Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)\

Q1. (1) This college has /
(2) a glorious tradition /
(3) that attract /
(4) good students to the college. /
(5) No error

Q2. (1) Manasi is too busy /
(2) in her current /
(3) programmes to take /
(4) up any new ones. /
(5) No error

Directions: In each of the following questions four words are given of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination by darkening the appropriate oval in your answer-sheet.

Q3. (1) census (2) censure (3) reprimand (4) universe

(1) A-B
(2) A-D
(3) A-C
(4) B-C
(5) C-D

Q4. (1) reason (2) discernible (3) valid (4) perceptible

(1) A-D
(2) B-C
(3) A-C
(4) C-D
(5) B-D

Q5. (1) critical (2) space (3) concourse (4) courtyard

(1) A-D
(2) B-D
(3) C-D
(4) B-C
(5) A-B

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Answer:-

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (4)

Directions Q. 1-5 : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions following it.
In a family of eight persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W - there are four males and four females. There are three married couples and two persons are unmarried. Each of them reads a different magazine, viz. India Today (E), India Today (H), Outlook (E), Outlook (H), Frontline, The Week, Business world and Sport sstar. No couple reads both the versions of the same magazine.
In the family of two generations, each male member except W has two brothers and one sister. V is the mother-in-law of R and who reads India Today (H). Q, who reads Outlook (E), is the daughter-in-law of W. T, who reads Frontline, is the unmarried brother of U, who does not read Business world. No female reads Outlook (H) or The Week. S is the brother-in-law of R but he does not read Business world, Sports star or The Week. P does not read The Week. W has no son-in-law. U is Q's sister-in-law.

Q1. Who among the following reads Outlook (H)?

(1) Can't say
(2) S
(3) P
(4) R
(5) None of these

Q2. R reads which of the following magazines?

(1) Can't say
(2) India Today (E)
(3) Business world
(4) Sports star
(5) None of these

Q3. Which of the following pairs of persons does not represent the couples?

I. W and V
II. P and R
III. S and Q

(1) Can't say
(2) Only I
(3) Only II
(4) Only III
(5) All of the above pairs of persons represent the couples

Q4. How many sons does W have?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Can't say
(5) None of these

Q5. How is P related with U?

(1) Father
(2) Brother
(3) Husband
(4) Can't say
(5) None of these

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Answer:-

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (5) 4. (2) 5. (2)

Q1. A milkman has 75 litres milk in one can and 45 litres in another. The maximum capacity of a container which can measure milk of either container exact number of times, is

(1) 1 litre
(2) 5 litres
(3) 15 litres
(4) 25 litres
(5) None of these

Q2. A student was asked to multiply a number by but he divided that number by . His result was 10 less than the correct answer. The number was

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 15
(4) 20
(5) None of these

Q3. A and B together have Rs 158, C has Rs 101 less than what A and B together have, and B has Rs 23 more than C. Then amount of A is

(1) Rs 80
(2) Rs 78
(3) Rs 57
(4) Rs 88
(5) None of these

Q4. Three solid metallic balls of radii 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm are melted and moulded into a single solid ball. The radius of the new ball is

(1) 2 cm
(2) 3 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 6 cm
(5) None of these

Q5. A car goes 10 metres in a second. Find its speed in km/hour.

(1) 40
(2) 32
(3) 48
4) 36
(5) None of these

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Answer:-

1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (4)

Q1. Which of the following is not a unit of measurement in computer systems?

(1) DPI
(2) PPI
(3) API
(4) Bd
(5) MB

Q2. In Windows XP, which of the following shortcuts is used to cycle through opened items in taskbar?

(1) Ctrl + Tab
(2) Alt + Tab
(3) Ctrl + Esc
(4) Alt + Esc
(5) None of these

Q3. In concern of databases, what does OLTP stands for?

(1) On-Line Transfer Process
(2) On-Line Transfer Protocol
(3) On-Line Transaction Protocol
(4) On-Line Transaction Processing
(5) None of the above

Q4. ____ is a process of analysing data from different perspectives and summarising it into useful information.

(1) Normalisation
(2) Data Mining
(3) Data Manipulation
(4) Data Warehouse
(5) None of the above

Q5. A network point that acts as an entrance to another network is called:

(1) Switch
(2) Gateway
(3) Router
(4) Handshake
(5) Pipelining

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Answer:-

1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (2)

Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q1. (1) They have invited /
(2) Sushma and I/
(3) for the meeting to be /
(4) held in the next month. /
(5) No error

Q2. (1) The city people stayed /
(2) fearlessly despite of /
(3) rumour of terrorist attack /
(4) in the area. /
(5) No error

Q3. (1) The Director asked me /
(2) how I have not /
(3) taken his permission /
(4) before applying for the new job. /
(5) No error

Q4. (1) Buy presents for ladies /
(2) in their absence /
(3) is a very /
(4) difficult task. /
(5) No error

Q5. (1) A disaster management cell is opened /
(2) by the state government /
(3) before the rainy season /
(4) as a precau­tionary measure. /
(5) No error

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Answer:-

1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (3)

Q1. Four of the following five pair are similar in same way. One of them is different from the others. Find out the odd pair.

