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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams - 22 September 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams - 22 September 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques 1) which of the following statements regarding “Housing for all by 2020” correct

a) Aimed at both urban and rural areas
b) Allows public and private partnership

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Notification) Recruitment of IBPS Clerk 2017

(Notification) Recruitment of IBPS Clerk 2017

Important Dates

Activity Tentative Dates
On-line registration including Edit/Modification of Application by candidates 12.09.2017 to 03.10.2017
Payment of Application Fees/Intimation Charges (Online) 12.09.2017 to 03.10.2017
Download of call letters for Pre- Exam Training November 2017
Conduct of Pre-Exam Training 13.11.2017 to 18.11.2017
Download of call letters for Online examination – Preliminary November 2017
Online Examination – Preliminary 02.12.2017, 03.12.2017,
09.12.2017 & 10.12.2017
Result of Online exam – Preliminary December 2017
Download of Call letter for Online exam – Main January 2018
Online Examination – Main 21.01.2018
Provisional Allotment April 2018

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA

Candidates, intending to apply for CWE Clerks-VII should ensure that they fulfil the minimum eligibility criteria specified by IBPS in this advertisement:

I. Nationality / Citizenship:

A candidate must be either -

(i) a Citizen of India or
(ii) a subject of Nepal or
(iii) a subject of Bhutan or
(iv) a Tibetan Refugee who came over to India before 1st January 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or
(v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

Age Limit :

II. Age (As on 01.09.2017):

Minimum: 20 years Maximum: 28 years
i.e. A candidate must have been born not earlier than 02.09.1989 and not later than 01.09.1997 (both dates inclusive)

Sr.No. Category Age Relaxation
1 Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe 5 years
2 Other Backward Classes (Non-Creamy Layer) 3 years
3 Persons With Disabilities 10 years
4 Ex-Servicemen / Disabled Ex-Servicemen actual period of service rendered in the defence forces + 3 years (8 years for Disabled Ex-Servicemen belonging to SC/ST) subject to a maximum age limit of 50 years
5 Widows, divorced women and women legally separated from their husbands who have not remarried 9 years
6 Persons ordinarily domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period 01.01.1980 to 31.12.1989 5 years
7 Persons affected by 1984 riots 5 years
8 Regular employees of the Union Carbide Factory, Bhopal retrenched from service (Applicable to Madhya Pradesh state only) 5 years

Educational Qualifications:

A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a University recognised by the Govt. Of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.

The candidate must possess valid Mark-sheet / Degree Certificate that he/ she is a graduate on the day he / she registers and indicate the percentage of marks obtained in Graduation while registering online.

Computer Literacy: Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidates should have Certificate/Diploma/Degree in computer operations/Language/ should have studied Computer / Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/College/Institute.

Proficiency in the Official Language of the State/UT (candidates should know how to read/ write and speak the Official Language of the State/UT) for which vacancies a candidate wishes to apply is preferable.

Ex-Servicemen who do not possess the above civil examination qualifications should be matriculate ExServicemen who have obtained the Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or Air Force after having completed not less than 15 years of service in the Armed Forces of the Union as on 03.10.2017. Such certificates should be dated on or before 03.10.2017.

SELECTION PROCESS

PRE-EXAMINATION TRAINING

Pre-Examination Training may be arranged by the Nodal Banks/ Participating Organisations to a limited number of candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribes/ Minority Communities/ Ex-Servicemen/ Persons With Benchmark Disabilities at certain centres viz. Agartala, Agra, Ahmedabad, Allahabad, Amritsar, Aurangabad, Balasore, Bareilly, Behrampur (Ganjam), Bengaluru, Bhopal, Bhubaneshwar, Chandigarh, Chennai, Coimbatore, Dehradun, Dhanbad, Gorakhpur, Gulbarga, Guwahati, Hubli, Hyderabad, Indore, Jabalpur, Jaipur, Jammu, Jodhpur, Kanpur, Karnal, Kavaratti, Kochi, Kolkata, Lucknow, Ludhiana, Madurai, Mangalore, Mumbai, Muzaffarpur, Mysore, Nagpur, New Delhi, Panaji (Goa), Patiala, Patna, Port Blair, Puducherry, Pune, Raipur, Rajkot, Ranchi, Rohtak, Sambalpur, Shimla, Shillong, Siliguri, Thiruchirapalli, Thiruvananthapuram, Tirupati, Vadodara, Varanasi, Vijaywada and Vishakhapatnam.

All eligible candidates who opt for and wish to avail of Pre-Examination Training should fill in the relevant column in the ON-LINE APPLICATION. While training will be imparted free of cost, all other expenses regarding travelling, boarding, lodging etc. will have to be borne by the candidate for attending the preexamination training programme at the designated Centres. Depending on the response and administrative feasibility the right to cancel any of the Pre- Examination Training Centres and/ or add some other Centres and/or make alternate arrangements is reserved.

By merely attending the Pre-Examination Training no candidate acquires any right to be selected in any of the Participating Organisations mentioned.

Printed Study Kit for IBPS Clerk Exam

IBPS Clerk Exam Papers

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Jobs: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "Computer Knowledge"

IBPS logo


IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  Computer Knowledge


181. Macros stored in the global macro sheet can be used

(1) in the current document only
(2) in any document
(3) can be used only with other macros of  the global macro sheet
(4) not consistent behaviour
(5) None of the above

182. About pasting from the clip board

(1) a part of the clip board contents can be pasted
(2) whole of the contents of clip board can be pasted
(3) sometimes (1) and sometimes (2)
(4) (1) and (2)
(5) None of the above

183. One of the following statements is not true for BUFFERS command

(1) Increasing numbers of BUFFERS can speed program execution, but only to a certain extent
(2) The more buffers that exist the more sectors can be stored in memory; hence fewer accesses of disk are necessary
(3) The BUFFERS command is used to establish the number of disk buffers set up by MS-DOS during booting
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

184. EPROM can be used for

(1) erasing the contents of ROM
(2) reconstructing the contents of ROM
(3) erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
(4) duplicating the ROM
(5) None of the above

185. Attributes can be defined for

(1) entity
(2) switch board
(3) macro
(4) pages
(5) None of the above

186. Where will we find the referential integrity command ?

(1) Tools
(2) View
(3) Format
(4) Table
(5) None of these

187. Anything that is typed in a worksheet appears

(1) in the formula bar only
(2) in the active cell only
(3) in both active cell and formula bar
(4) in the formula bar first and when we press ENTER it appears in active cell
(5) None of the above

188. Which bar is usually located below the Title Bar that provides categorised options ?

(1) Menu Bar (2) Status Bar
(3) Toolbar (4) Scroll Bar
(5) None of the above

189. A pixel is

(1) a computer program that draws picture
(2) a picture stored in the secondary memory
(3) the smallest resolvable part of a picture
(4) a virus
(5) None of the above

190. How many types of cell references are available in Excel ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 10
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

(Notification) Recruitment of Lower Division Clerk (Ldc) - 2017

(Notification) Recruitment of Lower Division Clerk (Ldc) - 2017

LOWER DIVISION CLERK (LDC) COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION - 2017

1. The Agricultural Scientists Recruitment Board (ASRB) will hold computer Based Test (CBT) in Online mode for Recruitment to the followings Posts under Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), an autonomous body under Dept. of Agricultural Research & Education, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Govt. of India:

(i) 78 posts of Lower Division Clerk (LDC) at ICAR HQ, New Delhi in the Pay Band – I, Rs. 5200 – 20200 + Grade Pay of Rs. 1900. [Since revised to Level 2as per 7th CPC]

IMPORTANT DATES:

SI.No. Activity Date & Time
1 Start of Online Registration of Application 31.08.2017 (10.00 am onwards)
2 Closing of Online Registration of Application 25.09.2017 (upto 05.00 pm)
3 Editing of Application Form 26-28.09.2017 (upto 05.00 pm)
4 Downloading of Admission Certificate 14.10.2017 (10.00 am onwards)
5 Examination for the LDC 29.10.2017 (10:00 A.M. to 12:00 Noon)
6 Examination for the Stenographer Grade-III 29.10.2017 (02:30 P.M. to 04:30 P.M.)

CENTRES OF EXAMINATION:-

Centres of Examination, where the exam will be conducted in Online Computer Based Test (CBT) mode and for Skill Test are mentioned in Annexure-I and Annexure-II respectively. The Centres and date(s) of holding the Examinations as mentioned above could be changed at the discretion of ASRB. Candidates must select the centre of examination carefully. No request for change of centre would be entertained.

LOWER DIVISION CLERK EXAMINATION - 2017

Centre Code Centre State
01 Ahmedabad Gujarat
02 Bengaluru Karnataka
03 Bhopal Madhya Pradesh
04 Bhubaneswar Odisha
05 Chandigarh U.T.
06 Chennai Tamil Nadu
07 Cochin Kerala
08 Dehradun Uttarakhand
09 Delhi/NCR Delhi / NCR
10 Guwahati Assam
11 Hyderabad Telangana
12 Jodhpur Rajasthan
13 Kolkata West Bengal
14 Lucknow Uttar Pradesh
15 Mumbai Maharashtra
16 Nagpur Maharashtra
17 Patna Bihar
18 Port Blair Andaman & Nicobar Islands
19 Shimla Himachal Pradesh
20 Srinagar Jammu & Kashmir
21 Varanasi Uttar Pradesh

CENTRES OF EXAMINATION FOR SKILL TEST

LOWER DIVISION CLERK EXAMINATION  -2017

The candidates will be required to indicate the choice of the centres for Skill Test from amongst following centres in the Application Form:

Centre Code Centre* State
01 Bengaluru Karnataka
02 Barapani (Shillong) Meghalaya
03 Bhubaneswar Odisha
04 Cochin Kerala
05 Delhi / NCR Delhi / NCR
06 Hyderabad Telangana
07 Jammu Jammu & Kashmir
08 Kolkata West Bangal
09 Lucknow Uttar Pradesh
10 Mumbai Maharashtra

VACANCY

DETAILS OF VACANCY POSITION FOR LOWER DIVISION CLERK at ICAR HQRS

S. No. Category No. of vacancies
1 Unreserved 36
2 Scheduled Castes (SC) 16
3 Scheduled Tribe (ST) 11
4 Other Backward Classes (OBC) 15
5 Divyang 01
6 Ex-Servicemen (Ex-S) 06
Total: 78*

PRESCRIBED QUALIFICATIONS

(i) For Stenographers Grade-III posts

Educational- A candidate must be 12th class pass or equivalent from a recognised Board/University, completed on or before the closing date for submission of online application.

Professional Efficiency- The candidates will be given one dictation test in English or in Hindi at 80 w.p.m. for 10 minutes. The candidates who opt to take the test in English will be required to transcribe the matter in 50 minutes on computer and the candidates who opt to take the test in Hindi will be required to transcribe the matter in 65 minutes on computer.

AGE LMIT:-

A candidate must have attained the age of 18 years but not have attained the age of 27 years as on the closing date of online applications. Age relaxation is admissible to the various categories as per Rule 4 of the Rules of the Examination as given in Annexure–V for the posts of Stenographers Grade-III and Annexure-VI for the posts
of LDC respectively.

REGISTRATION FEE: -

SI. No. Category of candidate Fee (Rs.)
1 Unreserved (UR) / Other Backward Class (OBC) 200/-
2 Scheduled Caste (SC)/ Scheduled Tribe (ST)/ Divyang/ Ex-Serviceman/ Women candidate NIL

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION INCLUDING SYLLABUS:-

Detailed scheme of Examination including syllabus is given in Appendix-I to Annexure–V for the posts of Stenographers Grade-III and in Appendix-I to AnnexureVI
for the posts of LDC respectively.

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION FOR LOWER DIVISION CLERK

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION: The examination will consist of written examination and Typing Test:

(A) SCHEME OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION AND SYLLABUS

The written examination will consist of one objective type paper as shown below:

Part Subject Max. Marks

Total Duration/Timing

for all Candidates except VD for Visually Divyang candidates
I General Intelligence (50 Questions) 50 2 Hours 2 Hours 40 Mins
II English Language (Basic Knowledge) (50 Questions) 50
III Numerical Aptitude (Basic Arithmetic Skill) (50 Questions) 50
IV General Awareness (50 Questions) 50

HOW TO APPLY:-

A candidate seeking admission to the Examination must apply online in the prescribed Application Form available on the website: http://www.asrb.org.in. Important instructions to the candidates for filling online applications are given in Appendix-I.

A candidate must read the provisions, contained in this Notification carefully and abide by the same. A candidate must fulfil all the conditions of eligibility regarding age, educational qualifications, etc. prescribed for admission to the examination.

The candidates are not required to attach copy of any of the documents /certificates in support of their candidature at the time of submission of online application. The candidates who qualify the Examination as per prescribed standards and qualify for Skill Test call, will be required to submit the self-attested copies of the documents/certificates in support of their candidature along with the print-out of the online application form when called for Skill Test, failing which the candidate will not be allowed to appear in the Skill test. Mere issue of admit card for the examination should not be considered that the candidate is eligible for the post in all respects. Eligibility of a candidate is checked only after qualifying the skill test. Hence, a candidate should satisfy himself / herself about his / her eligibility for the post at the time of online registration.

MODE OF SELECTION: -

The minimum qualifying marks for the written examination (CBT) are as follows:

Srl. No. Category Minimum Qualifying Marks
1 Unreserved (UR) 45 %
2 Other Backward Class (OBC) 40 %
3 Scheduled Caste (SC)/Scheduled Tribe (ST)/ Divyang/ Ex-Serviceman 35%

(i) Candidates who qualify the written examination (CBT) as per prescribed standards will be shortlisted for the Skill Test in the ratio of 20 candidates for each post i.e. 1:20 ratio.

(ii) The Board may change these qualifying marks as well as the prescribed ratio for all or any of the category at its sole discretion.

Click Here for Officical Notification

Courtesy : ASRB

 

 

Jobs: 
Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "Computer Knowledge" Held on: 19-10-2014

IBPS logo

IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest?

(1) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database
(2) Database, file, record, field, character
(3) Character, record, field, database, file
(4) Character, file, record, field, database
(5) Character, field, record, file, database

2. Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the web are called

(1) Web browsers
(2) Information engines
(3) Data engines
(4) Search engines
(5) None of these

3. What is the term for unsolicited e-mail?

(1) Flamming
(2) Usenet
(3) Spam
(4) Backbone
(5) News Group

4. Processor speed is measured in

(1) bytes
(2) gigabytes
(3) gigahertz
(4) megabytes
(5) kilobytes

5. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?

(1) Ctrl + H
(2) Alt + S
(3) Shift + E
(4) Ctrl+A
(5) Ctrl + K

6. The buying or selling of goods over the internet is termed as

(1) e-selling
(2) e-buying
(3) e-business
(4) e-commerce
(5) e-transaction

7. What are the programs that block access to selected websites known as?

(1) Channels
(2) Filters
(3) Browsers
(4) Telnet
(5) Drivers

8. Which of the following is not a valid version of MS-Office?

(1) Office 2000
(2) Office XP
(3) Office 2003
(4) Office 2007
(5) Office Vista

9. Which of the following is used to write Web pages?

(1) URL
(2) HTML
(3) Telnet
(4) HTTP
(5) FTP

10. A computer chip is also called a

(1) register
(2) switch
(3) server
(4) modem
(5) microprocessor

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 

(Notification) Recruitment of Federal Bank PO - 2017

(Notification) Recruitment of Federal Bank PO - 2017

Important Dates

Opening Date of Online Registration Gateway/ Remittance of Application fee 23rd August 2017
Closing Date of Online Registration Gateway/ Remittance of Application fee 4 th September 2017
Aptitude Test (tentative dates) 4 th week of September 2017

Scale of Pay and Other Emoluments

i. Officer (in Scale I)

Candidate who joins the Bank as Officer in Scale I will be offered the following pay scale:
`23700 - 980/7 - 30560 – 1145/2 - 32850 – 1310/7 – 42020

DA, HRA, CCA will be paid as per rules of the Bank in force from time to time depending upon the place of posting. Medical Aid, Hospitalization Scheme, Leave Fare Concession, retirement benefits and other perquisites will be admissible as per Bank’s rules.

ii. Clerk

Candidate who joins the Bank as Clerk will be offered the following pay scale:
`11765 – 655/3 - 13730 – 815/3 - 16175 – 980/4 - 20095 – 1145/7 - 28110 – 2120/1 - 30230
– 1310/1 – 31540

DA, HRA, CCA will be paid as per rules of the Bank in force from time to time depending upon the place of posting. Medical Aid, Hospitalization Scheme, Leave Fare Concession, retirement benefits and other perquisites will be admissible as per Bank’s rules.

Period on probation

i. Officer - Candidates selected as officers will be on probation for a period of 2 years.
ii. Clerk - Candidates selected as clerks will be on probation for a period of 6 months.

Eligibility Criteria

(A) Age (As on 01.07.2017)

i. Officer – Candidates shall not exceed 26 years as on 01.07.2017 (candidates should be born on or after 02.07.1991) for being eligible for the post of Officer.
ii. Clerk – Candidates shall not exceed 24 years as on 01.07.2017 (candidates should be born on or after 02.07.1993) for being eligible for the post of Clerk.

(B) Educational Qualifications

i. Officer

  • Graduation with minimum 60% marks from any recognized university or other institutions established by an Act of parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section 3 of U G C Act, 1956.
  • Should have obtained minimum 60% marks for SSC or equivalent exam & 60% marks for Plus 2 or equivalent exam.
  • Candidates should have acquired the stipulated educational qualification through regular mode of study.

ii. Clerk

  • Graduation with minimum 60% marks from any recognized university or other institutions established by an Act of parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section 3 of U G C Act, 1956.
  • Candidates should have acquired the stipulated educational qualification through regular mode of study.

Mode of Selection

Selection will be based on Online Aptitude Test, Group Discussion and Personal Interview or any other mode of selection to be decided by the Bank. The online aptitude test will be followed by a psychometric questionnaire for a maximum duration of 20 minutes. The process will be conducted in various centers depending upon the number of candidates.

The Bank reserves the right to allot the candidate any of the centers other than the one opted for by him, to advance/ postpone / reschedule the interview dates and/ or to add or delete or modify/ change the centre and venues and/ or cancel the selection process on account of technical or administrative exigencies or any other reason.

Only the short-listed candidates will be called for the second phase of selection process consisting of Group Discussion (GD) & Personal Interview (PI). The short-listing of the candidates will be made on the basis of the candidate’s performance in the Online Aptitude Test. The Bank reserves the right to call only the requisite number of candidates for GD & PI, after short-listing as aforesaid.

