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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014" ::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::


1. Three containers A, B and C are having mixtures of milk and water in the ratio 1 : 5, 3 : 5 and 5 : 7, respectively. If the capacities of the containers are in the ratio 5 : 4 : 5, then find the ratio of the milk to the water if the mixtures of all the three containers are mixed together.

(a) 51 : 115
(b) 52 : 115
(c) 53 : 115
(d) 54 : 115
(e) None of these

2. Groundnut oil is now being sold at ` 27 per kg. During last month its cost was ` 24 per kg. Find by how much % a family should reduce its consumption, so as to keep the expenditure same.

(a) 100/9 %
(b) 122/11 %
(c) 119/10 %
(d) 91/10 %
(e) None of these

3. An ice-cream company makes a popular brand of ice-cream in rectangular shaped bar 6 cm long, 5 cm wide and 2 cm thick. To cut the cost, the company has decided to reduce the volume of the bar by 20%, the thickness remaining the same, but the length and width will be decreased by the same percentage amount. The new length L will satisfy :

(a) 5.5 < L < 6
(b) 5 < L < 5.5
(c) 4.5 < L < 5
(d) 4 < L < 4.5
(e) None of these

4. A sum of  ` 725 is lent in the beginning of a year at a certain rate of interest. After 8 months, a sum of  ` 362.50 more is lent but at the rate twice the former. At the end of the year, ` 33.50 is earned as interest from both the loans. What was the original rate of interest?

(a) 3.6%
(b) 4.5%
(c) 5%
(d) 3.46%
(e) None of these

5. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a sum for 2 years at 10% per annum, when the interest is compounded annually is ` 16. If the interest were compounded half-yearly, the difference in two interests would be:

(a) ` 24.81
(b) ` 26.90
(c) ` 31.61
(d) ` 32.40
(e) None of these

6. A person lent out a certain sum on simple interest and the same sum on compound interest at certain rate of interest per annum. He noticed that the ratio between the difference of compound interest and simple interest of 3 years and that of 2 years is 25 : 8. The rate of interest per annum is:

(a) 10%
(b) 11%
(c) 12%
(d) 25/2 %
(e) None of these

7. A contract is to be completed in 46 days and 117 men were set to work, each working 8 hours a day. After 33 days, 4/7 of the work is completed. How many additional men may be employed so that the work may be completed in time, each man now working 9 hours a day ?

(a) 80
(b) 81
(c) 82
(d) 83
(e) None of these

8. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 30 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened. Find when the second pipe B must be turned off so the cistern may just be full in 10 minutes.

(a) 80/3 min
(b) 25 min
(c) 122/ 3 min
(d) 128/3 min
(e) None of these

9. A train leaves station X at 5 a.m. and reaches station Y at 9 a.m. Another train leaves station Y at 7 a.m. and reaches station X at 10: 30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other ?

(a) 7 : 36 am
(b) 7 : 56 am
(c) 8 : 36 am
(d) 8 : 56 am
(e) None of these

10. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes to cover a certain distance, while it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio between the speed of the boat and speed of water current respectively?

(a) 2 : 1
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 8 : 3
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Study the pie charts given below and answer the following questions.

11. What is the cost of Gear Box?

(a) ` 9000
(b) ` 6000
(c) ` 3000
(d) `15,000
(e) None of these

12. What percentage of total cost is contributed by the brake?

(a) 5.5%
(b) 6.6%
(c) 6%
(d) 5.4%
(e) None of these

13. If the price of tyres goes up by 25%, by what amount should be the sale price be increased to maintain the amount of profit?

(a) ` 750
(b) ` 2250
(c) ` 3750
(d) ` 375
(e) None of these

14. If transmission cost increases by 20%, by what amount is the profit reduced (total price of car remains same)?

(a) ` 3000
(b) ` 4000
(c) ` 6000
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

15. What % of sale price is contributed by clutch?

(a) 6%
(b) 2%
(c) 3%
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 - 20) : Read the following information and answer the questions that follow.

In a huge Jewellery shop, the electric gadgets being used are 17 tubelights of 40 W each, 14 fans of 80 W each, 16 bulbs of 60 W each, 11 bulbs of 100 W each, 11 AC’s of 2100 W each, 9 laptops of 200 W each and 10 TV’s of 120 W each. In a day, tube lights and TV’s are used for 8 h but 60 W bulbs are used for 7 h and 100 W bulbs are used for 9 h whereas laptops and AC's are used for 5 h and 9 h respectively. However, fans are used for 11 h. (Note: 1000 W = 1 unit, 1 month = 30 days).

16. What is the total electric energy consumed (in units) by60 W bulbs in the whole month?

(a) 432
(b) 576
(c) 67.2
(d) 201.6
(e) None of these

17. Electricity consumed by all fans is what per cent of energy consumed by all the laptops?

(a) 132.2%
(b) 136.88%
(c) 122.68
(d) 169.62%
(e) None of these

18. Out of the following, which type of gadgets consume more electricity in the shop?

(a) Fans
(b) Tubelights
(c) Laptops
(d) TV’s
(e) None of these

19. If one electric unit costs ` 2.70 and power (used by AC's) unit costs ` 3.70, then what money is paid to the electricit department for one month?

(a) ` 27368
(b) ` 28683
(c) ` 78600
(d) ` 2900
(e) None of these

20. What is the ratio of consumption of electricity in units by 60W and 100 W bulbs in a month?

(a) 5 : 6
(b) 4 : 5
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 2 : 3
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs.21–25): In each of the following questions two equations are given. You have to solve them and give answer accordingly.

(a) If x > y
(b) If x < y
(c) If x = y
(d) If x > y
(e) If x < y

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 201 "Held on: 1-11-2014" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 201 "Held on: 1-11-2014"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::


DIRECTION (Qs. 1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Governments have traditionally equated economic progress with steel mills and cement factories. While urban centers thrive and city dwellers get rich, hundreds of millions of farmers remain mired in poverty. However, fears of food shortages, a rethinking of antipoverty priorities and the crushing recession in 2008 arecausing a dramatic shift in world economic policy in favour of greater support for agriculture. The last time when the world’s farmers felt such love was in the 1970s. At that time, as food prices spiked, there was real concern that the world was facing a crisis in which the planet was simply unable to produce enough grain and meat for an expanding population. Governments across the developing world and international aid organisations plowed investment into agriculture in the early 1970s, while technological breakthroughs, like high-yield strains of important food crops, boosted production. The result was the Green Revolution and food production exploded. But the Green Revolution became a victim of its own success.
Food prices plunged by some 60% by the late 1980s from their peak in the mid- 1970s. Policymakers and aid workers turned their attention to the poor’s other pressing needs, such as health care and education. Farming got starved of resources and investment. By 2004, aid directed at agriculture sank to 3.5% and “Agriculture lost its glitter.” Also, as consumers in highgrowth giants such as China and India became wealthier, they began eating more meat, so grain once used for human consumption got diverted to beef up livestock. By early 2008, panicked buying by importing countries and restrictions slapped on grain exports by some big producers helped drive prices upto heights not seen for three decades. Making matters worse, land and resources got reallocated to produce cash crops such as biofuels and the result was that voluminous reserves of grain evaporated. Protestsbroke out across the emerging world and fierce food riots toppled governments. This spurred global leaders into action. This made them aware that food security is one of the fundamental issues in the world that has to be dealt with in order to maintain administrative and political stability. This also spurred the U.S. which traditionally provisioned food aid from American grain surpluses to help needy nations, to move towards investing in farm sectors around the globe to boost productivity. This move helped countries become more productive for themselves and be in a better position to feed their own people. Africa, which missed out on the first Green Revolution due to poor policy and limited resources, also witnessed a ‘change’. Swayed by the success of East Asia, the primary povertyfighting method favoured by many policymakers in Africa was to get farmers off their farms and into modern jobs in factories and urban centers. But that strategy proved to be highly insufficient. Income levels in the countryside badly trailed those in cities while the FAO estimated that the number of poor going hungry in 2009 reached an all time high at more than one billion. In India on the other hand, with only 40% of its farmland irrigated, entire economic boom currently underway is held hostage by the unpredictable monsoon. With much of India’s farming areas suffering from drought this year, the government will have a tough time meeting its economic growth targets. In a report, Goldman Sachs predicted that if this year too receives weak rains, it could cause agriculture to contract by 2% this fiscal year, making the government’s 7% GDP-growth target look “a bit rich”. Another green revolution is the need of the hour and to make it a reality, the global community still has much backbreaking farm work to do.

1. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage

(a) Criticising developed countries for not bolstering economic growth in poor nations
(b) Analysing the disadvantages of the Green Revolution
(c) Persuading experts that a strong economy depends on industrialization and not agriculture
(d) Making a case for the international society to engineer a second Green Revolution
(e) Rationalising the faulty agriculture policies of emerging countries

2. Which of the following is an adverse impact of the Green Revolution ?

(a) Unchecked crop yields resulted in large tracts of land becoming barren
(b) Withdrawal of fiscal impetus from agriculture to other sectors
(c) Farmers began soliciting government subsidies for their produce
(d) Farmers rioted as food prices fell so low that they could not make ends meet
(e) None of these

3. What is the author trying to convey through the phrase “making the government’s 7% GDP growth target look “a bit rich”?

(a) India is unlikely to achieve the targeted growth rate
(b) Allocation of funds to agriculture has raised India’s chances of having a high GDP
(c) Agricultural growth has artificially inflated India’s GDP and such growth is not real
(d) India is likely to rave one of the highest GDP growth rates
(e) A large portion of India’s GDP is contributed by agriculture

4. Which of the following factors was/were responsible for the neglect of the farming sector after the green revolution?

(A) Steel and cement sectors generated more revenue for the government as compared to agriculture.
(B) Large scale protests against favouring agriculture at the cost of other important sectors such as education and healthcare.
(C) Attention of policy makers and aid organizations was diverted from agriculture to other sectors.

(a) None
(b) Only (C)
(c) Only (B) & (C)
(d) Only (A) & (B)
(e) All (A), (B) & (C)

5. What prompted leaders throughout the world to take action to boost the agriculture sector in 2008?

(a) Coercive tactics by the U.S. which restricted food aid to poor nations
(b) The realization of the link between food security and political stability
(c) Awareness that performance in agriculture is necessary in order to achieve the targeted GDP
(d) Reports that high-growth countries like China and India were boosting their agriculture sectors to capture the international markets
(e) Their desire to influence developing nations to slow down their industrial development.

6. What motivated the U.S. to focus on investing in agriculture across the globe ?

(a) To make developing countries become more reliant on U.S. aid
(b) To ensure grain surpluses so that the U.S. had no need to import food
(c) To make those countries more self sufficient to whom it previously provided food
(d) To establish itself in the market before the highgrowth giants such as India and China could establish themselves
(e) None of these

7. What impact did the economic recession of 2008 have on agriculture ?

(a) Governments equated economic stability with industrial development and shifted away from agriculture
(b) Lack of implementation of several innovative agriculture programmes owing to shortage of funds
(c) It prompted increased investment and interest in agriculture
(d) The GDP as targeted by India was never achieved because of losses in agriculture
(e) None of these

8. What encouraged African policymakers to focus on urban jobs ?

(a) Misapprehension that it would alleviate poverty as it did in other countries
(b) Rural development outstripped urban development in many parts of Africa
(c) Breaking out of protests in the country and the fear that the government would topple
(d) Blind imitation of western models of development
(e) None of these

9. Which of the following had contributed to exorbitant food prices in 2008 ?

(A) Hoarding of food stocks by local wholesalers which inadvertently created a food shortage.
(B) Export of foodgrains was reduced by large producers.
(C) Diverting resources from cultivation of foodgrains to that of more profitable crops.

(a) None
(b) Only (C)
(c) Only (B)
(d) All (A), (B) & (C)
(e) Only (B) & (C)

10. Which of the following is true about the state of agriculture in India at present ?

(A) Of all the sectors, agriculture needs the highest allocation of funds.
(B) Contribution of agriculture to India’s GDP this year would depend greatly upon the monsoon rains.
(C) As India is one of the high-growth countries, it has surplus food reserves to export to other nations.

(a) Only (A) and (C)
(b) Only (C)
(c) Only (B)
(d) Only (B) and (C)
(e) None of these

DIRECTION (Qs. 11- 13 ): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar it meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. STARVED

(a) Deprived
(b) Disadvantaged
(c) Hungry
(d) Fasting
(e) Emaciated

12. SLAPPED

(a) Beaten
(b) Imposed
(c) Withdrawn
(d) Avoided
(e) Persuaded

13. PLOWED

(a) Cultivated
(b) Bulldozed
(c) Recovered
(d) Instilled
(e) Withdrew

DIRECTION (Qs. 14 and 15): Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. PRESSING

(a) Unpopular
(b) Undemanding
(c) Unobtrusive
(d) Unsuitable
(e) Unimportant

15. EVAPORATED

(a) Absorbed
(b) Accelerated
(c) Grew
(d) Plunged
(e) Mismanaged

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose
the most logical order of the sentences from amongst the given choices so as to form a coherent paragraph.

16. P : In the past, the customised tailoring units were localised to the township or city and catered exclusively to domestic demand.

Q : Traditionally, Indians preferred custom-made clothing and the concept of ready-to-wear is a relatively recent one.
R : Consumer awareness of styling issues and the convenience afforded by ready-to-wear helped RMG industry make small inroads into the domestic market in the 1980s.
S : The customised tailoring outfits have always been a major source of clothing for domestic market.

(a) Q R S P
(b) Q S P R
(c) R S Q P
(d) S Q P R
(e) None of these

17. P : Such a system will help to identify and groom executives for positions of strategists.

Q : Evaluation of performance is more often than not done for the purpose of reward or punishment for past performance.
R : They must become an integral part of the executive system’ .
S : Even where the evaluation system is for one’s promotion to assume higher responsibilities, it rarely includes terms that are a key for playing the role of strategist effectively, e.g., the skills of playing the role of change agent and creative problem solving.

(a) S Q P R
(b) S R Q P
(c) R S Q P
(d) Q S R P
(e) None of these

18. P : Participation involves more than the formal sharing of decisions.

Q : Through anticipation individuals or organisations consider trends and make plans, shielding institutions from trauma of learning by shock.
R : Innovative learning involves both anticipation and participation.
S : It is an attitude characterised by the cooperation, dialogue and empathy.

(a) Q R S P
(b) P Q R S
(c) R Q P S
(d) S P Q R
(e) None of these

19. P : Almost a century ago, when the father of the modem automobile industry, Henry Ford, sold the first Model T car, he decided that only the best would do for his customers.

Q : Today, it is committed to delivering the’ finest quality with over six million vehicles a year in over 200 countries across the world.
R : And for over 90 years, this philosophy has endured in the Ford Motor company.
S : Thus a vehicle is ready for the customers only, if it passes the Ford ‘Zero Defect Programme’.

(a) P Q R S
(b) P R Q S
(c) R S P Q
(d) P R S Q
(e) None of these

20. P: Finish specialists recommended a chewing gum containing xylitol-a natural sweetener present in birch, maple, corn and straw-to be used several times a day by young children.