(1) 2620,2924
(2) 5020,5564
(3) 6232,6368
(4) 1184,1210
(5) 3262,6386

Q2. If the letters in the word HAEMOPHILIA are arranged in the alphabetical order and each letter is assigned numerical value equal to its serial number from the left in this rearranged order, what is the difference in the total of numerical values of vowels and that of consonants?

(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 7
(5) None of these

Q3. One afternoon, Manisha and Madhuri were talking to each other face to face in Bhopal on MG Road. If Manisha's shadow was exactly to the left of Madhuri, which direction was Manisha facing?

(1) North
(2) South
(3) East
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Q4. If the first day of the year (other than the leap year) was Friday, then which was the last day of that year ?

(1) Monday
(2) Friday
(3) Saturday
(4) Sunday
(5) None of these

Q5. Pointing to a photograph Monica said, "He is the brother of the son of my grand- father's only daughter. "How is the man related to Monica?

(1) brother
(2) cousin
(3) nephew
(4) Can't say
(5) None of these

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Answer:-

1. (5) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4)

Q1. Divide Rs 7,500 among A, B and C such that A's share to B's share is in the ratio 5 : 2 and B's share to C's share is in the ratio 7 : 13. How much will B receive?

(1) Rs 1,400
(2) Rs 3,500
(3) Rs 2,600
(4) Rs 7,000
(5) None of these

Q2. The ratio of copper and zinc in brass is 13:7. How much zinc will be there in 100 kg of brass?

(1) 20 kg
(2) 55 kg
(3) 35 kg
(4) 40 kg
(5) None of these

Q3. Sum of three consecutive even integers is 54. Find the least among them.

(1) 18
(2) 15
(3) 14
(4) 16
(5) None of these

Q4. A TV and a VCR together cost Rs 35,000. If TV is times costlier than VCR, then the cost of VCR is

(1) Rs 12,000
(2) Rs 14,000
(3) Rs 13,000
(4) Rs 15,000
(5) None of these

Q5. If one-third of one-fourth of a number is 15, then three-tenths of the number is

(1) 35
(2) 36
(3) 45
(4) 54
(5) None of these

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Answer:-

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (4)

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Right of entry to education, an ample teaching-learning environment, a suitable curriculum and an empowered and all-encompassing faculty are four essential prerequisites of an education system that seeks to enable social transforma­tion. While educational reform since the 1980s was strongly focused on the first two elements, the late 1990s brought the role of the curriculum into national focus. The critical link that binds these four critical elements together the activ­ity of the faculty - continues to be cast aside, by political ideologies of most hues, contemporary curriculum reform efforts and the professional practices of the faculty.
Far-reaching educational initiatives of both the Left and the Right have recognised the potential power of the faculty. In multiple experiments, they have used this dormant force to build committed institutions and cadres of faculties dedicated to their particular causes. In many instances this has led to extreme politicisation of the college faculty. In others it has led to the education of a generation of students in half­truths underpinned by the personal beliefs, sectarian concerns and folk pedagogy of faculties who have had little access themselves to education and training in related areas.
Over the last decade or so, educational reform has included, apart from access, a focus on developing alternative text materials and the training of faculty to handle these materials, without directly engaging with the issue of curriculum revamp. At the turn of the 20th century, a major national curriculum redesign was initiated following the change of political regime at the centre. The subsequent development of college programme came under wide public scrutiny and debate. Issues of equity, inclusion and exclusion, learner medley religious identity and communalism gained considerable importance in the curriculum debates that followed. For instance, scholars argued that “...the curriculum, while loud on rhetoric, fails to address the quality of education that students of underprivileged and marginalised groups experi­ence.” Several other critics described the revised curriculum as a retrogressive step in education that sought to impose the religious agenda in the garb of a national identity.
The subsequent change of national government in 2004 led to the curriculum review in 2005, underlining a new politi­cal interest in the role of education in national development, its role in social mobilisation and transformation directed specifically at questions of caste and gender asymmetry and minority empowerment. Deeper than these politically driven initiatives, however, the professional need for curriculum review emerges from the long ossification of a national education system that continues to view faculty as “dispensers of information” and students as “passive recipients” of an “education” sought to be “delivered” in four-walled classrooms with little scope to develop critical thinking and understanding.

Q1. Revamping of the text material was the main focus in

(1) early eighties
(2) late nineties
(3) 21st century
(4) evolving curriculum framework
(5) training faculty

Q2. Which of the following best describes the meaning of the word underpinned as used in the passage?

(1) advocated
(2) supported
(3) prepared
(4) bolstered
(5) boosted

Q3. What hampers the critical thinking ability of collegegoing students?

(1) The emphasis on rote memorisation and recalling the facts of education based on real experience
(2) Lack of political will to develop these abilities
(3) Absence of focus while designing curriculum frame­ work
(4) Ignoring the active role of faculty and the student
(5) Lack of proper tests of critical thinking ability

Q4. How did personal beliefs and folk pedagogy enter into educational system?

(1) The college acted as an agent of local communities.
(2) The faculties were not properly trained.
(3) College faculties started acting as passive listeners.
(4) The loopholes in the educational system allowed it to happen.
(5) It was by design.

Q5. Development of textbooks generated public debate on many issues except

(1) making the curriculum student-centred.
(2) using teaching community as an agency to bring change.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Both A and B
(4) Either A or B
(5) None of these

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Answer:-

1. (4) 2. (5) 3. (1) 4. (5) 5. (3)

Q1. Four of the following five pair are similar in same way. One of them is different from the others. Find out the odd pair.

(1) 2620,2924
(2) 5020,5564
(3) 6232,6368
(4) 1184,1210
(5) 3262,6386

Q2. If the letters in the word HAEMOPHILIA are arranged in the alphabetical order and each letter is assigned numerical value equal to its serial number from the left in this rearranged order, what is the difference in the total of numerical values of vowels and that of consonants?

(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 7
(5) None of these

Q3. One afternoon, Manisha and Madhuri were talking to each other face to face in Bhopal on MG Road. If Manisha's shadow was exactly to the left of Madhuri, which direction was Manisha facing

(1) North
(2) South
(3) East
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Q4. If the first day of the year (other than the leap year) was Friday, then which was the last day of that year ?

(1) Monday
(2) Friday
(3) Saturday
(4) Sunday
(5) None of these

Q5. Pointing to a photograph Monica said, "He is the brother of the son of my grand- father's only daughter. "How is the man related to Monica?

(1) brother
(2) cousin
(3) nephew
(4) Can't say
(5) None of these

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Answer:-

1. (5) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4)

Q1. The least multiple of 13 which on dividing by 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 leaves remainder 2 in each case, is

(1) 2520
(2) 842
(3) 2522
(4) 840
(5) None of these

Q2. The greatest number which when divides 989 and 1327 leaves remainders 5 and 7 respectively, is

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 24
(4) 32
(5) None of these

Q3. A certain amount of money is distributed among A, B and C. A gets and B gets of the whole amount. If C gets Rs 81, then B gets

(1) Rs 30
(2) Rs 36
(3) Rs 32
(4) Rs 40
(5) None of these\

Q4. The least number that must be subtracted from 63520 to make the result a perfect square, is

(1) 16
(2) 20
(3) 24
(4) 30
(5) None of these

Q5. The ratio of the present ages of two brothers is 1 : 2 and 5 years back the ratio was 1:3. What will be the ratio of their ages after 5 years ?

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 5
(4) 5 : 6
(5) None of these

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Answer:-

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (3)

Q1. A _______ is a computer over internets which read IP address on a packet and relay it towards its destination.

(1) switch
(2) router
(3) server
(4) hub
(5) None of these

Q2. A floppy can be write-protected by:-

(1) Breaking the slider
(2) Positioning the slider to cover the hole
(3) Positioning the slider away from the hole
(4) A floppy cannot be write-protected.
(5) None of these

Q3. Rotational delay time is also known as?

(1) Latency
(2) Seek time
(3) Access time
(4) Shift time
(5) None of these

Q4. The average drives have an access time of:-

(1) 24-29 ms
(2) 9-14 ms
(3) 80-70 ms
(4)15-27 ms
(5) None of these

Q5. In which of the following kinds of disk does the read/write head physically touch the surface?

