Competition Booster - Hindi (Part-2) For IBPS Exam

Click Here To Download Full Competition Booster

Competition Booster - Hindi (Part-1)For IBPS Exam

Click Here To Download Full Competition Booster

Reasoning Ability Practice Set-3 For IBPS Exam

Q.1-6. Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions:

A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H and I are sitting around a circle and facing at the centre.F is not the neighbour of D. I is sitting immediately between C and E who is sixth to the left of H. G is sitting second to the right of D and at the immediate left of B. E is not the immediate neighbour of F.

Q.1 Who is second to the left of D and third to the right of I?

(1) A and C
(2) C and G
(3) F and G
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Q.2 Which of the following statement is true?

(1) C is neither fourth to the right of H nor third to the left of B.
(2) G is sitting at the third place from the sixth place to the left of A.
(3) D and B are the neighbour of I and H respectively.
(4) All the above statements are false.
(5) None of these

Q.3 Which of the following is the correct position of E in respect of A?

(1) Second to the left
(2) Fourth to the right
(3) Fifth to the right
(4) Fourth to the left
(5) None of these

Q.4 Which of the following group of persons has the first person sitting between the next two?

(1) A C F
(2) E I G
(3) B H G
(4) F A B
(5) None of these

Q.5 If the position of the persons, who are second to the left of D and third to the right of A, are interchanged. Which person is second to the left of D?

(1) F
(2) A
(3) G
(4) I
(5) None of these

Q.6 In which of the following pairs the second person is not sitting on the immediate left of the first person?

(1) H D
(2) B G
(3) C F
(4) I E
(5) None of these

Q.7-11. In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true (even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts). Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows.

Q.7 Statements:
 Some market are milk. No highway is traders.
No traders is market. All milk are mouth.

Conclusions:
I. All highway are mouth.
II. Some highway are milk.
III. Some milk not being mouth is a possibility.

(1) Only I and II follow.
(2) Only II and III follow.
(3)Only I and III follow.
(4) All, I, II and III follow.
(5) None follows.

Q.8 Statements:
Some market are milk. No highway is traders.
No traders is market. All milk are mouth. Conclusions:

I. Some market being highway is a possibility.
II. Some milk not being traders is a possibility.
III. Some market are mouth.

(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) All I, II and III follow
(5) None of these

Q.9 Statements:
Some normal are shadow. Some vote are election.
All worker are vote. All election are normal.

Conclusions:
I. Some shadow are not normal.
II. Some normal are not vote.
III. Some shadow being worker is a possibility.

(1) None of these.
(2) Only I and II follow.
(3) Only II and III follow.
(4) Either I or II follows.
(5) Only I and III follow.

Q.10 Statements:
Some normal are shadow. Some vote are election.
All worker are vote. All election are normal.

Conclusions:
I. Some vote are normal.
II. All election are shadow.
III. Some worker being election is a possibility.

(1) None follows.
(2) Only I follows.
(3) Only II follows.
(4) Only I and III follow.
(5) Only II and III follow.

Q.11 Statements:
Some soil are brick. All wood are iron.
Some brick are wood. Some iron are steel.

Conclusions:
I. Some steel being brick is a possibility.
II. Some soil being wood is a possibility.
III. Some iron not being steel is a possibility.

(1) All I, II and III follow.
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only II and III follow.
(4) Only either I or III follows.
(5) Only either I or II follows.

Q.12-16. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
The bricks manufacturing companies have increased the price of bricks by about seventeen percent with immediate effect.

Q.12. Which of the following is/are possible effect(s) of the above?

Cause and Effects
I. Government will direct the bricks manufacturing companies to reduce the price increase to six percent.
II. The prices of residential flats and commercial companies will see an upward trend.
III. The construction companies may stop all on going construction projects with immediate effect.

(1) Only II
(2) Only I
(3) Only III
(4) Both II and III
(5) None of these

Q.13 Which of the following is/are possible effect(s) of the above ?

Cause and Effects
I. Government will direct the network providing companies to reduce the price increase to six percent.
II. The prices of mobiles will see a downward trend.
III. Consumers may stop all these type communications.