Q : Chewing gum is a new solution that “may work for parents whose children suffer from chronic ear infections.
R : An experiment was conducted involving three hundred and six children between two and six years.
S : After Finish studies showed that xylitol is effective in preventing cavities, a team of researchers decided to investigate its effects on a very similar type of bacteria which causes ear infections.

(a) Q R S P
(b) P Q R S
(c) R Q P S
(d) Q P S R
(e) None of these

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014" ::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::


1. In computer, what are the .xls, .doc. are

(a) File names
(b) Extensions
(c) Viruses
(d) Binary files
(e) None of these

2. What is the shortcut key to insert new document?

(a) ctrl+a
(b) ctrl+n
(c) ctrl+s
(d) ctrl+d
(e) None of these

3. What is the full form of LAN?

(a) Local Area Network
(b) Land Area Network
(c) Long Area Network
(d) Line Area Network
(e) None of these

4. Hard copy is a term used to describe...?

(a) Printed output
(b) Writing on a hard board
(b) Storing information on the hard disk
(c) All of the above
(d) None of these

5. The operating system is also called the ______ between the user and the computer.

(a) interrelate
(b) interface
(c) interference
(d) intermediate
(e) None of these

6. If a computer is constantly rebooting itself, what is most commonly the problem?

(a) Insufficient Power-Supply Unit
(b) Bad Sectors on Hard Drive
(c) Processor Overheating
(d) Defective/Bad Memory
(d) None of these

7. Networks are monitored by security personnel and supervised by __________ who set(s) up accounts and passwords for authorized network users.

(a) IT managers
(b) the government
(c) network administrators
(d) password administrators
(e) None of these

8. What is a benefit of networking your computer with other computers?

(a) Increase in the computer’s speed
(b) Sharing of cables to cut down on expenses and clutter
(c) You have another computer if yours has a breakdown
(d) Increase in the speed of the network
(e) Sharing of resources to cut down on the amount of equipment needed

9. In a synchronous modem, the digital-to-analog converter transmits signal to the___________.

(a) equalizer
(b) modulator
(c) demodulator
(d) terminal
(e) None of these

10. The term “host” with respect to the internet, means __________.

(a) A computer that is a stand along computer
(b) A computer that is connected to the Internet
(c) A computer reserved for use by the host
(d) A large collection of computers
(e) Hyperlink

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RBI Recruitment Exams Sample Papers for RO-DEPR (Previous Year - 2009 : ENGLISH )


R.B.I.S.B. (Officer in Grade-'B' - DEPR) PY - 2009

PAPER III - ( ENGLISH )


1. Write an essay of about 500 words, on anyone of the following topics. Complete information on the subject will be rewarded. At the end of the essay, state the number of words' used:-

(a) Private - Public partnership in higher education.
(b) Financial decision making: a balance between national and international priorities. .
(c) Empowered bureaucrats and social upliftment.
(d) Consumerism in Indian society.
(e) e - banking as a green measure.

2. (a) Make a precis ofthe following passage in your own words, reducing 24 it to about 250 words and give it a suitable title :-

India aspires for a faster economic growth, possibly even exceeding China's. India also wants an inclusive growth that is socially, politically and environmentally sustainable. Impediments to this growth are poor infrastructure, inefficiencies in public services, corruption and lack of accountability - all caused by poor governance.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014" ::GENERAL AWARENESS::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014"

::GENERAL AWARENESS::


1. To combat the menace of money laundering, which of the following financial institutions has introduced the 'Know Your Customer' Scheme?

(a) IDBI
(b) RBI
(c) NABARD
(d) SIDBI
(e) None of these

2. Which of the following sectors contributes maximum in deciding the growth in income of the states in India?

(a) Energy
(b) Tourism
(c) Service
(d) Transport
(e) Agriculture

3. Which of the following is the state where the number of people living below poverty line is maximum?

(a) Bihar
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
(e) Odisha

4. Who is the person closely associated with operation flood programmes and was honoured by Padma Vibhushan recently?

(a) Dr. V. Kurien
(b) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(c) Dr. Amartya Sen
(d) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(e) None of these

5. What is the full form of MTSS?

(a) Money Transfer Service Scheme
(b) Money Transparency Service Scheme
(c) Market Transfer Service Scheme
(d) Market Tax Service Scheme
(e) None of these

6. What is the full form of EFT?

(a) Electric funds transfer
(b) Electronic finance transaction
(c) Electronics Fund Transfer
(d) Emergency fund transfer
(e) None of these

7. RuPay is an Indian domestic card scheme conceived and launched by

(a) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
(b) Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
(c) National Minorities Development & Finance Corporation (NDMC)
(d) National Handicapped Finance and Development Corporation (NHFDC)
(e) None of these

8. Which of the following is refered as Fastest mode of transaction?

(a) Transfer funds into different bank's accounts using NEFT(National Electronic Funds Transfer).
(b) Transfer funds into other bank accounts using RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement).
(c) Transfer funds into various accounts using IMPS (Immediate Payment Service).
(d) Transfer funds into different account of the same bank
(e) None of these

9. What is the full for of CBS?

(a) Customer Bond Solution
(b) Core banking System
(c) Core Banking Solution
(d) Customer Bond system
(e) None of these

10. What do you mean by Customer relationship management (CRM)?

I. It is a system for managing a company's interactions with current and future customers.
II. It is a system for managing a company's interactions with current and past customers.
III. It often involves using technology to organize, automate, and synchronize sales, marketing, customer service, and technical support.

(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both II and III
(d) Both I and III
(e) None of these

11. How RBI measured to liquidate the market?

(a) By Reverse Repo rate
(b) By Repo rate
(c) By Cash Reserve Ratio
(d) By Statutory liquidity ratio
(e) None of these

12. The Bank should comply and intimate the compliance of Award to Ombudsman?

(a) Within Two Months
(b) Within 3 months
(c) Within one month
(d) Within one year
(e) None of these

13. Cheque truncation can be done by?

(a) Using MICR data
(b) Sending cheque by speed post
(c) Using image processing
(d) Both (a) & (b)
(e) None of the above

14. Which of the following is not insured by the DICGC (Deposit Insurance and Credit Gurantee Corporation)?

(a) All Indian commercial Banks
(b) Foreign Banks branches functioning in India
(c) Local Area Banks
(d) Cooperative Banks
(e) Primary cooperative societies

15. Who is the current Secretary General of UNO?

(a) Ban Ki-moon
(b) Kofi Annan
(c) U Thant
(d) Trygve Halvdan Lie
(e) None of these

16. What is the new name given to the Cadbury's India?

(a) Ferrero Rocher Ltd
(b) Dante Confections
(c) Tootsie Roll Industries
(d) Mondelez India Foods Ltd
(e) None of these

17. Which day would be celebrated as Safe Motherhood Day as announced by Health Ministry of India?

(a) 7th March
(b) 8th March
(c) 9th March
(d) 10 March
(e) None of these

18. Which Hollywood personality got awarded at IIFA 2014?

(a) John Travolta
(b) Arnold Sch
(c) Vin Diesel
(d) Kevin Spacey
(e) None of these

19. Which author had received Padmabhushan award 2014?

(a) Shobha Dey
(b) Ruskin Bond
(c) Ravinder Singh
(d) Chetan Bhagat
(e) None of these

20. What is the full form of IBSA ?

(a) Indonesia, Brazil, South Africa
(b) Italy, Brazil, Sudan
(c) India, Brazil, South Africa
(d) India, Belgium, Saudi Arabia
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS PO (Probationary Officer) Exam Study Materials

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

RBI Recruitment Exams Sample Papers for RO-DEPR (Previous Year - 2011 : ENGLISH )


R.B.I.S.B. (Officer in Grade-'B' - DEPR) PY - 2011

PAPER III - ( ENGLISH )


1. Write an essay of about 500 words on any one of the following topics. Complete information on the subject will be rewarded. At the end of the essay, state the number of words used:—

(a) Relevance of Lokpal Bill in democratic set-up of India
(b) The role of RTI in satisfying the queries of people
(c) The role of RBI to improve the economy of India
(d) Your response to the demand of Telangana as a separate state
(e) Scope of research in banking sector

2. (a) Make a precis of the following passage in your own words, reducing it to about 250 words and give it a suitable title :—

The June 2011 Financial Stability Report (FSR) of the Reserve Bank of India reflects great perspicacity. The report underscores the RBI’s analytical skills as it assesses sources of systemic risk. The Report is not something to be glanced over and consigned to the archives. It is truly reflective of RBI’s concern on various issues, and outlines certain policy pointers in the way ward. The report recognizes that a showdown in growth momentum is inevitable as inflation looms large, with the possibility of further upward pressure in the ensuing months. This could affect the quality of asset of the financial sector.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Quantitative Aptitude Held on: 11-06-2015"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 11-06-2015"

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::

1. At present, Pia is 6 years older to Roy. The respective ratio between the present age of Pia and Minis is 3 : 4. At present, Ray is 14 years younger to Mini. What is Ray's present age?

(1) 16 yr
(2) 20 yr
(3) 14 yr
(4) 18 yr
(5) 24 yr

Directions (2-6): In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

Give answr

(c) if x > y                  (d) if x < y
(e) if relationship between x and y cannot be established

2. I. 4x2 + 17x + 15 = 0
II. 3y2 + 19y + 28 = 0

3. I. 3x2 – 17x + 22 = 0
II. 5y2 – 21y + 22 = 0

4. I. 3x2 + 11x + 10 = 0
II. 2y2 + 13y + 21 = 0

5. I. 3x2 + 13x + 14 = 0
II. 8y2 + 26y + 21 = 0

6. I. 3x2 – 14x + 15 = 0
II. 15y2 – 34y + 15 = 0

Directions (7-11): Study the table to answer the given questions.

Note: Other than the mentioned expenses under the given heads, there may also be some other expenses. For calculation purposes, please consider the given expenses theads only.

7. What is the respective ratio between the Marketing expenses of company A and the Marketing expenses of company C?

(1) 34 : 35
(2) 32 : 33
(3) 35 : 36
(4) 36 : 37
(5) 37 : 38

8. Total expenses of company E in October, 2012 was 20% more than the total given expenses of the same company in April, 2012. How much was the Marketing expenses of the same company in October, 2012, if it was 25% of the total expenses of the same month? (in Rs. Lakh)

(1) 27
(2) 24
(3) 26
(4) 21
(5) 18

9. Marketing expenses of company D is less than marketing expenses of company B, by approximately what percent?

(1) 20%
(2) 40%
(3) 39%
(4) 59%
(5) 29%

10. What is the average total expenses of all the companies? (in Rs. Lakh)

(1) 75.25
(2) 75.8
(3) 75
(4) 72.8
(5) 72.25

11. What is the difference between the total expenses made by company C in Legal and Marketing together and the total expenses mady company E in Legal and Marketing together? (in Rs. Lakh)

(1) 24.5
(2) 23.5
(3) 22.9
(4) 23
(5) 23.9

Directions (12-16): What approximae value will come in place of the questions mark (?) in the given questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

12. 6399 × + 353 ÷ ? = 12025

(1) 14
(2) 22
(3) 2
(4) 16
(5) 8

13.

(1) 670
(2) 570
(3) 710
(4) 510
(5) 610

14. 8461 ÷ 11.99 - 24.1 ÷ 5/100= ?

(1) 625
(2) 400
(3) 25
(4) 900
(5) 225

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R.B.I.S.B. (Officer in Grade-'B' - DEPR) PY - 2012

PAPER III - ( ENGLISH )


1. Write an essay of about 500 words on any one of the following topics.

(a) The impact of shopping malls on young people.
(b) One hundred years of Indian Cinema.
(c) The multifarious note of a woman.
(d) Can the honest stand out against the corrupt ?
(e) Cybercrimes in banking sector.

2. (a) Make a precis of the following passage reducing it to about 250 words and give it a suitable title. Write the precis on the sheet provided for this purpose :—

The cries for investor education have become shriller in the past few weeks. Without an understanding of the context in which we except people to learn finance, we may not go too far. The first lession to teach is about risk. We have to do this with empathy for the cultural context in which we have lent and borrowed money. We continue to shift the blame when a crisis hits us because we are not trained to deal with risk.

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(Notification) Recruitment of IBPS Clerk 2018


(Notification) Recruitment of IBPS Clerk 2018


Important Dates:

Activity Tentative Dates
On-line registration including Edit/Modification of Application by candidates 18.09.2018 to 10.10.2018
Payment of Application Fees/Intimation Charges (Online) 18.09.2018 to 10.10.2018
Download of call letters for Pre- Exam Training November 2018
Conduct of Pre-Exam Training 26.11.2018 to 01.12.2018
Download of call letters for Online examination – Preliminary November 2018
Online Examination – Preliminary 08.12.2018, 09.12.2018, 15.12.2018 & 16.12.2018
Result of Online exam – Preliminary December 2018/ January 2019
Download of Call letter for Online exam – Main January 2019
Online Examination – Main 20.01.2019
Provisional Allotment April 2019

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:

Candidates, intending to apply for CRP Clerks-VIII should ensure that they fulfil the minimum eligibility criteria specified by IBPS in this advertisement:

Nationality / Citizenship:

A candidate must be either -

(i) a Citizen of India or
(ii) a subject of Nepal or
(iii) a subject of Bhutan or
(iv) a Tibetan Refugee who came over to India before 1st January 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or
(v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

Age Limit :

Age (As on 01.09.2018):
Minimum: 20 years Maximum: 28 years i.e. A candidate must have been born not earlier than 02.09.1990 and not later than 01.09.1998 (both dates inclusive)

Sr. No. Category Age relaxation
1 Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe 5 years
2 Other Backward Classes (Non-Creamy Layer) 3 years
3 Persons With Disabilities 10 years
4 Ex-Servicemen / Disabled Ex-Servicemen actual period of service rendered in the defence forces + 3 years (8 years for Disabled Ex-Servicemen belonging to SC/ST) subject to a maximum age limit of 50 years
5 Widows, divorced women and women legally separated from their husbands who have not remarried 9 years
6 Persons ordinarily domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period 01.01.1980 to 31.12.1989 5 years
7 Persons affected by 1984 riots 5 years
8 Regular employees of the Union Carbide Factory, Bhopal retrenched from service (Applicable to Madhya Pradesh state only) 5 years

Educational Qualifications:

A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a University recognised by the Govt. Of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government. The candidate must possess valid Mark-sheet / Degree Certificate that he/ she is a graduate on the day he / she registers and indicate the percentage of marks obtained in Graduation while registering online.

Computer Literacy: Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidates should have Certificate/Diploma/Degree in computer operations/Language/ should have studied Computer / Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/College/Institute.

Proficiency in the Official Language of the State/UT (candidates should know how to read/ write and speak the Official Language of the State/UT) for which vacancies a candidate wishes to apply is preferable.

Ex-Servicemen who do not possess the above civil examination qualifications should be matriculate Ex-Servicemen who have obtained the Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or Air Force after having completed not less than 15 years of service in the Armed Forces of the Union as on 10.10.2018. Such certificates should be dated on or before 10.10.2018.

SELECTION PROCESS:

PRE-EXAMINATION TRAINING

Pre-Examination Training may be arranged by the Nodal Banks/ Participating Organisations to a limited number of candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribes/ Minority Communities/ Ex-Servicemen/ Persons With Benchmark Disabilities at certain centres viz. Agartala, Agra, Ahmedabad, Allahabad, Amritsar, Aurangabad, Balasore, Bareilly, Behrampur (Ganjam), Bengaluru, Bhopal, Bhubaneshwar, Chandigarh, Chennai, Coimbatore, Dehradun, Dhanbad, Gorakhpur, Gulbarga, Guwahati, Hubli, Hyderabad, Indore, Jabalpur, Jaipur, Jammu, Jodhpur, Kanpur, Karnal, Kavaratti, Kochi, Kolkata, Lucknow, Ludhiana, Madurai, Mangalore, Mumbai, Muzaffarpur, Mysore, Nagpur, New Delhi, Panaji (Goa), Patiala, Patna, Port Blair, Puducherry, Pune, Raipur, Rajkot, Ranchi, Rohtak, Sambalpur, Shimla, Shillong, Siliguri, Thiruchirapalli, Thiruvananthapuram, Tirupati, Vadodara, Varanasi, Vijaywada and Vishakhapatnam.

All eligible candidates who opt for and wish to avail of Pre-Examination Training should fill in the relevant column in the ON-LINE APPLICATION. While training will be imparted free of cost, all other expenses regarding travelling, boarding, lodging etc. will have to be borne by the candidate for attending the pre-examination training programme at the designated Centres. Depending on the response and administrative feasibility the right to cancel any of the Pre- Examination Training Centres and/ or add some other Centres and/or make alternate arrangements is reserved.

By merely attending the Pre-Examination Training no candidate acquires any right to be selected in any of the Participating Organisations mentioned.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "English Held on: 11-06-2015"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 11-06-2015"

:: English Language ::

Directions (1-5): Rearrange the following six sentence A, B, C, D, E and F is a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.

A. Take for example the market for learning dancing.
B. This could never happen if there was a central board of dancing education which enforced strict standards of what will be taught and how such thing are to be taught.
C. The Indian education system is built on the presumption that if something is good for one child, it is good for all children.
D. More importantly, different teachers and institutes have developed different ways of teaching dancing.
E. There are very different dance forms that attract students with different tastes.
F. If however, we can effectively decentralize education, and if the government did not obsessively control what would be the ‘syllabus’ and what will be the method of instruction, there could be an explosion of new and innovative courses geared towards serving various riches of learners.

1. Which of the following should be the LASST (SIXTH) sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) F
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

2. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) F
(4) D
(5) E

3. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F

4. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) E

5. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) D

Directions (6-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Manufactures of Consumer Packaged goods (CPGs) face two key challenges this year. The first continued slow or negative growth in people’s disposable incomes. The second is changing consumer attitudes toward products and brands, as the great fragmentation of consumer markets take another turn. In response, companies must dramatically shift the route they take to reach consumers in terms of both product distribution and communications. In many markets, consumer wages have been static for five years now. Even where economies are starting to perform better, the squeeze on after-tax wages, especially for the middle class younger people and families, is depressing consumer spending. Although growth in developing countries is still better than in the United States and Europe, a slowdown in emerging countries such as China-where many countries had hoped for higher sales-has translated quickly into lower-than expected consumer spending growth.

Meanwhile, what we call the great fragmentation is manifested in consumer behavior and market response. In both developed and emerging markets, there is a wider variety among consumers now than at any time in the recent past. Growth is evident both at the top of the market (where more consumers are spending for higher-quality food and other packaged goods) and at the lower end (where an increasing number of consumers are concentrating on value). But the traditional middle of the market is shrinking.
Further, individual consumer behavior is more pluralistic. We are used to seeing, for example, spirits buyers purchasing a premium band in bar, a less costly label at home for personal consumption and yet another when entertaining guest. But, this type of variegated shopping has now spread to the grocery basket as well. Fewer consumer are making one big stocking up trip each week instead shoppers are visiting a premium store and a discounter as well as a supermarket, in multiple weekly stops – in addition to making frequent purchases online. During recession, more shoppers became inclined to spend time hunting for bargains and as some traditional retailers either went out of business or shuttered down, retail space was freed up and was often filled by convenience stores, specially shops, and discounters.

A decade ago, CPG companies had only ‘a handful of’ sales channels to consider supermarkets, convenience stores, hypermarkets in advanced economies and traditional small and large retailers in emerging countries. Since, then various discounters have made significant inroads, including no frills, low variety outlets, such as Europe’s Aldi and Lidi, which sell a limited range of private lable grocery items in smaller stores and massive warehouse clubs, such as Costco and Sam’s club, which initially operated solely in the USA but are now expanding internationally. In addition, dollars stores, specialized retailers, and online merchants are having an impact on the CPG landscape. Economizing consumers have been pleasantly, surprised by the savings generated by spreading their business among multiple channels, as well as by the variety and product quality they find. The result has been greater demand for more product and brands, with different sizes, packaging and sales methods. At most CPG companies, SKUs are proliferating despite there being little increase in overall consumption. A better outcome can be seen at smaller food and beverage suppliers, which are benefitting from consumer demand for variety and authenticity. A recent report found that in the USA, small manufactures (with revenues of less than $1 billion) grew at twice the compound annual rate of large manufactures (with revenues of less than $3 billion) between 2009 and 2012.

Consumers media usage has also fragmented with the rise of digital content and the proliferation of online devices. Each channel – from the web, mobile and social sites for radio, TV, and print – has its own requirements, audience appeal and economics, needing specialized attention. But, at the same time, media campaigns need to be closely coordinated for effective consumer messaging.

Collectively, these shifts challenges the sway CPS companies manage their brand and business portfolios and call for a rethinking of their go-to-market approach, with an emphasis on analytics. Our work with INSEAD shows that among business leaders, applying analytics–especially for tracking consumer behavior and product and promotional performance–considered one of the most effective ways to improve results and outpace the competition. But it’s not just about insight. It’s also about using the insight wisely to determine how to manage costs. The more knowledgeable about customer needs and preferences a company is, the smarter and more focused it must be in managing its own economics to cost-effectively deliver both variety and value to be squeezed consumer.

6. The central theme of the given passage is

(1) The Shrinking Market
(2) Shift towards offering Luxury Goods to Consumers
(3) Products to offer consumers with squeezed packets
(4) To highlight products consumer by the middle class
(5) Gaining insight into changing consumer behavior towards CPGs

7. In the context of the passage, which of the following brands existed otherwise but is now being manifested in buying groceries as well?

(1) Consumer purchasing the same products for over a period of time.
(2) Consumer willing to purchase goods for a longer period of time.
(3) Consumers preferring luxury goods over regular goods.
(4) Consumers are more aware of their rights.
(5) Consumers prefer buying goods from a variety of stores.

8. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word Depressing as used in the passage?

(1) Encouraging
(2) Sunny
(3) Doubtful
(4) Light
(5) Nil

9. As mentioned in the passage, CPG companies may have to reassess their present strategies of operating to

(A) retain their customers
(B) keep pace with changing consumer preference as they have access to multiple media channels
(C) make more cost-effective decisions.

(1) Only A
(2) B and C
(3) All of these
(4) Only C
(5) A and B

10. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word Depressing as used in the passage?

(1) Encouraging
(2) Sunny
(3) Doubtful
(4) Light
(5) Nil

11. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(1) In the USA, during the three year period after 2009, small manufacturing did not fare well as compared to their larger counterparts.
(2) Impact on dispensable incomes of people barely affects the CPG manufacturing industry.
(3) Post-tax wages, especially for the middle class, are one of the critical factors which have reduced spending behavior of consumers.
(4) The CPG have always been a favourite among consumers.
(5) None of the given options is true.

12. As mentioned in the passage, one of the most critical factors that aids in creating to the needs of consumers, is

(1) persuading then to purchase goods produced by the organization
(2) assess their requirements and appropriately plan to meet them
(3) offering them products that an organization regularly manufactures.
(4) concentrating only on being aware about changing presences of consumers
(5) None of the above

13. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word above Shrinking as used in the passage?

(1) Developing
(2) Annoying
(3) Narrowing
(4) Wasting
(5) Rising

14. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning of the word Variegated as used in the passage?

(1) Diverse
(2) Composite
(3) Strong
(4) Narrow
(5) Valued

15. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word Shuttered as used in the passage?

(1) Closed
(2) Retail
(3) Flourished
(4) Gratified
(5) Nearest

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RBI Recruitment Exams Sample Papers for RO-DEPR (Previous Year - 2016 : ENGLISH )


R.B.I.S.B. (Officer in Grade-'B' - DEPR) PY - 2016

PAPER III - ( ENGLISH )


1. Write an essay of about 500 words on any one of the following topics :

(a) Fund-raising Environment in the Startup Sector.
(b) Will the UK Real Estate fund issues impact India?
(c) ‘Minimum government; Maximum governance’.
(d) 25 years of reforms that changed India.
(e) Will the Centre’s liquidity support to PSU banks boost lending operations?

2. (a) Make a precis of the following passage reducing it to 220 words and give it a suitable title :

(Write the precis and the title only on the sheet provided for this purpose)

With the macroeconomic environment improving and some green shoots becoming visible in the economy, the possibility of ratings upgrades for some sectors has increased. But the ratings industry has come under the regulator’s scanner for failing to anticipate some defaults. We expect a further expansion of about 50 bps (basis points) in GVA (gross value added) growth this fiscal year. This is primarily based on the expectation of continued strength in consumption demand with urban consumer demand further enhanced by pay revision of government employees and a pickup in rural demand, boosted by a better monsoon. While pay revision and a favourable monsoon would exert counteracting forces on inflation, the outlook nevertheless remains relatively moderate, suggesting a continued possibility of further rate cuts.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Reasoning Held on: 11-06-2015"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 11-06-2015"

:: Reasoning Ability ::

Directions (1-5): Study the information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular area of equal distances between each other, but not necessary in the same order. Some of teh people are facing in the centre while some face outside. (i.e.in a direction opposite to the centre).

D sits third tothe right of B. E sits second to the left of B. Immediate neighbours of B face the same direction (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre, the other neighbour also faces the centre and vice-versa). C sits second to the left of E. E faces the centre. F sits third to the right of C.G sits second to the left of H. H is not an immediate neighbour of B. G faces the same direction as D. Immediate neighbours of E faces opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre, the other neighbour faces outside and vice-versa.) Immediate neighbours of F face opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre, the other neighbour face outside and vice-versa.)

1. How man people in the given arrangement face the centre?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four
(5) Five

2. Which of teh following is true regarding A as per the given sitting arrangement?

(1) H sits second to the left of A.
(2) A faces outsides.
(3) Only two people sit between A and B.
(4) C is one of the immediate neighbours of A.
(5) Only three people sit between A and G.

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) F
(2) H
(3) B
(4) G
(5) D

4. What is E's postion with respect to H?

(1) Third to the left
(2) To the immediate left
(3) To the Immediate right
(4) Second to the right
(5) Third to the right

5. Who sits second to the left of G?

(1) H
(2) A
(3) B
(4) Other than those as options
(5) F

Directions (6-10): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D K, L and M live on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the typmost floor is numbered seven.

Each one of them also likes dfferent games and Polo (but not necessarily in the same order). Only three people live between B and K. B lives on one of the floosrs above K. K does not live on the lowermsot floor. Only one person live between B and the one who likes Chess. The one who likes Polo lives on one of the even numbered floors above the one who likes Chess. Only two people live between M and the one who like Chess.

The one who likes snooker lives immediately above M. A lives immediately above L. A does not like Chess. The one who likes Ludo lives on one of the odd numbered floors below L. M does not like Ludo. D lives on one of teh floors above C. Only one person lives between the one who likes Cricket and the one who likes Hockey. D does not like Cricket. M does not like Badminton.

6. Which of the following game does B like?

(1) Snooker
(2) Ludo
(3) Polo
(4) Badminton
(5) Chess

7. Who amongst the following lives on the floor numbered 4?

(1) The one who likes Hockey
(2) The one who likes Chess
(3) A
(4) L
(5) B

8. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?

(1) Only two people live between K and M.
(2) The one who likes Hockey lives immediately above K.
(3) C likes Chess.
(4) C lives on an even numbered floor.
(5) None of the given options is true.

9. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order from top to bottom, the positions of how many people will remain unchanged?

(1) None
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
(5) Four

10. Which of the following combinations is true with respect to the given arrangement?

(1) Polo-C
(2) Ludo-B
(3) Cricket-K
(4) Chess-L
(5) Snooker-A

11. A person starts walking from his office towards a partly hall. He walks for 30m towards East. He takes a 90° right turn and walks for 15m. He again takes a 90° right turn, and walks for another 20m. He then walks for 25m after taking a 90° left turn. Turning 90° towards his right he walks for 10m to reach the party hall. How far and in which direction is the party hall from his office?

(1) 40 m towards West
(2) 40 m towards South
(3) 45 m towards South
(4) 45 m towards North
(5) 40 m towards North

Directions (12-16): In these questions, two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer

(a) if only concklusion I is ture
(b) if only conclusion II is true
(c) if either conclusion I and II is true
(d) if both conclusions are true
(e) if neither conclusion I not II is true

12. Statements

Some winds are trophies.
Some trophies are cups.
No cup is a prize.

Conclusions:

(I) At least some cups are wins.
(II) All prizes being trophies is a possibility.

13. Statements

No layer is a coat.
All coats are deposits.
All deposits are sheets.

Conclusions:

(I) All coats are depostis.
(II) All deposits can never by layers.

14. Statemetns

Some flats are apartments.
No apartments is a hall.
Some halls are rooms.

Conclusions:

(I) At least some rooms are flats.
(II) No apartment is a room.

15. Statements

Some wins ae trophies.
Some trophies are cups.
No cup is a prize.

Conclusions :

(I) No trophy is a prize.
(II) All secrets are puzzles.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015"

::REASONING ABILITY::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : Each of the questions below cionsists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and____

Give answer (a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the questions, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Given answer (c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (d) If the data even in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

1. How is ‘party’ coded in the language ?

I. ‘going to a party’ is coded as ‘la fa qu tu’ and ‘for a party’ is coded as ‘fa me tu’.
II. ‘start the party’ is coded as ‘tu co ra’ and ‘going to start’ is coded as ‘qu co la’.

2. On which day of the week is Priya definitely travelling ?

I. Amita correctly remembers that Priya is travelling after Tuesday but before Saturday. Rohit correctly remembers that Priya is travelling before Friday but after Monday.
II. Priya does not travel on a Friday.

3. How is P related to A ?

I. A is the daughter of M and the sister of S.
II. K is the son of P and the husband of M.

4. Four movies are screened from Monday to Thursday, (one on each day starting on Monday and ending on Thursday) viz - Crash, Social Network, Ice Age and Notting Hill. On which day is the movie Crash screened ?

 I. Social Network is screened on the last day.
II. Neither Ice Age nor Notting Hill are screened on Monday.

5. Who sits to the immediate right of Ayesha ?

I. Four friends Shradha, Tania, Vimla and Ayesha are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
II. Shardha sits second to the right of Tania. Vimla is an immediate neighbour of Shradha.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Study the following information to answer the given questions

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input
and rearrangement. (Single digit numbers are preceded by a zero. All other numbers are two digit numbers) Input : Good 18 to raise 02 12 money 28 for 57 charity 09.

Step I : to good 18 raise 02 12 money 28 for charity 09 57.
Step II : to raise good 18 02 12 money for charity 09 28 57.
Step III : to raise money good 02 12 for charity 09 18 28 57.
Step IV : to raise money good 02 for charity 09 12 18 28 57.
Step V : to raise money good for charity 02 09 12 18 28 57.
Step V : is the last Step of the arrangement of the above input as the intended arrangement is obtained.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-7) : These questions are based on the following input: Input : always 19 give 21 84 for 62 14 worthy cause

6. Which of the following would be step III for the above input ?

(a) worthy give for always 19 14 cause 84 62 21.
(b) worthy give for always 14 19 cause 21 62 84.
(c) always give for worthy 19 14 cause 21 62 84.
(d) worthy give for always 19 14 cause 21 62 84.
(e) always give for cause 19 14 worthy 21 62 84.

7. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement for the above input ?

(a) VI
(b) V
(c) IV
(d) VII
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 8-10) : These questions are based on the following input : Input : 50 62 tips on 67 how can 42 stay young 17 89 forever 03.

8. The following stands for which step of the arrangement ? young tips stay 50 on how can 42 17 forever 03 62 67 89.

(a) Step III
(b) Step V
(c) Step VI
(d) Step IV
(e) None of these

9. Which of the words/numbers below would be at the fifth position (from the right end) in Step V of the input ?

(a) forever
(b) 42
(c) 50
(d) young
(e) None of these

10. Which of the following would be the last step for the input?

(a) young tips stay on how forever can 03 17 42 50 62 67 89.
(b) young tips stay on how forever can 89 67 62 50 42 17 03.
(c) can forever how on stay tips forever 89 67 62 50 42 17 03.
(d) young tips stay on how forever can 03 17 42 50 67 62 89.
(e) can forever how on stay tips young 03 17 42 50 62 67 89.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-13) : Read the followign information carefully and answer the quesitons that follow.

Ruling governments in the west are being punished by the voters for ever rising unemployment rates. Their parliament is abuzz with campaigns, marked by criticism of India as an outsourcing hub. India is seen by many in the west as a land of call centres and back offices with cheap labour that cost people in the west, their jobs.

11. Which of the following statements would weaken the argument given in the passage ?

(a) Outsourced jobs do not require highly skilled and qualified employees.
(b) Nearly 34% of the unemployed people would secure jobs in the west if outsourced jobs were in sourced by their organisations
(c) After suffering heavy losses in the elections the governments in the west are expected to change their decision on outsourcing to India.
(d) Outsourcing, a dynamic, two-way relationship has created jobs and growth in India as well as the west.
(e) Although outsourcing to India allowed many companies in west to focus on their core operations, they heavily compromised the quality and the standards of their back office jobs.

12. Which of the following can be a possible repercussion of the opposition to outsourcing in the west ?

(a) Jobs which are currently outsourced to India would be transferred to another country which in all probability would be China.
(b) Call centres and back offices employees in India would expect a salary at par with their western counterparts.
(c) In-sourcing of jobs by the west would render thousands of Indians unemployed.
(d) If in-sourced in the west itself, the companies would not be able to employ professionals and experts of same quality as available in India.
(e) The western companies which earlier outsourced to India would benefit financially as offices would not have to be set overseas.

13. Which of the following can be inferred? (An infernece is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts)

(a) Unemployment in India is not as severe a problem as that in the west
(b) Employees working in the back offices and call centres in the west earn much more than their counterparts in India
(c) Developing countries such as China and India do not outsource their back office jobs at all to other countries
(d) Countries which do not outsource jobs do not face the problem of unemployment
(e) One of the main reasons for high unemployment rate in India is its clean of call centres and back offices which undertake outsourced work from the west

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 14-19) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

(K, L, M, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face outside while those who sit in the middle of the sides face the centre of the table.) P sits third to the right of S. S faces the centre. Q sits third to the left of M. M does not sit in the middle of the sides. Only one person sits between Q and R. R is not an immediate neighbour of M. T faces the centre. K is not an immediate neighbour of R.

14. What is position of M with respect to L ?

(a) Third to the right
(b) M and L sit diagonally opposite to each other
(c) Second to the right.
(d) Second to the left
(e) Fifth to the right

15. Who sits exactly between Q and R ?

(a) T
(b) P
(c) K
(d) M
(e) S and K

16. Which of the following pairs represents the persons seated in the middle of the sides who face each other ?

(a) S, Q
(b) K, L
(c) M, P
(d) R, T
(e) T, Q

17. Who amongst the following sits between R and K when counted in anti-clockwise direction from K ?

(a) No one sits between R and K as R and K are immediate neighbours of each other
(b) S, P and
(c) P and Q
(d) L and R
(e) M, S and T

18. If K is made to face the opposite direction, who would sit to his immediate right ?

(a) R
(b) Q
(c) P
(d) T
(e) S

19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(a) L
(b) M
(c) K
(d) P
(e) R

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-23) : Read the following information and five statements given below it carefully and answer the questions which follow.

Exodus from rural areas to the urban hubs in search of job opportunities has now declined to nearly twenty-six percent of what it was at the turn of 21st century. (A) Since the last decade, the rural economy has transformed itself into a bankable, profit making and commercially viable venture. (B) Job opportunities differ in urban and rural areas (C) The load on infrastructure and resources in the urban areas which had remained unmanageable for a long time has been eased a little since the last decade. (D) This trend of reverse migration which was seen only in developed countries till now has entered the scenes of developing nations as well (E) According to a recent report more than eighty
percent of the professionals having roots in rural areas prefer to work in urban cities rahter than their home villages.

20. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above respresents an effect of the given information most appropriately ?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) C
(e) Either D or E

21. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents a cause of the given information most appropriately ?

(a) E
(b) D
(c) C
(d) B
(e) A

22. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents an assumption most appropriately ? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) Both A and C
(e) D

23. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above would weaken / contradict the facts presented in the paragraph ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 24) : Question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the argument(s) is/are “strong” and indicate your answer accordingly.

24. Should the Government restrict use of electricity for each household depending upon the requirement?

Arguments :

I. Yes, this will help government tide over the problem of inadequate generation of electricity.
II. No, every citizen has right to consume electricity as per their requirement as they pay for using electricity.
III. No, the Government does not have the machinery to put such a restriction on use of electricity.

(a) Only I is strong
(b) Only II is strong
(c) Only I and II are strong
(d) Only II and III are strong
(e) All I, II and III are strong

25. Statement : Many patients suffering from malaria were administered anti-malarial drug for a week. Some of them did not respond to the traditional drug and their condition deteriorated after four days. Which of the following would weaken the findings mentioned in the above statement?

(a) Those patients who responded to the traditional drugs and recovered were needed to be given additional doses as they reported relapse of symptoms.
(b) The mosquitoes carrying malaria are found to be resistant to traditional malarial drugs.
(c) Majority of the patients suffering from malaria responded well to the traditional malarial drugs and recovered from the illness.
(d) Many drug companies have stopped manufacturing traditional malarial drugs.
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS PO (Probationary Officer) Exam Study Materials

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015" ::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : In these questions, a question is given followed by information in three statements. You have to consider the information in all the three statements and decide the information in which of the statement(s) is not necessarily required to answer the question and therefore can be dispensed with. Indicate your answer accordingly.

1. How many students from Institute ‘A’ got placement?

I. Number of students studying in Institutes A & B are in the ratio of 3 : 4 respectively.
II. Number of students who got placement from Institute B is 120% of the number of students who got placement from Institute A.
III. 80% of the students studying in Institute B got placement.

(a) None of the statements can be dispensed with
(b) Only I
(c) Only II
(d) Anyone of the three
(e) Question cannot be answered even with the information in all three statements

2. What is the monthly income of Mr. X?

I. Mr. X spends 85% of his income on various items and remaining amount is saved.
II. Monthly saving of Mr. X are ` 4,500/.
III. Out of the total money spent by Mr. X in a month, one-fifth is spent on food and remaining amount of ` 20, 400 on other items.

(a) Only II
(b) Only III
(c) Only either II or III
(d) Question cannot be answered even with the information in all three statements
(e) None of these

3. What is Suchitra’s present age?

I. Suchitra’s present age is double the age of her son.
II. Ratio between present ages of Suchitra and her mother is 2 : 3 respectively.
III. Four years hence the ratio between Suchitra’s age and her son’s age will be 13 : 24 respectively.

(a) Only II
(b) Only III
(c) Either I or II only
(d) Either II or III only
(e) None of these

4. What is Neeta’s share in the profit earned at the end of 2 years in a joint business run by Neeta, Seeta and Geeta?

I. Neeta invested ` 85,000/ to start the business.
II. Seeta and Geeta joined Neeta’s business after six months investing amounts in the ratio of 3 : 5 respectively.
III. Total amount invested by Seeta and Geeta is ` 2.3 lakhs

(a) Only II
(b) Only III
(c) Only either II or III
(d) Information in all three statements is required for answering the question.
(e) Question cannot be answered even with the information in all three statements.

5. What is the labelled price of the article?

I. Cost price of the article is ` 500/.
II. Selling price after offering 5% discount on the labelled price is ` 608/.
III. Profit earned would have been 28% if no discount was offered.

(a) Only I
(b) Only III
(c) Only II & III
(d) Only I and III
(e) Only I and II

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.

6. What is the average price per kg of wheat and rice sold? (rounded off to nearest integer)

(a) 32
(b) 34
(c) 36
(d) 35
(e) 31

7. If cumin is sold at a 10% discount, the quantity sold doubles. What will be the cost of total quantity of cumin sold on discount?

(a) ` 52,600/
(b) ` 28,800/
(c) ` 32,000/
(d) ` 57,600/
(e) None of these

8. Out of the total quantity of sugar sold, half the quantity is sold at the given rate while half the quantity is sold on a price increased by 20%. What is the total cost of entire quantity of sugar sold?

(a) ` 23,100/
(b) ` 23,800/
(c) ` 22,400/
(d) ` 23,400/
(e) None of these

9. If the quantities sold of Groundnut and Cumin are interchanged, what will be the total cost of quantities sold for these two items together?

(a) ` 62,000/
(b) ` 60000/
(c) ` 65,000/
(d) ` 63,000/
(e) None of these

10. If the quantity of corriander sold is increased by 200% and the price per kg. is reduced by 8%, what will be the total cost of corriander sold?

(a) ` 38, 460/
(b) ` 36,480/
(c) ` 38,640/
(d) ` 36,840/
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions :

For an examination consisting of three subjects-Maths, Physics and Chemistry, 280 students appeared. When the results were declared, 185 students had passed in Maths, 210 had passed in Physics and 222 had passed in Chemistry. All those except 5 students who passed in Maths, passed in Physics. All those except 10 students who passed in Maths, passed in Chemistry. 47 students failed in all the three subjects. 200 students who passed in Physics also passed in Chemistry.

11. How many students passed in Chemistry only ?

(a) 18
(b) 21
(c) 25
(d) 29
(e) None of these

12. How many students passed in all the three subjects ?

(a) 185
(b) 175
(c) 170
(d) 171
(e) Cannot be determined

13. How many students failed in Physics and Maths ?

(a) 65
(b) 18
(c) 58
(d) 47
(e) Cannot be determined

14. How many students passed in Maths but failed in both Physics and Chemistry ?

(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 1
(e) Cannot be determined

15. A student has to pass in at least two subjects to get promoted. How many students get promoted ?

(a) 180
(b) 213
(c) 200
(d) 185
(e) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20): Study the following Table carefully and answer the question given below :

16. How many students have scored the lowest marks in two or more subjects ?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 0
(e) 4

17. Who has scored the highest marks in all the subjects together ?

(a) Deepak
(b) Charu
(c) Anupama
(d) Garima
(e) Bhaskar

18. What is the percentage of Deepak's marks (upto two digits after decimal) in all the subjects together ?

(a) 88.63
(b) 77.38
(c) 67.83
(d) 62.83
(e) 72.83

19. Marks obtained by Charu in Hindi are what percent of marks (upto two digits after decimal) obtained by Anupama in the same subject ?

(a) 75.92
(b) 78.38
(c) 77.29
(d) 75.29
(e) 72.83

20. What are the average marks obtained by all the students together in Science ?

(a) 55.75
(b) 57.5
(c) 60
(d) 59.5
(e) 58

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?

21. 104 109 99 114 94 ?

(a) 69
(b) 124
(c) 120
(d) 78
(e) None of these

22. 980 392 156.8 ? 25.088 10.0352

(a) 65.04
(b) 60.28
(c) 62.72
(d) 63.85
(e) None of these

23. 14 16 35 109 441 ?

(a) 2651
(b) 2205
(c) 2315
(d) 2211
(e) None of these

24. 1331 2197 4913 6859 ? 24389

(a) 12167
(b) 13824
(c) 9261
(d) 15625
(e) None of these

25.. 3600 725 150 35 12 ?

(a) 8
(b) 7.4
(c) 10.5
(d) 10
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS PO (Probationary Officer) Exam Study Materials

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General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-15): Read the following passage based on an Interview to answer the given questions based on it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A spate of farmer sucides linked to harassment by recovery agents employed by Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) in Andhra Pradesh spurred the state government to bring in regulation to protect consumer interests. But, while the Bill has brought into sharp focus the need for consumer protection, it tries to micro-manage MFI operations and in the process it could scuttle some of the crucial benefits that MFls bring to farmers, says the author of Microfinance India, State of the Sector Report 2010. In an interview he points out that prudent regulation can ensure the original goal of the MFIs–social uplift of the poor. Do you feel the AP Bill to regulate MFIs is well thought out ? Does it ensure fairness to the borrowers and the long-term health of the sector ? The AP bill has brought into sharp focus the need for customer protection in four critical areas First is pricing. Second is tender’s liability — whether the Lender can give too much loan without assessing the customer’s ability to pay. Third is the structure of loan repayment –
whether you can ask money on a weekly basis from people who don’t produce weekly incomes. Fourth is the practices that attend to how you deal with defaults. But the Act should have looked at the positive benefits that institutions could bring in, and where they need to be regulated in the interests of the customers. It should have brought only those features in. Say, you want the recovery practices to be consistent with what the customer can really manage. If the customer is aggrieved and complains that somebody is harassing him, then those complaints should be investigated by the District Rural Development Authority. Instead what the Bill says is that MFIs cannot go to the customer’s premises to ask for recovery and that all transactions will be done in the Panchayat office. With great difficulty, MFIs brought services to the door of people. It is such a relief for the customers not to be spending time out going to banks or Panchayat offices, which could be 10 km away in some cases. A facility which has brought some relief to people is being shut. Moreover, you are practically telling the MFI where it should do business and how it should do it. Social responsibilities were in-built when the MFIs
were first conceived. If MFIs go for profit with loose regulations, how are they different from moneylenders? Even among moneylenders there are very good people who take care of the customer’s circumstance, and there are really bad ones. A large number of the MFIs are good and there are some who are coercive because of the kind of prices and processes they have adopted. But Moneylenders never got this organised. They did not have such a large footprint. An MFI brought in organisations, it mobilized the equity, it brought in commercial funding. It invested in systems. It appointed a large number of people. But some of then exacted a much higher price than they should have. They wanted to break even very fast and greed did take over in some cases. Are the for-profit MFIs the only ones harassing people for recoveries ? Some not-for-profit outfits have also adopted the same kind of recovery methods. That may be because you have to show that you are very efficient in your recovery methods and that your portfoilo is of a very high quality if you want to get commercial funding from a bank. In fact, among for-profits there are many who have sensible recovery practices. Some have fortnightly recovery, some have monthly recovery. So we have differing practices. We just describe a few dominant ones and assume every for-profit MFI operates like that. How can you introduce regulations to ensure social upliftment in a sector that is moving towards for -profit models ? I am not really concerned whether someone wants to make a profit or not. The bottom-line for me is customer protection. The first area is fair practices. Are you telling your customers how the loan is structured ? Are you being transparent about your performance ? There should also be a lender’s lilability attached to what you do. Suppose you lend excessively to a customer without assessing their ability to service the loan, you have to take the hit. Then there’s the question of limiting returns. You can say that an MFI cannot have a return on assets more than X,
a return on equity of more than Y. Then suppose there is a privately promoted MFI, there should be a regulation to ensure the MFI cannot access equity markets till a certain amount of time. MFIs went to markets perhaps because of the need to grow too big too fast. The government thought they were making profit off the poor, and that’s an indirect reasons why they decided to clamp down on MFIs. If you say an MFI won’t go to capital market, then it will keep political compulsions under rein.

1. Which of the following best explains ‘Structure of loan repayment’ in the context of the first question asked to the author ?

(a) Higher interest rate
(b) Payment on weekly basis
(c) Giving loan without assessing ability to pay
(d) Method of dealing with defaults
(e) Total amount of loan

2. The author is of the view that _____

(a) the bill to regulate MFIs is not needed
(b) the bill neglects the interests of the customers
(c) the positive aspects of MFIs should also be considered.
(d) most of the MFIs are not good.
(e) MFIs must be told what and where they should do business

3. One of the distinct positive feature of MFIs is that _____.

(a) they brought services to the door of people
(b) they dealt with defaulters very firmly
(c) they provided adequate customer protection
(d) they are governed by the local people
(e) they have highly flexible repayment plan

4. What is the difference between MFIs and moneylenders ?

(a) There is no difference.
(b) A large number of money lenders are good whereas only a few MFIs are good
(c) Money lenders gave credit at lower rate of interest than that of MFIs
(d) MFIs adopted a structure and put a process in place, which was not the case with moneylenders
(e) Moneylender appointed large number of local people as against more outside people in MFIs

5. Which of the following is positive outcome of the AP Bill to regulate MFIs ?

(a) The banks have started this service in remote areas
(b) It highlighted some areas of customer protection
(c) It highlighted the bad practices being followed by moneylenders
(d) MFIs is invested in systems and broguth in commercial funding.
(e) It will help convert MFIs into small banks

6. The author is recommending ____.

(a) Not-for profit MFIs
(b) For-profit MFIs
(c) Stoppage of commercial funding to MFIs
(d) Customer satisfaction irrespective of ‘Not-for profit’ or ‘for profit’ MFIs
(e) Public sector promoted MFIs

7. Why did MFIs go to the equity markers ?

(a) To repay the loan
(b) To lower interest rate
(c) There were political compulsions
(d) To become a public sector institution
(e) To grow very fast

8. Which of the following has not been indicated as one of the features of air practices for customer protection ?

(a) Providing information about loan structuring.
(b) MFIs should also be held liable for some of their actions
(c) Not to raise money from capital market
(d) MFIs should also inform public about their own performance also
(e) To provide credit as per the rational assessment of their ability to service the loan

9. Which of the following could possibly be most plausible reason for banning recovery by going to customer’s premises ?

(a) To protect the family members
(b) To protect the customer from harassment and coercion
(c) To reduce the undue expenses of MFIs is resulting in lower interest rates.
(d) To account systematically the money recovered in the books of accounts
(e) To keep Panchayat office out of these transactions

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 10-13) : Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/group of words printed in bold.

10. manage

(a) afford
(b) assess
(c) thrust
(d) administer
(e) use

11. exacted

(a) perfected
(b) demanded
(c) estimated
(d) corrected
(e) accurate

12. scuttle

(a) delay
(b) mix
(c) shuffle
(d) destroy
(e) smoothen

13. spurred

(a) agitated
(b) instigated
(c) reflected
(d) disapproved
(e) prompted

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 14-15) : Choose the word or group of words which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold.

14. under rein

(a) under wrap
(b) without target
(c) let loose
(d) no cloud
(e) under cloud

15. coercive

(a) gentle
(b) promoting
(c) progressive
(d) natural
(e) opinionated

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Rearrange are following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) There are a number of item in the atomic energy programme which are being made indigenously.
(B) Given the overall energy situation in India, the use of nuclear power in some measure is inescapable even while thermal and hydro power continue to be the dominant
elements.
(C) However, commercial aspects of exploiting nuclear capabilities, especially for power-generation programmes, have been recently given high priority.
(D) Atomic energy programmes have been subject to severe restrictions for every obvious reason as the Department of Atomic energy is becoming self-reliant in areas in which only a few countrices have such capability.
(E) Even to meet these nuclear power requirements, India critically requires a commercia level power-generation capability, with its commensurate safety and nuclear waste
management arrangements.
(F) Thus, in Indian context energy security is also crucial, perhaps much more than it is for the U.S.A.. because India imports a good part of its crude oil requirements, paying
for it with precious foreign exchange.

16. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (E)

17. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (E)

18. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (E)

19. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (E)

20. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (E)

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS PO (Probationary Officer) Exam Study Materials

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015" ::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

1. When sending an e-mail, the … line describe the contents of the message

(a) Subject
(b) To
(c) Contents
(d) CC
(e) None of these

2. All the deleted files go to

(a) Recycle bin
(b) Task bar
(c) Tool bar
(d) My computer
(e) None of these

3. You organise files by storing them in

(a) Archives
(b) Folders
(c) Indexes
(d) Lists
(e) None of these

4. A website address is a unique name that identifies a specific ___ on the web

(a) Web browser
(b) Website
(c) PDA
d) Link
(e) None of these

5. _________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside o ther devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat

(a) Servers
(b) Embedded computers
(c) Robotic computers
(d) Mainframes
(e) None of these

6. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest?

(a) Byte, Bit, Character, file, record, field, database
(b) Character, record, field, file, database
(c) Character, field, record, file, database
(d) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database
(e) None of these

7. A disk's content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is

(a) Memory only
(b) Write only
(c) Read only
(d) Run only
(e) None of these

8. An error in a computer program

(a) Crash
(b) Power Failure
(c) Bug
(d) Virus
(e) None of these

9. Distributed processing involves

(a) solving computer component problems from a different computer
(b) solving computing problems by breaking them into smaller parts that are separately processed by different computers
(c) allowing users to share files on a network
(d) allowing users to access network resources away from the office
(e) None of these

10. The operating system determines the manner in which all of the following occurs except

(a) user creation of a document
(b) user interaction with the processor
(c) printer output
(d) data displayed on the monitor
(e) None of these

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015" ::GENERAL AWARENESS::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015"

::GENERAL AWARENESS::


1. Which is the highest populated state of India?

(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Maharashtra
(e) Haryana

2. Who is the head of the panel formed RBI to look into parameters for urban co-operative banks recently?

(a) Bimal Jalan
(b) R Gandhi
(c) Urijit Patel
(d) YV Reddy
(e) None of these

3. Which banks have been designated as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs)?

(a) ICICI& SBI
(b) PNB & SBI
(c) HDFC & SBI
(d) ICICI & PNB
(e) None of these

4. Bhakti Sharma, who is in news recently associated with which sports?

(a) Swimming
(b) Tennis
(c) Badminton
(d) Volley Ball
(e) None of these

5. Consider the following statements:

A. Yog Guru Baba Ramdev was appointed as state brand ambassador of Haryana Government
B. It was announced by Minister of Sports and Health of Haryana, Anil Vij
C. Haryana Govt took this decision as it want to promote yoga and ayurveda in Haryana State

(a) Only C
(b) Both A and C
(c) Both A and B
(d) All A, B, C
(e) None of these

6. Frank Tyson was a cricketer from which country?

(a) New Zeland
(b) England
(c) West Indies
(d) South Africa
(e) None of these

7. What is the full form of NBFC as used in the financial sector?

(a) New Banking Finance Company
(b) National Banking & Finance Corporation
(c) Non Business Fund Company
(d) New Business Finance & Credit
(e) None of these

8. Which of the following fund transfer mechanisms, can be moved from one bank to another and where transaction is settled instantly without being bunched with any other
transaction?

(a) RTGS
(b) NEFT
(c) TT
(d) EFT
(e) MT

9. Lima is the capital of.

(a) Brazil
(b) Peru
(c) Ecuador
(d) Colombia
(e) None of these

10. Where is Buxa National Park located?

(a) Odisha
(b) West Bengal
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Bihar
(e) Rajasthan

11. English Stephen Constantine has been appointed as the head coach of Indian men's ____________ team.

(a) Hockey
(b) Cricket
(c) Football
(d) Badminton
(e) None of these

12. Banking ombudsmen is appointed by.

(a) SBI
(b) Indian Government
(c) RBI
(d) President
(e) Prime minister

13. Which committee framed the RRB Act?

(a) Narsimham Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) Sachar Committee
(d) Shah Nawaz Committee
(e) None of these

14. Ravindra Jain who passed recently was a.

(a) Politician
(b) Singer
(c) Author
(d) Music Composer
(e) None of these

15. Base rate is the rate below which no bank can allow their lending to anyone. Who set up this base rate for banks?

(a) Individual Banks Boards (Correct Answer)
(b) Ministry of Commerce
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) RBI
(e) Interest Rate Commission of India

16. Where is the Head-quarter of Indian Bank?

(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) Bengaluru
(e) Hyderabad

17. Many a times, we read in newspaper that the RBI has revised certain rates/ratios under LAF. What is full form of LAF?

(a) Legal Adjustment Facility
(b) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(c) Longterm Achievement Facility
(d) Legal Adjustment Formality
(e) None of these

18. What is KVP lock period?

(a) 36 Months
(b) 48 Months
(c) 24Months
(d) 30 Months
(e) 40 Months

19. Which of the following statement is true about the Competition Commission?

1. The Competition has been established to prevent practices which do not support healthy business competition.
2. The Commission will have five members including the chairman
3. The Commission has to ensure that the financial operation of any business entity does not get concentrated in the hands of few people.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All of them
(e) None of them

20. What is the cost of Delhi National Memorial Cost?

(a) 100 crore
(b) 1000 crore
(c) 500 crore
(d) 250 crore
(e) None of these

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 4-10-2015" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 4-10-2015"

::REASONING ABILITY::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a school. Each of them studies in different standard from Standard IV to Standard X not necessarily in the same order. Each of them has favourite subject from English, Science, History,Geogra-phy, Mathematics, Hindi and Sanskrit not necessarily in the same order. Q studies in VII Standard and does not like either Mathematics or Geography. R likes English and does not study either in V or in IX. T studies in VIII Standard and likes Hindi. The one who likes Science studies in X Standard. S studies in IV Standard. W likes Sanskrit. P does not study in X Standard. The one who likes Geography studies in V Standard.

1. In which standard does W study?

(a) VII
(b) IX
(c) X
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

2. Which subject does P like?

(a) Geography
(b) Mathematics
(c) English
(d) History
(e) None of these

3. Which subject does S like?

(a) History
(b) Geography
(c) Mathematics
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

4. In which standard does P study?

(a) IV
(b) VII
(c) IX
(d) X
(e) None of these

5. Which of the following combinations of student-standardsubject is correct?

(a) T -VIII -Mathematics
(b) W -VII -Sanskrit
(c) Q -VII -Geography
(d) V -X -Science
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

(i) A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight students each having a different height.
(ii) D is shorter than A but taller than G.
(iii) E is taller than H but shorter than C.
(iv) B is shorter than D but taller than F.
(v) C is shorter than G.
(vi) G is not as tall as F.

6. Which of the following is definitely false?

(a) G is shorter than F
(b) C is shorter than F
(c) F is taller than C
(d) B is taller than E
(e) All are true

7. If another student J who is taller than E but shorter than G is added to the group, which of the following will be definitely true?

(a) C and J are of same height
(b) J is shorter than D
(c) J is shorter than H
(d) J is taller than A
(e) None of these

8. Which of the following will definitely be the third from top when the eight students are arranged in descending order of height?

(a) B
(b) F
(c) G
(d) B or G
(e) Cannot be determined

9. How many of them are definitely shorter than F ?

(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

10. Which of the following is redundant to answer all the above questions?

(a) (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv) only
(d) (i) and (v) only
(e) All are necessary to answer the above questions

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

In a certain code language :
"demand and supply market" is written as "pa ni de re"
"market needs more demand" is written as "de ja ni fe"
"supply demand is related" is written as "le de re ab"
"more related to economics" is written as "ka ha ab ja"

11. What is the code for 'economics' ?

(a) ab
(b) ka
(c) ha
(d) ja
(e) Either 'ka' or 'ha'

12. Which of the following represents 'supply related market' ?

(a) ab ni de
(b) ni re ab
(c) pa ni re
(d) de ab ni
(e) None of these

13. What is the code for 'more' ?

(a) fe
(b) ni
(c) de
(d) ja
(e) Cannot be determined

14. Which of the following may represent "market needs more customers" ?

(a) fe ja ni sa
(b) ja ni de ab
(c) ni ja ka pa
(d) pa ni fe re
(e) le re ni ja

15. What is the code for 'needs' ?

(a) ni
(b) fe
(c) pa
(d) le
(e) None of these

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 4-10-2015" ::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 4-10-2015"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Find the missing term.

1. 0.5, 1.5, 5, 8,76,?

(a) 380
(b) 385
(c) 390
(d) 395
(e) None of these

2. 65, 72, 86, 114 ?

(a) 160
(b) 165
(c) 170
(d) 175
(e) None of these

3. 63, 31, 15, 7, 3 ?

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) None of these

4. 13. 70, 71, 76, ?, 81, 86, 70, 91

(a) 70
(b) 71
(c) 80
(d) 96
(e) None of these

5. 8, 43, 11, 41, ?, 39, 17

(a) 8
(b) 14
(c) 43
(d) 44
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer

(a) if x > y
(b) if x < y
(c) if x ³ y
(d) if x £ y
(e) if x = y or relation cannot be established between 'x' and 'y'.

6. I. 8x + y =10
II. 4x + 2y = 13

7. I. (x + 3) (y + 2) = 12
II. 2xy + 4x + 5y = 11

8. I. (3x – 2)/y = (3x + 6)/(y + 16)
II. (x + 2)/(y + 4) = (x + 5)/(Y + 10)

9. I. x2 + 20x + 4 = 50 – 25x
II. y2 – 10y – 24 = 0

10. I. (x2 – 10x + 16)/(x2 – 12x + 24) = 2/3
II. y2 – y – 20 = 0

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Study the given table carefully to answer the following questions.

11. What is the cost of flooring of A?

(a) ` 4000
(b) ` 4600
(c) ` 4800
(d) ` 5000
(e) ` 4400

12. What is the difference between the cost of fencing of C and that of B?

(a) ` 180
(b) ` 120
(c) ` 240
(d) ` 360
(e) ` 480

13. What is the ratio of the cost of flooring to that of fencing of field D?

(a) 4 : 1
(b) 6 : 1
(c) 8 : 1
(d) 9 : 1
(e) 5 : 1

14. The cost of fencing of field E is approximately what percent of the cost of flooring of field C?

(a) 10.5%
(b) 19.46%
(c) 18.71%
(d) 15.36%
(e) 13.82%

15. The cost of fencing of field C is what percent of the cost of fencing of field D?

(a) 87.54%
(b) 67.5%
(c) 72.13%
(d) 54.36%
(e) 46.5%

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-23) : Study the following table and pie chart carefully to answer the given questions.

The table shows the ratio of Hindu religion soldiers to soldiers of other religions

16. What is the number of Hindu soldiers in Jat regiment?

(a) 2600
(b) 2700
(c) 3200
(d) 2800
(e) 2350

17. What is the difference between Hindu soldiers in Madras regiment and soldiers of other religions in Bihar regiment?

(a) 485
(b) 550
(c) 520
(d) 510
(e) 490

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 4-10-2015" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 4-10-2015"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Two of the best-performing major economies in 2014 were China and Brazil, with growth estimated at 7.5% and 10.5% resepectively.
(B) Despite that limp growth, major US stock market indexes are up between 11% and 20% for the year.
(C) Even knowing where economies are headed sometimes it is of no help to an investor.
(D) It is hard to anticipate the direction of financial markets.
(E) But as of December, stock markets of both nations were in the red for the year.
(F) By contrast, the US economy is likely to have expanded at only about 2.6% for the year.

1. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence?

(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F

2. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) F

3. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F

4. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F

5. Which of the following would be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it or a wrong word has been used. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence which has been printed in bold and has been numbered (a), (b), (c) or (d). The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

6. The convergence of

(a) Indian accounting standards with International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) beginning
(b) in April is expecting to 
(c) see power companies struggling with
(d) significant first-timeadoption impact.
(e) No error

7. Researchers at

(a) the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore, are mapping
(b) India’s solar hot spots-where round-the-year
(c) sunlight makes it viable of 
(d) companies to set up solar power plants. 
(e) No error

8. Though their qualifications span a diverse

(a) range, there is an equal
(b) number of graduates and those who have just completed School, each set
(c) making up
(d) close to 30% of these households.
(e) No error

9. As if

(a) the most dangerous moment for any dictatorship is when
(b) it starts to
(c) reform, North Korea looks ready to turn that truism on its head.
(d) North Korea looks ready to turn that truism on its head.
(e) No error

10. It so happens

(a) that this happy campy ritual is their way of life
(b) and one into which
(c) they don’t particularly welcome
(d) voyeuristic intrusions. 
(e) No error

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-20) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The outside world has pat answers concerning extremely impoverished countries, especially those in Africa. Everything comes back, again and again, to corruption and mis-rule. Western officials argue that Africa simply needs to behave itself better, to allow market forces to operate without interference by corrupt rulers. Yet the critics of African governance have it wrong. Politics simply can't explain Africa's prolonged economic crisis. The claim that Africa's corruption is the basic source of the problem does not withstand serious scrutiny. During the past decade I witnessed how relatively well-governed countries in Africa, such as Ghana, Malawi, Mali and Senegal, failed to prosper, whereas societies in Asia perceived to have extensive corruption, such as Bangladesh, Indonesia and Pakistan, enjoyed rapid economic growth. What is the explanation? Every situation of extreme poverty around the world contains some of its own unique causes, which need to be diagnosed as a doctor would a patient. For example, Africa is burdened with malaria like no other part of the world, simply because it is unlucky in providing the perfect conditions for that disease; high temperatures, plenty of breeding sites and particular species of malaria-transmitting mosquitoes that prefer to bite humans rather than cattle. Another myth is that the developed world already gives plenty of aid to the world's poor. Former U.S. Secretary of the Treasury, Paul O'Neil expressed a common frustration when he remarked about aid for Africa : "We've spent trillions of dollars on these problems and we have damn near nothing to show for it". O'Neil was no foe of foreign aid. Indeed, he wanted to fix the system so that more U.S. aid could be justified. But he was wrong to believe that vast flows of aid to Africa had been squandered. President Bush said in a press conference in April 2004 that as "the greatest power on the face of the earth, we have an obligation to help the spread of freedom. We have an obligation to feed the hungry". Yet how does the U.S. fulfill its obligation? U.S. aid to farmers in poor countries to help them grow more food runs at around $200 million per year, far less than $1 per person per year for the hundreds of millions of people living in subsistence farm households. From the world as a whole, the amount of aid per African per year is really very small, just $30 per sub-Saharan African in 2002. Of that modest amount, almost $5 was actually for consultants from the donor countries, more than $3 was for emergency aid, about $4 went for servicing Africa's debts and $5 was for debt-relief operations. The rest, about $12, went to Africa. Since the "money down the drain" argument is heard most frequently in the U.S., it's worth looking at the same calculations for U.S. aid alone. In 2002, the U.S. gave $3 per sub-Saharan African. Taking out the parts for U.S. consultants and technical cooperation, food and other emergency aid, administrative costs and debt relief, the aid per African came to grand total of 6 cents. The U.S. has promised repeatedly over the decades, as a signatory to global agreements like the Monterrey Consensus of 2002, to give a much larger proportion of its annual output, specifically upto 0.7% of GNP, to official development assistance. The U.S. failure to follow through has no political fallout domestically, of course, because not one in a million U.S. citizens even knows of statements like the Monterrey Consensus. But no one should underestimate the salience that it has around the world. Spin as American might about their nation's generosity, the poor countries are fully aware of what the U.S. is not doing.

11. The passage seems to emphasize that the outside world has

(a) correct understanding about the reasonable aid provided by the USA to the poor countries
(b) definite information about what is happening in under developed countries
(c) stopped extending any financial aid to under developed countries
(d) misconceptions about the aid given to the poor nations by developed countries
(e) None of these

12. According to the Westerners the solution to eradicate poverty of African nations lies in

(a) corruption
(b) improving their own national behaviour
(c) mis-rule
(d) prolonged economic crisis
(e) None of these

13. The author has given the example of Bangladesh, Indonesia and Pakistan in support of his argument that

(a) corruption is the major culprit in the way of prosperity
(b) mis-governance hampers the prosperity of nations
(c) despite rampant corruption, nations may prosper
(d) developed nations arrogantly neglect under developed countries.
(e) None of these

14. The author has mentioned Ghana as a country with

(a) reasonably good-governance
(b) corrupt leadership
(c) plenty of natural resources
(d) rapid economic growth
(e) None of these

15. The cases of malaria in Africa are mainly due to

A. high temperature.
B. climatic conditions conducive for breeding.
C. malaria carries liking for human blood in preference to that of cattle.

(a) None of these
(b) Only B and C
(c) Only A and C
(d) Only A and B
(e) All the three

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Quantitative Aptitude Held on: 16-10-2016"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Held on: 16-10-2016"

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::


1. If the male population above poverty line for State R is then what is the total population of

(1) 4.5 Trillion
(2) 4.85 million
(3) 5.33 million
(4) 6.25 million
(5 ) 6 million

2. What will be the number of females above poverty line in the State S if it is known that the population of State S is 7 million ?

(1) 3 million
(2) 2.13 million
(3) 1.33 million
(4) 5.7 million
(5) 4 million

3. What is the male population above poverty line for State P if the female population below poverty line for State P is 2.1 million ?

(1) 2.1 million
(2) 2.7 million
(3) 3.3 million
(4) 2.3 million
(5) 3 million

4. If the population of males below poverty line for State Q is 2.4 million and that for State T is 6 million, then what is the respective ratio of the total population of states Q and T ?

(1) 1 : 3
(2) 2 : 5
(3) 3 : 7
(4) 4 : 9
(5) 3 : 9

5. Find the probability that a number from 1 to 300 is divisible by 3 or 7 ?

(1) 37/75
(2) 32/75
(3) 36/75
(4) 28/75
(5) 26/75 

6. 14 men can do a work in 18 days, 15 women can do a work in 24 days. If 14 men work for first three days and 10 women work after that for three days, find the part of work left after that ?

(1) 3/4
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/2
(4) 1/6
(5) 1/5

7. Perimeter of a rectangle is x and circumference of a circle is 8 more than the perimeter of the rectangle. Ratio of radius of circle and length of the rectangle is 1:2 and ratio of length and breadth of rectangle is 7:3. Find the length of the rectangle?

(1) 14
(2) 21
(3) 28
(4) 35
(5) 7

8. A invests on some scheme at 5% and B at 3% for two years. If the total sum invested by A and B is 4000 and the simple interest received by both is same then find the amount invested by A.

(1) Rs. 1,300/-
(2) Rs. 1,500/-
(3) Rs. 2,500/-
(4) Rs. 2,700/-
(5) Rs. 2,100/-

9. Two trains crosses each other in 14 sec when they are moving in opposite direction, and when they are moving in same direction they crosses each other in 3 min 2 sec. Find the speed of the faster train by what percent more than the speed of the slower train ?

(1) 16.67%
(2) 17.33%
(3) 16.33%
(4) 17.67%
(5) 18.33%

10. 11 20 38 74 ?

(1) 146
(2) 154
(3) 128
(4) 132
(5) 136

11. 15 21 38 65 101 ?

(1) 124
(2) 145
(3) 136
(4) 158
(5) 162

12. 24 28 19 35 10 ?

(1) 26
(2) 36
(3) 16
|(4) 46
(5) 15

13. 7 16 45 184 915 ?

(1) 2092
(2) 5496
(3) 1048
(4) 4038
(5) 3268

14. 12 19 35 59 90 ?

(1) 134
(2) 127
(3) 132 (4) 98
(5) 114

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "English Held on: 16-10-2016"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Held on: 16-10-2016"

:: English Language ::

Directions (1-7) : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Governments looking for easy popularity have frequently been tempted into announcing give-a-ways of all sorts; free electricity, virtually free water, subsidized food, cloth at half price, and so on. The subsidy culture has gone to extremes. The richest farmers in the country get subsidized fertilizers. University education, typically accessed by the wealthier sections, is charged at a fraction of cost. Postal services are subsidized, and so are railway services. Bus fares cannot be raised to economical levels because there will be violent protest, so bus travel is subsidized too. In the past, price control on a variety of items, from steel to cement, meant that industrial consumer of these items got them at less than actual cost, while the losses of the public sector companies that produced them were borne by the taxpayer! A study done a few years ago, came to the conclusion that subsidies in the Indian economy total as much as 14.5 per cent of gross domestic product. At today’s level, that would work out to about 1,50,000 crore. And who pay the bill? The theory-and the Political fiction on the basis of I which it is sold to unsuspecting voters-is that subsidies go the poor. and are paid for by the rich. The fact is that most subsidies go the ‘rich’ (defined in the Indian context as those who are above the poverty line), and much of the tab goes indirectly to the poor. Because the hefty subsidy bill results in fiscal deficits, which in turn push up rates of inflation-which, as everyone knows, hits the poor the hardest of all. That is why taxmen call inflation the most regressive form of taxation.

The entire subsidy system is built on the thesis that people cannot help themselves, therefore governments must do so. That people cannot afford to pay for variety of goods and services, and therefore the government must step in. This thesis has been applied not just in the poor countries but in the rich ones as well; hence the birth of the welfare state in the west, and an almost Utopian social security system; free medical care, food aid, old age security, et.al. But with the passage of time, most of the wealthy nations have discovered that their economies cannot sustain this social safety net, which in fact reduces the desire among people to pay their own way, and takes away some of the incentive to work, in short, the bill was unaffordable, and their societies were simply not willing to pay. To the regret of many, but because of the laws of economies are harsh, most Western societies have been busy pruning the welfare bill.

In India, the lessons of this experience over several decades, and in many countries-do not seem to have been learnt. Or they are simply ignored in the pursuit of immediate votes. People who are promised cheap food or clothing do not in most cases look beyond the gift horses-to the question of who picks up the tab. The uproar over higher petrol, diesel and cooking gas prices ignored this basic question; if the user of cooking gas does not want to pay for its cost, who should pay? Diesel in the country is subsidised, and if the user of cooking gas does not want to pay for its full cost, who does he or she think should pay the balance of the cost? It is a simple question, nevertheless if remains unasked.

The Deva Gowda government has shown some courage in biting the bullet when it comes to the price of petroleum products. But it has been bitten by much bigger subsidy bug. It wants to offer food at half its
cost to everyone below the poverty line, supposedly estimated at some 380 million people. What will be the cost? And of course, who will pick up the tab? The Andhra Pradesh Government has been bankrupted by selling rice as 2 per kg. Should the Central Government be bankrupted too, before facing up to the question of what is affordable and what is not? Already, India is perennially short of power because the subsidy on electricity has bankrupted most electricity boards, and made private investment wary unless it gets all manner of state guarantees. Delhi’s subsidised bus fares have bankrupted the Delhi Transport Corporation, whose buses have slowly disappeared from the capital’s streets. It is easy to be soft and sentimental, by looking at programmes that will be popular. After all, who does not like a free lunch? But the evidence is surely mounting that the lunch isn’t free at all. Somebody is paying the bill. And if you want to know who, take at the country’s poor economic performance over the years.

1. Which of the following should not be subsidised over the years ?

(1) University education
(2) Postal services
(3) Steel
(4) Other than those given as options
(5) All of the above options

2. The statement that ‘subsidies are paid by the rich and go to the poor’ is

(1) fiction
(2) fact
(3) fact, according to the author
(4) fiction, according to the author
(5) Other than those given as options

3. Why do you think that the author calls the Western social security system Utopian ?

(1) The countries belief in the efficacy of the system was bound to turn out to be false.
(2) The system followed by these countries is the best available in the present context.
(3) Everything under this system was supposed to be free but people were charging money for them.
(4) The theory of system followed by these countries was devised by Dr. Utopia.
(5) All the options are responsible.

4. It can be inferred from the passage that the author :

(1) believes that people can help themselves and do not need the government.
(2) believes that the theory of helping with subsidy is very destructive.
(3) believes in democracy and free speech.
(4) is not a successful politician.
(5) believes that subsidies are the best way to help poor.

5. Which of the following is not a victim of extreme subsidies ?

(1) The poor
(2) The Delhi-Transport Corporation
(3) The Andhra Pradesh Goverment
(4) Other than those given as options
(5) The rich

6. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?

(1) Where subsidies are concerned, the poor ultimately pay the tab.
(2) Inflation is caused by too much subsidies.
(3) Experts call subsidies the most regressive form of taxation.
(4) Fiscal deficits are caused due to heavy subsidy bills.
(5) None of the following is true in the context of the passage.

7. A suitable title to the passage would be :

(1) There’s no such thing as a free lunch
(2) The Economic Overview
(3) Deva Gowda’s Government and its Follies
(4) It takes Two to Tango
(5) The Rich and The Poor: Extreme Partiality

Directions (8-12) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

A. It is the only country in the world that is carbon negative, which means it produces more oxygen than it consumes.
B. Bhutan, sandwiched between the two most populous nations on Earth, suffers for their sins.
C. So far, so good. But then, two things happened.
D. Carbon sinks, 70% forest cover, powered almost entirely by mountain streams—Bhutan is a poster child for green living.
E. Glaciers are beginning to melt, flash floods and heavy rains—and even droughts— are common, and temperatures are climbing.
F. One, India and China got richer.

8. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence of the given paragraph ?

(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B
(5) A

9. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence of the given paragraph ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

10. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence of the given paragraph ?

(1) A
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B
(5) E

11. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence of the given paragraph?

(1) F
(2) C
(3) B
(4) E
(5) D

12. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence of the given paragraph?

(1) B
(2) D
(3) A
(4) C
(5) E

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Reasoning Held on: 16-10-2016"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Held on: 16-10-2016"

:: Reasoning Ability ::


Directions (1-5) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer :

(1) If only conclusion II is true
(2) If only conclusion If is true
(3) If both conclusions I and II are true
(4) I f either conclusion I or II is true
(5) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

1. Statements :

S d” L d” I = P e” E > R ; L > Q

Conclusions :

I. P > S
II. I > R

Directions (6-10) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons — H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O — are standing in a straight line at equidistant. Some of them are facing north while others are facing south.
M is standing third to the right to H. M is standing at one of the extreme ends. L is standing third to the left of H. The immediate neighbours of J. face north. N is not an immediate neighbour of H.The persons standing at the extreme ends face the same direction (both are facing either north or south). The immediate neighbours of H face, just opposite direction as that of M. The immediate neighbours of 0 face opposite direction with respect to each other.K is one of the immediate neighbours of L and is facing north. I is standing between J and M. Not more than four persons are facing north.L is immediate right of K.

6. Who among the following is third to the left of N?

(1) K
(2) J
(3) H
(4) I
(5) O

7. The immediate neighbours of L are :

(1) M and N
(2) N and O
(3) K and N
(4) N and H
(5) J and H

8. How many persons are standing exactly between I and 0 ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two
(5) None

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?

(1) N
(2) L
(3) O
(4) J
(5) K

10. Who among the following is exactly between L and J ?

(1) N
(2) O
(3) H
(4) I
(5) None

Directions (11-15) : In each question below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer :

(1) If only conclusion I follows.
(2) If only conclusion II follows.
(3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(5) If both conclusions I and II follow.

11. Statements :

All circles are a triangle.
Some triangles is rectangles.
All rectangles are squares.

Conclusions :

I. All rectangles being triangles is a possibility.
II. All circles being squares is a possibility.

12. Statements :

Some chairs are tables.
Some beds are tables.
No furniture is bed.

Conclusions :

I. All chairs being furniture is a possibility.
II. Some tables are not bed is a possibility.

13. Statements :

All circles are a triangle.
Some triangles are rectangles.
All rectangles are squares.

Conclusions :

I. Some triangles are not rectangles.
II. No square is a circle.

14. Statements :

All art are theatre.
Some art are dramas

Conclusions :

I. All dramas being theatre is a possibility.
II. Some dramas are theatre.

15. Statements :

Some chairs are tables.
Some beds are tables.
No furniture is bed.

Conclusions :

I. Some tables are not furniture.
II. All tables being furniture is a possibility.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Held on: 20-11-2016" ::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Held on: 20-11-2016"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::


1. Ankita borrows ` 7000 at simple Interest from a lender. At the end of 3 years, she again borrows ` 3000 and settled that amount after paying ` 4615 as interest after 8 years
from the time she made the first borrowing. What is the rate of interest?

(a) 5.5%
(b) 9.5%
(c) 7.5%
(d) 6.5%
(e) None of the Above

2. The difference between compound interest compounded every 6 months and simple interest after 2 years is 248.10. The rate of interest is 10 percent. Find the sum

(a) 12000
(b) 14000
(c) 16000
(d) 18000
(e) None of these

3. Deepak found that he had made a loss of 10% while selling his smartphone. He also found that had he sold it for ` 50 more, he would have made a profit of 5%. The initial loss was what percentage of the profit earned, had he sold the smartphone for a 5% profit ?

(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 75%
(d) 85%
(e) None of the Above

4. An inspector is 228 meter behind the thief. The inspector runs 42 meters and the thief runs 30 meters in a minute. In what time will the inspector catch the thief?

(a) 19 minutes
(b) 20 minutes
(c) 18 minutes
(d) 21 minutes
(e) None of these

5. Ashok can row upstream at 8 kmph and downstream at 12 kmph.What is the speed of the stream ?

(a) 6 km/hr
(b) 3 km/h
(c) 2 km/hr
(d) 4 km/hr
(e) 4.5 km/hr

6. James' present age is 2/7th of his father's present age. James' brother is three year older to James. The respective ratio between present ages of James' father and James' brother is 14:5. What is the present age of James?

(a) 12 years
(b) 23 years
(c) 19 years
(d) 27 years
(e) 13 years

7. The average value of property of Agil, Mugilan and Anitha is `130cr. The Property of Agil is 20cr greater than the property value of Mugilan and Anitha property value is
50cr greater than the Agil property value. The value of property of Anitha is

(a) 120 cr
(b) 170 cr
(c) 100 cr
(d) 150 cr
(e) None of these

8. A and B can do a piece of work in 24 and 30 days respectively. Both started the work and worked for 6 days. Then B leaves the work and C joins and the remaining work
is completed by A and C together in 11 days. Find the days in which C alone can do the work

(a) 80
(b) 100
(c) 120
(d) 130
(e) None of these

9. Three pipe P, Q and R can fill a tank in 12 minutes, 18 minutes and 24 minutes respectively. The pipe R is closed 12 minutes before the tank is filled. In what time the tank is full?

10. A company reduces his employee in the ratio 14 : 12 and increases their wages in the ratio 16:18. Determine whether the bill of wages increases or not and in what ratio.

(a) Decreases, 28: 27
(b) Increases, 27:28
(c) Decreases, 29:28
(d) Increases, 28:29
(e) None of these

11. A slice from a circular pizza of diameter 14 inches is cut in a such a way that each slice of pizza has a central angle of 45°. What is the area of each slice of Pizza(in square inches)?

(a) 16.25
(b) 19.25
(c) 18.25
(d) 17.25
(e) None of the Above

12. 8 litres are drawn from a flask containing milk and then filled with water. The operation is performed 3 more times. The ratio of the quantity of milk left and total solution is 81/625. How much milk the flask initially holds?

(a) 10 ltr
(b) 20 ltr
(c) 30 ltr
(d) 40 ltr
(e) None of these

13. Two persons A and B invested in a business with 115000 and 75000 rupees respectively. They agree that 40% of the profit should be divided equally among them and rest is divided between them according to their investment. If A got 500 rupee more than B, then the total profit is.

(a) 3599.34
(b) 699.34
(c) 3958.34
(d) 999.34
(e) None of these

14. The ratio of the monthly salaries of A and B is in the ratio 5 : 16 and that of B and C is in the ratio 17 : 18. Find the monthly income of C if the total of their monthly salary is ` 1,87,450.

(a) ` 66,240
(b) ` 72,100
(c) ` 62,200
(d) ` 65,800
(e) ` 60,300

15. Pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 15 hours together. But if these pipes operate separately A takes 40 hours less than B to fill the tank. In how many hours the pipe A will fill the cistern working alone?

(a) 60
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 15
(e) 25

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : In these questions, a number series is given. Find out the missing number.

16. 20 39 74 ? 262 499

(a) 146
(b) 169
(c) 166
(d) 139
(e) 129

17. 14 8 6 6 7 ?

(a) 6.5
(b) 7.5
(c) 8.5
(d) 9.5
(e) None of these

18. 6 13 20 65 256 ?

(a) 1283
(b) 1756
(c) 2786
(d) 2686
(e) None of these

19. 14 6 4 4 8 ?

(a) 26
(b) 32
(c) 46
(d) 27
(e) None of these

20. 6 16 45 184 917 ?

(a) 5506
(b) 4756
(c) 5786
(d) 5686
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25) : In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.

(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x y
(d) x ≥ y
(e) x = y or relation cannot be established

22. 5x + 2y = 31
3x + 7y = 36

(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x y
(d) x≥ y
(e) x = y or relation cannot be established

23. 7x + 6y + 4z = 122
4x + 5y + 3z = 88
9x + 2y + z = 78

(a) x < y = z
(b) x ≥ y < z
(c) x < y > z
(d) x = y > z
(e) x = y = z or relation cannot be established

24. 4x + 2y =8.5, 2x + 4y = 9.5

(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x y
(d) x ≥ y
(e) x = y or relation cannot be established

25. I. 56×2 + 37x + 6 = 0
II. 66y2 – 13y – 4 = 0

(a) if x y
(b) if x > y
(c) if x < y
(d) if x ≥ y
(e) if the relation between x and y cannot be established.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Held on: 20-11-2016" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Held on: 20-11-2016"

::REASONING ABILITY::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : Read the following infomation carefully and answer the questions that follow.

1. Statements: Some trees are plants. All trees are houses. No plant is pot. All tools are pots.

Conclusions:

I. Some plants are tools is a possibility.
II. All trees are tools is a possibility.
III. No plant is house.
IV. All plants are houses is a possibility.

(a) Only I and III follow.
(b) Either III or IV follows
(c) Only IV follows
(d) None follows.

2. Statements: All trees are plants. All houses are trees. Some pots are plants. All tools are plants.

Conclusions:

I. Some plants are not houses
II. Some tools being trees is a possibility
III. All pots are tools is a possibility.
IV. All houses are tools is a possibility.

(a) Only III and IV follow
(b) Only II, III, and IV follow
(c) Only I and IV follow.
(d) All follow.

3. Statements: Some roofs are figures. All figures are lions. All lions are goats. No tool is lion.

Conclusions:

I. Some tools are figures is a possibility.
II. All tools being goats is a possibility.
III. No roof is tool.
IV. Some goats are figures

(a) Only II and IV follow
(b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only either I or II and IV follow
(d) None follows.

4. Statements : No photo is frame. All frames are sites. Some buckets are photos. Some sites are buckets.

Conclusions:

I. No photo is site.
II. All buckets being frames is a possibility
III. Some sites are photos
IV. Some buckets are frames.

(a) All follows
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only II, III and IV follow.
(d) Only either I or III follows

5. Statements: All seats are covers. No cover is bun. Some buns are roofs. Some sites are covers.

Conclusions:

I. All sites being buns is a possibility
II. All sites being roof is a possibility
III. Some sites are not buns.
IV. No seat is bun

(a) Only II, III and either I or IV follow.
(b) Only III follows
(c) All follows.
(d) Only II, III and IV follow

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Study the information below and answer the following question:-

In a certain code language,
'Arrive today eagles later' is written as 21×R,6$A, 14$O, 25×A
'Begin work faster table' is written as 14$A, 17%O, 26×A, 22$E
'Length error arrow burn' is written as 6×E, 25$R, 22%U, 21$R
'Trial better than wisdom' is written as 14$R, 14%H, 22×E, 17×I

6. The code for the word ' Table'

(a) 26×A
(b) 17%O
(c) 14$A
(d) 22$ E
(e) None of these

7. The code word 6$A for the word

(a) Later
(b) Arrive
(c) Earlier
(d) Today
(e) Either 1 or 3

8. Find the code word for the word 'Burn' ?

(a) 25$R
(b) 22%U
(c) 21$R
(d) 6×E
(e) Can't be determined

9. According to the given code, what is the code for 'M' ?

(a) 12
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 7
(e) Can't be determined

10. By using the given code word, find the code word for 'Better Luck Next Arrive' ?

(a) 22$E, 21$R, 6×U, 8% E
(b) 8×E, 21×R, 22%E, 6%U
(c) 22×E, 6%U, 8%E, 21×R
(d) 21%R, 22$E, 6×U, 8%E
(e) 6$U, 22×E, 8×E, 21%R

11. Two Person P and Q are separated by a distance of 20 meter in west-east direction respectively. Now P and Q start walking in north and south direction respectively and walked for 5 meter. Now P and Q took a right turn and walked 10m each. Now P and Q took left turn and after walking 5 meter both of them stopped. Find the distance between them

(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 12-16) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing outward. They are working in four different companies Apple, IBM, Google and Intel. Two persons are working at each company.
G sits on the immediate right of B, who works at the Google. C sits third to the left of H, who works at the Apple and both are facing the same direction. C and B are not facing the same direction but C is an immediate neighbor of E, who is fourth to the left of G. E and G both are facing opposite directions but both work at the same company. Those who work at the Google sit adjacent to each other but face opposite direction. Those who work at the IBM sit opposite each other. The immediate neighbours of E are
not facing outward. A person who works at the Apple is an immediate neighbor of the persons who work at the Intel. D and F are immediate neighbours of H. D is not facing the centre and works at the Intel. The one who is on the immediate left of F is not facing the centre. F sits second to the right of C.

12. Who among the following works at the Apple ?

(a) D and F
(b) H and F
(c) G and C
(d) C and H
(e) None of these

13. Who among the following sits on the immediate right of the person who works at the IBM?

(a) B
(b) D
(c) A
(d) F
(e) None of these

14. How many persons are facing outward?

(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Can't be determined
(e) None of these

15. A works at which of the following?

(a) Either Google or Apple
(b) Either Intel or IBM
(c) Google
(d) Intel
(e) Can't be determined

16. If D and F interchange their places then who among the following is on the immediate left of G?

(a) B
(b) D
(c) H
(d) F
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17-21) : In the following Questions, $, ×, %, @ and © are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.

A × B means A is not greater than B
A @ B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B
A © B means A is not smaller than B
A % B means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B
A $ B means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B

17. Statement : X × W, W @ Z , Z % Y

Conclusion:

I.Y $ W
II.Z $ W
III.X © Y

(a) Only I is true
(b) Ony II is true
(c) Both I and II are true
(d) Both I and III are true
(e). None is true

18. Statement : D $ E, E © C, C @ A

Conclusion :

I. C × D
II. A $ E
III. A $ D

(a) Only I is true
(b) Ony II is true
(c) Both I and II are true
(d) Both I and III are true
(e) None is true

19. Statement : M @ O, O % P, P © N

Conclusion:

I. P © M
II. N @ O
III. N % O

(a) Only I is true
(b) Ony II is true
(c) Both II and III are true
(d) Either II or III is true
(e) None is true

20. Statement : A © C, C $ B, B % E

Conclusion :

I. E @ C
II. B @ A
III. A © E

(a) Only I is true
(b) Ony II is true
(c) Both I and II are true
(d) Both I and III are true
(e) None is true

21. Statement : P © S, S $ R, R × Q

Conclusion :

I. Q $ S
II. R @ P
III. R % P

(a) Only I is true
(b) Ony II is true
(c) Both I and II are true
(d) Either II or III is true
(e) All I, II and III are true

DIRECTION (Qs. 22-25) : Read the following information carefully & answer the given questions that follows.

In a family there are 6 members P, Q, R, X, Y and Z. R is the sister of Z. X is the father of P and grandfather of Z. Q is the brother of Y's husband. There are three brothers, one mother and two fathers.

22. Who is the mother of R?

(a) Q
(b) Z
(c) Y
(d) X
(e) None of these

23. Who is Y's husband ?

(a) Q
(b) P
(c) X
(d) Can't be determined
(e) None of these

24. How many females are there in the family?

(a) One
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
(e) None of these

25. Which of the following is the group of brothers ?

(a) PQZ
(b) PRZ
(c) XZP
(d) QRZ
(e) None of these

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Held on: 20-11-2016" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Held on: 20-11-2016"


::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

The finance ministry on Monday said the Union budget would be growth-oriented, implicitly signaling that it will address the investment crisis in the Indian economy. “Given the fiscal constraints and other parameters under which the government has to function, the effort of the government is to present a budget which is growthoriented, that maintains the momentum of growth and tries to develop on it,” economic affairs secretary Shaktikanta Das said in an interview with DD News uploaded on YouTube on Monday.
According to Das, the budget will also detail new measures to support ongoing programmes such as Start-up India, Standup India, Make In India, Digital India and the Skill mission – all of which have a strong focus on creating jobs. Finance minister ArunJaitley will be presenting his third budget on 29 February at a time when private investment has dried up and the exchequer has had to incur higher expenditure due to implementation of the One Rank One Pension scheme for the armed forces and the commendations of the Seventh Pay Commission. That may cramp the government’s ability to accelerate public investment to revive economic growth while sticking within the confines of
its fiscal deficit targets. Some parts of the government believe that the emphasis should be on growth and not fiscal consolidation. Other parts, and the Reserve Bank of India, believe the finance minister should adhere to his fiscal commitments made in the last budget. Without revealing whether the government will digress from the path of fiscal consolidation, Das said the government’s priority is to take a balanced view on “the expenditure requirement to keep our growth momentum and to what extent we can borrow’. Care Ratings chief economist MadanSabnavis said the government has to increase its allocation for public investment on infrastructure to stimulate growth. “I expect government to spend ` 10,000-20,000 crore additional amount on infrastructure. Given nominal GDP (gross domestic product) is not expected to expand significantly, the leeway for the government to spend more may not be there while keeping fiscal deficit within 3.7-3.9% of GDP. So I don’t expect a big-bang push for infrastructure
spending given the fiscal constraint,” he said. The finance ministry revealed more contours of its budget when minister of state for finance JayantSinha, also in an interview
to DD News, said the four pillars of the budget will be poverty eradication, farmers’ prosperity, job creation and a better quality of life for all Indian citizens. ‘This budget will be a forward looking budget that will ensure that India will continue to be a haven of stability and growth in a very turbulent and choppy global economic environment,” he added. The government has been contemplating tax incentives to companies in the manufacturing sector, including tax deductions on emoluments paid to new employees, to encourage firms to step up hiring and create jobs under its Make in India initiative. The government published suggestions that it has received internally from various government departments and other stakeholders on the mygov.in website, seeking further ideas and comments from the public. Suggestions being considered by the
government include financial incentives, tax incentives under the Income Tax Act, 1961, and subsidies for equipping employees with job skills, and upgrading and improving employment exchanges. Another suggestion is to expand the scope of the tax deduction currently available to companies that add at least 10% to their workforce in a year by lowering the threshold. This incentive is available only in cases of employees who earn less than ` 6 lakh a year.

1. What is the main objective of the government to create the Union Budget?

(a) It should meet the requirements of the society.
(b) It should be under some fiscal constraints.
(c) It should be growth oriented.
(d) It should meet the requirements of a developed country.
(e) It should change the momentum of growth.

2. Where is it expected to invest by government to stimulate growth?

(a) On infrastructure
(b) On governments plans.
(c) On fiscal management
(d) On manufacturing sector
(e) On social development.

3. What does this mean that India will continue to be a “haven of stability”?

(a) That new budget will make India stable forever.
(b) The four pillars of budget will lead to make stability.
(c) India will continue towards stability even in disturbed economic environment.
(d) The budget will remain unchanged even in turbulent and choppy economic environment.
(e) None of the above

4. Why is the government providing tax incentive to companies in manufacturing sector?

(a) For better infrastructure.
(b) For tax deductions on emoluments paid to new employees,
(c) To create new job opportunities and to initiate project ‘Make in India’
(d) to create new job opportunities and to initiate project Standup India.
(e) to encourage firms to step up hiring new skilled employees

5. Which one of the following is NOT the suggestion considered by the government?

(a) To expand the scope of tax deduction to companies that add at least 10% to their workforce in a year.
(b) To upgrade and improve employment exchange.
(c) To provide incentive to employees who earn less than Rs.6 lakh a year.
(d) Subsides to train employees with job skills.
(e) Tax penalty for high income people.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

The alarm bells should start ringing any time now. An important component of the economy has been sinking and needs to be rescued urgently. This critical piece is ‘savings’ and, within this overall head, household savings is the one critical subcomponent that needs close watching and nurturing. While it is true that one of the primary reasons behind the current economic slowdown is the tardy rate of capital expansion - or, investment in infrastructure as well as plant and machinery - all attempts to stimulate investment activity are likely to come to naught if savings do not grow. Without any growth in the savings rate, it is futile to think of any spurt in investment and, consequently, in the overall economic growth. If we source all the investment funding from overseas, it might be plausible to contemplate investment growth without any corresponding rise in savings rate. But that is unlikely to happen. Within the overall savings universe, the subcomponent ‘household savings’ is most critical. It provides the bulk of savings in the economy, with private corporate savings and government saving contributing the balance. The worrying factor is the nearstagnation in household savings over the last eight years or so.
What’s even more disconcerting is the fact that household savings remained almost flat during the go-go years of 2004-08. This seems to be counter-factual. There are many studies that show that there is a direct relationship between overall economic growth and household savings. So, at a time when India’s GDP was growing by over 9% every year, the household savings rate stayed almost constant at close to 23% of GDP. There was, of course, an increase in absolute terms, but it remained somewhat fixed as a proportion of GDP. What is responsible for this contradictory movement? The sub-group on household savings, formed by the working group on savings for the 12th Plan set up by the Planning Commission and chaired by RBI deputy governor SubirGokarn, has this to say, “...a recent study had attributed the decline in the household saving ratio in the UK during 1995-2007 to a host of factors such as declining real interest rates, looser credit conditions, increase in asset prices and greater macroeconomic stability.
While recognising that one of the key differences in the evolving household saving scenario between the UK and India is the impact of demographics (dependency ratio), anecdotal evidence on increasing consumerism and the entrenchment of (urban) lifestyles in India, apart from the easier availability of credit and improvement in overall macroeconomic conditions, is perhaps indicative of some ‘drag’ on household saving over the last few years as well as going forward.” India has another facet: a penchant for physical assets (such as bullion or land). After the monsoon failure of 2009, and the attendant rise in price levels that has now become somewhat deeply entrenched, Indians have been stocking up on gold. Consequently, savings in financial instruments dropped while those in physical assets shot up. This is also disquieting for policy planners because savings in physical assets stay locked in and are unavailable to the economy for investment activity. There is a counter view that higher economic growth does not necessarily lead to higher savings. According to a paper published by Ramesh Jangili (Reserve Bank of India Occasional Papers, Summer 2011), while economic growth doesn’t inevitably lead to higher savings, the reciprocal causality does hold true. “It is empirically evident that the direction of causality is from saving and investment to economic growth collectively as well as individually and there is no causality from economic growth to saving and (or) investment.” Whichever camp you belong to, it is beyond doubt that savings growth is a necessary precondition for promoting economic growth. The Planning Commission estimates that an investment of $1 trillion, or over 50 lakh crore, will be required for the infrastructure sector alone. And, a large part of this critical investment will have to be made from domestic savings.

6. What is the main concern of the author behind saying that ‘the alarm bells should start ringing anytime now’?

(a) The current economic growth is slowing down due to regular failure of monsoon.
(b) Due to power shortage industrial growth could not touch the target. (c) Household savings are sinking and they require to be revamped.
(d) Due to a sharp decline in real interest rates people have lost their enthusiasm to invest in govt schemes.
(e) All the above

7. What is/are the primary reasons behind the current economic slowdown?

(A) Slow rate of capital expansion
(B) Tardy investment in infrastructure as well as plant and machinery
(C) A rapid increase in the cases of corruption, and decreased FDI

(a) Only (A)
(b) Both (A) and (B)
(c) Either (A) or (C)
(d) Both (B) and (C)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

8. How is household savings related to overall economic growth? Give your answer in the context of the passage?

(A) Overall economic growth is directly related to household savings.
(B) Overall economic growth is inversely proportional to household savings.
(C) There is no specific relationship between overall economic growth and household savings.

(a) Only (C)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (A)
(d) Either (A) or (B)
(e) Either (A) or (C)

9. What was/were the reason(s) of drop in savings in financial instruments after 2009?

(a) Rise in price level of gold
(b) Decrease in real interest rates on savings in financial instruments
(c) Investment in physical assets, particularly land
(d) Only (a) and (c)
(e) Only (b) and (c)

10. Which of the following is/are the reasons of a drag on household savings in India over the last few years?

(a) Increasing consumerism
(b) Entrenchment of urban lifestyle
(c) Easier availability of credit
(d) Improvement in overall macroeconomic conditions
(e) All the above

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : In each of the following questions five options are given, of which one word is most nearly the same or opposite in meaning to the given word in the question. Find the correct option having either same or opposite meaning.

11. PRODIGY

(a) Pauper
(b) Despondent
(c) Demure
(d) Wanton
(e) Epitome

12. NONDESCRIPT

(a) Conducive
(b) Discern
(c) Tantamount
(d) Defined
(e) Emancipate

13. SAVANT

(a) Glutton
(b) Postulant
(c) Shrink
(d) Pluck
(e) Itinerant

14. CORPULENT

(a) Lean
(b) Gaunt
(c) Emaciated
(d) Obese
(e) Nobble

15. EMBEZZLE

(a) Misappropriate
(b) Balance
(c) Remunerate
(d) Clear
(e) Perfection

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Which of the pair of phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (e) as the answer.

16. According to author Dishantgautam, a novel is difficult to write when compared to a play is like going for an election where one has to appeal to a thousand people at a time whereas in a book one appeals to one only person.

(a) simpler, running in
(b) faster, voting through
(c) easier, running for
(d) fool proof, voting on
(e) No correction required

17. We have in America a collection speech that is neither American, Oxford English, nor colloquial English, but a mixture of all three.

(a) motley, an enhancement
(b) hybrid, a combination
(c) nasal, a blend
(d) mangled, a medley.
(e) No correction required

18. Alice Walker’s The Temple of My Familiar, far from being a tight, focused Narrative, is instead a cheaper novel that roams freely and imaginatively over a halfmillion

(a) traditional , a chronological
(b) provocative , an insensitive
(c) forceful , a concise
(d) focused , an expansive
(e) circuitous , a discursive

19. Jayashree was habitually so docile anderratic that her friends could not understand her sudden hostile her employers.

(a) accommodating, outburst against
(b) erratic, envy of
(c) truculent, virulence toward
(d) hasty, annoyance toward
(e) apologetic, hostile

20. The village headman was unlettered, but he was no fool, he could see through the mystery of the businessman’s proposition and promptly moved him down.

(a) deception, forced
(b) naivete, turned
(c) potential, forced
(d) sophistry, turned
(e) No correction required

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Held on: 20-11-2016" ::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Held on: 20-11-2016"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

1. Assembly is a _______ based low-level language replacing binary machine-code instructions, which are very hard to remember, it is the classic and uncontroversial example of a low level language.

(a) Memory
(b) High Level
(c) Key
(d) Mnemonic
(e) FORTRAN

2. China now has more of the world's fastest supercomputers than other countries. Which among the following is a Chinese super computer?

(a) BlueGene/Q system
(b) Cray XC30
(c) Shaheen II
(d) Fujitsu's K
(e) Tianhe-2

3. AT&T designed its first commercial modem, specifically for converting digital computer data to analog signals for transmission across its long distance network. What is the name of the modem?

(a) Telex
(b) Memex
(c) CompuServe
(d) Bell 103 dataset
(e) Dataphone

4. In Computer programming there is set of subroutine definitions, protocols, and tools for building software and applications. Which among the following is a term for sets of requirements that govern how one application can talk to another?

(a) UPS
(b) API
(c) CGI
(d) J2EE
(e) OLE

5. BSoDs can be caused by poorly written device drivers or malfunctioning hardware, such as faulty memory, power supply issues, overheating of components, or hardware running beyond its specification limits. Which color screen is displayed when encountered a BSOD Error?

(a) Red
(b) Grey
(c) Black
(d) Blue
(e) Green

6. Which among the following is a cloud computing platform and infrastructure created by Microsoft?

(a) Simple Storage Service
(b) Atmos
(c) Openstack Swift
(d) OceanStore
(e) Azure

7. After a credit card transaction has been authorized by the issuing bank by sending an authorization code to the merchant, the settlement stage of the process begins.

Which of the following is a system type used to process such statements?

(a) Multitasking
(b) Memory Processing
(c) Level Processing
(d) Batch Processing
(e) Online Processing

8. There is a network that can connect networks ranging from small location or area to a bigger range including public packet network and large corporate networks. That network's enterprise allows users to share access to applications, services and other centrally located resources. Its ability for a huge geographical access has transformed networking. Which among the following is that network?

(a) SAN
(b) CAN
(c) LAN
(d) WAN
(e) MAN

9. Which cloud is a cloud computing environment that uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud and third-party, public cloud services with orchestration between the two platforms and it is particularly valuable for dynamic or highly changeable workloads?

(a) Dynamic Cloud
(b) Advance Cloud
(c) Hybrid Cloud
(d) Sharing Cloud
(e) Combined Cloud

10. Which among the following is not an Object Oriented Programming Language?

(a) Python
(b) PASCAL
(c) Java
(d) C++
(e) Ruby

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS PO (Probationary Officer) Exam 2018 Study Materials

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