Test pattern

Sl
No
Name of the Test Number of
Questions
Maximum
Marks
Time
I Verbal Ability - English Language 30 30 Composite time of 90 minutes for all the tests together
II Logical Aptitude - Reasoning 30 30
III Quantitative / Numerical Ability 30 30
IV General, Socio-economic & Banking awareness 25 25
V Computer Awareness 20 20
VI Digital Banking 15 15

Total

150

150

ii) The online aptitude test pattern for the recruitment of Clerk consists of 6 sections as given below:

Sl
No
Name of the Test Number of
Questions
Maximum
Marks
Time
I Verbal Ability - English Language 20 20 Composite time of 90 minutes for all the tests together
II Logical Aptitude - Reasoning 20 20
III Quantitative / Numerical Ability 20 20
IV General, Socio-economic & Banking awareness 10 10
V Computer Awareness 10 10
VI Digital Banking 10 10

Total

90

90

There will be negative marks at the rate of 0.25 for wrong answers. The qualifying criteria will be decided by the Bank as per its selection / recruitment policy. Online Aptitude Test will be followed by a Psychometric Questionnaire for a maximum duration of 20 minutes.

Venues for online aptitude test

The Bank will conduct the online aptitude test at the following centers pan India:

i. Officer

Ahmedabad  Alapuzha Banglore Baroda Belgaum
Bhopal Bhubaneswar Chandigrh Chennai Coimbatore
Ernakulam Gurgaon Guwahati Hyderabad Indore
Jaipur Kolhapur Kolkata Kollam Kottayam
Kozhikode Lucknow Ludhiana Madurai Manglore
Mumbai Mysore Nagpur Nasik New Delhi
Panji Patna Puducherry Pune Raipur
Rajkot Salem Surat Tirunelveli Thiruvananthapuram
Thrissur Vijyawada Vishakhapatnam

ii. Clerk

Banglore Belgaum Guwahati Hyderabad Mangalore
Mumbai Mysore Nagpur Nasik New Delhi
Pune

Service Agreement

i. Officer

The selected candidates will be required to execute a Service Agreement upon joining the Bank undertaking to serve the Bank for 2 years or to pay the Bank a sum of `50000/- in case the candidate leaves the Bank before completion of the service period.

ii. Clerk

The selected candidates will be required to execute a Service Agreement upon joining the Bank undertaking to serve the Bank for 2 years or to pay the Bank a sum of `30000/- in case the candidate leaves the Bank before completion of the service period.

HOW TO APPLY

IMPORTANT POINTS TO BE NOTED BEFORE REGISTRATION

Before applying online, candidates should:

a. Scan their photograph and signature ensuring that both the photograph and signature adhere to the required specifications as given under Guidelines for photograph & signature scan and upload.

b. Have a valid personal email ID and mobile number, which should be kept active till completion of this Recruitment Process. Bank may send intimation to download call letters for the Examination etc. through the registered e-mail ID. In case a candidate does not have a valid personal e-mail ID, he/she should create his/her new e-mail ID and mobile no. before applying on-line and must maintain that email account and mobile
number.

c. Keep the particulars of educational qualifications and other personal details ready before applying as these details are required to fill in the online application form.

d. APPLICATION FEES/ INTIMATION CHARGES (NON REFUNDABLE) PAYMENT OF FEE ONLINE: 23.08.2017 to 04.09.2017

A. APPLICATION REGISTRATION PROCEDURE

a. Eligible candidates shall go to the ‘Careers’ page of the Bank’s official website www.federalbank.co.in & click on the option "Apply Online" which will open a new screen.
b. The application format should be filled in English only.
c. To register application, choose the tab "Click here for New Registration" and enter Name, Contact details and Email-id. A Provisional Registration Number and Password will be generated by the system and displayed on the screen. Candidate should note down the Provisional Registration Number and Password. An Email & SMS indicating the Provisional Registration number and Password will also be sent.

d. In case the candidate is unable to complete the application form in one go, he / she can save the data already entered by choosing "SAVE AND NEXT" tab. Prior to submission of the online application candidates are advised to use the "SAVE AND NEXT" facility to verify the details in the online application form and modify the same if required. Visually Impaired candidates should fill the application form carefully and
verify/ get the details verified to ensure that the same are correct prior to final submission.

e. Candidates are advised to carefully fill and verify the details filled in the online application themselves as no change will be possible/ entertained after clicking the FINAL SUBMIT BUTTON.

f. The Name of the candidate or his /her Father/ Husband etc. should be spelt correctly in the application as it appears in the Certificates/ Mark sheets/Identity proof. Any change/alteration found may disqualify the candidature.

g. Validate your details and Save your application by clicking the 'Validate your details' and 'Save & Next' button.
h. Candidates can proceed to upload Photo & Signature as per the specifications given in the Guidelines for scanning & upload of Photograph and Signature detailed separately.
i. Candidates can proceed to fill other details of the Application Form.
j. Click on the Preview Tab to preview and verify the entire application form before FINAL SUBMIT.
k. Modify details, if required, and click on 'FINAL SUBMIT' ONLY after verifying and ensuring that the photograph, signature uploaded and other details filled by you are correct.
l. Click on 'Payment' Tab and proceed for payment.
m. Click on 'Submit' button.

B. PAYMENT OF FEES (ONLINE MODE)

a. The application form is integrated with the payment gateway and the payment process can be completed by following the instructions.
b. The payment can be made by using Debit Cards (RuPay/Visa/MasterCard/Maestro), Credit Cards, Internet Banking, IMPS, Cash Cards/ Mobile Wallets.
c. After submitting your payment information in the online application form, PLEASE WAIT FOR THE INTIMATION FROM THE SERVER. DO NOT PRESS BACK OR REFRESH BUTTON IN ORDER TO AVOID DOUBLE CHARGE
d. On successful completion of the transaction, an e-Receipt will be generated.
e. Non-generation of 'E-Receipt' indicates PAYMENT FAILURE. On failure of payment, Candidates are advised to login again using their Provisional Registration Number and Password and repeat the process of payment.
f. Candidates are required to take a printout of the e-Receipt and online Application
Form. Please note that if the same cannot be generated, online transaction may not have been successful.
g. For Credit Card users: All charges are listed in Indian Rupee. If you use a non-Indian credit card, your bank will convert to your local currency based on prevailing exchange rates.
h. To ensure the security of your data, please close the browser window once your transaction is completed.
i. There is facility to print application form containing fee details after payment of fees.

Note: To ensure the security of data, candidates are advised to close the browser window once the transaction & the whole registration process is successfully completed.

Click Here for Official Notification

Click Here to Apply Online

Printed Study Material for Bank PO Exams

Courtesy : Federal Bank

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "General Awareness" Held on: 19-10-2014

IBPS logo

IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: General Awareness

1. Which of the following is the boundary line between India and Pakistan?’

(1) 17th Parallel
(2) Radcliffeline
(3) Other than those given as options
(4) Hindenburg Line
(5) McMahon Line

2. Banks generally insist account holders to nominate persons to whom the money lying in their accounts should go in the event of

(1) death of account holder
(2) illness of account holder
(3) account holder migrates
(4) account holder turns bankrupt
(5) Other than those given as options

3. Credit Risk refers to the risk that

(1) borrower may opt to get necessary permit/licences
(2) wrong strategy is adopted
(3) a borrower will default on any type of debt
(4) loan processing may be faulty
(5) interest rate in the markets may increase

4. Which of the following is the currency of Cambodia?

(1) Cambodian Dollar
(2) Ringgit
(3) Peso
(4) Riel
(5) Other than those given as options

5. Which of the following is a source of collecting money from the public for a company for the first time?

(1) Rights issue
(2) Bonus shares
(3) Follow on offering
(4) Initial public offer
(5) Secondary offering

6. Which of the following concepts of banking involves booking of web-enabled touch point for basic banking services?

(1) Extension Conters
(2) Retail Banking
(3) Kiosk Banking
(4) Satellite Banking
(5) Mobile Banking

7. Face value of a Government security is the amount that is to be paid to an investor at the maturity date of the security. The face value is not the same as the

(1) Par value
(2) Market Price
(3) Redemption value
(4) Repayment amount
(5) Principal value

8. As per the 2011 Census report, India’s population below the age of 35 years is

(1) between 30 & 35%
(2) between 40 & 50%
(3) between 35 & 40%
(4) more than 65%
(5) between 50 & 65%

9. The facility to help insurance policy holders buy and keep policies in electronic form rather than as a paper document is called

(1) Insurance Warehousing
(2) Insurance Cache
(3) Insurance Stockpile
(4) Insurance Depository
(5) Insurance Repository

10. Based on the recovery of the dues, banks are required to classify non-performing assets (NPAs) in the books of the bank under the categories

(1) Substandard, Doubtful and Bad Debts
(2) Standard, Doubtful and Written-Off Assets
(3) Standard, Substandard and Doubtful Assets
(4) Standard, Doubtful and Loss Assets
(5) Substandard, Doubtful and Loss Assets

11. A mutual fund scheme in which the investors commit their money for a particular period is known as

(1) Long-End Scheme
(2) Closed-End Scheme
(3) Long-Term Fund
(4) Open-End Scheme
(5) Back-End Scheme

12. In the Asian Games who among the following won the silver Medal for India in Squash?

(1) Geetika Jakhar
(2) Yogeshwar Dutt
(3) Vinesh Phogat
(4) Saurav Ghosal
(5) Other than those given as options

13. Plant Genome Saviour Community Awards are given by Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmer’s Right Authority (PPV & FRA) for

(1) getting the highest yield of crops
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) engagement in the conservation of genetic resources of economic plants and their wild relatives
(4) ensuring soil conservation and preventing use of chemicals
(5) using traditional seeds and fertilizers to protect the soil

14. CP is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note. In the abbreviation CP, letter ‘P’ stands for

(1) Paper
(2) Portfolio
(3) Payment
(4) Promissory
(5) Position

15. Vishal Sikka is the CEO of

(1) Tata Group of Companies
(2) Cognizant
(3) Oracle
(4) Infosys
(5) Other than those given as options

16. The process that has to be undertaken by banks and other financial institutions to prevent them from being used by criminal elements for money laundering is

(1) Credit Monitoring Process
(2) Credit Rating Process
(3) KYC Process
(4) Due diligence Process
(5) Credit Appraisal Process

17. CVV is an anti-fraud security feature that helps verify that the customer is in posession of her card. The abbreviation of CVV stands for

(1) Card Virtual Valuation
(2) Confidential Virtual Verification
(3) Card Verification Value
(4) Core Virtual Value
(5) Coded Vulnerability Value

18. Which of the foIIowing is the capital of Argentina?

(1) Addis Ababa
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Buenos Aires
(4) Seoul
(5) Phnom Penh

19. With introduction of ATMs, telebanking and internet banking, banking hours is not a constraint for transacting banking business, which is known as

(1) Universal Banking
(2) Worldwide Banking
(3) Anywhere Banking
(4) Global Banking
(5) Other than those given as option

20. Which of the following institutions is a Credit Information Company?

(1) ARCIL
(2) CRISIL
(3) CIBIL
(4) ICRA
(5) CARE

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "Quantitative Aptitude" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude

1. A bakery bakes cake with the expectation that it will earn a profit of 40% by selling each cake at marked price. But during the delivery to showroom 16% of the cakes were completely damaged and hence could not be sold. 24% of the cakes were slightly damaged and hence could be sold at 80% of the cost price. The remaining 60% of the cakes were sold at marked price. What is the percentage profit in the whole consignment?

(1) 3.2
(2) 2.4
(3) 2.8
(4) 4.2
(5) 3.6

2. A professional institute’s total expenditure on students for a particular course is partly fixed and partly varies linearly with the number of students. The average expense per student is Rs. 615 when there are 24 students and Rs. 465 when there are 40 students. What is the average expense when there are 60 students?

(1) Rs. 370
(2) Rs. 450
(3) Rs. 350
(4) Rs. 420
(5) Rs. 390

3.

(1) 4 : 5
(2) 14 : 15
(3) 6 : 7
(4) 18 : 25
(5) 22 : 25

4. A, B and C have to type 506 pages to finish an assignment. A can type a page in 12 minutes, B in 15 minutes and C in 24 minutes. If they divide the task into three parts so that all three of them spend equal amount of time in typing what is the number of pages that B should type?

(1) 172
(2) 176
(3) 154
(4) 168
(5) 164

Directions (Q. 5-9): The question consists of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the appropiate option.

5. What is the base of a triangle PQR with PQ as base?

(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient toanswer the question.
(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
(5) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

6. What is the speed of the train?

I. A train crosses another train coming from opposite direction at the speed of 45 kmph in 20 seconds.
II. The train crosses another train running in the same direction at the speed of 42 kmph in 1 minute 18 seconds.

(1) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the quesiton.
(4) The data in both statements I and II togethere are necessary to answer the question
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

7. What is the rate of interest pcpa?

I. An amount invested on simple interest becomes four times in 24 years.
II. The difference between compound interest and simple interest for two years on an amount of Rs. 10000 at that rate is Rs. 156.25.

(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
(4) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

8. What is the total strength of institute X?

I. Out of the total strength of Institute X, 35% are females and rest are males. The number of females in Institute X is equal to the number of males in Institute Y.
II. Out of the total strength of Institute Y, the no. of males is 560, which is 28% of the total strength.

(1) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

9. What is the cost of fencing a rectangular plot along all four sides @ Rs. 450 per metre?

I. The area of the plot is 1458 m2, which is 54 times the numerical value of its breadth.
II. The length of the plot is 200% of its breadth and the breadth is 50% of its length.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

10. In the figure given below, the perimeter of the circle is 220 cm. What is the area of the shaded portion in cm2?

Directions (Q. 11-1(5): Study the table to answer the given questions.



11. What is the difference between the total number of people living in City R, Q and T together who do not watch Arrow and the total number of people living in these three cities together who watch Arrow?

(1) 47200
(2) 45300
(3) 47400
(4) 47600
(5) 45600

12. What is the average number of males who watch Big Bang Theory in all the cities together?

(1) 6320
(2) 6380
(3) 6340
(4) 6350
(5) 6360

13. The ratio of the total number of males to the total number of females in City P is 5 : 3. What percent of the female population watches Breaking Bad in City P?

14. The total population (males and females) of City R watching Mentalist is what percent more than the total population (male and female) of City T watching the same TV Series?

15. What is the ratio of the number of females who watch Breaking Bad in City Q and City S together to the number of females who watch Mentalist in the same cities together?

(1) 59 : 47
(2) 55 : 48
(3) 59 : 42
(4) 55 : 43
(5) 59 : 45

16. Raghu invested a certain sum in Scheme X for 4 years. Scheme X offers simple interest @ 12 pcpa for the first two years and compound intreset (compounded annually) @ 20 pcpa for the next two years. The total intreset earned by him after 4 years is Rs. 11016. What was the sum invested by Raghu in Scheme X?

(1) Rs. 17400
(2) Rs. 18400
(3) Rs. 16200
(4) Rs. 11400
(5) Rs. 9400

Directions (Q. 17): This question is based on the graph below:



17. What is the difference between the average number of male and female teachers in the given schools?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 5
(4) 25
(5) 15

Directions (Q. 18-22): In this question two equations numbered I & II are given. You have to solve both the equations and find out the correct option.

18. I. 6x2 + 41x + 63 = 0
II. 4y2 + 8y + 3 = 0

19. I. x2 + 10x + 24 = 0
II. 4y2 – 17y + 18 = 0

20. I. 24x2 + 38x + 15 = 0
II. 12y2 + 28y + 15 = 0

21. I. 3x2 – 20x – 32 = 0
II. 2y2 – 3y – 20 = 0

22. I. x2 – 20x + 91 = 0
II. y2 – 32y + 247 = 0

Directions (Q. 23): In the figure given below:

GHI is an equitateral triangle with side 14 cm. G is the midpoint of JL. What is the area of the shaded portion (in cm(2)?

23.

 

Directions (Q. 24-28): Refer to the pie-chart and answer the given questions:



24. What is the ratio of the number of novels (Romantic and Horror) sold by store E to the total number of Horror novels sold by stores C and F together?

(1) 35 : 32
(2) 45 : 32
(3) 35 : 24
(4) 35 : 26
(5) 45 : 34

25. What is the average number of Horror novels sold by stores B, C, E and F together?

(1) 2960
(2) 3060
(3) 2680
(4) 3240
(5) 3180

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "English" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: English Language


Directions (Q. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given. Certain words have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Today, emerging markets account for more than half of world GDP on the basis of purchasing power, according to the International Monetary Fund (IMF). In the 1990s, it was about a third. In the late 1990s, 30% of countries in the developing world managed to increase their output per person faster than America did, thus achieving what is calIed “catch-up growth”. That catching up was somewhat lackadaisical: the gap closed at just 1.5% a year. Some ofthis was due to slower growth in America; most was not. The most impressive growth was in four ofthe biggest emerging economies: Brazil, Russia, India and China (BRICs). These economies have grown in different ways and for different reasons. The remarkable growth of emerging markets in general and BRICs in particular transformed the global economy in many ways, some wrenching.

Commodity prices particularly soared and the cost of manufacture and labour sank. A growing and vastly more accessible pool of labour in emerging economies played a part in both wage stagnation and rising income inequality in rich ones. Global poverty rates tumbled. Gaping economic imbalances fuelled an era of financial vulnerability and laid the groundwork for global crisis. The shift towards the emerging economies will continue. But its most tumultuous phase seems to have more or less reached its end. Growth rates have dropped. The nature of their growth is in the process of changing, too and its new mode will have fewer direct effects on the rest of the world. The likelihood of growth in other emerging economies having an effect in the near future comparable to that of BRICs in the recent past is low. The emerging giants will grow larger, and their ranks will swell but their tread will no longer shake the Earth as once it did.

After the 1990s there followed ‘convergence with a vengeance’. China’s pivot towards liberalisationand global markets came at a propitious time in terms of politics, business and technology. Rich economies were feeling relaxed about globalisation and current account deficits. America, booming and confident, was not troubled by the growth of Chinese industry or by off-shoring jobs to India. And the technology etc necessary to assemble and maintain complex supply chains were coming into their own, allowing firms to spread their operations between countries and across oceans. The tumbling costs of shipping and communication sparked globalisation’s “second unbundling” (the first was the simple ability to provide consumers in one place with goods from another). As longer supply chains infiltrated and connected places with large and fast-growing working-age populations, enormous quantities of cheap new labourbecame accessible. Advanced economies added about 160m non-farm jobs between 1980 and 2010. In 2007 China’s economy expanded by an eye-popping 14.2%. India managed 10.1 % growth, Russia 8.5% and Brazil 6.1 %. The IMF now reckons there will be slowdown in growth. China will grow by just 7.8% in 2013, India by 5.6% and Russia and Brazil by 2.5%.

Other countries have impressive growth potential. The “Next 11” (N11) includes Bangladesh, Indonesia, Mexico, Nigeria and Turkey. But there are various reasons to think that this N11 cannot have an impact on the same scale as that of the BRICs. The first is that these economies are smaller. The N11 has a population of just over 1.3 billion -less than half that of the BRICs. The second is that the Nil is richer now than the BRICs were back in the day. The third reason that the performance of the BRICs cannot be repeated is the very success of that performance. The world economy is much larger than it used to be - twice as big in real terms as it was in 1992, according to IMF figures. But whether or not the world can build on a remarkable era of growth will depend in large part on whether the new giants tread a path towards greater global co-operation - or stumble, fall and, in times of tumult and in the worst case, fight.

1. According to the passage, which of the following is a reason for the author’s prediction regarding N11 countries?

(1) N11 countries are poorer, have less resources than BRIC countries and do not have much scope to grow.
(2) The size of these countries is too great to fuel a high rate of growth as expected by BRICs countries.
(3) The world economy is so large that the magnitude of growth from these countries will have to be huge to equal the growth of BRICs.
(4) These economies are agricultural and have not opened up their economies yet so their scope of growth is greater than that of BRlCs.
(5) Other than those given as options

2. What is the author’s view of globalisation’s “second unbundling”?

(1) It-proved beneficial since it created a large number of jobs and tremendous growth in cross-border trade.
(2) It disturbed the fragile balance of power among BRIC nations and caused internal strife.
(3) It caused untold damage to America’s economy since it restricted the spread of American farms off-shore.
(4) It proved most beneficial for the agricultural sector, creating huge employment opportunities.
(5) Citizens in advanced countries became much better off than those in emerging economies.

3. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word TUMBLING given in bold as used in the passage.

(1) jumbling
(2) confusing
(3) reducing
(4) dilapidated
(5) hurrying

4. What do the comparative statistics of 2007 and 2013 for BRICs countries published by, the IMF as cited in the passage indicate?

(1) BRIC economies will contribute less to global growth.
(2) As the population of these countries grows, its growth rate is filling.
(3) The financial practices followed by these countries will continue to pay rich dividends.
(4) These countries are creating global financial imbalances to the detriment of smaller developing economies like Africa.
(5) IMF forecasts of growth rate for these countries have not been fulfilled.

5. What effect did rising economies of BRICs have on the global economy?

(1) It helped stabilise the global economy and insulate it from the fallout of the global fmancial crisis.
(2) Labour became more highly skilled and wages were alarmingly increased, reducing the off-shoring of jobs to developing countries.
(3) Though worldwide poverty rates tumbled, the gap between the rich and the poor in rich economies increased.
(4) The cost of living and level of inflation in these countries were mantained at low levels.
(5) All the given options are effects of the rise in BRIC economies.

6. What does the phrase “Their ranks will swell but their tread will no longer shake the Earth as it once did” convey in the context of the passage?

(1) While many countries will try and achieve the same rate of growth as BRICs they will not succeed.
(2) The growth of BRIC countries has changed the world’s economy in ways that any further growth will not have such a disruptive effect on the world economy.
(3) Developing countries have strengthened their fiscal systems in such a way that they will not be shaken to such a great extent again
(4) Poverty may increase as the gap between the rich and the poor increase but it will never reach the same leves as prior to the crisis.
(5) Citizens in advanced countries became much better off than those in emerging economies.

7. Which of the following best describes ‘catch-up growth’?

(1) Emerging economies tried but failed to catch up with America, which always grew at a higher growth rate.
(2) The size of emerging economies and their purchasing power has caught up with and now exceeds the rich countries together.
(3) The growth of the American economy determines the growth of emerging economies.
(4) From the later half of 1990s onwards emerging economies outdid America in terms of output per person.
(5) None of the given statements describes ‘catch up growth.’

8. Which of the following can be said about ‘convergence with a vengeance?

(A) After the 1990s advanced economies like America were open to the idea of free trade and globalisation.
(B) There were huge technology advances which were conducive to allowing businesses to spread their area of operations.
(C) Rich economies felt threatened by the competition from China.

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only(C)
(4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) Only (B) and (C)

9. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word EXPANDED given in bold as used in the passage.

(1) widened
(2) pressured
(3) delayed
(4) shrunk
(5) frightened

10. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?

(A) To urge emerging economies to deal with growth, which can be disruptive, maturely and without conflict
(B) To point out that while the period of growth of BRICs was disruptive this disruption has almost come to a close.
(C) To criticise advanced economies for their handling of growth and promoting competition and conflict in certain regions

(1) Only (A) and (B)
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only(C)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(5) Only (B) and (C)

Directions (Q. 11-15): Which of the phrases given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, markeS), ie (No correction required), as the answer.

111. Top managers are often stymied by the difficult of managing conflict.

(1) difficulties of managing
(2) difficulty for managing
(3) difficulty for management
(4) difficult of management
(5) No correction required

12. Reaching collective decisions based on individual preferences is an imperfect science.

(1) based for
(2) based
(3) in (4) based in
(5) No correction required

13. Hollywood bare escaped being totally sidelined by the rise of television.

(1) bare escapism
(2) barely escapism
(3) bare escapes
(4) barely escaped
(5) No correction required

14. Taking good decisions and implement those quickly are the hallmarks of high-performing organisations.

(1) implementation quickly
(2) implementing quick
(3) implementing these quickly
(4) quick implementing those
(5) No correction required

15. Innovation have always been the top corporat agenda.

(1) has always
(2) had being
(3) has always been
(4) always been
(5) No correctin required

Directions (Q. 16-20): Rearrange the six sentences denoted by A, B, C, D, E and F to make ~ meaningful seven- sentence paragraph together with the first senftmce marked as no. 1 and then answer the given questions,

(1) So how is global competition changing companies?

(A) For example, a group with a Europe-wide pay freeze may have to be flexible enough to authorise salary increases to specialists and managers in developing’ countries, who are still able to jump ship for a better offer.
(B) Second, the emerging-market companies as well as established multinationals are rivals, - there is no way these can be Ignored.
(C) First, businesses are having to respond faster than before to pay changes.
(D) A case in point today is Africa, where rapid growth in key countries, notably Nigeria, has persuaded many business people that the continent’s time may finally have arrived.
(E) The sight of well-paid expatriate foreign managers inspires the local Indian executives to ask for more and employers have to respond.
(F) So such countries where people move easily - like India - are seeing executive pay rising rapidly.

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "Reasoning" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. 1-5): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered, I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and choose the most appropriate option.

1. How many persons are standing between Land K in a straight line of 19 persons? (Note: All are standing in a straight line, facing north).

I. Y stands on the extreme left end of the line. Only five persons stand between Y and K. Only six persons stand between K and R. Only four persons stand between Rand L.
II. J stands exactly in the middle of the line. Only two persons stand between I and J. Only five persons stand between I and L. I stands to the left of L. K stands third to the left of J.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. Among six persons A, B, C, D, E and F standing around a circle, some ofthem are facing the centre while others are facing outside (ie opposite to the centre.). What is the position of A with respect to E?

(Note: Facing the same direction means, if one is facing the centre then the other is also facing the centre and vice versa. Facing the opposite directions means, if one is facing the centre then the other is facing outside and vice versa).

I. C stands second to the right of E. E faces outside. C is an immediate neighbour of both D and B. F stands second to the left ofD. D faces the same direction as E.
II. Only two persons stand between B and E. Both B and E face outside. E is an immediate neighbour of both D and F. B is an immediate neighbour of both C and A. A is not an immediate neighbour of D.

(1) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3. How is X related to N?

I. X is mother of J. T is married to Z. N is daughter of T. Z is brother of J.
II. X is married to Y. Y is father of J. J is married to L. J is uncle of N.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer tlie question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

4. Among mobiles R, S, T, U, V and W, which is the costliest?

I. T is costlier than only two mobiles. S is costlier than R but not the costliest. V is costlier than only W.
II. R is cheaper than only two mobiles.V is costlier than W but cheaper than T. T is cheaper than R. S is cheaper than U.

(1) Thedata:insatanentiI alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

5. In a six-storey building (consisting of floors number I to 6, wherein the topmost floor is number 6 and the ground floor is number I) each of the six friends, namely M, N, O, P, Q and R, lives on a different floor (not necessarily in the same order). Who amongst them lives on the lowermost floor?

I. M lives on floor number five. Only two persons live between M and N. Q lives immediately above P.
II. P lives on floor number three. Only two persons live between P and O. N lives immediately above R. N lives on an even-numbered floor.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Directions (Q. 6-10): In this question are given four statements followed by five conclusions, one ofwhich definitely does not logically follow (or is not a possibility of occurrence) from the given statements. That concusion is your answer.
(Note: You have to take the four given statements to be true even it they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which ofthe given conclusions logically does not follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.)

6. Statements:

No toy is a doll.
All guns are toys.
All houses are dolls.
All dolls are baskets.

Conclusions:

(1) All baskets are toys.
(2) No gun is a house.
(3) All gun’s being baskets is a possibility.
(4) All houses are baskets.
(5) No doll is a gun.

7. Statements:

Some logics are reasons.
All reasons are arguments.
All arguments are fights.
No fight is a discussion.

Conclusions:

(1) All discussions being logic is a possibility.
(2) No discussion is an argument.
(3) All logics being discussion is a possibility.
(4) All reasons are fights.
(5) No reason is a discussion.

8. Statements:

All references are mails.
All mentions are references.
All comments are mentions.
No mail is a declaration.

Conclusions:

(1) No reference is a declaration.
(2) All comments are mails.
(3) No mention is a declaration.
(4) All declarations being comments is a possibility.
(5) At least some mails are mentions.

9. Statements:

Some moments are flashes.
All moments are seconds.
All flashes are instances.
No instance is an hour.

Conclusions:

(1) All hours being seconds is a possibility.
(2) No second isa flash.
(3) No hour is a flash.
(4) At least some moments are instances.
(5) At least some seconds are jnstances.

10. Statements:

All circles are spheres.
All spheres are rectangles.
No rectangle is a pyramid.
No pyramid is a triangle.

(1) At least some circles are pyramids.
(2) All triangles being circles is a possibility.
(3) All rectangles being triangles is a possibility.
(4) At least some rectangles are circles.
(5) No pyramid is a sphere.

11. Statements:

No hotel is a motel.
All motels are apartments.
All apartments are inns.
No inn is a guesthouse.

(1) All hotels being inns is a possibillity.
(2) No motel is a guesthouse.
(3) All hotels being apartments is a possibility.
(4) No motel is an inn.
(5) No guesthouse is an apartment.

Directions (Q. 12): Read the following statements carefully and answer the given question.
Cocoa and chocolate products have been used as medicine in many cultures for centuries. Chocolate is made from plants, which means it contains many of the health benefits of leafy vegetables.

Which of the following statements weakens the above argument?

(A) Dark chocolate contains a large number of antioxidants which slow down the ageing process.
(B) A small study revealed that regular intake of chocolate increases insulin sensivity, thus lowering the chances of diabetes.
(C) Green leafy vegetables have substances which protectskin from UV rays.
(D) Chocolates have three types of fats, one of which increases the cholesterol level.
(E) Cocoa increases blood flow to the retina, thus giving a boost to vision.

(1) Only D
(2) Only A and E
(3) Only C
(4) None of the given statements
(5) Both C and D

Directions (Q. 13-18): Study the following information and answer the questions.
Seven friends, namely L, M, N, O, P, Q and R, like different animated movies, namely Finding Nemo, Rio, Frozen, Up, Lion King, Shrek and Cars, but not necessarily in the same order. Each friend also has a presentation on topics of different subjects, namely Civics, History, English, Geography, Chemistry, Physics and Biology but not necessarily in the same order.
Q has a presentation on Civics and likes neither Frozen nor Up. The one who likes Finding Nemo has a presentation on History. L likes Rio and has a presentation neither on Geography nor on Chemistry. The one who likes Cars has a presentation on Biology. M has a presentation on Physics and does not like Up. The one who likes Up does not have a presentation on Chemistry. O likes Lion King. R does not have a presentation on History and does not like Up. P does not like Up.

13. On which of the following subjects does P have a presentation?

(1) Chemistry
(2) English
(3) Biology
(4) Other than those given as options
(5) Geography

14. Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) R - Cars
(2) Q - Shrek
(3) N - Up
(4) M - Frozen
(5) P - Rio

15. Which of the following combinations is definitely correct?

(1) N - Chemistry
(2) R - History
(3) L - English
(4) All the given combinations are definitely correct
(5) P - Geography

16. Which orthe following combinations of movie and subject is definitely correct with respect to N?

(1) Up-Chemistry
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Shrek - Geography
(4) Up - Geography
(5) Finding Nemo - History

17. Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement, Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) Biology - Cars
(2) Chemistry - Lion King
(3) Civics - Shrek
(4) English - Frozen
(4) Geography - Up

18. Which of the following movies does Q like?

(1) Shrek
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Finding Nemo
(4) Lion King
(5) Cars

Directions (Q. 19): The given information is followed by two statements, Read them carefully and answer the given questions.

Many parents have written a plea to the administration department of school X discontinue the rule of wearing ties to school.

(A) The school has kept different coloured ties for different academic scorers as part of their uniform. Thus the low-scoring children of school feel discriminated.
(B) Thesports uniform of the school does not have a tie; it is to be worn only on Wednesdays.

(1) Statement A weakens but Statement B strengthens the argument
(2) Both Statement A and Statement B weaken the argument
(3) Statement B weakens but Statement A strengthens theargument
(4) Both Statement A and Statement B strengthen the argument
(5) Statement A strengthens the argument and Statement B is a neutral.statement.

Directions (Q. 20-25): In the given questions, assuming the given statementsto be true. Find which of the given four conclusions mimbered I, II, III and IV is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

20. Staterilent:

Conclusions:

I. S > H
II. W > H
III. R < W
IV. M > T

(1) Only I, II and III are true.
(2) Only II is true.
(3) Only I and II are true.
(4) Only I and either II or IV are true.
(5) All I, II, III and IV are true.

21. Statements:

Conclusions:

I. Y < N
II. M > N
III. N = Y
IV. M > A

(1) Only either II or III is true.
(2) Only IV and either I or III are true.
(3) Only IV is true. (4) Only II is true.
(5) Only III is true.

22. Statements:

Conclusions:

I. M < J
II. J > L
III. D > L
IV. E < M

(1) Only II is true.
(2) Only I and III are true.
(3) None is true
(4) Only II and IV are true.
(5) Only I and II are true.

23. Statements:

Conclusions:

I. Y > P
II. T < F
III. O > T
IV. P < U

(1) Only I is true.
(2) Only II is true.
(3) Only III is true .
(4) None is true.
(5) Only I and IV are true.

24.

(1) Only I and II are true.
(2) Only IV is true.
(3) None is true.
(4) Only II and IV are true.
(5) Only II and III are true.

25.

(1) None is true
(2) Only IV is true
(3) Only either I or III is true
(4) Only II and I are true
(5) Only I is true

Directions (Q. 26-32): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four comers of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four comers face the centre of the table while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. Each ofthem likes a different subject, viz Mathematics, Hindi, English, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, History and Geography. (None of the information given is necessarily in the same order.)
· C sits third to the left of the one who likes Geography. The one who likes Geography faces outside. Only two persons sit between C and H.
· The one who likes Mathematics sits on the immediate right ofH. The one who likes Chemistry sits second to the right of G. G is neither an immediate neighbour of H nor ofC. G does not like Geography.
· Only one person sits between A and the one who likes Chemistry.
· D sits on the immediate left ofthe one who likes Physics. G does not like Physics.
· E likes History. E is not an immediate neighbour of A. The one who likes Hindi is an immediate neighbour of E.
· The one who likes Biology is an immediate neighbour of F.

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(अधिसूचना) आईआरडीएआई में सहायक प्रबंधक के पद के लिए भर्ती - 2017

(अधिसूचना) आईआरडीएआई में सहायक प्रबंधक के पद के लिए भर्ती - 2017

आईआरडीएआई में सहायक प्रबंधक के पद के लिए भर्ती अधिसूचना

1. भारतीय बीमा विनियामक और विकास प्राधिकरण (आईआरडीएआई) एक संवैधानिक संस्था है जो संसद के एक अधिनियम के तहत स्थापित है।

2. आईआरडीएआई अपने विभिन्न कार्यालयों के लिए अखिल भारतीय स्तर पर खुली प्रतियोगिता के माध्यम से सहायक प्रबंधक के पद को भरने के लिए पात्र भारतीय नागरिकों से आवेदन आमंत्रित करता है। चयन एक देशव्यापी प्रतियोगी चरण- I "ऑन-लाइन प्रारम्भिक परीक्षा", इसके बाद चुनिंदा-केंद्रों पर चरण-II "वर्णनात्मक परीक्षा" और साक्षात्कार के माध्यम से किया जाएगा। रिक्तियों की श्रेणी-वार संख्या निम्नानुसार है:

पद का नाम अनारक्षित अर्थात सामान्य (सामा/अना)

 
अन्‍य पिछड़ा वर्ग
(अ.पि.व.)
 
अनुसूचित जाति
(अजा)

अनुसूचित जनजाति (अजजा)
 
कुल
सहायक प्रबंधक 16 7 4 3* 30 # @

टिप्पणी:

क) * एक बैकलॉग रिक्ति शामिल है ।

ख) # निःशक्त(पीडब्ल्यूडी) -श्रवण बाधित के लिए एक रिक्ति शामिल है, यानी दिव्यांगता वर्ग के लोगों के तहत श्रवण बाधित व्यक्ति। दिव्यांग उम्मीदवार किसी भी वर्ग (अर्थात सामान्य/ अजा/ अजजा/ अपिव) के हो सकते हैं ।

ग) @ बीमांकिक के लिए चार (4) पद, लेखा के लिए चार(4) पद और विधि विशेषज्ञों के लिए दो (2) पदों को व्यावसायिक योग्यताओं वाले उम्मीदवारों द्वारा भरे जाने के लिए निर्धारित किया गया है, जैसा कि बाद में क्षैतिज आरक्षण के साथ विस्तृत दिया गया है, अर्थात ये पद सभी श्रेणियों में भर जाएंगे। चयन के बाद, उन्हें आईआरडीएआई के विशेष विभागों और / या अन्य विभागों / कार्यालयों में भी पदस्थापित किया जा सकता है। आवश्यकताओं के आधार पर, आईआरडीएआई विशेषज्ञों के बीच रिक्तियों की संख्या और ऊपर अधिसूचित कुल रिक्तियों के बीच अंतर करने का अधिकार सुरक्षित रखता है।

महत्वपूर्ण तिथि

विवरण कार्यक्रम
ऑनलाइन आवेदन के पंजीकरण के लिए वेबसाइट लिंक खुलेगा 15-8-2017
ऑनलाइन आवेदन तथा शुल्क /सूचना प्रभारों के भुगतान के लिए अंतिम तिथि 5-9-2017
चरण -I ऑनलाइन प्रारंभिक परीक्षा (वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रकार) 4-10-2017

चरण-II वर्णनात्मक परीक्षा के लिए चुने हुए उम्मीदवारों का विवरण आईआरडीएआई वेबसाइट पर प्रकाशित किया जाएगा। चुनिंदा केंद्रों पर चरण-II वर्णनात्मक परीक्षा के संचालन की तिथि बाद में सूचित की जाएगी।

11. पात्रता मानदंड:

11.1 आयु (05-09-2017 को): दिनांक 5.9.2017 को 21 और 30 वर्ष के बीच हो, अर्थात उम्‍मीदवार का जन्‍म 06/09/1987 से पहले और 05/09/1996 (दोनों दिन शामिल हैं) के बाद का नहीं होना चाहिए।

11.1.1. उच्‍चतर आयु सीमा में छूट : सहायक प्रबंधक के पद हेतु उच्‍चतर आयु सीमा में निम्‍नानुसार छूट दी जाएगी :

क्रम सं वर्ग उच्‍चतर आयु सीमा में छूट
(i) अनुसूचित जाति /अनुसूचित जनजाति (अजा /अजजा)
 
5 वर्ष
(ii) अन्‍य पिछड़ा वर्ग (अ.पि.व.)
 