(1) Only II
(2) Only I
(3) Only III
(4) Both II and III
(5) None of these

Q.14 Effect: This year majority of the candidates join the online speed test of Mahendra’s Banking Institute. Which of the following Answer be a probable cause of the above effect?

I. Last year most of the candidates join the offline speed test form Mahendra’s Banking Institute and they got better job offers from Bank sector.
II. Mahendra’s Banking Institute offers only Banking specialization in spite of other exams.
III. Mahendra’s Banking Institute has recently started its online speed test same as the pattern of Banking exams.

Reasoning Ability Practice Set-2 For IBPS Exam

Q.1-5. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement given below.

Input: calm boy regain 96 suave 32 alone 17 hook 69 letter 29 pick 51 zilch 84
Step I: 96 calm boy regain suave 32 17 gook 69 letter 29 pick 51 zilch 84 alone
Step II: 96 84 calm regain suave 32 17 hook 69 letter 29 pick 51 zilch alone boy
Step III: 96 84 69 regain suave 32 17 hook letter 29 pick 51 zilch alone boy calm
Step IV: 96 84 69 51 regain suave 32 17 letter 29 pick zilch alone boy calm hook
Step V: 96 84 69 51 32 regain suave 17 29 letter pick zilch alone boy calm hook
Step VI: 96 84 69 51 32 29 regain suave 17 zilch alone boy calm hook letter pick
Step VII: 96 84 69 51 32 29 17 suave zilch alone boy calm hook letter pick regain
Step VIII: 96 84 69 51 32 29 17 zilch alone boy calm hook letter pick regain suave
Step IX: 96 84 69 51 32 29 17 alone boy calm hook letter pick regain suave zilch
Step X: 17 29 32 51 69 84 96 alone boy calm hook letter pick regain suave zilch
Step X : is the last step of the above arrangement. As per the rules followed in the above Input, give the answer of the following questions.

Input: write layer 99 hat is soon 77 mate 33 rust jabber 44 net body 66 tape 11 cute

Q.1. What will be the last step for the given input?

(1) VIII
(2) IX
(3) XIII
(4) XII
(5) XI

Q.2. Which step will be the following input?

99 77 66 44 33 write layer soon mate rust met tape 11 body cute hat is jabber

(1) VI
(2) V
(3) IV
(4) VII
(5) IX

Q.3. Which of the following will be step III?

(1) 99 77 66 44 write layer soon mate 33 rust jabber net tape 11 body cute hat is
(2) 99 77 66 write layer is soon mate 33 rust jabber 44 net tape 11 body cute hat
(3) 99 77 66 write layer soon mate 33 rust jabber 44 net tape 11 body cute hat is
(4) 99 77 66 write layer soon mate 33 rust jabber 44 net tape 11 body cute is hat
(5) 99 66 write 77 layer is soon mate 33 rust jabber 44 net tape 11 body cute hat

Q.4. Which will be the last but one step of the given input?

(1) XII
(2) XIII
(3) IX
(4) X
(5) VIII

Q.5. Which of the following steps will definitely be the step XI?

(1) 99 77 66 44 33 11 body cute hat is jabber layer mate net rust soon tape write
(2) 99 77 66 44 33 11 write layer is soon mate rust jabber net tape body cute hat
(3) 99 77 66 44 33 11 write body cute hat is jabber layer mate net rust soon tape
(4) 99 77 66 44 33 11 write body cute hat is jabber layer mate net rust tape soon
(5) 99 77 66 44 33 11 write cute body hat is jabber layer mate rust tape soon net

Q.6-10. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven children each of them likes different flavour of tea i.e. Peach, Rose, Lavender, Lemon, Jasmine, Ginger and Mango but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them studies in different standard from standard IV to standard X but not necessarily in the same order.

Q studies in VII standard and does not like Jasmine and Lemon flavours of tea. R likes Peach flavour of tea and does not study either in V or in IX standards. T studies in VIII standard and likes Ginger flavour. The one who likes Rose flavour of tea, studies in X standard. S studies in IV standard. W likes mango flavour of tea. P does not study in X standard. The one who likes Lemon flavour of tea, does not study in IV standard.

