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(Syllabus) LIC : Assistant Administrative Officer Examination


Life Insurance Corporation

Recruitment For the Post of Assistant Administrative Officer, LIC India

:: Syllabus ::



On-line Test Syllabus:

On-line test will be of objective type, multiple choices of 120 minutes (2 hrs) duration comprising of the following:

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Current Affairs

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Institute of Banking Personnel Selection
Common Written Examination :2011 (Current Affairs)

Nilekani Panel Submits Report on Cash Transfer Scheme

UIDAI Chairman Nandan Nilekani submitted the report of the committee headed by him regarding direct transfer of subsidy to the beneficiaries, to the Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee. The interim report of the task force on direct transfer of subsidies on Kerosene, LPG and Fertilisers suggested creation of a Core Subsidy Management System (CSMS) for maintaining information on entitlements and subsidies for all beneficiaries. The CSMS, as indicated in the report, will provide increased transparency in the movement of goods, level of stocks, prediction and aggregation of demand and identification of beneficiaries.

Nilekani Panel on Cash Transfer Scheme

Highlights of Recommendations Nade in Interim Report Submitted by the Panel

LPG:

  • Phase I: Cap consumption of subsidised cylinders (Policy decision of government and not a specific task force recommendation).
  • Phase II: Consumers buy LPG at market price, with direct transfer of subsidy to their bank account.
  • Phase III: Identify and target segmented customers for subsidy.

Fertiliser:

  • Phase I: Information visibility up to the retailer level. Phase II: Direct transfer of subsidy to the retailer.
  • Phase III: Farmers buy fertilisers at market price, with direct transfer of subsidy to their bank account.

Kerosene:

Phase I: Cash transfer through state governments.

Phase II: Cash transfer to accounts of beneficiaries.

Report recommends creation of centralised software for the product and service transfer. The poors have been recommended to get the share of subsidies directly through bank branches, Automated Teller Machines (ATMs), business correspondents, the internet or mobile banking channels. Pilot projects for such direct cash transfers have been recommended to begin in seven places— Tamil Nadu, Assam, Maharashtra, Haryana, Delhi Rajasthan and Orissa—from October 2011.

Country’s Exports Register 45.7% Growth in Q 1 Of 2011-12:

Country’s exports in June 2011 rose for the third month in a row by growing 46.4 per cent to $ 29.2 billion, driven by high-end products such as engineering goods. Imports increased 42.4 per cent to $ 36.2 billion. About one-third of this import bill was accounted for by petroleum, oil and lubricant. This resulted trade deficit at $ 7.7 billion.

During the first quarter of 2011-12 (i.e. April- June 2011), exports rose 45×7% to $ 79 billion. With imports growing 36×2% to $ 110.6 billion, the trade deficit stood at $ 7.7 billion.

Export sector’s good performance was well supported by various industries like engineering, oil, electronics, drugs, chemicals and readymade garments. The main components in the import bill on the other hand were oil, gold and silver, machinery, electronics and pearls/ precious stones. Oil import bill has been a major head in country’s total import bill. During the first quarter of 2011-12, oil imports rose 18 per cent to $ 30.5 billion and it is projected to be around $ 120-130 billion during the entire financial year 2011-12. Machinery imports valued at $ 9 billion showing 49 per cent growth. With 71 per cent growth electronics imports went to $ 7.6 billion.

It may be recalled that during last year 2010-11, merchandise exports had grown 37.55% to $ 246 billion compared with 2009-10 while imports were up 21.6 per cent at $ 350 billion, resulting trade deficit at $ 104 billion.

The government has set a target of $ 500 billion worth of exports by 2014 and doubling of India’s share of global exports by 2020.

RBI Asks Government To Improve Expenditure Quality:

RBI in its quarterly review of Monetary and Credit Policy 2011-12 pointed out the risk of high fiscal deficit pushing up inflation and consequently it suggested central government to improve the quality of expenditure to contain demand in the economy.

Trade Figures (Ap11)
Exports–The Break-up Imports–The Break-up
Sector Value ($ b) (% growth) Sector Value ($ b) (% growth)
Engineering 23 94 Oil 30.5 18
Oil 14 60 Pearls, gems 7.5 10
Gems &jewellery 9.25 19 Gold & silver 17.7 200
Readymade garments 3.6 34 Machinery 9 49
Manmade yarn & fabrics 1.2 30 Electronics 7.6 71
Cotton yarn & fabrics 1.5 9.1 Chemicals 4.5 19
Electronics 2.8 69 Coal 3.7 27
Drugs & pharma 3.08 25 Iron & steel 2.7 -10
Chemicals 2.9 52 Transport equipment 2.5 34
Plastics & linoleum 1.5 50 Ores & scrap 3.4 37
Leather 1.1 26 Vegetable Oil 2 55
Mica, coal & ores 2.7 270 Resins & plastics 1.8 0
Marine products 0.6 27 Fertilisers 1.28 -28

As per RBI’s viewpoint, the large fiscal deficit has been a key source of demand pressures, therefore, fiscal consolidation is critical to maintain inflationary pressure in the economy. The government can support RBI’s efforts to achieve low and stable inflation by re-allocating resources to finance supply bottle-necks in food and infrastructure.

Outstanding Liabilities and Gross Fiscal Deficit

(as % of GDP)

Year Outstanding Liabilities

Gross Fiscal Deficit

2009-10 53.7 5.4
2010-11 49.9 4.7
2011-12 (BE) 48.5 4.6

Despite the hike in administered prices of fuel products, RBI still finds an element of suppressed inflation in the economy. As per RBI’s estimates, about 1 per cent of gross domestic product is still to be financed and becomes a major portion of this subsidy Bill. This subsidy Bill will result in inflationary pressure which, according to RBI is a major concern on the part of the government.

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Numerical Ability

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Numerical Ability

1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?
1. 25
2. 26
3. 27
4. 30 5. 26
Answer: (3)

2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same rational number. The required rational number is:
1. 1/8
2. 4/9
3. 2/8
4. 3/8
5. 3/8
Answer: (5)

3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as remainders respectively.
1. 36
2. 37
3. 42
4. 29
5. 47
Answer: (2)

4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayesh’s age in years?
1. 29
2. 30
3. 24
4. 25
5. 28
Answer: (3)

5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 5. Their total value is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paise coins is:
1. Rs. 28
2. Rs. 36
3. Rs. 49
4. Rs. 72
5. Rs. 50
Answer: (1)

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Mental Ability

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Mental Ability

Verbal

1. If Step IV reads ‘to restrict the use of air conditioners”, which of the following will definitely be the input?
(1)use to of the air conditioners restrict
(2)restrict the to of air conditioners use
(3)the air conditioners of restrict use to
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security reasons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every batch. Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch.
Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by
Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on…

2. If pass-code for the third batch is ‘night succeed day and hard work-to for’, what will be the pass-code for the sixth batch?
(1)work hard to for succeed night and day
(2)hard work for and succeed night to day
(3)work hard for to succeed night and day
(4)hard work for to succeed night and day
(5) None of these

3. If ‘visit in zoo should the time day’ is the pass-code for the fifth batch, zoo we the should visit day time in’ will be the pass-code for which of following batches?
(1) II
(2) IV
(3) I
(4) III
(5) VI

4. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code ‘to fast rush avoid not do very run’. What would have been the pass-code for him had he visited the museum in the second bitch?
(1)rush do not avoid to run very fast
(2)rush not do-avoid to run very
(3)avoid rush not do to run very fast
(4) Date inadequate
(5) None of these

5. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code ‘length the day equal of an night are’. However, he could not visit the museum in the second batch as he was a little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new pass-code issued to him?
(1)and of are night the length equal day
(2)and are of night the length equal day
(3)and of are night the equal day length
(4 )an d of are th e night len gth day equal
(5) None of these

 

6. If ass-code for the second batch is ‘to confidence hard you leads work and success’, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?(1)leads success to you hard confidence and work
(2)leads success you to hard confidence and work
(3)leads success to you hard confidence work and
(4)leads to success you hard confidence and work
(5) None of these

 

7. If the pass-code issued for the last (sixth) batch is ‘and pencil by all boys used are pen’, what will be the passcode for the first batch?
(1)pencil and pen are used by all boys
(2)pen and pencil used are by all boys
(3)pen and pencil are used by all boys
(4)Pencil and pen are used all by boys
(5) None of these

 

8. If the pass-code for the sixth batch is ‘not go the way to of out do’, what will be the pass-code for the third batch?(1)Of do to out go not way the
(2)of to do out not go way the
(3)of to go out do not way the
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

 

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word rearrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement:
Input: Over you pat me crow easy to.
Steps: (I) pat over you crow easy to me
Steps: (II) crow pat over you to me easy
Steps: (III) over crow pal to me easy you
Steps: (IV) to over crow pat easy you me and so on.
As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate step for the given input in the following questions:

9. If Step II of an input is ‘ge su but he for game free’, what would be step VI?
(1)a for but fine he game su
(2)for free ge game su he but
(3)free ge for but game su he
(4)he ge su but game free for
(5) None of these

10. If step IV of an input is ‘blue navy kit lime se get‘, which of the following would definitely be the input?
(1)navy get lime out kit se blue
(2)lime navy get kit se blue out
(3)lime blue navy kit get out se
(4)kit blue navy se get out lime
(5) None of these

11. Input: but calm free are so not eat. Which of the following will be the 3rd step for this input?
(1)so free but calm eat are not
(2)but calm are free not so eat
(3)are but calm free not eat so
(4)but so free eat are not calm
(5) None of these

 

12. If step V of an input is ‘put down col in as mach sa’ , what would be the 8th step?(1)down in put much sa as col
(2)in put down cot much sa as
(3)much in put down sa as col
(4)col put down as much sa in
(5) None of these

 

13. Input: rim bye eat klin fe to low Which of the following steps would be ‘fe low rim to bye klin eat’?
(1) VIth
(2) vth
(3) IVth
(4) IIIrd
(5) None of these

Directions: A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:

Input: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
Step I: Put for he watch hand pocket them.
Step II: Put he for watch pocket hand them.
Step III: Put hand pocket watch for he them.
Step IV: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
And so on goes the machine. Study the logic and answer the questions that follow:

14. If Step III of a given input be ‘fly sky birds my su fur say’, what is the seventh step of the input?
(1)fly sky birds my su fur say
(2)fly birds sky my fur su say
(3)fly fur su my birds sky say
(4)fly su fur my sky birds say
(5) None of these

15. If Step VII of an input is ‘slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi’, what is step V of that input?
(1)slow dig hak pat dhurwa ran vi
(2)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(3)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(4)slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - English Language

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - English Language


Direction: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested. One of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out appropriate word in each case.

The Reserve Bank has taken a bold (46) in the development of money, the government securities and the foreign exchange markets in (47) of their critical role in overall growth and development of the economy and (48) in the transmission mechanism of monetary policy. The approach has been one of simultaneous movements on several fronts, graduated and callibrated, with an (49) on institutional and infrastructural development and  improvements in market microstructure. The pace of reforms was contingent (50) putting in place appropriate systems and procedures, technologies and market practices. Initiatives taken by the Reserve Bank have brought about a (51) transformation of various segments of the financial market. These developments by improving the depth and liquidity in domestic financial markets have (52) to better price discovery of interest rates and exchange rates, which, in turn, hae led to greater (53) in resource allocation in the economy. The increase in size and depth of financial market has (54) the way for (55) use of indirect instruments.

1. (1) interest
(2) participation
(3) step
(4) role
(5) None of these

2. (1) point
(2) tune
(3) view
(4) pursuit
(5) None of these

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Computer Knowledge

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Computer Knowledge

1. Buffer is device/storage area–
1. Where data are temporarily stored
2. Where data is permanently stored
3. Where data error occurs
4. All of the above 5. None of these

2. A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number of nodes is called–
1. Car Topology
2. Bus Topology
3. Truck Topology
4. All of the above
5. None of these

3. An error in a computer program is referred as–
1. Bug
2. Bit
3. Virus
4. All of the above
5. None of these

4. Circuits that provide a communication path between two or more devices of a digital computer system is–
1. Car
2. Bus
3. Truck
4. All of the above
5. None of these

5. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred as–
1. Byte
2. Octal
3. Bubble
4. All of the above
5. None of these

6. Cache memory is a–
1. Small buffer storage
2. Permanent storage
3. Main memory
4. All of the above
5. None of these

7. The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number system is referred as–
1. Number system
2. Base
3. Power
4. All of the above
5. None of these

8. Cache memory is–
1. Smaller and faster than main storage
2. Bigger and slower than main storage
3. Smaller but slower than main memory
4. Bigger and faster than main memory
5. None of these

9. Cache memory–
1. Is a Static RAM
2. Increases the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate
3. Both 1. and 2. are true .
4. Both 1. and 2. are false
5. None of these

 

10. Following is false for BASIC–1. Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
2. High-level interactive programming language
3. Works in time sharing environment
4. Low level object oriented language
5. None of these

 

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::REASONING ABILITY::

1. A school bus driver starts from the school, drives 2 km towards North, takes a left turn and drives for 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives for 8 km before taking a left turn again and driving for 5 km. The driver finally takes a leftturn and drives 1 km before stopping. How far and towards which direction should the driver drive to reach the school again?