(1) Hard Disk
(2) Compact Disk
(3) Floppy Disk
(4) All the above
(5) None of these

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Answer:-

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (3)

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Right of entry to education, an ample teaching-learning environment, a suitable curriculum and an empowered and all-encompassing faculty are four essential prerequisites of an education system that seeks to enable social transforma­tion. While educational reform since the 1980s was strongly focused on the first two elements, the late 1990s brought the role of the curriculum into national focus. The critical link that binds these four critical elements together the activ­ity of the faculty - continues to be cast aside, by political ideologies of most hues, contemporary curriculum reform efforts and the professional practices of the faculty.
Far-reaching educational initiatives of both the Left and the Right have recognised the potential power of the faculty. In multiple experiments, they have used this dormant force to build committed institutions and cadres of faculties dedicated to their particular causes. In many instances this has led to extreme politicisation of the college faculty. In others it has led to the education of a generation of students in half­truths underpinned by the personal beliefs, sectarian concerns and folk pedagogy of faculties who have had little access themselves to education and training in related areas.
Over the last decade or so, educational reform has included, apart from access, a focus on developing alternative text materials and the training of faculty to handle these materials, without directly engaging with the issue of curriculum revamp. At the turn of the 20th century, a major national curriculum redesign was initiated following the change of political regime at the centre. The subsequent development of college programme came under wide public scrutiny and debate. Issues of equity, inclusion and exclusion, learner medley religious identity and communalism gained considerable importance in the curriculum debates that followed. For instance, scholars argued that “...the curriculum, while loud on rhetoric, fails to address the quality of education that students of underprivileged and marginalised groups experi­ence.” Several other critics described the revised curriculum as a retrogressive step in education that sought to impose the religious agenda in the garb of a national identity.
The subsequent change of national government in 2004 led to the curriculum review in 2005, underlining a new politi­cal interest in the role of education in national development, its role in social mobilisation and transformation directed specifically at questions of caste and gender asymmetry and minority empowerment. Deeper than these politically driven initiatives, however, the professional need for curriculum review emerges from the long ossification of a national education system that continues to view faculty as “dispensers of information” and students as “passive recipients” of an “education” sought to be “delivered” in four-walled classrooms with little scope to develop critical thinking and understanding.

Q1. Which of the following best describes the phrase “passive recipients” as used in the passage?

(1) Well-framed curriculum guiding the teaching/learn­ing process
(2) The political ideology of right and left parties
(3) Free access to education system
(4) The users of the educational system
(5) The faculty

Q2. To facilitate social transformation, which of the following has been identified by the author as one of the factors?

(1) A committed political ideology
(2) Support of the well-framed curriculum
(3) A strong administration system
(4) Carefully planned education delivery
(5) None of these

Q3. Prior to 1990 what was NOT on the agenda of ‘he educational reforms?

(A) An appropriate curriculum
(B) Well-managed admission process

(1) Only A
(2) Both A and B
(3) Either A or B
(4) Only B
(5) None of these

Q4. Which of the following is the most opposite in meaning of the word medley as used in the passage?

(1) amalgamate
(2) united
(3) unity
(4) diffuse
(5) focusing

Q5. Which of the following best describes the word ossification as used in the passage?

(1) Incorporation 
(2) hardening
(3) imbibition
(4) coalescing
(5) plasticity

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Answer:-

1. (4) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (1)

Q1. Venerate: Worship:: Extol: ?

(1) Glorify
(2) Homage
(3) Compliment
(4) Recommend
(5) None of these

Q2. Four of the following are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) Apple
(2) Mango
(3) Papaya
(4) Water-melon
(5) Orange

Q3. How many pairs of letters are there in the word VALETUDINARIAN which have number of letters between them in the word two more than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?

(1) 11
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 8
(5) None of these

Q4. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the first, the third, the sixth and the seventh letters of the word ASSUMPTION, using each letter only once, then which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If no such word can be formed give 'X' as the answer, and if only two such words can be formed, give 'Y' as your answer. If more than two such words can be made give 'Z' as the answer.

(1) P
(2) X
(3) Z
(4) Y
(5) None of these

Q5. In a certain code language INHALE is written as 'FLKQEKZBKMDF'. How is PARCEL written in that code?

(1) MSDXOUBDDFKM
(2) MSXDUOBDDFKM
(3) MSXDOVBDDFKM
(4) MSXDOUBDDFFM
(5) None of these

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Answer:-

1. (1) 2. (5) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (5)

Directions: In each of the questions below there are three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given-statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

1. Statements:
a. Some fruits are flowers.
b. No flower is a boat.
c. All boats are rivers.

Conclusions:
I. Some fruits are rivers.
II. Some rivers are boats.
III. Some rivers are fruits.
IV. Some flowers are fruits.

(a) All of the above
(b) II and IV only
(c) I and III only
(d) II and III only
(e) None of these

2. Statements:
a: Some buses are horses.
b. All horses are goats.
c. All goats are dogs.

Conclusions:
I. Some dogs are buses.
II. Some dogs are horses.
III. Some dogs are goats.
IV. Some buses are goats.