Q.6. In which standard does W study?

(1) V
(2) IX
(3) VIII
(4) IV
(5) X

Q.7. Which flavour of tea does P like?

(1) Lemon
(2) Peach
(3) Mango
(4) Ginger
(5) Rose

Q.8. Which flavour of tea does S like?

(1) Peach
(2) Lavender
(3) Ginger
(4) Mango
(5) Jasmine

Q.9. Which of the following combinations of children - standard – flavour of tea is correct?

(1) T - VIII - Jasmine
(2) W - VII – Mango
(3) Q - VII - Lemon
(4) V - X - Rose
(5) R- VI - Peach

Q.10. What is the favourite flavour of tea and standard of T?

(1) Ginger, IX
(2) Peach, VIII
(3) Ginger, VIII
(4) Peach, IX
(5) Rose, X

Q.11-15. Each question below is followed by a statement and two arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the following arguments is/are strong and which of the following arguments is/are weak. In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong arguments and weak
arguments so for as they relate to the question. Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question.

Give answer-

(1) If only argument I is strong.
(2) If only argument II is strong
(3) If either argument I or II is strong.
(4) If neither argument I nor II is strong.
(5) If both arguments I and II are strong.

Q.11. Statement:

Should APJ Abdul Kalam be featured on currency notes?

Arguments:

I. Yes, because Dr. Kalam fits as an ideal face symbolizing national identity, He is reckoned as a great scientist, an impressive leader and a youth icon.
II. No, because the currency notes symbolize national identity and Mahatma Gandhi is the right person to fit in this place. He is not only a popular face in India but is also known for his great deeds on international platform.

Q.12. Statement: Should Journalists be made to pass an exam like banks and lawyers?

Arguments:

I. Yes, because the education will make them more responsible in handling sensitive data and news, and the ways to impart those news to the audience.
II. No, because making the exams mandatory, will demotivate those candidates who are creative enough and have the courage to join the industry, but due to financial problems are unable to join a course will lose the opportunity of working and achieving their dreams.

Q.13. Statement:

Should Duty-Free Shops On Airports Be Closed?

Arguments:

I. Yes, because there are many grave reasons for not having duty-free shops on airports, and the most important reason is security. Duty-free shops create a big loop hole in the security system of an airport, and the gold smuggling cases highlight the problem.
II. No, because duty-free sales are an integral part of airport operations and accounts for a big source of revenue. Therefore, they should not be closed without any strong reason.

Q.14. Statement: Should Maggi Be Banned?

Arguments:

I. Yes, because the chemicals present in Maggi and other noodles are harmful for children and often lead to weight gain, liver inflammation, brain damage and other severe health problems.
II. No, because there are many other junk foods available in the market which in no way can be termed as healthy food. If Maggi has to be banned, all those foods should also be banned.

Q.15. Statement:

Should the word “Adhinayak” be dropped from the national anthem??

IBPS PO V (31st October - 2015) (Mains) Exam Analysis

It has been reported that the online IBPS PO/MT CWE V Main examination held on 31st Oct 2015 was very difficult. The Reasoning Section was the difficult most section of all the five sections. The Quant Section was also tough. English section was moderate and the GA and Computer Sections were easy. A similar trend was followed for the exam held in both shifts on 31st Oct 2015.

The snap shot of the exam is given below.

Reasoning IBPS PO Mains 2015 Practice Set-1 For IBPS Exam

Q.1-5. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Statement- Macroeconomic economic indication seem to be positive and these numbers have come in the midst of a global slowdown –Finance Minister of India said

(A)India has potential to be the bright spot in the gloomy economic scenario.
(B)Fiscal deficit is coming down, Foreign exchange reserves are very hammer and inflation is very much under control.
(C)India’s economic growth is expected to improve despite unfavourable global winds.
(D)The government is giving special focus on improving the ease of doing business in the country with initiative like ‘make in India’ to boost the manufacturing sector.
(E)The global economy is trying to find a balance between slowdown in china and growth picking up in U.S .