3 वर्ष
(iii) निःशक्तजन
 
निःशक्तजन (अजा/अजजा)-15 वर्ष
निःशक्तजन (अ.पि.व.) - 13 वर्ष
निःशक्तजन (सामान्‍य) - 10 वर्ष
 
(iv) आपातकालीन कमीशन-प्राप्‍त अधिकारियों/अल्‍पावधि सेवा कमीशन प्राप्‍त अधिकारियों सहित भूतपूर्व सैनिक तथा कमीशन-प्राप्‍त अधिकारियों बशर्ते आवेदनकर्ता ने दिनांक 5.9.2017 को सेना में लगातार कम से कम 5 वर्ष सेवा की हो और जो निर्दिष्‍ट कार्यकाल पूरा होने पर सेवामुक्‍त किये गये हैं (इनमें वे भी शामिल हैं जिनका कार्यकाल दिनांक 5.9.2017 के आगामी एक वर्ष में पूरा होने वाला है) किंतु इनमें वे भूतपूर्व सैनिक शामिल नहीं है जिन्‍हें कदाचार या अकुशलता या शारीरिक अक्षमता के कारण सेवामुक्‍त किया गया है अथवा जो सैन्‍य सेवा से संबंधित अपंगता या अशक्‍तता के कारण से सेवामुक्‍त कर दिए गए हों। 5 वर्ष
(v) उम्‍मीदवार जो सामान्‍यत: 1 जनवरी 1980 से 31 दिसम्‍बर 1989 के बीच जम्‍मू व कश्‍मीर राज्‍य के कश्‍मीर मंडल के निवासी रहे हों ।
 
5 वर्ष
(vi) आईआरडीएआई के कर्मचारी । आईआरडीएआई में की गई कुल सेवा की अवधि, अधिकतम तीन वर्ष तक

 

आयु सीमा में संचयी छूट उपर्युक्‍त श्रेणियों या अन्य श्रेणी के संयोजन से नहीं दी जाएगी ।

शैक्षिक अर्हताएं:

उम्मीदवारों के पास निम्नलिखित न्यूनतम अर्हताएं में से कोई भी अर्हताएं होनी चाहिए।

क्रम सं विशेषज्ञता पदों की संख्या
 
आवश्यक अर्हताएं
1 बीमांकिक 4 1. न्यूनतम 60% अंकों के साथ मान्यता प्राप्त विश्वविद्यालय से स्नातक, और
2. भारतीय बीमांकक संस्थान (इंस्टिट्यूट ऑफ ऐक्चूएरिज ऑफ इंडिया) (आईएआई) के नौ (9) विषयों में पास ।

 
2 लेखा 4 1. न्यूनतम 60% अंकों के साथ मान्यता प्राप्त विश्वविद्यालय से स्नातक, और
2. एसीए / एआईसीडब्ल्यूए / एसीएस / सीएफए

 
3 विधि 2 1. न्यूनतम 60% अंकों के साथ मान्यता प्राप्त विश्वविद्यालय से स्नातक, और
2. 60% अंकों के साथ विधि में स्‍नातक की डिग्री (एलएलबी)

या
60% अंकों या समकक्ष ग्रेड के साथ प्रथम श्रेणी में पाँच वर्षीय एकीकृत विधि स्‍नातक (एलएलबी) पाठ्यक्रम।

 

4 सामान्य 20 a. न्यूनतम 60% अंकों के साथ मान्यता प्राप्त विश्वविद्यालय से स्नातक
 

12. चयन प्रक्रिया

12.1 चयन प्रक्रिया निम्नानुसार होगीः

i) चरण – I ऑन-लाइन प्रारंभिक परीक्षा (वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रकार). यह चरण-II वर्णनात्मक (डिस्क्रिप्टिव) परीक्षा हेतु पात्र होने के लिए एक अर्हकारी परीक्षा है। इसके माध्यम से बीमांकिक, लेखा और विधि विशेषीकरणों और सामान्य रिक्तियों के लिए आईआरडीएआई द्वारा अलग से निर्धारित किये जानेवाले मानकों के अनुसार चरण-II वर्णनात्मक परीक्षा के लिए उम्मीदवारों की चयनित सूची अलग से बनाई जाएगी (उपलब्धता के अधीन रिक्तियों की संख्या से लगभग 20 गुना) । चरण-I ऑन-लाइन प्रारंभिक परीक्षा में प्राप्त अंक साक्षात्कार अथवा अंतिम चयन के लिए नहीं गिने जाएँगे।

ii) चरण-II वर्णनात्मक परीक्षा जिसमें 3 प्रश्नपत्र (प्रश्नपत्र I, II और III) होंगे तथा
iii) चरण-III साक्षात्कार

चरण-III साक्षात्कार हेतु बीमांकिक, लेखा, विधि विशेषीकरणों और सामान्य रिक्तियों के लिए उम्मीदवारों की चयनित सूची केवल चरण-II वर्णनात्मक परीक्षा के प्रश्नपत्र I, II और III में प्राप्त कुल अंकों के आधार पर बनाई जाएगी। चरण-III साक्षात्कार हेतु चयनित सूची में सम्मिलित किये जाने के लिए न्यूनतम निर्दिष्ट अंकों का निर्णय प्रत्येक विशेषीकरण और सामान्य रिक्तियों के लिए आईआरडीएआई द्वारा अलग से किया जाएगा। अंतिम चयन चरण-II वर्णनात्मक परीक्षा में संबंधित विशेषीकरण के अंतर्गत उम्मीदवारों के श्रेष्ठ निष्पादन एवं चरण-III साक्षात्कार को एकसाथ लेने के आधार पर होगा।

12.2 चरण-I ऑन-लाइन प्रारंभिक परीक्षा (वस्‍तुनिष्‍ठ प्रकार) चार परीक्षणों के साथ 160 अंकों के लिए होगी, जो निम्नानुसार है:

क्रम सं.
 
परीक्षण का नाम (वस्‍तुनिष्‍ठ)
 
प्रश्‍नों की संख्‍या
 
अधिकतम अंक
 
कुल समय
 
1 तर्क शक्ति परीक्षण
 
40 40 कुल सम्पूर्ण समय 90 मिनट
2 अंग्रेजी भाषा- परीक्षण
 
40 40
3 सामान्‍य ज्ञान परीक्षण
 
40 40
4 अंकीय योग्‍यता का परीक्षण
 
40 40

कुल

160

160

परीक्षा केंद्र:

15.1 ऑनलाइन प्रारंभिक परीक्षा कॉल लेटर में दिए गए परीक्षा केंद्रों के स्थानों पर आयोजित की जाएगी। चरण-I के लिए ऑन-लाइन परीक्षा निम्‍नलिखित केन्‍द्रों पर आयोजित की जाएगी:

Sl. No State / Union Territory Name of the examination centre (City)
1 Andhra Pradesh Vijaywada
2 Assam Guwahati
3 Arunachal Pradesh
4 Mizoram
5 Manipur
6 Meghalaya
7 Nagaland
8 Tripura
9 Bihar Patna
10 Chattisgarh Raipur
11 Delhi New Delhi-NCR
12 Gujarat Ahmedabad-Gandhinagar
13 Goa Panaji
14 Haryana Ambala / Kurushetra /Hisar/ Karnal /
15 Himachal Pradesh Shimla / Solan
16 Jammu & Kashmir Srinagar /Samba/ Jammu
17 Jharakhand Ranchi
18 Karnataka Bengaluru
19 Kerala Thiruvananthpuram
20 Madhya Pradesh Bhopal
21 Maharashtra Mumbai / Navi Mumbai / Thane
22 Odhisha Bhubaneshawar
23 Punjab Mohali / Jalandhar / Sangrur
24 Rajasthan Jaipur / Sikar / Alwar / Kota
25 Sikkim Gangtok - Bardang
26 Tamilnadu Chennai
27 Telangana Hyderabad
28 Uttar Pradesh Lucknow
29 Uttarakhand Dehradun
30 West Bengal Kolkatta
31 Andaman & Nicobar Islands Port Blair
32 Chandigarh Chandigarh-Mohali
33 Dadra, Nagar Haveli, Daman & Dipu Vapi/ Valsad
34 Lakshadweep Islands Kawaratti
35 Punducherry Puducherry

15.2 उम्मीदवारों के लिए चरण-I ऑन-लाइन प्रारंभिक परीक्षा के लिए केन्द्र का चयन करने के लिए विकल्प होगा; तथापि, उम्मीदवार द्वारा केन्द्र के संबंध में एक बार प्रयोग किया गया विकल्प अंतिम होगा। परीक्षा के केन्द्र में परिवर्तन के लिए किसी भी अनुरोध पर विचार नहीं किया जाएगा।

15.3 तथापि, आईआरडीएआई के पास प्रतिक्रिया, प्रशासनिक व्यवहार्यता, आदि के आधार पर अपने विवेकानुसार परीक्षा का कोई भी केन्द्र निरस्त करने और/या कुछ अन्य केन्द्र जोड़ने का अधिकार सुरक्षित है।

15.4 जहाँ तक संभव हो, उम्मीदवारों को उनकी पसंद का केन्द्र आबंटित किया जाएगा। तथापि, आईआरडीएआई के पास यह अधिकार सुरक्षित है कि वह उम्मीदवार की पसंद के अलावा कोई अन्य केन्द्र उसको आबंटित करे। यदि चरण-I "ऑन-लाइन प्रारंभिक परीक्षा" के लिए किसी विशिष्ट केन्द्र के लिए पर्याप्त संख्या में उम्मीदवार विकल्प नहीं देते, तो आईआरडीएआई के पास यह अधिकार है कि वह उम्मीदवारों को कोई अन्य निकटवर्ती केन्द्र आबंटित करे अथवा किसी एक केन्द्र में चरण-I ऑन-लाइन प्रारंभिक परीक्षा के लिए उपलब्ध क्षमता से अधिक संख्या में उम्मीदवार हैं तो आईआरडीएआई के पास यह अधिकार सुरक्षित है कि वह उम्मीदवार को कोई अन्य केन्द्र आबंटित करे।

आवेदन कैसे करें

क. उम्मीदवार 15.8.2017 से 5.9.2017 तक केवल ऑन-लाइन आवेदन कर सकते हैं तथा आवेदन की कोई भी अन्य विधि स्वीकार नहीं की जाएगी।

ख. तथापि, जो व्यक्ति पहले से ही सरकारी सेवा में हैं चाहे स्थायी या अस्थायी क्षमता में हों अथवा अनियत या दिहाड़ी कर्मचारियों को छोड़कर कार्य प्रभारित कर्मचारियों के रूप में हों, अथवा सरकारी उपक्रमों के अंतर्गत सेवारत हैं, उनसे अपेक्षित है कि वे ऑन-लाइन आवेदन में एक वचन-पत्र प्रस्तुत करें कि उन्होंने अपने कार्यालय/ विभाग के प्रमुख को लिखित में सूचित किया है कि उन्होंने उक्त परीक्षा के लिए आवेदन किया है। उम्मीदवार यह ध्यान रखें कि यदि आईआरडीएआई द्वारा उनके नियोक्ता से उक्त परीक्षा के लिए आवेदन करने / उक्त परीक्षा में उपस्थित होने से उम्मीदवारों को अनुमति देने से रोकते हुए सूचना-पत्र प्राप्त किया जाता है, तो उनका आवेदन अस्वीकृत किया जा सकता है/ उनकी उम्मीदवारी निरस्त की जा सकती है।

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Study Kit for BANK ASSISTANT Administrative Officers Exam

Courtesy: IRDAI



 

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Quantitative Aptitude Held on: 11-06-2015"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 11-06-2015"

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::

1. At present, Pia is 6 years older to Roy. The respective ratio between the present age of Pia and Minis is 3 : 4. At present, Ray is 14 years younger to Mini. What is Ray's present age?

(1) 16 yr
(2) 20 yr
(3) 14 yr
(4) 18 yr
(5) 24 yr

Directions (2-6): In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

Give answr

(c) if x > y                  (d) if x < y
(e) if relationship between x and y cannot be established

2. I. 4x2 + 17x + 15 = 0
II. 3y2 + 19y + 28 = 0

3. I. 3x2 – 17x + 22 = 0
II. 5y2 – 21y + 22 = 0

4. I. 3x2 + 11x + 10 = 0
II. 2y2 + 13y + 21 = 0

5. I. 3x2 + 13x + 14 = 0
II. 8y2 + 26y + 21 = 0

6. I. 3x2 – 14x + 15 = 0
II. 15y2 – 34y + 15 = 0

Directions (7-11): Study the table to answer the given questions.

Note: Other than the mentioned expenses under the given heads, there may also be some other expenses. For calculation purposes, please consider the given expenses theads only.

7. What is the respective ratio between the Marketing expenses of company A and the Marketing expenses of company C?

(1) 34 : 35
(2) 32 : 33
(3) 35 : 36
(4) 36 : 37
(5) 37 : 38

8. Total expenses of company E in October, 2012 was 20% more than the total given expenses of the same company in April, 2012. How much was the Marketing expenses of the same company in October, 2012, if it was 25% of the total expenses of the same month? (in Rs. Lakh)

(1) 27
(2) 24
(3) 26
(4) 21
(5) 18

9. Marketing expenses of company D is less than marketing expenses of company B, by approximately what percent?

(1) 20%
(2) 40%
(3) 39%
(4) 59%
(5) 29%

10. What is the average total expenses of all the companies? (in Rs. Lakh)

(1) 75.25
(2) 75.8
(3) 75
(4) 72.8
(5) 72.25

11. What is the difference between the total expenses made by company C in Legal and Marketing together and the total expenses mady company E in Legal and Marketing together? (in Rs. Lakh)

(1) 24.5
(2) 23.5
(3) 22.9
(4) 23
(5) 23.9

Directions (12-16): What approximae value will come in place of the questions mark (?) in the given questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

12. 6399 × + 353 ÷ ? = 12025

(1) 14
(2) 22
(3) 2
(4) 16
(5) 8

13.

(1) 670
(2) 570
(3) 710
(4) 510
(5) 610

14. 8461 ÷ 11.99 - 24.1 ÷ 5/100= ?

(1) 625
(2) 400
(3) 25
(4) 900
(5) 225

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "English Held on: 11-06-2015"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 11-06-2015"

:: English Language ::

Directions (1-5): Rearrange the following six sentence A, B, C, D, E and F is a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.

A. Take for example the market for learning dancing.
B. This could never happen if there was a central board of dancing education which enforced strict standards of what will be taught and how such thing are to be taught.
C. The Indian education system is built on the presumption that if something is good for one child, it is good for all children.
D. More importantly, different teachers and institutes have developed different ways of teaching dancing.
E. There are very different dance forms that attract students with different tastes.
F. If however, we can effectively decentralize education, and if the government did not obsessively control what would be the ‘syllabus’ and what will be the method of instruction, there could be an explosion of new and innovative courses geared towards serving various riches of learners.

1. Which of the following should be the LASST (SIXTH) sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) F
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

2. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) F
(4) D
(5) E

3. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F

4. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) E

5. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) D

Directions (6-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Manufactures of Consumer Packaged goods (CPGs) face two key challenges this year. The first continued slow or negative growth in people’s disposable incomes. The second is changing consumer attitudes toward products and brands, as the great fragmentation of consumer markets take another turn. In response, companies must dramatically shift the route they take to reach consumers in terms of both product distribution and communications. In many markets, consumer wages have been static for five years now. Even where economies are starting to perform better, the squeeze on after-tax wages, especially for the middle class younger people and families, is depressing consumer spending. Although growth in developing countries is still better than in the United States and Europe, a slowdown in emerging countries such as China-where many countries had hoped for higher sales-has translated quickly into lower-than expected consumer spending growth.

Meanwhile, what we call the great fragmentation is manifested in consumer behavior and market response. In both developed and emerging markets, there is a wider variety among consumers now than at any time in the recent past. Growth is evident both at the top of the market (where more consumers are spending for higher-quality food and other packaged goods) and at the lower end (where an increasing number of consumers are concentrating on value). But the traditional middle of the market is shrinking.
Further, individual consumer behavior is more pluralistic. We are used to seeing, for example, spirits buyers purchasing a premium band in bar, a less costly label at home for personal consumption and yet another when entertaining guest. But, this type of variegated shopping has now spread to the grocery basket as well. Fewer consumer are making one big stocking up trip each week instead shoppers are visiting a premium store and a discounter as well as a supermarket, in multiple weekly stops – in addition to making frequent purchases online. During recession, more shoppers became inclined to spend time hunting for bargains and as some traditional retailers either went out of business or shuttered down, retail space was freed up and was often filled by convenience stores, specially shops, and discounters.

A decade ago, CPG companies had only ‘a handful of’ sales channels to consider supermarkets, convenience stores, hypermarkets in advanced economies and traditional small and large retailers in emerging countries. Since, then various discounters have made significant inroads, including no frills, low variety outlets, such as Europe’s Aldi and Lidi, which sell a limited range of private lable grocery items in smaller stores and massive warehouse clubs, such as Costco and Sam’s club, which initially operated solely in the USA but are now expanding internationally. In addition, dollars stores, specialized retailers, and online merchants are having an impact on the CPG landscape. Economizing consumers have been pleasantly, surprised by the savings generated by spreading their business among multiple channels, as well as by the variety and product quality they find. The result has been greater demand for more product and brands, with different sizes, packaging and sales methods. At most CPG companies, SKUs are proliferating despite there being little increase in overall consumption. A better outcome can be seen at smaller food and beverage suppliers, which are benefitting from consumer demand for variety and authenticity. A recent report found that in the USA, small manufactures (with revenues of less than $1 billion) grew at twice the compound annual rate of large manufactures (with revenues of less than $3 billion) between 2009 and 2012.

Consumers media usage has also fragmented with the rise of digital content and the proliferation of online devices. Each channel – from the web, mobile and social sites for radio, TV, and print – has its own requirements, audience appeal and economics, needing specialized attention. But, at the same time, media campaigns need to be closely coordinated for effective consumer messaging.

Collectively, these shifts challenges the sway CPS companies manage their brand and business portfolios and call for a rethinking of their go-to-market approach, with an emphasis on analytics. Our work with INSEAD shows that among business leaders, applying analytics–especially for tracking consumer behavior and product and promotional performance–considered one of the most effective ways to improve results and outpace the competition. But it’s not just about insight. It’s also about using the insight wisely to determine how to manage costs. The more knowledgeable about customer needs and preferences a company is, the smarter and more focused it must be in managing its own economics to cost-effectively deliver both variety and value to be squeezed consumer.

6. The central theme of the given passage is

(1) The Shrinking Market
(2) Shift towards offering Luxury Goods to Consumers
(3) Products to offer consumers with squeezed packets
(4) To highlight products consumer by the middle class
(5) Gaining insight into changing consumer behavior towards CPGs

7. In the context of the passage, which of the following brands existed otherwise but is now being manifested in buying groceries as well?

(1) Consumer purchasing the same products for over a period of time.
(2) Consumer willing to purchase goods for a longer period of time.
(3) Consumers preferring luxury goods over regular goods.
(4) Consumers are more aware of their rights.
(5) Consumers prefer buying goods from a variety of stores.

8. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word Depressing as used in the passage?

(1) Encouraging
(2) Sunny
(3) Doubtful
(4) Light
(5) Nil

9. As mentioned in the passage, CPG companies may have to reassess their present strategies of operating to

(A) retain their customers
(B) keep pace with changing consumer preference as they have access to multiple media channels
(C) make more cost-effective decisions.

(1) Only A
(2) B and C
(3) All of these
(4) Only C
(5) A and B

10. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word Depressing as used in the passage?

(1) Encouraging
(2) Sunny
(3) Doubtful
(4) Light
(5) Nil

11. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(1) In the USA, during the three year period after 2009, small manufacturing did not fare well as compared to their larger counterparts.
(2) Impact on dispensable incomes of people barely affects the CPG manufacturing industry.
(3) Post-tax wages, especially for the middle class, are one of the critical factors which have reduced spending behavior of consumers.
(4) The CPG have always been a favourite among consumers.
(5) None of the given options is true.

12. As mentioned in the passage, one of the most critical factors that aids in creating to the needs of consumers, is

(1) persuading then to purchase goods produced by the organization
(2) assess their requirements and appropriately plan to meet them
(3) offering them products that an organization regularly manufactures.
(4) concentrating only on being aware about changing presences of consumers
(5) None of the above

13. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word above Shrinking as used in the passage?

(1) Developing
(2) Annoying
(3) Narrowing
(4) Wasting
(5) Rising

14. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning of the word Variegated as used in the passage?

(1) Diverse
(2) Composite
(3) Strong
(4) Narrow
(5) Valued

15. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word Shuttered as used in the passage?

(1) Closed
(2) Retail
(3) Flourished
(4) Gratified
(5) Nearest

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Notification) Recruitment of IRDAI Assistant Manager Jobs - 2017

(Notification) Recruitment of IRDAI Assistant Manager Jobs - 2017

Recruitment Notification for the post of Assistant Manager in IRDAI

1. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is a statutory body formed under an Act of the Parliament.

2. IRDAI invites applications from eligible Indian citizens for filling up the post of Assistant Manager through open competition on all India basis for its various offices. Selection will be through a country-wide competitive Phase - I “On-line Preliminary Examination” followed by Phase – II “Descriptive Examination” at select centres and Interview. Category-wise number of vacancies is as under:

Name of the Post Unreserved, i.e. General (UR/GEN)
 
Other Backward Classes (OBC)
 
Scheduled Castes (SC)
Scheduled Tribes (ST)
Total
Assistant Manager 16 7 4 3* 30 # @

Eligibility criteria

11.1 Age Limit (as on 5.9.2017): Not below 21 years and not above 30 years as on 5.9.2017, i.e., candidates should have been born not earlier than 6.9.1987 and not later than 5.9.1996 (both days inclusive)

11.1.1. Relaxation in the Upper Age Limit: Upper age limit for the post of Assistant Manager will  be relaxed as under:

S.No. Category Relaxation in Age
(i) Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe (SC/ST)
 
5 Years
(ii) Other Backward Classes (OBC)
 
3 Years
(iii) Persons with Disabilities (PWD)
 
PWD (SC/ST) – 15 years
PWD (OBC) – 13 years
PWD (GEN/UR) – 10 years
 
(iv) Ex-serviceman and Commissioned Officers including Emergency Commissioned Officers and Short Service Commissioned Officers who have rendered at least five years Military Service as on 5th September, 2017 and have been released on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year from 5th September, 2017) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency or physical disability attributable to Military Service or on invalidment. 5 Years
(v) Ordinarily domiciled in the State of Jammu and Kashmir during the period from 1.1.1980 to 31.12.1989 5 Years
(vi) Employees of IRDAI To the extent of number of years of such service in IRDAI, subject to a maximum of three years.
 

Cumulative age relaxation will not be available either under the above categories or in combination with any other category.

Educational Qualifications:

Candidates should possess any of the following qualifications, at the minimum.

SI. NO. Specialization Number of posts
 
Qualification/s required
1 Actuarial 4 1. Graduation from a recognized University with minimum 60% marks, and
2. Pass in Nine (9) Papers of the Institute of Actuaries of India (IAI) Examination.
 
2 Accounts 4 1. Graduation from a recognized University with minimum 60% marks, and
2. ACA/AICWA/ACMA/ACS/CFA
 
3 Legal 2 1. Graduation from a recognized University with minimum 60% marks, and
2. LL.B with 60% marks
 
4 General 20 Graduation from a recognized University with minimum 60% marks
 

Notes:

(1) The candidate must hold a degree of any of Universities incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University Under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, or possess an equivalent qualification from a foreign university recognized by the Association of Indian Universities.

(2) Candidates may opt for either of Actuarial or Accounts or Legal as per the respective specialisation and/or General stream in the Application form. Selection will be on the basis of option exercised and performance as per cut-off marks in the respective specializations.

(3) Candidates competing for the posts mentioned above should possess knowledge of computer operations.

(4) In case of candidates belonging to SC/ST categories, relaxation in educational standards to the extent of 5% marks is allowed at Bachelor’s Degree.

(5) Some Universities/Institutes do not award Class or percentage of marks and allot Aggregate Grade Points (e.g. CGPA/OGPA/CPI, etc.). In case the University/Institute defines criteria for conversion of Aggregate Grade Point into Class and/or percentage of marks, the same will be accepted. However, where the University/ Institute does not define criteria for conversion of Aggregate Grade Point into Class and/or percentage of marks, or not stating class in the degree certificates, the undefined parameter(s) will be worked out as under:

Important Dates

Description Schedule
Website Link Open for on-line registration of applications 15-8-2017
Last date for on-line application and payment of examination fee/intimation charges 5-9-2017
Conduct of Phase - I On-line Preliminary Examination (Objective type) 4-10-2017

Selection process

12.1 The selection process shall be as follows:

i) Phase - I On-line Preliminary Examination (Objective Type). This is a qualifying examination to be eligible for Phase - II Descriptive Examination. Through this, candidates for Actuarial, Accounts and Legal specializations and General vacancies will be shortlisted separately for Phase – II Descriptive Examination as per standards to be decided separately by IRDAI (approximately 20 times the number of vacancies subject to availability). Marks secured in the Phase - I On-line Preliminary Examination will not count for interview or final selection.

ii) Phase – II Descriptive Examination comprising 3 Papers (Paper I, II and III) and

iii) Phase - III Interview

Candidates for Actuarial, Accounts, Legal specializations and General vacancies will be shortlisted for Phase – III Interview based on the aggregate marks obtained in Papers I, II and III of Phase - II Descriptive Examination only. The minimum cut-off marks for being shortlisted for Phase – III Interview will be decided separately for each specialization and General vacanciesby IRDAI. Final selection will be based on the merit performance of the candidates under respective specialization in Phase - II Descriptive Examination and Phase – III Interview taken together.

12.2 The Phase - I On-line Preliminary Examination (Objective Type) will be for 160 marks with four Tests as under:

Sr. No.
 
Name of Tests (Objective)
 
No of Questions
 
Maximum Marks
 
Total Time
 
1 Test of Reasoning
 
40 40 Composite time of 90 minutes
2 Test of English Language
 
40 40
3 Test of General Awareness
 
40 40
4 Test of Quantitative Aptitude
 
40 40

Total

160

160

A candidate has to qualify in each Objective Test separately and in aggregate as per the cut-off marks for each test and in aggregate to be decided by IRDAI. Separate cut-offs may also be applied for each of the specializations and general posts. Tests will be provided in English and Hindi (except test of English Language which will be provided only in English).

12.3 The scores of Phase – I On-line Preliminary Examination will be computed by adopting the  following procedure:

i. There will be negative marks for wrong answers in the Objective Tests. 1/4th mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
ii. Number of questions answered correctly by a candidate in each Objective Test is considered for arriving at the Corrected Score after applying penalty for wrong answers.
iii. The Corrected Scores so obtained by a candidate are made equivalent to take care of the minor difference in difficulty level, if any, in each of the Objective Tests held in different sessions to arrive at the Equated Scores
* Scores obtained by candidates in any test are equated to the base form by considering the distribution of scores obtained in all examinations, if the examination is conducted in more than one session.
iv. Test-wise scores and scores on total is computed with decimal points up to two digits.

12.4 Candidates are required to appear for all three papers in Phase - II Descriptive
Examination in one session. Separate Admission letter will be issued for the purpose. The time-table for Phase - II Descriptive Examination will be intimated to the candidates concerned along with Admission Letter for Phase - II. The Phase – II Descriptive Examination will consist of three papers as under:

Name of Paper Types of Paper Marks Time (Minutes)
Paper-I: English
 
Descriptive (question papers displayed on computer and to be written using pen and paper) 100 60
Paper-II: Economic and Social Issues impacting Insurance
 
100 60
Paper-III: Insurance and Management
 
100 60

Examination Centers

The Phase – I On-line Preliminary Examination will be conducted in the venues at the examination centres given in the respective call letters. The Phase – I On-line Preliminary Examination will be conducted at the following centres:

Sl. No State / Union Territory Name of the examination centre (City)
1 Andhra Pradesh Vijaywada
2 Assam Guwahati
3 Arunachal Pradesh
4 Mizoram
5 Manipur
6 Meghalaya
7 Nagaland
8 Tripura
9 Bihar Patna
10 Chattisgarh Raipur
11 Delhi New Delhi-NCR
12 Gujarat Ahmedabad-Gandhinagar
13 Goa Panaji
14 Haryana Ambala / Kurushetra /Hisar/ Karnal /
15 Himachal Pradesh Shimla / Solan
16 Jammu & Kashmir Srinagar /Samba/ Jammu
17 Jharakhand Ranchi
18 Karnataka Bengaluru
19 Kerala Thiruvananthpuram
20 Madhya Pradesh Bhopal
21 Maharashtra Mumbai / Navi Mumbai / Thane
22 Odhisha Bhubaneshawar
23 Punjab Mohali / Jalandhar / Sangrur
24 Rajasthan Jaipur / Sikar / Alwar / Kota
25 Sikkim Gangtok - Bardang
26 Tamilnadu Chennai
27 Telangana Hyderabad
28 Uttar Pradesh Lucknow
29 Uttarakhand Dehradun
30 West Bengal Kolkatta
31 Andaman & Nicobar Islands Port Blair
32 Chandigarh Chandigarh-Mohali
33 Dadra, Nagar Haveli, Daman & Dipu Vapi/ Valsad
34 Lakshadweep Islands Kawaratti
35 Punducherry Puducherry

Service Conditions / Career Prospects

16.1 Pay scale: Selected candidates will draw a starting basic pay of Rs.28,150/- per month in the scale of Rs.28150-1550(4)-34350-1750(7)-46600-EB-1750(4)-53600-2000(1)-55600 (17 years) and other allowances, like Dearness Allowance, House Rent Allowance, City Compensatory Allowance, Grade Allowance, etc., as admissible from time to time. The candidates employed elsewhere and joining IRDAI will be fixed at the minimum of basic pay in the scale of pay applicable to the post. At present, initial monthly gross emoluments for Assistant Manager is approximately Rs.81,000/-. The following qualification allowances, in addition to the above, are applicable to candidates selected for posts with professional qualifications.

How to apply

a. Candidates can apply on-line only from 15.8.2017 to 5.9.2017and no other mode of application will be accepted.

b. Persons already in Government Service, whether in a permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises are however, required to submit an undertaking in the On-line application that they have informed in writing to their Head of Office/Department that they have applied for the Examination. Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by IRDAI withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their application will be liable to be rejected/candidature will be liable to be cancelled.

18.2 Application Fee / Intimation charges (Non-refundable): Payable from 15.8.2017 to 5.9.2017, both dates inclusive, shall be as follows:

Category Fee Remarks
SC/ST/PWD/Ex-servicemen Rs. 100/- Intimation charges
Other than SC/ST/PWD/Ex-servicemen Rs.650/- Examination fee and Intimation charges

i. Bank transaction charges for On-line payment of application fees / intimation charges will have to be borne by the candidate.

ii. Applications without the prescribed fee / intimation charges shall be summarily rejected.

iii. Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor the fee be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.

iv. Fee / intimation charges are required to be paid only in the manner prescribed in this advertisement.

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Study Kit for BANK ASSISTANT Administrative Officers Exam

Courtesy: IRDAI

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Reasoning Held on: 11-06-2015"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 11-06-2015"

:: Reasoning Ability ::

Directions (1-5): Study the information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular area of equal distances between each other, but not necessary in the same order. Some of teh people are facing in the centre while some face outside. (i.e.in a direction opposite to the centre).

D sits third tothe right of B. E sits second to the left of B. Immediate neighbours of B face the same direction (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre, the other neighbour also faces the centre and vice-versa). C sits second to the left of E. E faces the centre. F sits third to the right of C.G sits second to the left of H. H is not an immediate neighbour of B. G faces the same direction as D. Immediate neighbours of E faces opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre, the other neighbour faces outside and vice-versa.) Immediate neighbours of F face opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre, the other neighbour face outside and vice-versa.)

1. How man people in the given arrangement face the centre?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four
(5) Five

2. Which of teh following is true regarding A as per the given sitting arrangement?

(1) H sits second to the left of A.
(2) A faces outsides.
(3) Only two people sit between A and B.
(4) C is one of the immediate neighbours of A.
(5) Only three people sit between A and G.

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) F
(2) H
(3) B
(4) G
(5) D

4. What is E's postion with respect to H?

(1) Third to the left
(2) To the immediate left
(3) To the Immediate right
(4) Second to the right
(5) Third to the right

5. Who sits second to the left of G?

(1) H
(2) A
(3) B
(4) Other than those as options
(5) F

Directions (6-10): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D K, L and M live on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the typmost floor is numbered seven.

Each one of them also likes dfferent games and Polo (but not necessarily in the same order). Only three people live between B and K. B lives on one of the floosrs above K. K does not live on the lowermsot floor. Only one person live between B and the one who likes Chess. The one who likes Polo lives on one of the even numbered floors above the one who likes Chess. Only two people live between M and the one who like Chess.

The one who likes snooker lives immediately above M. A lives immediately above L. A does not like Chess. The one who likes Ludo lives on one of the odd numbered floors below L. M does not like Ludo. D lives on one of teh floors above C. Only one person lives between the one who likes Cricket and the one who likes Hockey. D does not like Cricket. M does not like Badminton.

6. Which of the following game does B like?

(1) Snooker
(2) Ludo
(3) Polo
(4) Badminton
(5) Chess

7. Who amongst the following lives on the floor numbered 4?

(1) The one who likes Hockey
(2) The one who likes Chess
(3) A
(4) L
(5) B

8. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?

(1) Only two people live between K and M.
(2) The one who likes Hockey lives immediately above K.
(3) C likes Chess.
(4) C lives on an even numbered floor.
(5) None of the given options is true.

9. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order from top to bottom, the positions of how many people will remain unchanged?

(1) None
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
(5) Four

10. Which of the following combinations is true with respect to the given arrangement?

(1) Polo-C
(2) Ludo-B
(3) Cricket-K
(4) Chess-L
(5) Snooker-A

11. A person starts walking from his office towards a partly hall. He walks for 30m towards East. He takes a 90° right turn and walks for 15m. He again takes a 90° right turn, and walks for another 20m. He then walks for 25m after taking a 90° left turn. Turning 90° towards his right he walks for 10m to reach the party hall. How far and in which direction is the party hall from his office?

(1) 40 m towards West
(2) 40 m towards South
(3) 45 m towards South
(4) 45 m towards North
(5) 40 m towards North

Directions (12-16): In these questions, two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer

(a) if only concklusion I is ture
(b) if only conclusion II is true
(c) if either conclusion I and II is true
(d) if both conclusions are true
(e) if neither conclusion I not II is true

12. Statements

Some winds are trophies.
Some trophies are cups.
No cup is a prize.

Conclusions:

(I) At least some cups are wins.
(II) All prizes being trophies is a possibility.

13. Statements

No layer is a coat.
All coats are deposits.
All deposits are sheets.

Conclusions:

(I) All coats are depostis.
(II) All deposits can never by layers.

14. Statemetns

Some flats are apartments.
No apartments is a hall.
Some halls are rooms.

Conclusions:

(I) At least some rooms are flats.
(II) No apartment is a room.

15. Statements

Some wins ae trophies.
Some trophies are cups.
No cup is a prize.

Conclusions :

(I) No trophy is a prize.
(II) All secrets are puzzles.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Quantitative Aptitude Held on: 16-10-2016"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Held on: 16-10-2016"

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::

1. If the male population above poverty line for State R is then what is the total population of

(1) 4.5 Trillion
(2) 4.85 million
(3) 5.33 million
(4) 6.25 million
(5 ) 6 million

2. What will be the number of females above poverty line in the State S if it is known that the population of State S is 7 million ?

(1) 3 million
(2) 2.13 million
(3) 1.33 million
(4) 5.7 million
(5) 4 million

3. What is the male population above poverty line for State P if the female population below poverty line for State P is 2.1 million ?

(1) 2.1 million
(2) 2.7 million
(3) 3.3 million
(4) 2.3 million
(5) 3 million

4. If the population of males below poverty line for State Q is 2.4 million and that for State T is 6 million, then what is the respective ratio of the total population of states Q and T ?

(1) 1 : 3
(2) 2 : 5
(3) 3 : 7
(4) 4 : 9
(5) 3 : 9

5. Find the probability that a number from 1 to 300 is divisible by 3 or 7 ?

(1) 37/75
(2) 32/75
(3) 36/75
(4) 28/75
(5) 26/75 

6. 14 men can do a work in 18 days, 15 women can do a work in 24 days. If 14 men work for first three days and 10 women work after that for three days, find the part of work left after that ?