(a) None of the above
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) III and IV only
(e) All of the ‘above

3. Statements:
a. Some chairs are buildings.
b. All buildings are vehicles.
c. Some vehicles are trucks.

Conclusions:
I. Some chairs are trucks.
II. Some chairs are vehicles.
III. Some vehicles are buildings.
IV. No truck is a chair.

(a) None of the above
(b) Hand III only
(c) Either only I or II and III and IV
(d) Either only I or IV and II and III
(e) All of the above

4. Statements:
a. All doors are windows.
b. All houses are windows.
c. Some windows are soaps.

Conclusions:
I. Some doors are houses.
II. Some houses are soaps.
III. Some soaps are doors.
IV. All soaps are windows.

(a) None of the above
(b) I only
(c) I and III only
(d) II and IV only
(e) All of the above

5. Statements:
a. Some cruel animals are papers.
b. No paper is tree.
c. All trees are” ways.

Conclusions:
I. No cruel animal is tree.
II. Some ways are trees.
III. Some papers are cruel animals.
IV. Some cruel animals. are trees.

(a) I and II only
(b) II, III and IV only
(c) Only either I or IV and III
(d) I, II and III only
(e) None of these

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

1. P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family.
2. Each one of them has a different profession Doctor, Teacher, Lawyer, Engineer, Architect, Chartered Accountant and Banker-and their incomes are different.
3. There are two married couples in the group.
4. R is the Doctor and earns more than the Engineer and the Lawyer.
5. T is married to the Chartered Accountant and ‘she earns the least.
6. No lady is either Lawyer-or Engineer.
7. Q, the Teacher, earns’ less than P, the Banker. W is married to Q and he earns more than Sand P.
8. V is not the Lawyer. The Chartered Accountant earns less than the Lawyer but more than the Banker.

1. Who earns the maximum in the family?

(a) V
(b) W
(c) R
(d) S
(e) None of these

2. Which of the following is a pair of married couple?

(a) RT
(b) VT
(c) QT
(d) ST
(e) None of these

3. What is P’s position from the top when they are arranged in descending order of their incomes?

(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Third
(d) Sixth
(e) None of these

4. What is the profession of V?

(a) Engineer
(b) Chartered-Accountant
(c) Engineer or Chartered Accountant
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

5. At least how many male members are there in the family?

(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) None of these

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

Directions: In each sentence below, four words have been printed in bold and lettered as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence or grammatically incorrect.
The letter of that word is the answer. If there is no error of any of the above types. The answer is (e) i.e. ‘No Error’.

1. India has progressed/(a) remarkably/(b) in exercising/(c) our commitments, in international affairs/(d). No Error/(e).
2. Imported items are costlier/(a) than there/(b) domestic/(c) counterparts/(d). No Error/(e)
3. There is hardly any resemblance/(a) between’ the faces/(b) of the so called identical/(c) twins/(d). No Error/(e)
4. An exorbitantly/(a) rigid attitude may prove/(b) very dangerous/(c), even total/(d). No Error/(e)
5. Although/(a) I was paid significantly/(b) low, I found my salary to be insufficient/(c) or rather adequate/(d). No Error/(e)

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data

Directions: These questions are based on the following information:

Children in a class play only one or two or all the three games badminton, football and cricket. 5 children play only cricket, 8 children play only football and 7 children play only badminton. 3 children play only two games badminton and football, 4 children play only two games cricket and football and another 4 children play only two games badminton and cricket. 2 children play all the three games.

1. In all how many children play football?

(a) 8
(b) 17
(c) 15
(d) 14
(e) None of these

2. How many children play badminton as well as cricket?

(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 4
(d) 6
(e) None of these

3. Total how many children are there in the class?

(a) 33
(b) 31
(c) 36
(d) 35
(e) None of these

4. In all how many children play badminton?

(a) 14
(b) 17
(c) 12
(d) 13
(e) None of these

5. How many children play football as well as cricket?

(a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 15
(e) None of these
 

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

Directions: Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer .the questions given below them-

(A) We at Infoquicktech thus make sure that our clients receive the best and the quickest services in the field of I.T.
(B) Information Technology has transformed a lot in this decade and this metamorphosis is exceedingly quick,
(C) The user can now get the desired information in a fraction of a second.
(D) Our newer packages now perform in a far better way than our clients used to get in the past.
(E) Our search engines have been astoundingly powerful to process and fetch the required information to the user.
(F) These improvements perform a real magic, in the true sense of the term, to facilitate quicker access.

1. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (E)

2. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (F)

3. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (E)

4. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (E)

5. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (E)
 

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

Directions: Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
P % R 1 5 * M T E 3 B $ V N 4 K A 8 W 1 6 2 G # U H 7 J Q 9 L Y

Directions: In each of these questions two equation I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer:

(a) If a < b
(b) If a > b
(c) If relationship between a and b cannot be established
(d) If a b
(e) If a b

1. I. 4a² – 20a + 21 = 0
II. 2b² – 5b + 3 = 0

2. I. 6a² – 25a + 25 = 0
II. 15b² – 16b + 4 = 0

3. I. a² = 4
II. b² = 9

4. I. 2a² – 3a + 1 = 0
II. 12b² – 7b + 1 = 0

5. I. a² + 5a + 6 = 0
II. b² + 3b + 2 = 0
 

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

ANSWER:
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (e)

Directions: Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (e) as the answer.

1. There are indications that the prospects for growth in industrial output has improved.

(a) Have improved
(b) Have improvements
(c) Has improvements
(d) Has been improving
(e) No correction required

2. Missed opportunities and failure to delivery results can destroy even well-run organizations.

(a) Failed deliveries
(b) Failure of delivery
(c) Failed to deliver
(d) Failure to deliver
(e) No correction required

3. The railway budget is not proposed any revision in passenger fares and freight rates.

(a) Is not proposing any revised
(b) Has not proposed any revision
(c) Has not revised any proposal
(d) Has no revised proposal
(e) No correction required

4. Banks have been authorized to advance loans to distressed urban poor.

(a) Authorized to advancement of
(b) Authorized to advancing
(c) Authorizing to advancement
(d) Authorized for advancement
(e) No correction required

5. The spectators were spellbound at the thrilling sight and at the end, they could not held their applause in appreciation.

(a) With held their applause
(b) Withhold their applause
(c) Held their applauding
(d) Hold their applaud
(e) No correction required
 

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

ANSWER:
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (e) 5. (b)

Directions: Considering the information given for questions, find out which one or two or three of the words denoted by A, B, C correspond to the given value?

1. 80

(A) HEAD
(B) AHEAD
(C) ODD

(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) A and C only
(d) All of three
(e) None of these

2. 200

(A) HOW
(B) SKY
(C) BEGAY

(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) A and C only
(d) A only
(e) All the three

3. 230

(A) PAWN
(B) WOLF
(C) BAD

(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) C only
(d) A and C only

4. 50

(A) DAM
(B) WAD
(C) BAD

(a) A only
(b) A and B only
(c) B and C only
(d) B only
(e) None of these

5. 90

(A) BEG
(B) WAD
(C) NOD

(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) C only
(d) A and B only
(e) All the three
 

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

ANSWER:
1. (b) 2. (e) 3. (b) 4. (e) 5. (d)

1. Mr. ‘X’ invested certain amounts in two different scheme ‘A’ and ‘B’. Scheme ‘A’ offers simple interest @ 12 p.c.p.a. and Scheme ‘B’ offers compound interest @ 10 p.c.p.a. Interest accured on the amount invested in Scheme ‘A’ in 2 years was Rs. 3600 and the total amount invested was Rs. 35000. What was interest accursed on the amount invested in Scheme ‘B’?

(a) Rs. 4800
(b) Rs. 4200
(c) Rs. 4000
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

2. The salary of an employee increase consistently by 50% ever year. If his salary today is Rs. 10000, what will be the salary after another 4 years?

(a) Rs. 62500
(b) Rs. 26500
(c) Rs. 50625
(d) Rs. 33750
(e) None of these

3. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?
167.5 ÷ 83.5 ÷27.5 = ?

(a) 84
(b) 164
(c) 215
(d) 227
(e) None of these

4. Present ages of Seema and Naresh are in the respective ratio of 5 : 7. Five years hence the ratio of their ages becomes 3 : 4 respectively. What is the Naresh’s present age in years?

(a) 25
(b) 40
(c) 30
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

5. In a two-digit number the digit in the unit’s place is twice the digit in the ten’s place and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is more than the original number by 27. What is 50% of the original number?

(a) 36
(b) 63
(c) 48
(d) 18
(e) None of these
 

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

ANSWER:
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (e) 5. (d)

Directions: Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (e) as the answer.

1. The claim that their employees are highly committing and disciplined.

(a) Have been highly committing
(b) Are highly committed
(c) Have high commitments
(d) Have been high committed
(e) No correction required

2. Before accepting a new assignment, ensured that you complete all your earlier assignments.

(a) Ensure that you complete
(b) Ensure that you completed
(b) Amount after tax
(c) Surely you can complete
(d) Ensure that you are completing
(e) No correction required .

3. I am fully convinced of the integrity of my colleagues.

(a) Full convincing of
(b) Fully convincing about
(c) Fully convincing of
(d) Full in convincing of
(e) No correction required

4. The spectators were spellbound at the thrilling sight and at the end, they could not held their applause in appreciation.

(a) With held their applause
(b) Withhold their applause
(c) Held their applauding
(d) Hold their applaud
(e) No correction required

5. Tokyo is one of the mostly populated cities in the world.

(a) Thickly populated city in
(b) Thickly populated city of
(c) Most populated cities in
(d) Most populated city of
(e) No correction required
 

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

ANSWER:
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c)

Directions: The English alphabet is categorised into 5 groups, each starting with a vowel and encompassing the immediately following consonants in the group, Thus, the first group would have letters A, B, C and D; the second E, F, G and H; and So on. These groups are assigned values as 10 for the first, 20 for the second, and so on, up to 50 for the last. Every letter in a particular group will have the same value of the group when used to form words, The value of each letter should add up to compute the value of the word. If the word has letters only from the same group, the value of the word would be the value of the letter multiplied by the number of letters in the word. However, if the letters in a word are from different groups, the value of the first letter of the word and any other letter of that group will be the same as that of its group, but that of the subsequent letter will be ‘double’ as much as the value of its group.
For example: The value of ‘CAB’ will be30  (i.e., 10 + 10 + 10) as all the three letters are from the first group, each one having a value of 10.  The value of ‘BUT’ will be 10 + (50 × (2) + (40 × (2) = 190.  The value of’ JUNK’ will be 30 + (50 × (2) + 30 + 30 = 190. 

Find out the value of each word in the following questions:

1. AGE

(a) 50
(b) 90
(c) 60
(d) 70
(e) None of these

2. QUEUE

(a) 140
(b) 280
(c) 320
(d) 360
(e) None of these

3. SPORT

(a) 200
(b) 360
(c) 380
(d) 250
(e) None of these

4. HIGH

(a) 40
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 80
(e) None of these

5. SHOP

(a) 70
(b) 120
(c) 130
(d) 140
(e) None of these
 

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

ANSWER:
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (e) 5. (e)

Directions: What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equations?

1. 125% of 4845 + 88.005 × 14.995 = ?

(a) 7395
(b) 7485
(c) 7514
(d) 7375
(e) 7415

2. 1010 ÷ 36 + 187 × 20.05 = ?

(a) 3650
(b) 3770
(c) 3825
(d) 3800
(e) 3700

3. 127.001 × 7.998 + 6.05 × 4.001 = ?

(a) 1440
(b) 1400
(c) 1000
(d) 1040
(e) 1140

4. 4 boys and three girls are to be seated in a row in such a way that no two boys sit adjacent to each other. In how many different can it be done?

(a) 5040
(b) 30
(c) 144
(d) 72
(e) None of these

5. A committee of 3 members is to be formed out of 3 men and 4 women. In how many different ways can it be done so that at least one member is a women?

(a) 34
(b) 12
(c) 30
(d) 36
(e) None of these
 

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

ANSWER:
1. (e) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a)

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The genesis of service tax emanates from the ongoing structural transformation of the Indian economy, whereby presently more than one-half of GDP originates from the services sector. Despite the growing presence of the services sector in the Indian economy, it remained out of the tax net prior to 1994-95, leading to a steady deterioration in tax-GDP ratio. The service tax was introduced in 1994-95 on a select category of services at a low rate of five per cent. While the service tax rate and the coverage of services being taxed have increased ever since, the combined tax-GDP ratio of the Centre and States, nevertheless, deteriorated from 16.4 per cent in 1985-86 to 14.1 per cent in 1999-2000. It may be noted that between 1990-91 and 1998-99, the share of industrial sector in GDP dropped by 6.4 percentage points whereas almost 64 per cent of the tax revenue was generated by indirect taxes for which industrial sector continues-to be the principal tax base. On the other hand, during the same period, the share of services sector in GDP has increased by 10 percentage points and this sector has still remained poorly taxed.
The rationale for service tax, therefore lies riot only in arresting the falling tax-GDP ratio but also in ipso facto improving a locative efficiency in the economy as well as promoting equity. Against this back-drop, the service tax needs to be designed taking into account the fact that (i) the share of services in GDP is expanding; (ii) failure to tax services distorts consumer choices and encourages spending on services at the expense of goods; (iii) untaxed service traders are unable to claim value added tax (VAT) on service inputs, which encourages businesses to develop in-house services, creating further distortions; and (iv) most’ services that are likely to become taxable are positively correlated with expenditure of high income households and, therefore, service tax improves equity.
In the Indian context taxation of services assumes importance in the wake of the need for improving the revenue system, ensuring a measure of neutrality in taxation between goods and services and eventually helping to evolve: an efficient system of domestic trade taxes, both at the Central and the State levels.
The coverage of services under tax net has been progressively widened over the years. With effect of the Finance Act, 2004, 71 service are presently contributing to the service tax collections. The services tax is applicable to ll parts ofIndia except the State of Jammu and Kashmir and is leviable on the gross amount charged by the service provider from the client. The rate of service tax was increased from 5 per cent since September 10,2004. With the increase in tax rate and base of service tax, the collections from the service tax have shown a steady rise from Rs. 410 crores in 1994-95 tc. Rs. 8,300 crores in 2003-04; however, they accounted for only 4.4 per cent of the total tax receipts of the Centre (0.3 percent of GDP) in 2003-04. Service’ tax is envisaged as the tax of the future. The inclusion of all value added services in the tax net would yield a larger amount of revenue and make the existing tax structure more elastic. Once the service sector is adequately covered under tax net, the buoyant services sector will enable the reversal of declining trend in tax buoyancy. Besides raising the revenue buoyancy, appropriate taxation of services sector would also provide equity, efficiency and consistency in the tax administration as well as neutrality for various economic activities. Integration of services sector to the tax net would be the prelude to the introduction of a full-fledged VAT system.

Directions: Choose the word/group of words which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as given in the passage.

1. NET

(a) Actual amount
(b) Amount after tax
(c) Governance
(d) Coverage
(e) Mesh

2. ENVISAGE

(a) Implement
(b) Unreliable
(c) Endure
(d) Untenable
(e) Expect

Directions: Choose the word/ group of words which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as given in the passage.

3. PROGRESSIVELY

(a) Gradually
(b) Abruptly
(c) Occasionally
(d) Narrowly
(e) Ineffectively

4. ELASTIC

(a) Flexible
(b) Unreliable
(c) Faulty
(d) Untenable
(e) Rigid

Directions: Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (e) as the answer.

5. Take into account the suggestions of the panel, a revised draft report is being placed in the public domain.

(a) Taken into account
(b) Taking an account
(c) Taking into account
(d) Accounting for
(e) No correction required
 

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

ANSWER:
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (e) 5. (c)

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) Now
(b) After
(c) Then
(d) Before
(e) Again

2. Among four persons, B is taller than C. A is taller than D, but not as tall as C. Who among them is the tallest?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

3. What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?’
Y9B* W*D7 *U5F ?

(a) S 3 H *
(b) T # H *
(c) T * # H
(d) S * H 5
(e) S H * 1

4. In a certain code language ‘MEAL’ is written as ‘$£*@’ and ‘SAFE’ is written as ‘*+£’. How is ‘FAME’ written in that code language?

(a) +*$£
(b) *+$@
(c) +*@$
(d) £@*+
(e) None of these

5. ‘If’ is related to ‘condition’ in the same way as ‘But’ is related to

(a) Supplement
(b) Negation
(c) Contradiction
(d) Strengthen
(e) Disapproval
 

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

ANSWER:
1. (e) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c)

Directions: In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information given in three statements. You have to study the question alnogwith the statements and decide the information given in which of the statement(s) is necessary and sufficient to answer the question.

1. What is the volume of the cylinder tank?

I. Area of the base is x square metres.
II. Height of the tank is y metres.
III. Diameter of the base is equal to the height of the tank.

(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and III
(d) All I, II and III
(e) Any two of the three

2. How many children are there is the class?

I. 20% children speak only Hindi.
II. 44 children can speak languages other than Hindi.
III. There are 30 boys in the class.

(a) All I, II and III
(b) Any two of the three
(c) II and either I or III
(d) I and II only
(e) None of these

3. What is the speed of the train?

I. Length of the platform is 150% of the length of the train.
II. The train crosses the platform in 25 seconds.
III. The train crosses the signal pole in 10 seconds.

(a) II and III
(b) I and either II or III
(c) Only II and III
(d) Any two of the three
(e) Question cannot be answered even with the information in all the statements.

4. What is the selling price of the T.V. set if no discount is offered?

I. Profit earned was 20%.
II. Had 1 0% discount been offered on selling price the profit would have been Rs. 1200.
III. Cost price is Rs. 15000.

(a) Any two of the three
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only I and III
(d) Only II and III
(e) None of these

5. What is the average weight of girls in the class?

I. Average weight of all the 60 students in 43 kg.
II. Average weight of boys is 43 kg.
III. Total weight of all the girls together is 1144 kg.

(a) Any two of the three
(b) All I, II and III
(c) II and III only
(d) Question cannot be answered even with information in all three statements.
 

SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary) Printed Study Notes

ANSWER:
1. (e) 2. (d) 3. (e) 4. (c) 5. (b)