Q.1. Which amongst (A),(B),(C),(D)and (E) can be inference of the statement?

(1)A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

ANSWER: (3)

Q.2. Which amongst (A),(B),(C),(D)and (E) is the conclusion for the given statement?

(1)A
(2)B
(3)C
(4)D
(5)E

ANSWER: (1)

Q.3. Which amongst (A),(B),(C),(D)and (E) is “Assumption” for the given statement?

(1)A
(2)B
(3)C
(4)D
(5)E

ANSWER: (2)

Q.4. Which amongst (A),(B),(C),(D)and(E) is the course of action for the economic growth of India?

(1)A
(2)B
(3)C
(4)D
(5)E

ANSWER: (4)

Q.5. Which amongst (A),(B),(C),(D)and (E) shows the global action ?

(1)A
(2)B
(3)C
(4)D
(5)E

ANSWER: (5)

Q.6-10. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Statement: DNA evidence has increasingly been used in court to prove guilt and to exonerate the innocent. Because so many convicted felons have been cleared by DNA evidence, all cases in which someone was convicted largely on circumstantial evidence should be called into question and reviewed.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen this argument?

(1) One in three convictions today rests largely on DNA evidence.
(2) DNA evidence is admissible even after the statute of limitations has expired.
(3) Of every ten cases in which DNA evidence becomes available post-conviction, five convictions are overturned.
(4) DNA evidence is 99.8% accurate.
(5) DNA evidence is very difficult to falsify or tamper with.

ANSWER:

Q.6. (3). The fact that would most strengthen this argument is the percentage of cases in which DNA evidence overturned prior convictions. If half of all cases resulted in erroneous convictions that were later cleared by DNA evidence, then that should certainly draw other convictions into doubt. The fact that one in three of today’s convictions rest on DNA evidence has no bearing on prior convictions, so choice a is incorrect. Similarly, the admissibility of DNA evidence (choice 2) has no bearing on the quality of prior convictions. That DNA evidence is accurate (choice 4) and difficult to tamper with (choice 5) strengthens the argument for the use of DNA evidence in court, but it does not directly strengthen the argument that prior convictions should be called into doubt.

Q.7. Statement: Morning Glory, the coffee shop on the corner, has lost nearly 50% of its business because a national retail coffee chain opainted up a store down the street. Instead of closing up shop, the owner of Morning Glory plans to draw in customers by offering coffee, tea, and pastries at much lower prices than the national coffee chain.

The owner’s plan of action is based on all of the following assumptions EXCEPT

(1) some customers will choose the coffee shop that offers the lowest price.
(2) the quality of Morning Glory’s coffee is comparable to that of the national coffee chain.
(3) Morning Glory can afford to cut its profit margin in order to lower prices.
(4) Morning Glory’s customers are very loyal.
(5) the national coffee chain will not lower its prices in order to compete with Morning Glory.

ANSWER:

Q.7. (4). The owner’s plan—to lower prices to attract customers—assumes that some customers will choose the lower price (choice 1), that the quality of Morning Glory’s products is comparable to its competitor (choice 2), that Morning Glory can afford to offer lower prices (choice 3), and that its competitor will also not lower its prices (choice 5). The plan does not rest on any assumptions about the loyalty of Morning Glory customers (choice 4). Indeed, there is evidence that the customers are not loyal, because Morning Glory has already lost 50% of its business.

Q.8. Statement: With more and more classes being offered online, more and more students will earn their degrees in virtual universities. Students in California will graduate from schools in New York without ever leaving their state. Because online courses offer flexibility without geographic boundaries, virtual degrees will be in greater demand, and colleges and universities should invest the bulk of their resources in developing online degree programs.

All of the following, if true, are valid objections to this argument EXCEPT

(1) online courses are more time consuming for faculty to develop than regular courses.
(2) many students need the ability to attend class outside of regular classroom hours.
(3) some students prefer the traditional classroom to the virtual classroom.
(4) not every course is suitable for an online environment.
(5) there is no way to ensure the authenticity of a student’s work in an online environment.

ANSWER: