as opposed to shrinking at least three quarters and continuing to melt, and Arctic warming would be reduced by almost half.

Q.51. Why has the European Union called for dramatic cuts in carbon dioxide and greenhouse gas emissions?

a) As global warming is not an issue of concern.

b) As the temperatures may rise almost by an additional one degree and this may lead to severe climate change.

c) As the NCAR has forced the European Union to announce the cuts.

d) As all the nations have decided to cut emissions of carbon dioxide.

e) None of these

Q.52. What would NOT be one of the impacts of cutting greenhouse gas emissions?

a) Temperatures will stop soaring

b) Ice in the Arctic sea would melt at a slower pace

c) The rise in sea level would be lesser

d) All of the above would be the impact

e) None of these

Q.53. What would be the impact of holding the carbon dioxide level at 450 ppm at the end of this century?

(A) Global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius.

(B) Arctic warming would be reduced by half.

(C) Thermal expansion will stop completely.

a) Only (A)

b) Only (A) and (B)

c) Only (B) and (C)

d) All the three (A), (B) and (C)

e) None of these

Q.54. What does the scientist Warren Washington mean when he says “we could stabilize the threat of climate change”?

a) Climate change can be stopped completely.

b) Climate change can be regularized.

c) Climate change and its effects can be studied extensively.

d) The ill-effects of the change in climate can be minimized.

e) None of these

Q.55. Why did Washington and his colleagues conduct a series of studies?

a) Because they realized that the temperature increase was almost about degree

b) So that they could stabilize the climate change

c) So that they could help the European Union in cutting the carbon dioxide emissions

d) Because they found out that the greenhouse gas emissions could be cut by 70%

e) None of these

Q.56. What would be the impact of unchecked greenhouse gas and carbon dioxide emissions?

a) The temperature would rise from the current temperature by 2.2 degrees Celsius

b) The sea-level would rise by about 5.5 inches

c) The arctic ice would stabilize by 2100

d) The arctic ice would reduce by one-fourth

e) None of these

Q.57. What can be the most appropriate title of the above passage?

a) A study of the rise in water level

b) A study of rise in temperatures

c) A study of the effects of greenhouse gas emissions

d) A study of the Arctic region

e) A study of change in seasons

Q.58. Which of the following statements is TRUE in context of the passage?

a) At present the carbon dioxide emission is about 284 ppm.

b) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 450 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked.

c) The carbon dioxide emission was about 380 ppm during .the pre-industrial era.

d) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 750 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked.

e) None of these

Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

Q.59. PREDOMINANTLY

a) clearly

b) aggressively

c) mainly

d) firstly

e) faintly

Q.60. MASSIVE

a) tall

b) tough

c) total

d) little

e) severe

Q.61. SHRINK

a) contract

b) physician

c) wither

d) shrivel

e) reduce

Q.62. DRAMATIC

a) unprecedented

b) thrilling

c) spectacular

d) effective

e) feeble

Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

Q.63. OPPOSED

a) resistant

b) against

c) favouring

d) similar

e) agree

Q.64. DIMINISHED

a) created

b) rose

c) increased

d) lessen

e) finished

Q.65. SIGNIFICANT

a) substantial

b) minuscule

c) incoherent

d) unimportant

e) irrelevant

Q.101-110.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

Q.101. 65% of 240 +?% of 150 = 210

a) 45

b) 46

c) 32

d) 36

e) None of these

Q.103. 358.085 + 42.91 +25.55=?

a) 425.565

b) 426.545

c) 426.555

d) 425.545

e) None of these

Q.104. 45 × 390 ÷ 26 =?

a) 645

b) 675

c) 765

d) 745

e) None of these

Q.105. 140% of 56 + 56% of 140 =?

a) 78.4

b) 158.6

c) 156.6

d) 87.4

e) None of these

Q.106. 3895-1563 + 1089 =?

a) 3321

b) 3527

c) 3329

d) 3429

e) None of these

Q.109. 232.8× 237.2× 233.6 = 23?

a) 13.6

b) 12.6

c) 12.8

d) 13.8

e) None of these

Q.110. 2.2 × 5.6 + 17.8 =?

a) 30.12

b) 30.012

c) 31.12

d) 31.012

e) None of these

Q.111. If the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs.15, 000/- in two years is Rs.2,496/-.What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.? .

a) 8

b) 10

c) 6

d) Cannot be determined

e) None of these

Q.112. If the digits of a two digit number are interchanged, the number formed is greater than the original number by 45. If the difference between the digits is 5.What is the original number?

a) 16

b) 27

c) 38

d) Cannot be determined

e) None of these

Q.113. Area of a rectangle is equal to the area of circle whose radius is 14 cms. If the breadth of the rectangle is 22 cms. What is its length?

a) 24 cms.

b) 28 cms.

c) 26 cms.

d) Cannot be determined

e) None of these

Q.114. Ages of A and B are presently in the ratio of 5: 6 respectively. Six years hence this ratio will become 6: 7 respectively. What was B’s age 5 years ago?

a) 25 years

b) 30 years

c) 36 years

d) 31 years

e) None of these

Q.115. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DISPLAY be arranged?

a) 5040

b) 2520

c) 720

d) 1440

e) None of these

Q.151. ‘JM’ is related to ‘PS’ in the same way as ‘BE’ is related to __?

a) HJ

b) HK

c) IL

d) JM

e) None of these

Q.152. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘ELRU’ using each letter only once in each word?

a) None

b) One

c) Two

d) Three

e) More than three

Q.153. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

a) Plastic

b) Nylon

c) Polythene

d) Terelyn

e) Silk

Q.154. In a certain code ROAM is written as 5913 and DONE is written as 4962. How is MEAN written in that code?

a) 5216

b) 3126

c) 3216

d) 9126

e) None of these

Q.155. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

a) Blue

b) Green

c) Yellow

d) Violet

e) Black

Q.156. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STORM each of which-has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

a) None

b) One

c) Two

d) Three

e) More than three

Q.157. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 53261489 are interchanged. Similarly,the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?

a) 8

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) None of these

Q.158. What should come next in the following letter series?

M L K J I H G F M L K J I H G M L K J I H M L K J I

a) K

b) N

c) H

d) M

e) None of these

Q.159. In a certain code DENIAL is written as MDCMBJ. How is SOURCE written in that code?

a) TNRFDS

b)RNTFDS

c) TNRSDF

d) TRNDBQ

e) None of these

Q.160. M is sister of D. R is brother of D. F is father of M and T is mother of R. How is D related to T?

a) Brother

b) Son

c) Daughter

d) Data inadequate

e) None of these

Q.161-166. In each question below are three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II andIII? You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from thethree given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers a), b), c), d) and e) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.

Q.161. Statements:

• All stamps are packets.
• Some packets are buckets.
• All buckets are tubes.

Conclusions:

• I .Some tubes are stamps.
• II. Some buckets are stamps.
• III. Some tubes are packets.

a) None follows

b) Only I follows

c) Only II follows

d) Only III follows

e) Only II and III follow

Q.162. Statements:

• All machines are crowns.
• All crowns are tablets.
• Some tablets are bottles.

Conclusions:

• I. Some bottles are crowns.
• II. Some tablets are machines.
• III. Some bottles are machines.

a) Only I follows

b) Only II follows

c) Only III follows

d) Only II and III follow

e) None of these

Q.163. Statements:

• All rooms are hotels.
• All hotels are buildings.
• All buildings are mountains.

Conclusions:

• I. Some mountains are hotels.
• II. Some buildings are rooms.
• III. Some mountains are rooms.

a) Only I and II follow

b) Only I and III follow

c) Only II and III follow

d) All I, II and III follow

e) None of these

Q.164. Statements:

• Some towns are villages.
• Some villages are lanes.
• Some lanes are hamlets.

Conclusions:

• I. Some hamlets are villages.
• II. Some lanes are towns.
• III. Some hamlets are towns.

a) None follows

b) Only I follows

c) Only II follows

d) Only III follows

e) Only I and II follow

Q.165. Statements:

• Some rivers are hills.
• No hill is taxi.
• All taxis are buses.

Conclusions:

• I. Some buses are rivers.
• II. Some taxis are rivers.
• III. No bus is river.

a) None follows

b) Only I follows

c) Only III follows

d) Only II follows

e) Only either I or III follows

Q.166. Statements:

• Some doors are windows.
• Some windows are lamps.
• All lamps are candles.

Conclusions:

• I. Some candles are doors.
• II. Some candles are windows.
• III. Some lamps are doors.

a) Only I follows

b) Only II follows

c) Only III follows

d) Only I and II follow

e) None of these

Courtesy : Bank Exam Guide