(1) 3/4
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/2
(4) 1/6
(5) 1/5

7. Perimeter of a rectangle is x and circumference of a circle is 8 more than the perimeter of the rectangle. Ratio of radius of circle and length of the rectangle is 1:2 and ratio of length and breadth of rectangle is 7:3. Find the length of the rectangle?

(1) 14
(2) 21
(3) 28
(4) 35
(5) 7

8. A invests on some scheme at 5% and B at 3% for two years. If the total sum invested by A and B is 4000 and the simple interest received by both is same then find the amount invested by A.

(1) Rs. 1,300/-
(2) Rs. 1,500/-
(3) Rs. 2,500/-
(4) Rs. 2,700/-
(5) Rs. 2,100/-

9. Two trains crosses each other in 14 sec when they are moving in opposite direction, and when they are moving in same direction they crosses each other in 3 min 2 sec. Find the speed of the faster train by what percent more than the speed of the slower train ?

(1) 16.67%
(2) 17.33%
(3) 16.33%
(4) 17.67%
(5) 18.33%

10. 11 20 38 74 ?

(1) 146
(2) 154
(3) 128
(4) 132
(5) 136

11. 15 21 38 65 101 ?

(1) 124
(2) 145
(3) 136
(4) 158
(5) 162

12. 24 28 19 35 10 ?

(1) 26
(2) 36
(3) 16
|(4) 46
(5) 15

13. 7 16 45 184 915 ?

(1) 2092
(2) 5496
(3) 1048
(4) 4038
(5) 3268

14. 12 19 35 59 90 ?

(1) 134
(2) 127
(3) 132 (4) 98
(5) 114

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

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IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Reasoning Held on: 16-10-2016"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Held on: 16-10-2016"

:: Reasoning Ability ::

Directions (1-5) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer :

(1) If only conclusion II is true
(2) If only conclusion If is true
(3) If both conclusions I and II are true
(4) I f either conclusion I or II is true
(5) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

1. Statements :

S d” L d” I = P e” E > R ; L > Q

Conclusions :

I. P > S
II. I > R

Directions (6-10) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons — H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O — are standing in a straight line at equidistant. Some of them are facing north while others are facing south.
M is standing third to the right to H. M is standing at one of the extreme ends. L is standing third to the left of H. The immediate neighbours of J. face north. N is not an immediate neighbour of H.The persons standing at the extreme ends face the same direction (both are facing either north or south). The immediate neighbours of H face, just opposite direction as that of M. The immediate neighbours of 0 face opposite direction with respect to each other.K is one of the immediate neighbours of L and is facing north. I is standing between J and M. Not more than four persons are facing north.L is immediate right of K.

6. Who among the following is third to the left of N?

(1) K
(2) J
(3) H
(4) I
(5) O

7. The immediate neighbours of L are :

(1) M and N
(2) N and O
(3) K and N
(4) N and H
(5) J and H

8. How many persons are standing exactly between I and 0 ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two
(5) None

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?

(1) N
(2) L
(3) O
(4) J
(5) K

10. Who among the following is exactly between L and J ?

(1) N
(2) O
(3) H
(4) I
(5) None

Directions (11-15) : In each question below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer :

(1) If only conclusion I follows.
(2) If only conclusion II follows.
(3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(5) If both conclusions I and II follow.

11. Statements :

All circles are a triangle.
Some triangles is rectangles.
All rectangles are squares.

Conclusions :

I. All rectangles being triangles is a possibility.
II. All circles being squares is a possibility.

12. Statements :

Some chairs are tables.
Some beds are tables.
No furniture is bed.

Conclusions :

I. All chairs being furniture is a possibility.
II. Some tables are not bed is a possibility.

13. Statements :

All circles are a triangle.
Some triangles are rectangles.
All rectangles are squares.

Conclusions :

I. Some triangles are not rectangles.
II. No square is a circle.

14. Statements :

All art are theatre.
Some art are dramas

Conclusions :

I. All dramas being theatre is a possibility.
II. Some dramas are theatre.

15. Statements :

Some chairs are tables.
Some beds are tables.
No furniture is bed.

Conclusions :

I. Some tables are not furniture.
II. All tables being furniture is a possibility.

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "English Held on: 16-10-2016"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2016 "Held on: 16-10-2016"

:: English Language ::

Directions (1-7) : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Governments looking for easy popularity have frequently been tempted into announcing give-a-ways of all sorts; free electricity, virtually free water, subsidized food, cloth at half price, and so on. The subsidy culture has gone to extremes. The richest farmers in the country get subsidized fertilizers. University education, typically accessed by the wealthier sections, is charged at a fraction of cost. Postal services are subsidized, and so are railway services. Bus fares cannot be raised to economical levels because there will be violent protest, so bus travel is subsidized too. In the past, price control on a variety of items, from steel to cement, meant that industrial consumer of these items got them at less than actual cost, while the losses of the public sector companies that produced them were borne by the taxpayer! A study done a few years ago, came to the conclusion that subsidies in the Indian economy total as much as 14.5 per cent of gross domestic product. At today’s level, that would work out to about 1,50,000 crore. And who pay the bill? The theory-and the Political fiction on the basis of I which it is sold to unsuspecting voters-is that subsidies go the poor. and are paid for by the rich. The fact is that most subsidies go the ‘rich’ (defined in the Indian context as those who are above the poverty line), and much of the tab goes indirectly to the poor. Because the hefty subsidy bill results in fiscal deficits, which in turn push up rates of inflation-which, as everyone knows, hits the poor the hardest of all. That is why taxmen call inflation the most regressive form of taxation.

The entire subsidy system is built on the thesis that people cannot help themselves, therefore governments must do so. That people cannot afford to pay for variety of goods and services, and therefore the government must step in. This thesis has been applied not just in the poor countries but in the rich ones as well; hence the birth of the welfare state in the west, and an almost Utopian social security system; free medical care, food aid, old age security, et.al. But with the passage of time, most of the wealthy nations have discovered that their economies cannot sustain this social safety net, which in fact reduces the desire among people to pay their own way, and takes away some of the incentive to work, in short, the bill was unaffordable, and their societies were simply not willing to pay. To the regret of many, but because of the laws of economies are harsh, most Western societies have been busy pruning the welfare bill.

In India, the lessons of this experience over several decades, and in many countries-do not seem to have been learnt. Or they are simply ignored in the pursuit of immediate votes. People who are promised cheap food or clothing do not in most cases look beyond the gift horses-to the question of who picks up the tab. The uproar over higher petrol, diesel and cooking gas prices ignored this basic question; if the user of cooking gas does not want to pay for its cost, who should pay? Diesel in the country is subsidised, and if the user of cooking gas does not want to pay for its full cost, who does he or she think should pay the balance of the cost? It is a simple question, nevertheless if remains unasked.

The Deva Gowda government has shown some courage in biting the bullet when it comes to the price of petroleum products. But it has been bitten by much bigger subsidy bug. It wants to offer food at half its
cost to everyone below the poverty line, supposedly estimated at some 380 million people. What will be the cost? And of course, who will pick up the tab? The Andhra Pradesh Government has been bankrupted by selling rice as 2 per kg. Should the Central Government be bankrupted too, before facing up to the question of what is affordable and what is not? Already, India is perennially short of power because the subsidy on electricity has bankrupted most electricity boards, and made private investment wary unless it gets all manner of state guarantees. Delhi’s subsidised bus fares have bankrupted the Delhi Transport Corporation, whose buses have slowly disappeared from the capital’s streets. It is easy to be soft and sentimental, by looking at programmes that will be popular. After all, who does not like a free lunch? But the evidence is surely mounting that the lunch isn’t free at all. Somebody is paying the bill. And if you want to know who, take at the country’s poor economic performance over the years.

1. Which of the following should not be subsidised over the years ?

(1) University education
(2) Postal services
(3) Steel
(4) Other than those given as options
(5) All of the above options

2. The statement that ‘subsidies are paid by the rich and go to the poor’ is

(1) fiction
(2) fact
(3) fact, according to the author
(4) fiction, according to the author
(5) Other than those given as options

3. Why do you think that the author calls the Western social security system Utopian ?

(1) The countries belief in the efficacy of the system was bound to turn out to be false.
(2) The system followed by these countries is the best available in the present context.
(3) Everything under this system was supposed to be free but people were charging money for them.
(4) The theory of system followed by these countries was devised by Dr. Utopia.
(5) All the options are responsible.

4. It can be inferred from the passage that the author :

(1) believes that people can help themselves and do not need the government.
(2) believes that the theory of helping with subsidy is very destructive.
(3) believes in democracy and free speech.
(4) is not a successful politician.
(5) believes that subsidies are the best way to help poor.

5. Which of the following is not a victim of extreme subsidies ?

(1) The poor
(2) The Delhi-Transport Corporation
(3) The Andhra Pradesh Goverment
(4) Other than those given as options
(5) The rich

6. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?

(1) Where subsidies are concerned, the poor ultimately pay the tab.
(2) Inflation is caused by too much subsidies.
(3) Experts call subsidies the most regressive form of taxation.
(4) Fiscal deficits are caused due to heavy subsidy bills.
(5) None of the following is true in the context of the passage.

7. A suitable title to the passage would be :

(1) There’s no such thing as a free lunch
(2) The Economic Overview
(3) Deva Gowda’s Government and its Follies
(4) It takes Two to Tango
(5) The Rich and The Poor: Extreme Partiality

Directions (8-12) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

A. It is the only country in the world that is carbon negative, which means it produces more oxygen than it consumes.
B. Bhutan, sandwiched between the two most populous nations on Earth, suffers for their sins.
C. So far, so good. But then, two things happened.
D. Carbon sinks, 70% forest cover, powered almost entirely by mountain streams—Bhutan is a poster child for green living.
E. Glaciers are beginning to melt, flash floods and heavy rains—and even droughts— are common, and temperatures are climbing.
F. One, India and China got richer.

8. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence of the given paragraph ?

(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B
(5) A

9. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence of the given paragraph ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

10. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence of the given paragraph ?

(1) A
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B
(5) E

11. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence of the given paragraph?

(1) F
(2) C
(3) B
(4) E
(5) D

12. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence of the given paragraph?

(1) B
(2) D
(3) A
(4) C
(5) E

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(Notification) Recruitment of Nainital Bank Management Trainees - 2017

(Notification) Recruitment of Nainital Bank Management Trainees - 2017

Recruitment Exercise for engagement of Management Trainees

We are an old Private Sector Scheduled Commercial Bank, operating in States of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Haryana and Rajasthan. The Bank intends to engage Management Trainees. The Management Trainee, so engaged, shall be for a period of one year on payment of consolidated lump sum stipend of Rs. 25,000.00 per month. On satisfactory completion of active one year’s period of assignment, the Management Trainees may be absorbed in the initial stage of Basic Pay of Officers Grade/Scale-I. Such Management Trainees after absorption in Officers Grade/Scale-I shall remain on probation for further period of one year. Bank accordingly
invites applications from eligible candidates fulfilling the following eligibility Criteria:

Eligibility Criteria:

Educational Qualification (eligibility as on July 31, 2017) *Candidate should have passed Graduation/ Post Graduation with minimum 55% of marks in either of Graduation/ Post Graduation examination in the streams of Arts/ Science/ Commerce/ Agriculture/MBA/ B.Tech/MCA/BCA from a recognized university/ Institute. Proficiency in Computer knowledge and knowledge of Hindi & English languages are essential
Age Limit (eligibility as on July 31, 2017)

Candidate should be in the age group of 21-27 years as on 31.07.2017 i.e. candidate should not have been born earlier than 01.08.1990 and not later than 31.07.1996. Both dates inclusive.

Upper age limit is relaxable by -5- years for candidates belonging to SC/ST categories only. i.e. SC/ST Candidates should not have been born earlier than 01.08.1985 and not later than 31.07.1996. Both dates inclusive

Candidate should be in the age group of 21 -27 years, as on 31.07.2017. Upper age limit is relaxable by -5- years for candidates belonging to SC/ST category only.

*Where the University has awarded CGPA / GPA score to the candidate, the percentage marks shall be calculated by dividing the total marks obtained by the candidate in all the subjects in the all semesters by aggregate maximum marks in all the subjects irrespective of honors / optional / additional optional subject.

3. Identity Verification: In the Examination Hall as well as at the time of interview, the call letter along with original and a photocopy of the candidate’s currently valid photo  identity such as PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving Licence/ Voter’s Card/ Bank Passbook with photograph/ Photo identity proof issued by a Gazzetted Officer on official letterhead/ Photo identity proof issued by a People’s Representative on official letterhead/ valid recent Identity Card issued by a recognized College/ University/ Aadhar/ E-Aadhar Card with a photograph/ Employee ID/ Bar Council Identity Card with photograph should be submitted to the invigilator for verification. The candidate’s identity will be verified with respect to his/her details on the call letter, in the Attendance List and requisite documents submitted. If identity of the candidate is in doubt the candidate may not be allowed to appear for the Examination.

Ration Card will not be accepted as valid id proof for this process.

Note: Candidates have to produce in original the photo identity proof and submit photocopy of the photo identity proof along with Examination Call Letter as well as the Interview Call Letter and printout of the application form while attending the examination/ interview respectively, without which they will not be allowed to take
up the examination/ interview. Candidates must note that the name as appearing on the Call Letter (provided during the process of registration) should exactly match the name as appearing on the photo identity proof.
Female candidates who have changed first/last/middle name post marriage must take special note of this. If there is any mismatch between the name indicated in the Call Letter and Photo Identity Proof the candidate will not be allowed to appear for the examination. In case of candidates who have changed their name will be allowed only if they produce original Gazette Notification/ original Marriage Certificate/ Affidavit in original and a
photocopy of the same.

How To Apply:

Candidates can apply online only from August 23, 2017 to September 12, 2017 and no other mode of application will be accepted. The detailed Guidelines / Procedure are as follows:

A. Online Application Registration.
B. Online Payment of Fees.
C. Photograph and Signature Upload.

A. ONLINE APPLICATION:

Application Fee: Rs. 850.00 (Rupees eight hundred fifty only) PLUS GST @ 18%- Rs. 153.00 (Rupees one hundred fifty three only), Total Fee Rs. 1,003.00 (Rupees one thousand three only) for all categories of candidates (non- refundable).

1. The process of online application form and payment towards recruitment application fees can be made from August 23, 2017 to September 12, 2017.
2. The payment can be made by using Debit Cards (RuPay/Visa/MasterCard/Maestro), Credit Cards, Internet Banking, IMPS, Cash Cards/ Mobile Wallets by providing information as asked on the screen.
3. Before registering their applications on the website, candidates should possess a valid e-mail ID. In case the candidate does not have a valid e-mail id, he/ she will have to create a new email ID before applying online.
4. Candidates should carefully fill in the details in the Online Application at the appropriate places very carefully. Candidates are advised to verify every field filled in the application. The name of the candidate should be spelt correctly in the application as it appears in the Certificate/ identity proof/Mark sheets & PAN Card.
5. Candidates are first required to go to the Bank’s website www.nainitalbank.co.in and click on the “Recruitment/Results”. No other means/mode of application is acceptable.
6. Under “Recruitment exercise for Management Trainees- 2017-18” option, click on "APPLY ONLINE" which will open a new screen.
7. To register application, choose the tab "Click here for New Registration" and enter Name, Contact details and Email-id. A Provisional Registration Number and Password will be generated by the system and displayed  on the screen. Candidate should note down the Provisional Registration Number and Password. An Email & SMS indicating the Provisional Registration number and Password will also be sent.
8. In case the candidate is unable to complete the application form in one go, he / she can save the data already entered by choosing "SAVE AND NEXT" tab. Prior to final submission of the online application candidates are advised to use the "SAVE AND NEXT" facility to verify the details in the online application form and modify the same, if required.
9. Candidates are advised to carefully fill and verify the details filled in the online application themselves as no change will be possible/ entertained after clicking the FINAL SUBMIT BUTTON.
10. Name of the candidate or name of his /her Father/ Husband etc. should be spelt correctly in the application as it appears in the Identity Proof/Certificates/ Mark sheets. Any change/alteration found may disqualify the candidature.
11. Validate your details and Save your application by clicking the 'VALIDATE YOUR DETAILS' and 'SAVE & NEXT' button.
12. Candidates can proceed to upload Photo & Signature as per the specifications given in the Guidelines for Scanning and Upload of Photograph and Signature detailed under Point "C".
13. Candidates can proceed to fill other details of the Application Form.
14. Click on the Preview Tab to preview and verify the entire application form before clicking on FINAL SUBMIT.
15. Modify details, if required, and click on 'FINAL SUBMIT' only after verifying and ensuring that the photograph, signature uploaded and other details filled by you are correct.
16. Click on 'PAYMENT' Tab and proceed for payment.
17. Click on 'SUBMIT' button. After Final Submission of the online application, candidates are required to immediately take a printout of the online application using the above registration number and password. The printout of application form is mandatorily required to be submitted at the time of interview. DO NOT SEND THE APPLICATION FORM TO THE BANK.

Important Dates:

Commencement of on-line registration of application 23.08.2017
Closure of registration of application 12.09.2007
On-line Fee Payment 23.08.2017 to 12.09.2017

 

Call Letters:

Candidates will have to visit the Bank’s website www.nainitalbank.co.in for downloading call letters for online examination. Intimation for downloading call letter will also be sent through email/SMS. Once the candidate clicks the relevant link, he/she can access the window for call letter download. The candidate is required to use (i) Registration Number/ Roll Number, (ii) Password/ Date of Birth for downloading the call letter. Candidate needs to affix recent recognizable photograph on the call letter same as provided during registration and appear at the examination centre with (i) Call Letter (ii) Photo Identity Proof as stipulated in this advertisement and also specified in the call letter and (iii) Photocopy of the same Photo Identity Proof as brought in original.

At the Examination Centre:

Candidates are required to bring the following to the examination centre:

  • Print out of Call Letter (which has to be downloaded by the candidate using the registration number and password obtained at the time of registration of online application). A recent passport size photograph of the candidate has to be affixed on the Call Letter.

  • You are required to carry with you your currently valid photo identity proof (original) and photo copy thereof, failing which you will not be allowed to appear for the test. (Please refer to Point 3- Identity Verification

Without the above mentioned documents the candidate will not be admitted for the examination.

Candidates reporting late: i.e. after the reporting time specified on the call letter for Examination will not be permitted to take the examination. The reporting time mentioned on the call letter is prior to the Start time of the test. Though the duration of the examination is 1 hour 50 minutes (110 minutes), candidates may be required to be at the venue for about 3 hours including the time required for completion of various formalities such as verification and collection of various requisite documents, logging in, giving of instructions, etc

Choice of Region and Centers for examination:

Online Exam for Recruitment of Management Trainees will be conducted in centres at following location:

Sr. No.            Centre

1                     Haldwani (Uttarkhand)
2                     Bhimtal (Uttarakhand)
3                     Udham Singh Nagar (Uttarakhand)
4                     Roorkee (Uttarakhand)
5                     Dehradun (Uttarakhand)
6                     Moradabad (Uttar Pradesh)
7                     Bareilly (Uttar Pradesh)
8                     Muzaffarnagar (Uttar Pradesh)
9                     Lucknow (Uttar Pradesh)
10                   Delhi (NCR)

a) The examination will be conducted online in venues given in the respective call letters.

b) Any request for change of centre for examination/ interview shall NOT be entertained.

c) Bank, however, reserves the right to cancel any of the Examination Centres and/ or add some other Centres, at its discretion, depending upon the response, administrative feasibility, etc. Bank also reserves the right to allot the candidate to any centre (either within the state or outside the state) other than the one he/she has opted for.

d) Choice of centre once exercised by the candidate will be final. If sufficient number of candidates do not opt for a particular centre for "Online" examination, Bank reserves the right to allot any other adjacent centre to those candidates OR if the number of candidates is more than the capacity available for online exam for a centre, Bank reserves the right to allot any other centre (either within the state or outside the state) to the candidate.

e) Candidate will appear for the examination at an Examination Centre at his / her own risk and expenses and the Bank will not be responsible for any injury or losses, etc. of any nature.

f) Online exam is tentatively scheduled in the month of October 2017.

8. Candidates will have to appear for Personal Interview to be conducted by the Bank.

The successful candidates will be called for an interview. Subject to their being medically fit for assignment, the selected candidates will be offered assignment of Management Trainee. The Bank reserves the right to reject any application without assigning any reason and no correspondence in this regard will be entertained.

9. Vacancies will be filled in at the existing and future branches/offices of the Bank.

10. The data /information once submitted by the candidate in the online application form will be considered as final and cannot be changed at a later stage. The application fee once paid will NOT BE REFUNDED on any account nor would be held in reserve for any future examination or selection. The application fee shall also NOT BE REFUNDED in case the application is rejected / not considered by the Bank.

11. The Bank takes no responsibility for any delay in submission of online applications or communication. Candidates in their own interest are advised to ensure that online payment through Debit Cards
(RuPay/Visa/MasterCard/Maestro), Credit Cards, Internet Banking, IMPS, Cash Cards/ Mobile Wallets has been successfully remitted as per above instructions and submit the online applications well before the last date.

12. Candidates are advised to ensure that they fulfill the eligibility criterion of qualifications and age as prescribed above. Candidates, who do not fulfill the prescribed eligibility criteria, may be disqualified at any stage of the recruitment process.

13. The Assignment of Management Trainee in the Bank shall be for a period of one year.

14. The Management Trainees will be paid a consolidated lump sum stipend amount of Rs. 25,000.00 per month during the period of assignment of one year. On satisfactory completion of active one year’s period of assignment, the Management Trainees may be absorbed in the initial stage of Basic Pay of Officers Grade/Scale-I. Such Management Trainees after absorption in Officers Grade/Scale-I shall remain on probation for further period of one year.

ACTION AGAINST CANDIDATES FOUND GUILTY OF MISCONDUCT:

Candidates are advised in their own interest that they should not furnish any particulars that are false, tampered with or fabricated and should not suppress any material information while submitting online application. At the time of examination, interview or in a subsequent selection procedure, if a candidate is (or has been) found guilty of:

i. Using unfair means or
ii. Impersonating or procuring impersonation by any person or
iii. Misbehaving in the examination/interview hall or disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing or facilitating transmission and storage of contents of the test(s) or any information therein in whole or part thereof in any form or by any means, verbal or written, electronically or mechanically for any purpose or
iv. Resorting to any irregular or improper means in connection with his/her candidature or
v. Obtaining support for his/her candidature by any unfair means or
vi. Carrying mobile phones or similar electronic devices of communication in the examination/interview hall.

Such a candidate may, in addition to rendering himself/herself liable to criminal prosecution, be liable:

a. To be disqualified from the examination for which he/she is a candidate.
b. To be debarred, either permanently or for a specified period, from any examination conducted by the Bank.
c. For termination of service, if he/she has already joined the Bank.

GENERAL INFORMATION:

1. The possibility for occurrences of some problem in administration of the examination cannot be ruled out completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In that event, every effort will be made to rectify the problem, which may include shifting the candidates to the other  centers or conduct another examination, if considered necessary. Decision of the Bank in this regard shall be final. Candidates not willing to accept such change shall lose his/her candidature for this exam.

2. If the examination is held in more than one session, the scores across various sessions will be equated to adjust for slight differences in difficulty level of different test batteries used across sessions. More than one session may be required if the nodes capacity is less or some technical disruption takes place at any centre or for any candidate.

Click Here for Official Notification

Click Here to Apply Online

Study Kit for BANK ASSISTANTS & Administrative Officers(AO) Exam

Courtesy : The Nainital Bank Ltd.
 

Jobs: 
Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

Maharashtra PSC Clerk Typist Question Paper : 2015

Maharashtra PSC Clerk Typist Question Paper : 2015

Booklet No. A

11 November 2015

Code : R06

Click Here to Download Full Paper

Courtesy : MPSC

Jobs: 
General: 

(JOBS) RECRUITMENT OF PARLIAMENT OF INDIA FOR JUNIOR CLERK - 2017

(JOBS) RECRUITMENT OF PARLIAMENT OF INDIA FOR JUNIOR CLERK - 2017

JOB DETAILS

Post Name: Junior Clerk
Total No of Posts: 31
SALARY:

Recruitment basis in Lok Sabha Secretariat which is a level 4 post in the Pay Matrix (Provisional) [in the Pay Band of Rs. 5200-20200 (PB-1)+Grade Pay:Rs. 2400 (pre-revised)].

QUALIFICATIONS & AGE

Bachelor‟s degree in any discipline from a recognised university and a minimum typing speed of 40 words per minute in English/Hindi stream. Preference will be given to persons having typing speed of 40 words per minute both in English and Hindi.
Desirable : Certificate in computer course recognized by All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)/Department of Electronics Accreditation of Computer Courses (DOEACC) or courses equivalent to 'O' Level in terms of syllabus and duration of course as prescribed by DOEACC.
UPPER AGE LIMIT : 27 years.

RESERVATION FOR PHYSICALLY CHALLENGED PERSONS

The reservation of vacancies for physically challenged persons is as under:

No. of vacancies reserved Category for which identified Functional Classification

Physical Requirements*

             01   Visual Impairment  LV - (Low Vision) F Work performed by manipulating (with fingers)
S Work performed by sitting (on bench or chair)
SE Work performed by seeing
H Work performed by hearing/speaking
RW Work performed by reading and writing
C Communication

SELECTION PROCEDURE

Eligible candidates will be required to appear in the examination as per the following scheme:

I. Preliminary Examination:
The Preliminary Examination will be a qualifying examination. Only those candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in each component and aggregate in the Preliminary Examination will be called for the Main Examination. The marks secured by the candidates in the Preliminary Examination will not be counted while preparing the final selection list.
II. Main Examination:
A candidate will be considered for appointment against the vacancies in that stream i.e. English/Hindi only in which he qualifies Paper-I (Essay, Letter and Grammar) and Paper-II (Typing Test). The candidates will have to qualify Papers-I and II in the same stream. However, the candidate qualifying the Typing Test in both English and Hindi streams, will be given preference in appointment against the vacancies in that stream in which he qualifies the Paper-I. A candidate qualifying Papers I and II in both the streams will be given preference in appointment against the vacancies in that stream in which he gets higher marks.
A candidate who is eligible for the post of Junior Clerk in both English and Hindi streams, may be permitted to write Paper-I in both the streams. However, such candidates will not be allowed any time break. After attempting the Paper in one stream and handing over the answer sheet to invigilator, they will be allowed further 02 hours time for attempting the paper in the other stream.
The answer scripts of Paper-I of only those candidates will be evaluated who qualify Paper-II (typing test) at the requisite speed of 40 w.p.m. Candidates will have to secure the minimum qualifying marks in Paper-I.
From amongst the candidates who qualify both papers I and II, selection will be made on the basis of the overall performance of the candidates in Papers-I and II, subject to the availability of vacancies.
The candidates belonging to OBC, SC and ST categories who will be availing the benefit of their category in marks obtained for qualifying the Preliminary Examination and/or Paper-I of Main Examination and/or in age, will not be entitled to occupy UR vacancy.

GENERAL CONDITIONS

I. AGE AND QUALIFICATIONS: Age and qualifications will be reckoned as on 09.08.2017.

II. AGE RELAXATION: The upper AGE LIMIT specified above is for General candidates. Relaxation in upper AGE LIMIT to various categories, ex-Servicemen and in-house candidates of Lok Sabha Secretariat will be as indicated hereunder:
The age relaxation limit prescribed above for SC/ST, OBC and GEN candidates [Sl. Nos. (i), (ii) and (iii)] will be further relaxable up-to a maximum of 10 years in the case of Physically Challenged Persons for whom the post has been identified suitable.

NOTES: (1) Applicants in Government Service or in service in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha Secretariats should have completed 3 years of continuous regular service in Government or in Rajya Sabha Secretariat or in Government, Lok Sabha Secretariat and Rajya Sabha Secretariat put together or in Lok Sabha Secretariat and Rajya Sabha Secretariat put together, for claiming age relaxation as Government Servant as per provisions in para 5 II (i), (ii) and (iii) above.
(2) An Ex-Serviceman who has joined a Government job on civil side and is deemed to be a civil employee, is permitted the benefit of age relaxation as admissible for ex-Servicemen for securing another Government job. However, such candidates will not be eligible for the benefit of reservation, if any, for ex-Servicemen in Government jobs.
*The upper age limit is relaxable up to 5 years (depending upon the extent of their continuous service) to the candidates in Government Service/Public Sector Undertakings who have rendered not less than 3 years continuous service on regular basis as on 09.08.2017 and they should continue in their service till their final selection. Persons who are appointed on ad-hoc/daily wages/hourly paid/ contract basis are not eligible for age relaxation.
** In respect of vacancies (if any) available/reserved for them
***Ex-Serviceman means a person who has served in any rank whether as a combatant or non-combatant in the regular Army, Navy, Air Force of the Indian Union, and:
(a) who retired from such service after earning her/his pension. This would also include persons who are released/retired at their own request after having earned their pension; or

(b) who has been released, otherwise than on her/his own request from such service as a result of reduction in establishment; or

(c) who has been released from such service after completing the specific period of engagement, otherwise than at her/his own request or by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency, and has been given a gratuity.
Armed Forces Personnel in the last year of service in the Force who have been permitted to seek re-employment are also eligible to apply.

III. SUBMISSION OF DOCUMENTS/CERTIFICATES:

(a) All the candidates who are declared qualified in the Preliminary Examination will be required to furnish copies of her/his certificates, degrees, mark sheets etc., duly attested by a Gazetted Officer or First Class Magistrate at the time of Main Examination failing which the candidature of such candidate(s) will be cancelled by Joint Recruitment Cell. The candidates who are able to prove, by documentary evidence, that result of the qualifying examination was declared on or before 09.08.2017 and she/he has been declared passed, will also be considered to have the required qualification. The candidates will be required to submit both certificate/degree as well as marks sheet(s) in respect of each educational qualification mentioned in the application.

(b) Only the Matriculation or equivalent examination certificate will be accepted as proof of date of birth. No other document will be accepted for this purpose. In case, the date of birth is not mentioned in the Matriculation or equivalent examination certificate of a candidate, she/he may submit attested photocopy of the certificate of her/his any other higher educational qualification containing the required information along with attested photocopy of Matriculation or equivalent examination certificate and also an attested photocopy of an affidavit to the effect that the date of birth is not mentioned in the Matriculation or equivalent examination certificate issued by the concerned Education Board.

The name of the candidate and her/his parents filled up in the application form by the candidates shall be the same as mentioned in the Matriculation Certificate. In case, there is a discrepancy between the name as recorded in the Matriculation Certificate and as entered in Degree and/or PG Degree and/or other certificates, the following steps must be taken:

(i) In case of minor discrepancy in the name due to a spelling error i.e. {(Mohan and Mohun) or (R. Mathur and Ramesh Mathur)}, an attested photocopy of an affidavit to the effect that both the names belong to the same person, shall be furnished.
(ii) In case of a major discrepancy related to the addition or deletion of part/parts of any name i.e. {(Ram Kumar and Ram Kumar Singh) or (Ajay Kumar and Ajay Kumar Singh Rana)}, an attested photocopy of Gazette Notification to the effect that the person has changed her/his name henceforth, shall be furnished.
(iii) In case of certificates issued by the State of Maharashtra, the name of the candidate is sometimes inclusive of the name of the father and/or name of the mother. In such cases, an attested photocopy of an affidavit to the effect that the names on both certificates belong to the same person, shall be furnished.

(c) The applicant availing age relaxation on the basis of her/his service in a Government Department/Public Sector Undertaking/Lok Sabha Secretariat will be required to furnish a certificate from her/his Employer on the Office letter head in respect of length of her/his service as on the last date for receipt of applications.

(d) The physically challenged persons shall submit the „Disability Certificate‟ strictly in the prescribed format (ANNEXURE). All entries must be duly filled up and the extent of disability clearly indicated. Otherwise, these candidates will not be allowed any benefits available to persons with disabilities.

(e) The ex-Servicemen should submit a copy of Discharge Book and the Armed Forces Personnel in the last year of Service in the Force shall submit a copy of the permission to seek re-employment.

(f) In the event of any information furnished by a candidate being found false or incorrect at any stage or not satisfying the eligibility conditions according to the requirements mentioned in this advertisement, her/his candidature/appointment is liable to be cancelled/terminated. The applicants are also cautioned that they may be permanently debarred from the examinations conducted/to be conducted by Lok Sabha Secretariat and/or their appointment may be cancelled, in case they fraudulently claim eligibility for a post.

IV. CASTE/CATEGORY CERTIFICATE(S):

Candidates claiming to be SC/ST/OBC must ensure the following conditions:

(i) The candidate’s Caste; the Act/Order under which the Caste is recognized as SC/ST/OBC; and the village/town the candidate is ordinarily a resident of, should be clearly indicated in the certificate.
(ii) The name of the candidate and her/his father in the certificate should be strictly as recorded in the Matriculation Certificate.
(iii) The caste and/or sub caste name should be strictly according to the Central List as is available on the website i.e. socialjustice.nic.in in respect of SCs, on tribal.nic.in in respect of STs and on ncbc.nic.in in respect of OBCs.
(iv) In case, SC/ST/OBC certificate is issued to a candidate residing in a State on the basis of the relevant certificate issued to her/his parent in another State, relevant migration clause should have been duly filled up.
(v) The certificate should have been signed by a competent authority not less than Tehsildar with legible stamp of her/his designation either in Hindi or in English.
(vi) The certificate must contain a round seal of the concerned issuing authority/office. In case of a round seal in regional language, another seal in either English or Hindi may also be affixed.
(vii) In case of an OBC certificate issued prior to 08.08.2014, a fresh certificate incorporating therein the relevant provisions of DoPT OM Nos. 36033/3/2004 - Estt. (Res.) dated 14.10.2008 and 36033/1/2013- Estt.(Res.) dated 27.05.2013 pertaining to Creamy Layer must be got prepared inter-alia satisfying the above mentioned conditions at (i) to (vi).
(viii) If the SC/ST/OBC/Disability certificate is/are in language other than English/Hindi, the candidates should submit a attested translated version of the same either in English or Hindi.
The candidates submitting caste/category certificate not satisfying the above conditions will be treated as 'General' category candidates and will not be provided any benefit available to the caste/category mentioned/claimed by her/him in the application.

In case, in the OBC certificate furnished by a candidate it has been mentioned that the caste the candidate belongs to is recognized as OBC under the Resolution(s) of the concerned State Government, however, actually the said caste is also recognized as OBC under various Resolutions of the Ministry of Welfare, Government of India, the candidate may submit revised certificate up to 180 days after 09.08.2017. However, the result for any stage(s) of examination declared prior to the submission of the revised certificate will not be revised by JRC.

V. CUT OFF PERCENTAGE OF MARKS:

The minimum cut off percentages of marks in Written Test in an examination is 50%, 45% and 40% for vacancies in General, OBC and SC/ST categories, respectively. Theabove percentages are relaxable by 5% in case of physically challenged persons of relevant disability and category for appointment against the vacancies reserved for physically challenged persons. (The physically challenged persons with Locomotor Disability and Hearing

Impairment will not be entitled to avail this relaxation in marks.) These percentages are the minimum marks which a candidate is required to secure in each paper/ component and aggregate in the written test. However, the cut-off percentages may be raised in individual component/paper/aggregate to arrive at reasonable vacancy : candidate ratio.

VI. The candidates will be required to qualify the Typing Test at the requisite speed.

 Not more than 5% errors will be allowed for passing the Typing Test. The test will be held on computer. For Hindi Typing, the candidates will be provided the facility of typing on ‘Inscript’ or ‘Remington’ keyboard. It is clarified that in both the keyboards (while operating), the vowel signs (matras) will be typed only after typing the consonant as in ‘fnu = n + f + u’ and also after typing the full consonant (not after half consonant) as in ‘n`f’V = n + ` + ’ + V + f ’.

VII. CENTRE(S) OF EXAMINATION:

 In case sufficient number of eligible candidates prefer to take examination in Chennai, Kolkata and Mumbai, Joint Recruitment Cell may hold the preliminary examination in these cities also besides Delhi. In the eventuality of insufficient number of eligible candidates for the post opting for taking examination in any of these three cities, those candidates will have to take examination in Delhi. The choice once made by the applicant with regard to the examination centre shall be final. No request for change in date, time and centre of examination will be accepted under any circumstances. Joint Recruitment Cell will, however, have final discretion in the allotment of examination centre to the applicants on the basis of number of applications received for a particular centre.

VIII. NUMBER OF VACANCIES:

The number of vacancies specified in respect of the post is subject to change.

IX. In case, the number of eligible candidates for the said post are less than or equal to the approved norm for calling the candidates for the Main Examination, the Preliminary Examination may not be held.

X. RIGHT TO CANCEL THE PROGRAMME OF RECRUITMENT:

Mere submission of application online by the applicants shall not give them the right to be called for Selection Process. Lok Sabha Secretariat reserves the right to cancel the programme of recruitment to the said post at any stage without any prior notice and without assigning any reason therefor. Lok Sabha Secretariat also reserves the right to modify the advertisement or part of it at any stage, if considered necessary.

XI. Canvassing in any manner would lead to summary rejection of application and candidature at any stage.

XII. The Hon'ble High Court of Delhi at New Delhi will have the jurisdiction to settle and decide all matters and disputes related to this recruitment process.

