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RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Paper - 2015

Quantitative Aptitude

• Exam Name: RBI Grade B Officer
• Exam Year: 2015
• Subject: Quantitative Aptitude
• Medium: English

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RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Paper II - 2015

ENGLISH - Set A

Q. 1. Write an essay of about 400 words on any one of the following topics: 50 marks

a. Government’s Gold related Schemes.
b. Will China’s Downturn help India?
c. Is Progress possible without Peace?
d. India needs bold Capital Investment.
e. Climatic Catastrophes are due to Man’s wild constructions.

Q. 2. Make a précis of the following passage in about 110 words and give it  a suitable title. 50 marks

The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) will start working closely with banks to kick-start the government's Start-Up India initiative in both rural and urban India. Commerce and Industry Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said the government would ensure that startups don't run out of money and that their equity requirements don't go unattended. The minister was talking to the media on the sidelines of a FICCI event.

The department is spearheading the Start-Up India initiative announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in his Independence Day address. Sitharaman said DIPP would work with banks across the country, espcially in rural areas. "If each of these (bank) branches gives tribal or Dalit population something to start up with, it would take the whole startup and innovate India (initiative) thought to district level," she said.

RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Paper II - 2015

ENGLISH - Set B

Q. 1. Write an essay of about 400 words on any one of the following topics: 50 marks

• a. How can India gain from China’s stock market crisis ?
• b. India’s GDP growth will keep rising in the next five years.
• c. Tolerance should be the new Religion!
• d. Indian economy needs Capital Investment.
• e. Man is responsible for Climatic disasters.

Q. 2. Make a précis of the following passage in about 140 words and give it a suitable title. 50 marks

A committee set up by the government to review the international competitiveness of the Indian financial sector has flagged capital controls, mistakes in financial sector regulation and taxation as primary reasons for loss to offshore markets.

The finance ministry has sought comments on the first report submitted by a standing council set up by the UPA government.

Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : English Language Set - 46

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold in the passage to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Swami Vivekanand had said, “So long as the millions live in hunger and ignorance, I hold everyone traitor, who, having been educated at their expense, pays not the least heed to them”.
This issue has become relevant in the light of the recent fall from grace of the American capitalist image. The Enron, World.com and Xerox exposures have revealed the ugly side of Western style capitalism under which, in the quest for short-term gains, wrong doings are overlooked. As a result people have lost trust in corporate performance and those involved in it. Further, many of those involved, in these scandals were highly educated. In India too, we have had our share of such scams in the stock market and the actors involved in them were educated men. Earning of profits is, no doubt, the main aim of any business. But, if they are earned with principles they enrich people’s lives. As the Jagadguru Sankaracharya says, “All for each and each for all” should be the motto of enlightened men.
JRD Tata used to say “While profit motive, no doubt, provides the main spark for any economic activity any enterprise which is not motivated by consideration of urgent service to the community becomes obsolete soon and cannot fulfil its real role in modern society”.
When we talk of investing in education, a question arises as to what kind of education needs to be given to the youngsters. Our aim is to evolve not only an affluent society, but an egalitarian, just, humane and compassionate society. For that we need people who possess not only high skills but high values as well. So the need of the hour is not only skill-based education but also value-inspired and value-based education. We can find answer for the present sickness in contemporary civilization in the Indian philosophy.

1. According to the author, a true businessman should

(1) earn profit regardless of any consideration
(2) run business profitably and ethically
(3) conduct business with principles despite making losses
(4) should have least concern for enrichment of people’s lives
(5) None of these

2. The author has pointed out that the people involved in scandals and scams were

(1) Social Workers
(2) Political Leaders
(3) Educated people
(4) Corporate Governors
(5) None of these

3. The author has given the example of Enron, Xerox, etc to emphasize the point that

(1) the western style of capitalism is advantageous
(2) overcoming short-term gains is not desirable
(3) we should build up trust in corporate performance
(4) we should get involved into long-term gains
(5) None of these

4. As per. Swami Vivekanand, which of the following will be the most appropriate definition of “traitor”?

(1) Educated people ignoring the starving and’ illiterate masses
(2) Millions who live in hunger and ignorance
(3) All those educated people who look after the masses
(4) AH social workers who are duty-bound
(5) None of these

5. What are the ultimate expectations from education to be imparted to the youngsters?

(A) To evolve an affluent society
(B) To make people inculcate high values
(C) To help the youth acquire higher skills

(1) (A) and (B) only
(2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (C) only
(4) All the three (A), (B) and (C)
(5) None of these

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams - 25 November 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

Ques 1- Consider the following statements regarding NOTA

a) It was introduced by Election Commission in 2013
b) 2015, Bihar Assembly polls saw the highest NOTA votes polled so far

Which of the above statements are correct?

1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) Neither a and b

Ques 2- Which of the following is/are correct regarding msme?

1. Micro enterprise is an enterprise whose investment in plant and machinery is upto 10 lakes
2. Medium enterprise is an enterprise whose investment in plant and machinery is in between 5 crores and 10 crores

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

Ques 3- In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?

1. Service providers
2. Data centres
3. Body corporate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Reasoning Set-54

Directions: In each of the follmowing question is four out of the five figures, element I is related to element II in the same particular way. Find out the figure in which element I is not so related to element II.

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Quantitative Aptitude Set-53

Directions: Each of the equations below consist of a question and three statements denoted A, B and C are given below it. You have to study the questions and all the three statements and decide whether the question can be answered with any one or two of the statements or all the statements are required to answer the question.

1.What is R’s share of profit in a joint venture?

(A) Q started a business investing Rs. 80000
(B) R joined him after 3 months
(C) P joined after 4 months with a capital of Rs. 1,20,000 and got Rs. 6,000 and his share of profit.

(1) Only A C are required
(2) Only B and C are required
(3) All A, B and C together are required
(4) Even with all A, B and C the answer cannot be arrived at
(5) None of these

2.What is the area of a right-angled triangle?

(A) The perimeter of the triangle is 30 cm.
(B) The ratio between the base and the height of the triangle is 5 : 12.
(C) The area of the triangle is equal to the area of a triangle of length of 10 cm.

(1) Only B and C together are required
(2) Only A and B together are required
(3) Only either A or B and C together are required
(4) Only A and C together are required
(5) None of these

3. What is the sum of two numbers?

(A) The bigger of these two number is 6 more than the smaller number.
(B) 40% of the smaller number is equal to 30% of the bigger number
(C) The ratio between half to the bigger number and one-third of the smaller number is 2 : 1.

(1) Only B and C together are required
(2) Only A and B together are required
(3) Any two of A, B and C together are required
(4) All A, B and C together are required
(5) None of these

4. How many marks did Arun get in English?

(A) Arun secured an average of 60 marks in four subjects including English.
(B) He secured a total of 170 in English and Mathematics together.
(C) He secured a total of 180 in Mathematics and Science together.

(1) All A, B and C together are required
(2) Only A and B together are required
(3) Only B and C together are required
(4) Only A and C together are required
(5) None of these

5. What was the profit earned on the cost priced by Mahesh by selling an article?

(A) He got 15% concession on labeled price in buying that article.
(B) He sold it for Rs. 3,060
(C) He earned a profit 2% on the labeled price.

(1) Only A and B together are required
(2) Only B and C together are required
(3) Only either A or C and B together are required
(4) Even will all A, B and C the answer cannot be arrived at
(5) None of these

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Reasoning Set - 51

1.Which of the following combinations of colour of the envelope and the number of cards is definitely correct in respect of E type cards?

(1) Red-2, Brown-1
(2) Red-1, Yellow-2 1
(3) Red-2, Yellow- 1
(4) Yellow-1, Brown-2
(5) None of these

2.“Forty per cent of our products are sold in rural area, fifty-three per cent are sold in semi-urban area, sixty per cent of employees are from rural area.” Which of the following statements is definitely true?

(1) The company’s products are purchased only by its employees and their family.
(2) The company does not desire to recruit urban employees.
(3) The company’s products are required in big urban cities and metro areas.
(4) The company holds approximately 90% of the market share in its product line.
(5) None of these

3.“We do not advertise,’ our product speaks for itself.”- Statement of manufacturer of two-wheeler ‘BJA’. Which of the following, if true, would support and strengthen this statement?

(i) The prices of BJA two-wheelers are on higher side.
(ii) ‘BJA’ has won award for Quality Control Systems.
(iii) The BJA two-wheeler is sleek-looking and has good colours.
(iv) The salaries of BJA employees are better than government services.

(1) Only (i) and (ii)
(2) Only (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (iii) and (iv)
(4) Only (i), (ii)and (iii)
(5) None of these

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions:

Following are the criteria for organising interview of such candidates as have been selected from the promotion to officer’s grade from assistant grade in the’ PRS Industrial Group Limited:

The candidate to be called for interview must:

(i) be a graduate with minimum 50% marks.
(ii) have minimum five years’ experience in the clerical cadre job.
(iii) have obtained at least ‘C’ ratings in performance (speed of work) and the quality of work each during the last three years. For this five ratings A, B, C, D and E-have been created on ‘the basis of “Performance Appraisal Report” with the lowest ratings of A and the highest ratings of E.
(iv) have obtained at least ‘D’ ratings in the approach of work (dependability) and in the flexibility of work each for his/her works in the last three years. For this, seven ratings A, B,C, D, E, F and G have been formulated on the basis of “Performance Appraisal Report” with lowest ratings of A and the highest ratings of G.

However, in case of a candidate who fulfills all other criteria EXCEPT

(a) (i) above, but has passed Graduation Exam and has got ‘E’ ratings in the approach of work in the last three years, may be referred to the Assistant Manager (Personnel).
(b) (ii) above, but has experience of three years in clerical cadre job and has got at. least ‘D’ ratings in the quality of work for his/her works in the last three years, may be referred to the Deputy Manager (Personnel).
Based on these criteria and information provided against each candidate, decide the course of action. You are not to assume anything. If the data provided are not adequate to decide the given course of action, your answer will be “Data inadequate”. All the candidates fulfil the criterion of age. Give answer—

(1) if data are inadequate
(2) if not to be selected
(3) if selected for the interview
(4) if case is referred to t!:e Assistant Manager
(5) if case is referred to the Deputy Manager

4. Mohammed Sheikh is a brilliant post-graduate in Science and has secured 63% and 55% marks in graduation and post graduation respectively. He has’ E’ grade for dependability and flexibility in Performance Appraisal Report for last four years. He has got ‘C’ rating for quality of work and speed of work. He joined the Bank four years ago.,

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Quantitative Aptitude Set-50

Directions: Study the following graphs carefully and answer the questions give below:

1. In which of the following years was the amount of profit the maximum?

(1) 1997
(2) 1994
(3) 1993
(4) 1995
(5) None of these

2. Approximately what was the average expenditure of the given years?

(1) Rs. 110 lakhs
(2) Rs. 130 lakhs
(3) Rs. 120 lakhs
(4) Rs. 140 lakhs
(5) Data inadequate

3. In which of the following years was the increase/decrease in percent profit from the previous year the minimum?

(1) 1994
(2) 1996
(3) 1997
(4) 1995
(5) None of these

4. Approximately what was the expenditure in 1994?

(1) Rs. 120 lakhs
(2) Rs. 160 lakhs
(3) Rs. 140 lakhs
(4) Rs. 180 lakhs
(5) Data inadequate

5. If the profit percentage in 1997 was 25, what would have been the expenditure in that year?

(1) Rs. 130 lakhs
(2) Rs. 148 lakhs
(3) Rs. 120 lakhs
(4) Rs. 152 lakhs
(5) None of these

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Reasoning Set - 48

Directions: Study the following information to answer the questions given below:

A number arrangement machine when given an input of numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement.

Input:         48 245 182 26 99 542 378 297
Step I:       542 48 245 182 26 99 378 297
Step II:      542 26 48 245 182 99 378 297
Step III:     542 26· 378 48 245 182 99 297
Step IV:     542 26 378 48 297 245 182 99
Step V:      542 26 378 48 297 99 245 182

This is the final arrangement and step V is the last step for this input.

1. What will the fourth step for an input whose second step is given below?

Step: 765 42 183 289 542 65 110 350

(1) 765 42 542 350 183 L89 65 110
(2) 765 42 542 65 110 183 289 350
(3) 765 42 542 65 183 289 110 350
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

2. What should be the third step of the following input?

Input: 239 123 58 361 495 37

(1) 495 37 361 123 239 58
(2) 495 37 58 361 123 239
(3) 495 37 58 123 361 239
(4) 495 37 361 239 123 58
(5) None of these

3. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input?

Input: 39 88 162 450 386 72 29

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Six
(5) None of these

4. What should be the last step of the following input?

Input: 158 279 348 28 326 236

(1) 348 28 326 158 279 236
(2) 348 28 326 236 158 279
(3) 348 28 236 158 279 326
(4) 348 28 158 326 236 279
(5) None of these

5. If the first step of an input is

“785 198 32 426 373 96 49”, then which of the following steps will be.
“785 32 426 49 198 373 96”?

(1) Third
(2) Fourth
(3) Fifth
(4) Second
(5) None of these

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Quantitative Aptitude Set-47

Directions: In each of the following questions, a number series is established if the positions of two out of the five marked numbers are interchanged. The position of the first marked numbers are interchanged. The position of the first unmarked number remains the same and it is the beginning of the series. The earlier of the two marked numbers who positions are interchanged is the answer. For example, if the interchange of the number marked (4) is required to establish the series, your answer is ‘1’. If it is not necessary to interchange the position of the numbers to establish the series, give ‘5’ as your answer. Remember that when the series is established, the numbers change from left to right (i.e., from the unmarked number to the last marked number) in a specific order.

1. 120

(1) 15
(2) 105
(3) 21.875
(4) 87.5
(5) 17.5

2. 7

(1) 14
(2) 17
(3) 51
(4) 15
(5) 90

3. 40

(1) 14
(2) 60
(3) 24
(4) 80
(5) 19

4. 15

(1) 240
(2) 71
(3) 192
(4) 111
(5) 160

5. 9

(1) 10
(2) 24
(3) 7
(4) 10
(5) 55

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IBPS : Specialist Officers Exam Paper Held On 14.02.2016 - (Quantitative Aptitude)

Directions (Q101-105) : What approximate value will come in place of question mark in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

Q101.

a) 4
b) 5
c) 2
d) 3
e) 6

a) 100
b) 10
c) 3
d) 30
e) 60

a) 3
b) 9
c) 30
d) 90
e) 80

Q104. (24.99% or 399.995) ÷ ? = (125% of 4.111)²

a) 80
b) 4
c) 60
d) 16
e) 40

Q105. √? = (1248.28 + 51.7) ÷ 99.9 ÷ 7.98

a) 49
b) 81
c) 64
d) 16
e) 25

Q106. The distance between two places A and B is 110 km. 1^st car departs from place A to B, at a speed of 40 km/h at 11 am, 2^nd car departs from place B to A at a speed of 50 km/h at 1 pm. At what time will both the cars meet each other?

a) 1:50 pm
b) 1:20 pm
c) 2:00 pm
d) 2:30 pm
e) 2:15 pm

Q107. In 2014, the number of female employees in department C was 5/13 of the total number of employees in same department. If the number of female employees in department F was 4 less than that in department C, what is the number of male employees department F?

a) 41
b) 42
c) 58
d) 54
e) 48

Q108. In 2014, there were 25% post graduate employees in department B. In 2015, 22 employees of the same department were shifted to Branch ‘PQR’. If in 2015, the percentage of post graduate employees in Department B became 28%, how many post graduate employees were shifted to branch ‘PQR’?

a) 8
b) 12
c) 6
d) 4
e) 14

Q109. What is the average number of employees in departments A, D and F?

a) 65
b) 70
c) 75
d) 72
e) 69

Q110. In department E, the respective ratio between the number of female employees and male employees was 5 : 4. There were equal number of unmarried males and unmarried females in department E. If the respective ratio between  married females and married males was 3 : 2, what is the number of unmarried females?

a) 6
b) 15
c) 12
d) 4
e) 8

Q111. What is the central angle corresponding to the number of employees in department E?

a) 43.2°
b) 46.5°
c) 41.6°
d) 42.8°
e) 45.9°

Q112. The number of employees in department E is what percent less than the number of employees in departments A, B and C together?

a) 72%
b) 60%
c) 65%
d) 70%
e) 68%

Q113. In the year 2013, the population of a village A was 20% more than the population of village B. The population of village A in 2014 increased by 10% as compared to the previous year. If the population of village A in 2014 was 5610, what was the population of village B in 2013?

a) 4650
b) 5550
c) 4250
d) 5800
e) 4500

Q114. Five years ago, the respective ratio between the age of Opi and that of Mini was 5 : 3. Nikki is 5 years younger to Opi. Nikki is five years older to Mini. What is Nikki’s present age?

a) 35 years
b) 25 years
c) 20 years
d) 10 years
e) 30 years

Q115. Mohan gave 25% of a certain amount of money to Ram. From the money Ram received, he spent 20% on buying books and 35% on buying a watch. After the mentioned expenses, Ram has Rs. 2700 remaining. How much did Mohan have initially?

a) Rs. 16000
b) Rs. 15000
c) Rs. 24000
d) Rs. 27000
e) Rs. 20000

Directions (Q.116-121) : What will come in place of question mark in the given number series?

Q116. 849 282 93 30 9 ?

a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
e) 2

Q117. 18 20 14 26 6 ?

a) 18
b) 26
c) 32
d) 28
e) 36

Q118. 12 13 20 39 82 ?

a) 259
b) 232
c) 210
d) 198
e) 173

Q119. 18 18.8 20.4 23.6 30 ?

a) 44.4
b) 43.5
c) 49.2
d) 49.6
e) 42.8

Q120. 17 9 10 16.5 35 ?

a) 85
b) 70
c) 92.5
d) 90
e) 84.5

Q121. 6 4 5 11 ? 189

a) 82
b) 39
c) 44
d) 65
e) 96

Q122. 16 men and 10 women together can complete a project in 10 days. If 12 women can complete the project in 25 days, in how many days 10 men complete the same project?

a) 28 days
b) 24 days
c) 18 days
d) 26 days
e) 10 days

Q123. A and B started a business with an investment of Rs. 2800 and Rs. 5400 respectively. After 4 months, C joined with Rs. 4800. If the difference between C’s share and A’s share in the annual profit was Rs. 400, what was the total annual profit?

a) Rs. 13110
b) Rs. 12540
c) Rs. 17100
d) Rs. 11400
e) Rs. 14250

Q124. The interest earned when Rs. ‘P’ is invested for five years in a scheme offering 12% p.a. simple interest in more than the interest earned when the same sum (Rs. P) is invested for two years in another scheme offering 8% p.a. simple interest, by Rs. 1100. What is the value of P?

a) Rs. 2500
b) Rs. 2000
c) Rs. 4000
d) Rs. 3500
e) Rs. 3000

Q125. What is the average number of tourists in city B in February and march?

a) 18000
b) 23000
c) 19000
d) 21000
e) 17500

Study Kit for IBPS Specialist Officer Exam

IBPS : Specialist Officers Exam Paper Held On 14.02.2016 - (Computer Knowledge)

Q151. What are code generators?

a) CASE tools that enable the automatic generation of program and database definition code directly from the design documents diagrams, forms and reports stored in the repository.
b) CASE tools that support the circulation of graphical representations of various system elements such as process flow, data relationships, and program structures.
c) CASE tools that enable the easy production of user documentation in standard formats.
d) CASE tools that enable the easy production of technical documentation in standard formats.
e) CASE tools that support the production of systems forms and reports in order to prototype how systems will ‘look and feel’ to users.

Q152. The Web layout View is available in, which Office 2013 application?

a) Excel
b) Word
c) Access
d) PowerPoint
e) Webmaker

Q153. ………….. produces printout of a data in user-defined manner

a) Query language
b) DML
c) Report generator
d) DCL
e) Metadata

Q154. Which security model is used in a peer-to-peer network?

a) Password-protected Shares
b) Access Control Lists
c) Share-level Security
d) User-level Security
e) Access Control Entries (ACEs)

Q155. A hierarchical data model combines records and fields that are

a) cross structure and relational structure
b) tree structure
c) logical manner
d) cross structure
e) relational structure

Q156. Which protocol is used for transferring data and information from one network to the other network?

a) Internet Protocol
b) Transmission Control Protocol
c) File Transfer Protocol
d) Hyper-Text Transfer Protocol
e) Ethernet Protocol

Q157. What does ios ate mean as an argument in ofstream in C++ ?

a) Open file for read access only
b) Open file, create
c) Open file, but do not create
d) Open file, set the position to the end
e) Open file, for write access only

Q158. An object-oriented database does not depend upon …… for interactions.

a) data dictionary
b) Oracle
c) SQL
d) index
e) DBMS

Q159. What is a brownout in an electrical supply system?

a) A slightly elevated voltage lasting from seconds to minute.
b) Alternating power out, power on lasting a few minutes.
c) Has nothing to do with electricity.
d) Complete power out lasting a few minutes.
e) A slightly decreased voltage lasting from seconds to minutes or more.

Q160. Which common backstage view task creates a PDF file from an existing file?

a) Export
b) Account
c) Create
d) Options
e) Info

Q161. Which device operates at the internet layer of the TCP/IP model?

a) Switch and Hub
b) Router
c) Switch
d) PBX
e) Firewall

Q162. A coding scheme recognized by system software for representing organizational data best defines a

a) data type
b) data size
c) tuple
d) hyperlink
e) hashing algorithms

Q163. Which phase of the SDLC involves converting to the new system?

a) Systems design
b) Systems implementation
c) Systems analysis
d) Systems development
e) Other than those mentioned as options

Q164. What is the purpose of ARP?

a) To resolve know IP addresses to unknown physical addresses.
b) To resolve domain names to unknown IP addresses.
c) To resolve MAC addresses and NetBIOS names to IP addresses.
d) To resolve known MAC addresses to unknown IP addresses.
e) To resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses.

Q165. In Java, communication between objects is done by

a) calling a method
b) creating a class hierarchy
c) defining a Java class
d) creating a class
e) running a program

Q166. Which of the following CASE tools generate reports that help you identify possible inconsistencies, redundancies and omissions in diagrams, forms and reports?

a) Form generators
b) Report generators
c) Diagramming tools
d) Analysis tools
e) Documentation generators

Q167. An attribute whose value is unique across all occurrences

a) primary key
b) recursive key
c) join attribute
d) data marker
e) single-valued key

Q168. AN IP protocol field of 0 × 06 indicates that IP is carrying what as its payload?

a) UDP or IGRP
b) UDP
c) ICMP
d) TCP
e) IGRP

Q169. A named set of table rows stored in a contiguous section of secondary memory best describes a

a) entity
b) collection
c) physical file
d) pointer
e) relation

Q170. Which of the following attributes makes TCP reliable?

a) Connectionless establishment
b) Low overhead and Null sessions
c) Null sessions
d) Connection establishment
e) Low overhead

Q171. Which shortcut will create a new folder in a Windows folder?

a) Ctrl + C
b) Ctrl + Shift + N
c) Ctrl + V
d) Ctrl + Alt
e) Ctrl + O

Q172. Which of the following is not a benefit of networks?

a) Increased data integrity
b) Sharing of peripheral devices
c) Sharing of programs and data
d) Access to databases
e) Better communications

Q173. Which type of software is best used with specific questions to verify hypotheses?

a) Data fusion tools
b) Intelligent agents
c) Data cleansing tools
d) Query and reporting tools
e) Multidimensional-analysis tools

Q174. Which method of database recovery involves undoing unwanted changes to the database, such as undoing a partially completed transition interrupted by a power failure?

a) Rollforward
b) Mirroring
c) Reprocessing
d) Rollback
e) Other than those given as options

Q175. What is the default maximum number of processes that can exist in Linux (with a 32-bit platform)?

a) 1024
b) 32768
c) Unlimited
d) 4096
e) 99999

Study Kit for IBPS Specialist Officer Exam

Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Reasoning Set-45

1. If both the statements’ “All pens are erasers” and “Some erasers are pins” are true then which of the following statements is definitely true?

(1) Some pins are pens
(2) All erasers are pens.
(3) No pin is pen
(4) Some pens are pins.
(5)None of these

2. “@” means “”, “ “ means “>” and “S” means “=”. If P @ Q, R S and Q $ R, then which of the following statements is definitely true?

(1) RI1P
(2) P$Q
(3) P @ R
(4) P@S
(5) None of these

3. If the digits on the dial of a clock are replaced by alternate English alphabet beginning with D such as D replaces I, F replaces 2 and so on, then where will be the hour hand at 19.45 O’clock?

(1) Between O and Q
(2) Between N and P
(3) Between P and R
(4) Between M and O
(5) None of these

4. Five friends A, B, C, D and E are standing in a row facing South but not necessarily in the same order. Only B is between A and E, C is immediate right to E, and D is immediate left to A. On the basis of above information, which of the following statements is definitely true?

(1) B is to the right of E
(2) A is second to the left of C
(3) D is third to the left of E
(4) B is to the left of A
(5) None of these

5. If the sentence “you must go early to catch the train” is coded as “early catch train must to go the you”, what will be code for the sentence “morning exercise will help you to keep fit”?

(1) help to fit you exercise will keep morning
(2) help to fit exercise you will keep morning
(3) will help to fit you exercise keep morning
(4) will fit to exercise you help keep morning
(5) None of these

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Quantitative Aptitude Set-44

1. Four of the five parts numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the following equation are exactly equal. Which part is not equal to the other four? The number of that part is the answer.

(1) 5³ + 3 + 4⁸ =
(2) 5² × 33 – 475 =
(3) 35 + 44 =
(4) 4³ + 2 × 17 × 4
(5) (6)³ – (2)⁴

2.There are 11 members in a family out of which there are 4 males and remaining females. The family has hired three cars for a trip to zoo. The members are to be seated in the cars in such a way that there are not more than four members in one car and there is at least one male in each car. How many different ways can the members travel?

(1) 658
(2) 126
(3) 140
(4) 532
(5) None of these

Directions: In each question below one or more equation(s) is/are provided. On the basis of these, you have to find out relation between p and q.

Give answer (1) if p = q
Give answer (2) if p > q
Give answer (3) if q > p
Give answer (4) if p q
Give answer (5) if q p

3. I.4q² + 8q = 4q + 8
    II.p² + 9p = 2p – 12

4. I.2p² + 40 = 18p
    II.q² + 13q – 42

5.
    II.12p² + 2 = 10p

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : English Language Set - 43

Directions: Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) ill the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) In other words, floods and droughts are built into the countries monsoonal ecology.
(B) “It pours cats and dogs” they said.
(C) In the remaining 8,660 hours there is hardly any precipitation.
(D) If the rain is not caught and stored, it will be impossible to live in this country.
(E) But most of it pours down in a mere hundred hours.
(F) India gets more rain annually-1,100 mm. on an average-than any other part of the world.
(G) When the British came to India, they were struck by the amount it rained here.

1.Which or the following will be the FIRST sentence?

(1) G
(2) A
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F

2. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence?

(1) C
(2) D
(3) F
(4) G
(5) B

3. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence?

(1) F
(2) C
(3) E
(4) F
(5) D

4. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence?

(1) A
(2) C
(3) D
(4) F
(5) G

5. Which of the following will be the LAST sentence?

(1) B
(2) E
(3) F
(4) A
(5) C

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IBPS : Specialist Officers Exam Paper Held On 14.02.2016 - (English Language)

Directions (Q51-55): The questions has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted, Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

51. Couples possessing a specific gene were less bothered by the emotional ……….. in their marriage as ……… to those who didn’t have that gene.

a) upheavals; compared
b) traumas ; against
c) challenges ; belonged
d) tribulations ; regards
e) along ; forced

Q52. Chhattisgarh was …… the first few states in the country that ….. a ban on ‘Gutkha’.

a) among ; imposed
b) between ; set
c) part ; restricted
d) one ; lifted
e) along ; forced

Q53. Right from a young age, children should be taught about the harmful effects of smoking so that they ………. From …….. in it once they grow up.

a) avert ; revelling
b) resolve ; rejoicing
c) refrain ; indulging
d) abstain ; taking
e) withdraw ; addicting

Q54. Childhood obesity is a major health ……….. and a leading ……… of cancer.

a) hazard ; result
b) issues ; reason
c) matter ; grounds
d) problem ; cause
e) phenomenon ; base

Q55. A police team was ……. to ……… the case.

a) formed ; following
b) constituted ; investigate
c) located ; adjudge
d) remanded ; study
e) exected ; probe

Directions (Q56-65): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your anwer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q56. Bad lipstick woes/strike even/the most diligent/of makeup users.

a) Bad lipstick woes
b) Strike even
c) the most diligent
d) of makeup users
e) No error

Q57. Our behaviour/and interest in/ socialising is determined/ by our genes.

a) Our behaviour
b) and interest in
c) socialising is determined
d) by our genes
e) nor error

Q58. With the problem of/shortage of doctors/plagues the entire State,/rural areas are the worse hit.

a) with the problem of
b) shortage of doctors
c) plagues the entire state
d) rural areas are the worse hit
e) No error

Q59. While the government continue to/promise better health care facilities/for all the residents of the rudiments of the State/rural areas remain a major cause on concern.

a) While the government continues to
b) Promise better health care faculties
c) For all the residents of the State
d) Rural areas remain a major cause on concern
e) No error

Q60. Human temperamental factors/which motivate people to/form relationship and maintain them,/are prove to have a genetic base.

a) Human temperamental factors
b) Which motivate people to
c) Form relationships and maintain them
d) Are prove to have a genetic base,
e) No error

Q61. The man, who was allegedly/stolen a sum of Rs.6 lakh/was finally arrested by the police.

a) The man, who was allegedly
b) Stolen a sum of Rs.6 lakh
c) Was finally
d) Arrested by the police
e) No error

Q62. The tobacco laced toothpaste,/popular in the rural areas of the State,/is considered to been the major cause behind/the rising member of oral cancer cases.

a) The tobacco laced toothpaste
b) Popular in the rural areas of the state
c) is considered to been the major cause behind
d) the rising member of oral cancer cases
e) No error

Q63. It is important to note/that childhood cancers can be prevented/to a greatest extent/if a healthy lifestyle is followed.

a) It is important to note
b) that childhood cancers can be prevented
c) to a greatest extent
d) if healthy lifestyle is followed
e) No error

Q64. A watermelon/is one of the healthiest fruit/to eat, if you are/planning to go on a diet.

a) A watermelon
b) Is one of the healthiest fruit
c) to eat, if you are
d) planning to go on a diet
e) no error

Q65. Patients can now scheduled/appointments while at home/and get confirmation for the same/via email.

a) Patients can now scheduled
b) appointments while at home
c) and get confirmation for the same
d) via email
e) No error

Directions (Q66-75): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions. Certain words/phrases are givne in bold to help you located them, while answering some of the queistons.
In 2012, the Arctic was hot. But while it still matters for environmental reasons, the surge of interest in its economy has ebbed. That surge was driven by three thigns. First, the Arctic contains vast amounts of energy, which could become accessible as the workd warms and the ice retreats in summer. The US Geological survey has said that about a quarter of the world’s undiscovered oil and gas lies in Aractic waters. Second, the melting ice allows cargo ships to sail round Russia’s northern coast for about two months in summer. This cuts the distance for ships travelling from Shanghai to Rotterdam by almost a quarter and the transit time by about two weeks. It was once said the Northem. Sea Route would one day rival the Suez canal as the best way to ship goods from East Asia to Europe. Third, the Arctic seemed a model of international cooperation. The eight countries with territory inside the Arctic circle settled through the Arctic Council, originally a scientific forum which in 2011-13 signed its first treaties, on search and rescue missions and cleaning up oil spills. Nothing exemplified its
popularity better than the rush of tropical Asian centuries to join. China, India and Singapore were granted observer status in 2013. But since mid - 2014, the Arctic’s allure has lessened. Its energy is pricey. Even at $ 100 a barrel, many fields were marginal because the weather is so extreme. A Russian and Norwegian firm together developing one of the largest gasfields ever discovered, motheballed the project in 2012. With oil at $ 50 a barrel, few Arctic fields would be economic. Energy exploration in the Arctic is in fact referred to by some as a licence to lose money. With regard to the Northern Sea Route – In 2013, 71-ships traversed Russia’s Arctic, according to the Northern Sea Route Information Office : a large increase since 2010, when the number was just four. But 16000 ships passed throught he Suez canal between Europe and Asia in 2013, so the northern route is not starting to compete. In 2014 traffic along the Northern Sea Route fell to 53 Ships, only four of which sailed from Asia and docked in Europe (the rest went from one Russian port to another). The route does not yet link Europe and East Aisa. The decline in 2014 was partly caused by the weather : less sea ice melted last summer than in 2013, so the route was more dangerous. But its limitations go beyond that. Cutting a week or two off transit time is not the benefit it may seem if the vessel arrives a day late. In shipping just-in-time arrival matters, not only speed. The new-generation container ships are  too cumbersome to use the Arctic so, as these become more common, the northern route becomes less attractive. The Arctic Council continues to expand: it is setting up a new economic body to boost business. But however much its members cooperate, the council cannot offset hostilities between Russia and the West-hostilities, which affect the Arctic, too. Russia is stepping up its military operations there. This does not mean fighting is about to break out in the Arctic; nor are shipping and energy exploration about to end.

Q66. Which of the following can be said about the Suez canal?

a) Its shipping traffic has dramatically reduced with the opening up of the Northem
Sea Route.
b) Russian shipping traffic through this route is increasing dramatically.
c) It is at present the best way to ship goods between Europe and East Asia.
d) New-generation cargo ships are facing challenges along this route.
e) Word to expand its capacity should be undertaken soon.

Q67. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

a) Climate change has resulted in a huge increase in Arctic temperatures.
b) Oil and natural gas reserves in the Arctic have more or less been depleted.
c) Coal and natural gas are the most cost effective energy sources today.
d) Asian countries have been awarded the major mining rights in the Arctic.
e) None of the given statements is true in the context of the passage.

Q68. What does the phrase ‘as a license to lose money’ convey?

a) the penalties for polluting the Arctic are very heavy.
b) Exploring the energy in the Arctic is expensive and may not be profitable for companies.
c) It is very difficult to obtain requisite permissions to explore the Arctic region.
d) Mining for minerals in the Arctic poses risks to the health and lives of explorers.
e) As countries have deliberately lowered the price of oil, Russian oil companies are in financial trouble.

Q69. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word ‘Lies’ given in bold as used in the passage.

a) Rests
b) Reclines
c) Untruths
d) Reality
e) Lazy

Q70. Which of the following is the central ideal of the passage?

a) The Arctic has a lot of resource and many countries are fighting over these at present.
b) Dialogue is the only way to achieve resolution of the conflict between Russia and the West.
c) The Arctic region has seen a major economic transformation thanks to its natural heath.
d) The Arctic circle is in the midst of a tremendous environmental and economic crisis.
e) While the potential of the arctic was hyped in the past, today there are reservations about it.

Q71. What does the author suggest regarding the Arctic Council?

A) It should convince its members to reduce the price of oil.
B) It should not be exclusive and should admit other countries as members.
C) It should continue to remain purely a scientific body.

a) Only A
b) B and C
c) All of these
d) A and C
e) None of these

Q72. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word ‘Extreme’ given in bold as used in the passage.

a) Nearest
b) Minimum
c) Moderate
d) Peaceful
e) Insignificant

Q73. What is the author’s view regarding Russia’s present actions?

a) It will shortly result in military conflict in the region.
b) It has caused closure of shipping through the Northem Sea Route.
c) Oil and gas projects with Norway will be suspended.
d) It will adversely affect the spirit of cooperation in the Arctic region.
e) Other than those given as options

Q74. Which of the following is/are (a) reason/s which impact energy exploration in the Arctic?

A. High cost of exploration projects.
B. Climatic conditions.
C. Excessive red tape and clearances to be obtained from the Arctic Council.

a) Only A
b) Only B
c) All of these
d) A and B
e) B and C

Q75. What do the statistics regarding the Northern Sea Route cited in the passage indicate?

a) It has drastically reduced the burden on the Suez canal.
b) It has not been utilised to the degree anticipated.
c) It has caused the Arctic to be severely polluted.
d) There have been a huge number of accidents along this route.
e) The burden on Russian ports has decreased substantially.

Study Kit for IBPS Specialist Officer Exam

IBPS : Specialist Officers Exam Paper Held On 14.02.2016 - (Reasoning)

Q1. This questions consists of an information and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statements weaken/s or strengthen/s the information, and decide the appropriate answer.

I. The number of applications for admission in law colleges of country G has been consistent since the past 5 years.
II. The number of students ready to pay heavy donations to get admission in the most sought after law-college of country G are consistently increasing for past three years.

a) Both statements I and statement II are neutral statements.
b) Both statements I and statement II weakens the information.
c) Statement I strengthens the information, while statement II weakens the information.
d) Statement I weakens the information, while statement II strengthens the information.
e) Both statement I and statement II strengthen the information.

Q2. . Read the given information and answer the questions.

Patients of lung aliments were mostly prescribed Medicine X which contains only two constituents ‘viz’ agnet and ‘serovil’. However, there were reports that many patients developed severe addiction to it on long term use. Therefore, doctors now prescribe Medicine A to deal with the same because it contains ‘agnet’ and ‘serovil’. Which of the following can be concluded from the given statement?

a) A medicine containing only serovil would not aid in treatment of the mentioned lung disease at all.
b) Medicine A contains no other constituent other than agnet.
c) Short term usage of Medicine X does not develop its addiction even to a minor extent.
d) Medicine X is not prescribed to treat any aliment these days.
e) Serovil was the constituent responsible for causing addiction of Medicine X.

Directions (Q3-7): Study the following information to answer the given questions. Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 G, H, I, J, K and L are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing South. In row-2 S, T, U, V, W and X are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. Therefore; in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. The one who faces H sits third to the left of V. V does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. S sits second to the left of V. The one facing T sits third to the right of G. T does not sit any of the extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between G and I. K is neither an immediate neighbour of I nor H. The one facing W sits second to the left of L. L does not face X.

Q3. Who amongst the following sits second to the left of the person who faces T?

a) H
b) I
c) J
d) K
e) L

Q4. Which of the following is true regarding S?

a) Both T and W are immediate neighbours of S.
b) None of the given options is true.
c) Only one person sits between S and U.
d) S sits second to right of X.
e) K is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces S

Q5. Who amongst the following faces L?

a) U
b) S
c) T
d) W
e) V

Q6. Which of the following groups of people represents the people sitting at extreme ends of both the rows?

a) H, I, S, U
b) L, J, X, U
c) J, K, X, W
d) I, L, U, X
e) H, G, S, W

Q7. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

a) I faces W.
b) None of the given options is true.
c) G sits exactly between J and I.
d) U is an immediate neighbour of W.
e) H faces one of the immediate neighbours of X.

Directions (8-12): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digits numbers.)

Input Centre 24 actual 15 require impact 37 96 marine 49 unable 82

Step I 24 centre actual 15 require impact 37 96 marine unable 82 49
Step II 82 24 centre actual 15 require impact 96 marine unable 49 37
Step III 96 82 24 centre actual require impact marine 49 37 15 unable
Step IV Centre 96 82 24 actual require impact marine 49 37 15 unable
Step V marine centre 96 82 24 actual require 49 37 15 unable impact
Step VI require marine centre 96 82 24 49 37 15 unable impact actual

Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As power the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input embark 53 palace 16 65 salute obvious 42 achieve 71 heaven 98

Q8. Which element is fourth to the right of the one which is ninth from the right end in Step III of the given input?

a) 16
b) achieve
c) 53
d) salute
e) obvious

Q9. Which element comes exactly between ‘16’ and ‘salute’ in step V of the given input ?

a) Both obvious and heaven
b) Only achieve
c) Both embark and palace
d) Only 65
e) Only 71

Q10. If in the Vth step, ‘16’ interchanges its position with ‘obvious’ and ‘heaven’ also interchanges its position with ‘65’, then which element will be fifth to the right of ‘42’?

a) 16
b) 65
c) obvious
d) 71
e) heaven

Q11. Which of the following combinations represents the first two and last two elements in step VI of the given input?

a) salute, obvious, embark, palace
b) heaven, palace, achieve, obvious
c) palace, heaven, obvious, embark
d) salute, palace, embark, achieve
e) embark, obvious, palace, achieve

Q12. In which step are the elements ‘heaven 98 archive 71’ found in the same order?

a) Fourth
b) Sixth
c) Fifth
d) Third
e) The given order of elements is not found in any step

Directions (13-17): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions. Eight people P, Q, R, S, W, X, Y and Z live on eight different floors of a building, but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight. P lives on an even numbered floor above the floor numbered three. Y lives immediately below P. Only three people live between Y and R. Only two people live between W and P as are there between W and Q. Only two people live between Q and Z. S lives immediately above Z.

Q13. Who amongst the following live exactly between Y and W?

a) Only P
b) Only X
c) No one
d) Both P and X
e) Both X and Q

Q14. Who amongst the following lives on the floor numbered five?

a) X
b) Q
c) S
d) R
e) Y

Q15. As power the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

a) Q-Two
b) V-Seven
c) R-Five
d) P-Six
e) Z-Three

Q16. On which of the following floor numbers does R live?

a) Seven
b) Six
c) Three
d) Eight
e) Two

Q17. If X and P interchange their places and so do Z and R, then who will live between P and Z as per the new arrangement?

a) Q
b) W
c) R
d) Y
e) Other than those given as options

Directions (Q18-23): Study the following information and answer the questions. Seven friends, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V watch seven different movies namely Spectre. Joy, Burnt, Concussion, Frozen, Everly and Legend, not necessarily in the same order, starting from Monday to Sunday (of the same week) T watches a movie on Thursday. Only one person watches movie between T and the one who watches Frozen. P watches movie immediately after the one who watches Frozen. Only three people watch movie between P and the one who watches Burnt. Only two people watch movie between the one who watches Burnt and U. The one who watches Legend watch movie before U, but after Thursday. More than two people watch movie between the one who watches Legend and R. The one who watches spectre watches movie immediately before the one who watches Everly. The one who watches Conclusion watches movie immediately before Q. V does not watch movie on Tuesday.

Q18. Who amongst the following watches Joy?

a) R
b) S
c) P
d) T
e) V

Q19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

a) R-Tuesday
b) T-Thursday
c) Q-Sunday
d) P-Friday
e) U-Saturday

Q20. Which of the following is true about S?

a) S watches movie immediately after R.
b) S watches Burnt.
c) Only two people watch movie between S and R.
d) All the given statements are true.
e) S watches movie on Sunday.

Q21. Which of the following movies does T watch?

a) Burnt
b) Spectre
c) Everly
d) Concussion
e) Legend

Q22. As per the given arrangement Q is related to the one who watches Burnt in a certain way and R is related to the one who watches Everly in the same way. To which of the following is U related to in the same way?

a) The one who watches Joy.
b) The one who watches concussion.
c) The one who watches Burnt.
d) The one who watches Spectre.
e) The one who watches Legend.

Q23. On which of the following days does V watch a movie?

a) Friday
b) Sunday
c) Wednesday
d) Saturday
e) Monday

Q24. Read the following information and answer the questions. The women of Village X are becoming financially independent after Shakti, an NGO, started assisted the women in mastering art of making organic colours thus helping them to earn a living. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given statements? (An inference is something by, which you can logically deduced something to be true based on known premises.)

a) In order to master the art of making organic colours, one must seek the assistance of Shakti only.
b) Organic colours made by the women of village X have captured the interest of people to some extent.
c) The women of village X have never tried their hand at any art except colour making.
d) Shakti provides assistance only in the field of organic colour making and specifically to women.
e) Women of village X have never been assisted by any other NGO in the past.

Q25. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word NEUTRAL each of which has as many letters in the word in both forward and backward directions as there are between them in English alphabetical series?

a) Three
b) None
c) Two
d) More than three
e) One

Study Kit for IBPS Specialist Officer Exam

Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Reasoning Set-42

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

(a)In a family of six persons - A, B, C, D, E and F there are three males and three females. There are two married couples and two persons are unmarried. Each one of them reads different newspapers, viz. Times of India. Indian Express, Hindustan Times, Financial Times. Navbharat Times and Business Standard.
(b)E, who reads Indian Express, is mother-in-law of A, who is wife of C, D is the father of F and he does not read Times of India or Business Standard. Breads Navbharat Times arid is the sister of F, who reads Hindustan Times. C does not read Business Standard.

l. Who among the following reads The Times of India?

(1) C
(2) D
(3) A
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

2. How is F related to E?

(1) Daughter
(2) Brother
(3) Son
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

3. Which of the following is one of the married couples?

(1) D-B
(2) D-E
(3) B-F
(4) E-F
(5) None of these

4. Which of the following newspapers is read by ‘A’?

(1) Times of India
(2) Navbharat Times
(3) Financial Times
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

5. How many sons does E have?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
(5) None of these

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Quantitative Aptitude Set-41

1. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

158.25 × 4.6 + 21% of 847 + ? = 950.93

(1) 35
(2) 40
(3) 25
(4) 50
(5) 45

2. The average of the first and the second of the three numbers is 15 more than the average of the second and the third of these numbers. What is the difference between the first and the third of these three numbers?

(1) 15
(2) 45
(3) 60
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

3. The difference between the simple and compound interest compounded every six months at the rate of 10 p.c.p.a. a the end of two years is Rs. 124.05. What is the sum?

(1) Rs. 10,000
(2) Rs. 6,000
(3) Rs. 12,000
(4) Rs. 8,000
(5) None of these

4. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

85.147 +34.912 × 6.2 + ? = 802.293

(1) 400
(2) 450
(3) 550
(4) 600
(5) 500

5. What should come in place of the equation mark (?) in the following equation?

9548 + 7314 = 8362 + ?

(1) 8230
(2) 8500
(3) 8410
(4) 8600
(5) None of these

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : English Language Set-40

Directions: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case:

A friend in need is a friend indeed. A man who stands (1) his friend in (2) is a true friend. Selfless love is the base of true friendship. True friends share each other’s joy and sorrow, pain and pleasure. They do not fall (3) in adversity. They have full confidence in each other. They never (4) each other. (5) makes friend, adversity tries them. A selfless friend is a (6). A selfish friend is a curse. The first is an angle and the second ‘is a devil. One makes your career while the other (7) it.
True friendship means great self-sacrifice on the part of both. A true friend (8) pleasure and convenience. He goes out of his way and faces difficulties in his way with joy and even with pride. Joy and sorrow, success and failure, good fortune and misfortune, are equally (9) by a pair of true friends. They (10) the burden of life equally for they feel that they sail in the same boat and -that they rave to sink and swim together.

1. (1) to
    (2) with
    (3) for
    (4) by
    (5) of

2. (1) adversity
    (2) commotion
    (3) change
    (4) happiness
    (5) growth

3. (1) by
    (2) to
    (3) off
    (4) with
    (5) through

4. (1) postulate
    (2) commit
    (3) danger
    (4) deplete
    (5) betray

5. (1) Wealth
    (2) Prosperity
    (3) Man
    (4) Providence
    (5) Well-being

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Reasoning Set-39

Directions: In a certain instruction system the different computation processes are written as follows:

(a) x $ y % z means z is multiplied by the sum of x and y.
(b) x # y * z means that when y, is subtracted from x and the resultant is divided by z.
(c) x @y© z means x is added to the resultant when y divided by z
(d) x y z means x is subtracted from the product of y and z.

In each of the questions below, a, set of instruction sequence is given. You are required to find out the outcome” which should come in place of the question mark (?) in each of the given sets of sequence.

1. (i) 20 # 10 * 2 = m
    (ii) m 6 4 = ?

(1) 19
(2) 29
(3) 4
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

2. (i) 60 $ 20 % 4 = n
    (ii) 8 @ n © 10 = ?

(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 10
(4) 60
(5) None of these

3. (i) 15 12 5 = p
    (ii) 4 $ 12 % p =?

(1) 720
(2) 228
(3) 108
(4) 93
(5) None of these

4. (i) 16 @ 12 © 8 = z
    (ii) z # 20 8 = ?

(1) 240
(2) 80
(3) 120
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

5. (i) 80 15 8 = t
    (ii) t $ 5 % 8 = ?

(1) 40 # 40*10
(2) 40 $ 40 % 10
(3) 40 @ 40 © 10
(4) 40 40 10
(5) None of these

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Quantitative Aptitude Set-38

1. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?39.05 × 14.05 – 27.99 × 10.12 = (36 + ?) × 5

(1) 22
(2) 29
(3) 34
(4) 32
(5) 25

2. Four of the five parts numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are exactly equal. Which of the parts is not equal to the other four? The number of that part is the answer.

(1) (2x + 3y)2
(2) (2y – x)2 + y(16x + 5y)
(3) 4x(x + 2y) + y(4x + 9y)
(4) (2x + 2y)2 + y(4x + 5y)
(5) (2x – y)2 + 8y(2x + y)

Directions: Seven companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G are engaged in production of two items I and II. The comparative data about production of these items by the seven companies is given in the following graph and table. Study them carefully and answer the questions given below.