SCRUTINY OF APPLICATIONS AND VERIFICATION OF DOCUMENTS:

The scrutiny of applications with regard to eligibility criteria i.e. age, educational qualification, category, etc., will be undertaken by Lok Sabha Secretariat at the time of preparation of final result. At that time, if any claim made by a candidate in the application is not found substantiated or supported by relevant documents/ certificates then her/his candidature will be cancelled and the decision of Lok Sabha Secretariat in this regard shall be final. Lok Sabha Secretariat does not enter into correspondence with the candidates who are found ineligible and also those who are not shortlisted/selected for subsequent stages of examination/ appointment.
The candidates who are declared qualified for appointment shall be required to produce original documents/certificates/mark-sheets/degree(s), etc. before the appointment for verification of the correctness of the attested copies submitted by her/him and also to verify the correctness of the information furnished by her/him in the application for the said post. In case any discrepancy is found, her/his candidature shall be cancelled.
Further, the candidates must be in sound bodily health. The appointment of the selected candidates will be subject to being found medically fit as per the prescribed procedure in this regard. They will be required to undergo medical examination, prior to being appointed after due selection.

HOW TO APPLY ONLINE

I. Eligible applicants are required to apply online only under the link Recruitment → Apply Online. No other means/mode of application will be accepted. Before applying, the applicants are advised to thoroughly go through this advertisement to ensure that she/he fulfils all the eligibility conditions for the post. The admission of candidates at all stages of examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions.

II. The applicant shall upload her/his latest photograph and signature in the space provided in the application form. Before uploading, the applicants are advised to go through the guidelines in this regard.
III. Applicants are required to have a valid and active personal email id and Mobile Number for filling in the application. Applicant will receive registration confirmation by SMS/email. Therefore, the candidates are advised to furnish correct Mobile number/e-mail address to receive the registration confirmation. This email id and Mobile Number should be valid for the duration of this recruitment process. The Lok Sabha Secretariat may send intimation regarding date of examination, etc., through the email id/Mobile Number filled in the application. Under no circumstances, the candidate should share/mention email id/Mobile Number to or of any other person.
In case the applicant does not have a valid and active email id, she/he shall create the same before applying online.
IV. Candidate may click ‘Submit’ box after „Declaration‟ in the online application format only after ensuring that the information filled in by her/him is in order and no correction is required. After submission of application, no correction/modification in the information filled in the application shall be allowed. No request in this regard shall be entertained under any circumstances. The Lok Sabha Secretariat will not be responsible for any consequences arising out of furnishing of incorrect and incomplete details in the application form or omission to provide the required details in the application form.
V. An applicant should submit only one application. If due to unavoidable circumstances any applicant submits multiple applications, her/his only that application with higher „Registration Number‟ shall be entertained by Lok Sabha Secretariat. Her/his earlier application(s) shall stand rejected. She/he must ensure that her/his application with higher registration number is complete in all respects.
VI. The online application can be filled up from 10.07.2017_to 09.08.2017 till 05:00 p.m. after which the link will be disabled. To avoid last days' rush, which may result in thwarting attempt to fill online application due to heavy traffic on server, candidates are advised to submit application well before the last date. No request for extension of time after the last prescribed date shall be entertained.
VII. All particulars (except Residential Address) furnished by the applicant will be treated as final and no change will be allowed therein later on.
VIII. Incomplete applications shall be summarily rejected.

GUIDELINES FOR SCANNING THE PHOTOGRAPH & SIGNATURE

Before applying online a candidate will be required to have a scanned (digital) image of his/her photograph and signature as per the specifications given below.

(I) PHOTOGRAPH IMAGE :

_ Photograph must be a recent passport size colour picture.
_ The picture should be in colour, against a light-coloured, preferably with white background.
_ Look straight at the camera with a relaxed face
_ If the picture is taken on a sunny day, have the sun behind you, or place yourself in the shade, so that you are not squinting and there are no harsh shadows
_ If you have to use flash, ensure there‟s no “red-eye”
_ If you wear glasses make sure that there are no reflections and your eyes can be clearly seen.
_ Photograph with cap, hat and dark glasses are not acceptable. Though religious head wear is allowed but it must not cover your face.
_ Resolution 200 x 230 pixels (preferred)
_ Size of file should be between 20KB–50KB
_ Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 50KB. If the size of the file is more than 50 KB, then adjust the settings of the scanner such as the DPI resolution, no. of colours etc., during the process of scanning.

(II) SIGNATURE IMAGE:

_ The applicant has to sign on white paper with black ball point pen.
_ The signature must be signed only by the applicant and not by any other person on his/her behalf.
_ The signature will be used by Lok Sabha Secretariat to put on the Admission Letter/Card and wherever required for examination purposes.
_ Resolution 140 x 60 pixels (preferred)
_ Size of file should be between 10KB – 20KB
_ Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 20KB

(III) SCANNING THE PHOTOGRAPH & SIGNATURE:

_ Set the scanner resolution to a minimum of 200 dpi (dots per inch)
_ Set Color to True Color
_ File Size as specified above
_ Crop the image in the scanner to the edge of the photograph/signature, then use the upload editor to crop the image to the final size (as specified above).
_ The image file should be in JPG or JPEG format. An example file name is : image01.jpg or image01.jpeg Image dimensions can be checked by listing the folder files or moving the mouse over the file image icon.

Candidates using MS Windows/MS Office can easily obtain photo and signature in .jpeg format not exceeding 50KB & 20KB respectively by using MS Paint or MS Office Picture Manager. Scanned photograph and signature in any format can be saved in .jpg format by using „Save As‟ option in the File menu and size can be reduced below 50KB (photograph) & 20KB (signature) by using crop and then resize option [Please see points (I) & (II) above for the pixel size] in the „Image‟ menu. Similar options are available in other photo editor also.
If the file size and format are not as prescribed, an error message will be displayed.
The candidate should fill in all the details correctly and also upload photograph and signature as prescribed.

(IV) PROCEDURE FOR UPLOADING THE PHOTOGRAPH AND SIGNATURE

(i) There will be two separate links for uploading Photograph and Signature
(ii) Click on the respective link “Upload Photograph / Signature”
(iii) Browse & Select the location where the Scanned Photo / Signature file has been saved.
(iv) Select the file by clicking on it
(v) Click the „Upload‟ button
Your Online Application will not be registered/submitted unless you upload your photo and signature as specified.

Note :

(a) In case the face in the photograph or signature is unclear the candidate‟s application will be rejected.
(b) In case the photograph or signature is unclear, the candidate may edit his/her application and re upload his/her photograph or signature.

9. In case of any difficulty experienced in submission of On-line application, candidates may contact the helpline telephone no. 011-23034521.

10. Candidates are advised to take a printout of their system generated online application form after registering. But the printout of the application should not be sent to the Lok Sabha Secretariat.

11. The information in respect of provisionally eligible candidates as well as the rejected applications will be uploaded on the website http://www.loksabha.nic.in under the link Recruitment → Advertisements and Notices.

12. The provisionally eligible candidates shall be issued e-Admission/Call Letter only. No hard copy of Admission/Call Letter shall be sent by post. The provisionally eligible candidates will have to download their respective e-Admission/Call Letter from the website http://www.loksabha.nic.in under the link Recruitment → Online Admission/Call Letter. The candidates must bring the same [affixing their self-attested/attested recent passport size photograph (in original) which they have uploaded in their On-Line Application at the time of applying to the LSS] and hand over to the invigilator on the day of examination(s), without which no candidate shall be admitted for the examination. The candidate must carry a valid photo ID proof such as PAN Card/Passport/Voter ID Card/Driving Licence/Aadhaar Card/Permanent Identity Card issued by a University/College or any other valid proof of identification having a latest photograph of the candidate, at the time of examination.
The applicants/candidates will be solely responsible for receiving, downloading and printing of Call Letters/Admit Cards for selection process/any other information. Joint Recruitment Cell will not be responsible for any loss of email sent due to invalid/wrong email ID provided by the candidate or delivery of email to spam/bulk mail folder or for delay/non receipt of information if the candidate fails to access her/his mail/LSS website in time.

13. The applicants are advised to keep on visiting the website http://www.loksabha.nic.in Recruitment from time to time for information relating to:
(i) Cancellation or addendum or corrigendum to this Advertisement, if any;
(ii) Dates of Preliminary and Main Examinations (about 30 days prior to the date of Examination); and
(iii) Result of the Examination.

14. Mobiles, other electronic gadgets and wireless equipments are banned within the premises of examination centres. Their possession by a candidate in switched on or switched off mode is considered by the Lok Sabha Secretariat as a manipulative practice and will invite cancellation of her/his candidature and/or debarment from the examinations conducted by Lok Sabha Secretariat.

Click Here for Official Notification

Click Here for Apply Online

Courtesy : Parliament of India
 

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

Nainital Bank - Recruitment of Clerks - 2017

Nainital Bank - Recruitment of Clerks - 2017

Notification:

The Nainital Bank Limited intends to recruit Clerks in the Bank in the pay Scale of Rs. 11765-655/3-13730-815/3-16175-980/4-20095-1145/7-28110-2120/1-30230-1310/1-31540.

Eligible candidates are advised to apply only online from July 04, 2017 to July 24, 2017(inclusive of both days) through link http://www.nainitalbank.co.in/english/recruitment.aspx appearing under recruitment page  in Bank’s website, after carefully going through the instructions contained in this advertisement. No other means/ mode of application will be accepted.

Age Limit

Candidate should be in the age group of 18-27 years as on 31.05.2017i.e. candidates should not have been born earlier than 01.06.1990 and not later than 31.05.1999. Both dates inclusive.

Upper age limit is relaxable by -03- years for candidates belonging to SC/ST category only i.e. SC/ST candidates should not have been born earlier than 01.06.1987 and not later than 31.05.1999. Both dates inclusive.

Candidate should be in the age group of 18-27 years, as on 31.05.2017. Upper age limit is relaxable by -03- years for candidates belonging to SC/ST category only.

Eligibility Criteria:

Educational Qualification (eligibility as on 31 May, 2017)

*Candidate should have passed Graduation/ on May 31, 2017) Post Graduation with minimum 45% marks in either of Graduation/ Post Graduation examination in the streams of Arts/ Science/ Commerce/ Agriculture/ Management/ Others from a recognized university/ Institute.

Knowledge of Computer Operations is essential.

Important Dates:

Commencement of on-line registration             04.07.2017
of application

Closure of registration of application             24.07.2017

On-line Fee Payment                                   04.07.2017 to 24.07.2017

How To Apply:

Candidates can apply online only from July 04, 2017 to July 24, 2017and no other mode of application will be accepted. The detailed Guidelines / Procedure are as follows:

A. Online Application Registration.
B. Online Payment of Fees.
C. Photograph and Signature Upload.

Call Letters:

Candidates will have to visit the Bank’s website www.nainitalbank.co.in for downloading call letters for online examination. Intimation for downloading call letter will also be sent through email/SMS. Once the candidate clicks the relevant link, he/she can access the window for call letter download. The candidate is required to use (i) Registration Number/ Roll Number, (ii) Password/ Date of Birth for downloading the call letter. Candidate needs to affix recent recognizable photograph on the call letter preferably the same as provided during registration and appear at the examination centre with (i) Call Letter (ii) Photo Identity Proof as stipulated in this advertisement and also specified in the call letter and (iii) Photocopy of the same Photo Identity Proof as brought in original.

At the Examination Centre:

Candidates are required to bring the following to the examination centre:

Print out of Call Letter (which has to be downloaded by the candidate using the registration number and password obtained at the time of registration of online application). A recent passport size photograph of the candidate has to be affixed on the Call Letter.

You are required to carry with you your currently valid photo identity proof (original) and photocopy thereof, failing which you will not be allowed to appear for the test. Without the above mentioned documents the candidate will not be admitted for the examination. Candidates reporting late: i.e. after the reporting time specified on the call letter for Examination will not be permitted to take the examination. The reporting time mentioned on the call letter is prior to the Start time of the test. Though the duration of the examination is2 hours15 Minutes (135 minutes),candidates may be required to be at the venue for about 4 hours including the time required for completion of various formalities such as verification and collection of various requisite documents, logging in, giving of instructions, etc.

Click Here for Official Notification

Click Here to Apply Online

Courtesy : Nainital Bank Limited

 

 

 

Jobs: 
General: 

(Paper) IBPS RRB CWE (IV) Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam Paper - 2015 "held on 12th September 2015" (Computer Knowledge)

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(Paper) IBPS RRB CWE (IV) Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam Paper - 2015 "held on 12th September 2015" (Computer Knowledge)

Memory Based

161. Verification of login name and password is known is

(a) Alienation
(b) Authentication
(c) Configuration
(d) Logging in
(e) Certification

162. Which of the following is not a computer programming language?

(a) ALGOL
(b) Microsoft
(c) COBOL
(d) C + +
(e) C #

163. Unwanted repetitious messages such as bulk

(a) Calibri
(b) Post
(c) Trash
(d) Spam
(e) Courier

164. URL is a reference to a resource on the internet, URL stand for

(a) Universal Resource List
(b) Uniform Resource Located
(c) Uniform Resource List
(d) Uniform Resource Locator
(e) Universal Resource List

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(Paper) IBPS RRB CWE (IV) Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam Paper - 2015 "held on 12th September 2015" (General Awareness)

https://bankexamportal.com/sites/default/files/IBPS-RRB-LOGO.jpeg

(Paper) IBPS RRB CWE (IV) Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam Paper - 2015 "held on 12th September 2015" (General Awareness)

Memory Based

121. India's first defense industrial bank will be set-up in which of the following states?

a. Haryana
b. Punjab
c. Jammu-kashmir
d. bihar
e. Kerala

122. Which bank of India has introduced the fastest personal loan disbursal system?

a. ICICI Bank
b. HDFC Bank
c. Kotak Mahindra Bank
d. State Bank of India
e. Yes Bank

123. Recently 'Godavari Maha Pushkaram'was celebrated. This festival occur once every

a. 100 years
b. 72 years
c. 12 years
d. 144 years
e. 25 years

124. The Application Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA) is related to which of the following sector?

a. Insurance sector
b. Export-Import
c. Other than those given as options
d. Capital market
e. Commodity market

125. Coins up to ………….. paise are called as 'small coins.

a. 50
b. both 25 and 10
c. 10
d. 1
e. 25

126. The 18th Asian Games will be held in which of the following countries?

a. Thailand
b. Bangladesh
c. China
d. Indonesia
e. India

127. Best Original Screenplay in a foreign language award at the recent Madri8d International Film Festival was awarded to which of the following films?

a. Buddha in a Traffic Jam
b. The good Road c. Hopscotch
d. The High Sun
e. My Mermaid, My Lore lest

128. The first Olive Oil Refinery in Indian, has been set-up in which of the following States?

a. Telangana
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Rajasthan
d. Gujarat
e. Uttarakhand

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(Paper) IBPS RRB CWE (IV) Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam Paper - 2015 "held on 12th September 2015" (Numerical Ability)

https://bankexamportal.com/sites/default/files/IBPS-RRB-LOGO.jpeg

(Paper) IBPS RRB CWE (IV) Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam Paper - 2015 "held on 12th September 2015" (Numerical Ability)

41. Train A travellig at 63 km/h can cross a 199.5 m long platform in 21 seconds. How much time would Train A taketo completely cross (from the moment they meet) Train B, 257 m long and travelling at 54 km/h in opposite direction in which Train A is travelling?

(a) 16 sec
(b) 18 sec
(c) 12 Sec
(d) 13.07 sec
(e) 10 sec

Directions (42-46): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions?

42. 8 9 17 26 90 ?

(a) 121
(b) 109
(c) 115
(d) 125
(e) 111

43. 96 48 72 180 ? 2835

(a) 570
(b) 630
(c) 575
(d) 612
(e) 484

44. 13 14 30 93 ? 1885

(a) 364
(b) 388
(c) 382
(d) 356
(e) 376

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(Paper) IBPS RRB CWE (IV) Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam Paper - 2015 "held on 12th September 2015" (Reasoning)

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(Paper) IBPS RRB CWE (IV) Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam Paper - 2015 "held on 12th September 2015"

Memory Based

Directions (1-5): In the questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer

(a) If either conclusion I or II is true
(b) If only conclusion I is true
(c) It both conclusion I and II are true
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) If only conclusion II is true

1. Statements

Conclusions

I. C > D
II. H < S

2. Statements

Conclusions

I. E = P
II. P > E

3. Statements

S > J = T < O; T < P

Conclusions

I. S > O
II. P < S

4. Statements

Conclusions

I. R < A
II. V > G

5. Statements

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IBPS Exam Online Complaints System

IBPS Online Complaints System

Welcome to the Candidate Grievance Redressal System

In order to streamline your requests and better serve you, we utilize a Online complaint system. Every complaint registered is assigned a unique complaint number which you can use to track the status. A valid email address is required to submit a complaint.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Candidates are requested to read the FAQs before lodging the Complaints

Register new Complaint

SBI makes Aadhaar mandatory for all Exams from July 2017

SBI makes Aadhaar mandatory for all Exams from July 2017

CENTRAL RECRUITMENT & PROMOTION DEPARTMENT

State Bank of India (SBI) propose to introduce the scheme of verifying the identity of candidates applying for all its recruitment processes through Aadhaar cards w.e.f. 1st July 2017.

Ascertaining the identities of candidates is critical for fair conduct of recruitment process and prevention of impersonation. The provisions of Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 (the Aadhaar Act 2016) and the Regulations under the Act have come into effect on various dates as published in the Official Gazette. Pursuant to Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act 2016, SBI proposes to verify the identity of the candidates through Aadhaar number in all its recruitment processes w.e.f. 1st July 2017. Accordingly, while applying for appointment in SBI it will be mandatory to furnish the 12 digit Aadhaar No. (or 28 digit Aadhaar enrolment ID in case the Aadhaar has been applied for, but not received). The Aadhaar number will be used at discretion of SBI to match the biometric information taken through biometric attendance system at the time of the examination/ interview/ medical fitness test/ reporting for joining with that stored on the Aadhaar server to establish the identity of the candidate.

The above provision is applicable in all States and Union Territories of India except the States of Jammu & Kashmir, Meghalaya and Assam. Applicants from these States may use voter ID, passport, driving license or any other valid document, as may be specified by SBI in the relevant recruitment notice, as proof of identity for future recruitments in SBI.

Courtesy : SBI

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
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Bank/Organisation: 
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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams - 18 June 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams - 18 June 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- Which of the following statement is/are correct about making Aadhar mandatory for filling income tax & Pan card

I. It will Greatly help India’s GDP.
II. For this government had added section 139AA to income tax act, 1961 through finance act 2017.

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both
D. None


Ques- The fundamental duties are included in the constitution by which of the following act?

(a) 40th amendment act
(b) 44th amendment act
(c) 43rd amendment act
(d) 42nd amendment act


IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

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