Percentage of the total production produced by the seven companies

Cost of the total production (both items together) by seven companies = Rs. 25 crores
Ratio of production between items I and II and the percent profit earned for the two items

3. What is the total cost of the production of item 1 by companies A and C together in Rs. Crore?

(1) 9.25
(2) 5.9
(3) 4.1625
(4) 4.9
(5) None of these

4. What is the amount of profit earned by company D on item II?

(1) Rs. 3.12 cr
(2) Rs. 31.25 cr
(3) Rs. 3.125 lakh
(4) Rs. 31.25 lakh
(5) None of these

5. Cost of production of items I by company F is what percent of the cost of production of item II by company D?

(1) 16%
(2) 33.33%
(3) 66.67%
(4) 12.5%
(5) None of these

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : English Language Set-37

Directions: Pick out the most effective words from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

1. He has the ......... distinction of losing the election for the sixth consecutive time.

(1) reliable
(2) manifest
(3) lamentable
(4) dubious
(5) refreshing

2. The ......... climate of our town will help to recover his health.

(1) enchanting
(2) prestigious
(3) salubrious
(4) enriching
(5) proverbial

3. He spent whole of his life in ........ the miseries of the downtrodden people.

(1) destroying
(2) absorbing
(3) advocating
(4) avoiding
(5) mitigating

4. Your allegation should be based on facts and not no ………..

(1) surmise
(2) proofs
(3) projections
(4) antipathy
(5) records

5. He has a knowledge about ancient Indian scriptures.

(1) delectable
(2) profound
(3) enriching
(4) vociferous
(5) lamentable

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : English Language Set-34

Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is ally error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of that part is the answer. If there is no error; the answer is ‘5’. (Ignore th e errors of punctuation, if any.)

1.We all are indebted to him (1) / for holding not only high moral values (2)/ but also rendering dedicated service (3)/ for the betterment of human race. (4) / No error (5)

2.Stories have always been used (1) / as a powerful tool for (2) / communicating vital information from (3) / one generation to another. (4) / No error (5)

3.The Ministry or Labour conducts its basic survey (1) / on trade unions each year (2) / gathering information with all (3) / labour unions as of June 30 (4)/ No error (5)

4.Had he not reached in time (1) I he will have missed (2) / a golden opportunity which comes (3) / once in a while. (4) / No error (5)

5.I live on a top floor (1) / or an old house (2) / When the wind blows (3) / all the windows rattle. (4) / 0 error (5)

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RBI Assistant Exam Language Proficiency Test (LPT)

As per RBI Assistant Exam Notification Language Proficiency Test (LPT) will be held after pre & mains exam.

Candidates applying for assistant post in a particular recruiting office should be proficient in the language. which means candidate should know how to read, write, speak and understand the language of the state/ any of the states falling under the recruiting office.

Here is the List of RBI Regional Office and Languages:

• Ahmedabad – Gujarati
• Bengaluru – Kannada
• Bhopal – Hindi
• Bhubaneswar - Oriya
• Chandigarh – Punjabi / Hindi
• Chennai – Tamil
• Guwahati – Asamiya / Bangla / Manipuri
• Hyderabad – Telugu
• Jaipur – Hindi
• Jammu – Urdu / Hindi
• Kanpur & Lucknow – Hindi
• Kolkata – Bengali
• Mumbai – Marathi
• Nagpur – Marathi / Hindi
• New Delhi – Hindi
• Patna – Hindi
• Thiruvananthapuram & Kochi – Malayalam

Language Proficiency Test (LPT) - The candidates provisionally selected from the main on-line examination will have to undergo a language proficiency test (LPT). The language proficiency test will be conducted in the Official / Local Language of the State concerned (Annex-IV).

Candidate not proficient in the Official/Local Language would be disqualified.

Only such number of candidates will be called for Language Proficiency Test who stand sufficiently high in merit on the aggregate marks of the Objective Tests, such merit being decided by the Bank in relation to the number of notified vacancies to be filled in.

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Reasoning Set-36

Directions: In the following questions, the symbols @, %, $, # and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below-

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means’ P is not greater than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means’ P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given Statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer (4) (4) if neither Conclusion I nor IUs true.

Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

1. Statements: M * T, T $ K, K # 0

Conclusions: I. D % M
                      II.M * K

2. Statements: R@ J, M # JH, D * M

Conclusions: I.D * J
                      II. R # M

3. Statements: F $ M, N @ M, N % W

Conclusions: I.F # N
                      II.N % F

4. Statements: B # J, J @ 0, F $ 0

Conclusions: I.B # F
                      II.F * B

5. Statements: Z % T, T * N, H $ N

Conclusions: I.H * Z
                      II.T * H

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Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Quantitative Aptitude Set-35

Directions: Study the following table carefully and answer the question given below it. The number of candidates appeared, passed and selected in a competitive examination from five states over the years.

1. In the year 1995 which state had the lowest percentage of candidates selected over the candidates appeared?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

2. During which of the following years the passing percentage over appeared in the highest from the state D?

(1) 2000
(2) 1999
(3) 1998
(4) 1997
(5) None of these

3. Total number of candidates selected from state A is approximately what percentage of the total number of candidates selected from state B?

(1) 72
(2) 88
(3) 85
(4) 75
(5) 80

4. During which of the following years the percentage of candidates selected over passed is the lowest for state B?

(1) 1995
(2) 1996
(3) 1998
(4) 1999
(5) None of these

5. What is the ratio between number of candidates passed from state A in 1006 to that from state E in 1999?

(1) 6 : 7
(2) 14 : 15
(3) 13 : 16
(4) 12 : 16
(5) None of these

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(NOTIFICATION) UNION BANK RECRUITMENT PROJECT 2017-18

(SPECIALIST OFFICER) RECRUITMENT

UNION BANK RECRUITMENT FOR 200 SPECIALIST OFFICERS

1. Union Bank of India (herein after called the Bank), a leading listed Public Sector Bank with Head Office in Mumbai and having Pan India, as well as, Overseas presence, invites On-line Applications for recruitment to the following post in Specialized Segment

*In addition, Special Allowance, Dearness Allowance and other allowances will be payable as per prevailing rules and regulations in the Bank. Further, the officer will also be eligible for amenities like residential quarters/lease rent in lieu of quarters, LFC, reimbursement of medical/hospitalization expenses and other perquisites as per the policy of the Bank.

The reservation in the above noted vacancies** is as under:

Note: The Bank reserves its right to interchange the number of reserved vacancies in various categories as per Government Guidelines.

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:

The applicants intending to apply should ensure that they fulfill the eligibility criteria specified herein below before applying.
It should be noted that the eligibility criteria specified herein is the basic criteria for applying for the posts. However, merely applying for / appearing for and/or qualifying at any stage of selection process for the posts does not imply that a candidate will necessarily be eligible for employment / confer right on him / her for appointment in the Bank.

Age, Educational Qualification and Post Qualification Work Experience

Relaxation in upper age limit:

SELECTION PROCESS:

The selection process may comprise of Online Examination / Group Discussion (if conducted) and / or Personal Interview. The Bank reserves the absolute right to decide as to whether to use all or any of these modes for selection for the notified posts.

(a) Online Examination / Test:

 The above tests except the test of English language will be available bilingually i.e. English and Hindi. The Bank also reserves the right to alter the structure of the online examination.

Exam Fees:

Non-refundable Application fees/Intimation Charges (payable only through online mode):

HOW TO APPLY:

The candidates can apply only online from 04.10.2017 to 21.10.2017 (both days inclusive) and no other mode of application will be accepted

Important Dates:

Click Here For Full Notification

Courtesy : Union Bank of India