(a) 3 km towards North
(b) 7 km towards East
(c) 6 km towards South
(d) 6 km towards West
(e) 5 km towards North

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 2-3) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:

A, B, C, D, E and F live on different floors in the same building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it , number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6. A lives on an even numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which D and F live. F lives on a floor above D’s floor. D does not live on floor number 2. B does not live on an odd numbered floor. C does not live on any of the floors below F’s floor. E does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below the floor on which B lives.

2. Who amongst the following live on the floors exactly between D and F ?

(a) E, B
(b) C, B
(c) E, C
(d) A, E
(e) B, A

3. On which of the following floors does B live?

(a) 6th
(b) 4th
(c) 2nd
(d) 5th
(e) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 4-5) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a five letter English word (which may or may not be a meaningful English word), there are two letters between L and P. S is not placed immediately next to L. There is only one letter between S and A. S is towards the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to E.

4. Which of the following is correct with respect to the word thus formed?

(a) E is at one of the extreme ends of the word.
(b) P is not placed immediately next to A.
(c) There are two letters between A and E in the word thus formed.
(d) P is placed second to the right of E.
(e) None is correct

5. Which of the following words will be formed based on the given conditions?

(a) SPAEL
(b) PEALS
(c) LEAPS
(d) SEPAL
(e) LAPSE

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : In each question below are two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. Give answer (e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow. (Qs. 6-7) : Statements : All gliders are parachutes. No parachute is an airplane. All airplanes are helicopters.

6. Conclusions : I. No glider is an airplane.
II.All gliders being helicopters is a possibility.

7. Conclusions : I. No helicopter is a glider.
II. All parachutes being helicopters is a possibility.

8. Statements : Some mails are chats.
All updates are chats.
Conclusions : I. All mails being updates is a possibility.
II. No update is a mail.

(Qs. 9-10) : Statement : No stone is metal. Some metals are papers. All papers are glass.

9. Conclusions : I. All stones being glass is a possibility.
II. No stone is a paper.

10. Conclusions : I. No glass is a metal.
II. Atleast some glass is metal.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digits numbers.) Input : sine 88 71 cos theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 Step I : cos sine 71 theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 88 Step II : delta cos sine theta 14 56 gamma 26 88 71 Step III : gamma delta cos sine theta 14 26 88 71 56 Step IV : sine gamma delta cos theta 14 88 71 56 26 Step V : theta sine gamma delta cos 88 71 56 26 14 and Step V is the last Step of the arrangement of the above input as the intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input, Input for the questions: Input : for 52 all 96 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46 (All the numbers given in the arrangement are two digit numbers)

11. Which word/number would be at the 6th position from the left in Step V ?

(a) 25
(b) stop
(c) jam
(d) all
(e) road

12. Which of the following would be the Step III ?

(a) hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46
(b) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut 38 stop 96 46 73 52
(c) hut for bus all jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 25
(d) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52
(e) None of these

13. Which word/number would be at 8th position from the right in Step IV?

(a) 15
(b) road
(c) hut
(d) jam
(e) stop

14. Which of the following would be Step VII ?

(a) stop road jam hut for bus all 15 96 73 5246 38 25
(b) road jam hut for bus all stop 15 25 38 46 52 73 96
(c) stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 52 46 38 25 15
(d) jam hut for bus all 25 road stop 15 96 73 52 46 38
(e) There will be no such step as the arrangement gets established at Step VI

15. Which step number would be the following output ? bus all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73

(a) There will be no such step
(b) III
(c) II
(d) V
(e) VI

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Representatives from eight different Banks viz.. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them is from a different Bank viz. UCO Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Bank of Maharashtra, Canara Bank, Syndicate Bank, Punjab National Bank, Bank of India and Dena Bank. F sits second to right of the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of India is an immediate neighbour of the representative from Canara Bank. Two people sit between the representative of Bank of India and B, C and E are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of Maharashtra sits second to right of D. D is neither the representative of Canara Bank nor Bank of India. G and the representative from UCO Bank are immediate neighbours of each other. B is not the representative of UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce. H sits third to left of the representative from Dena Bank.  epresentative from Punjab National Bank sits second to left of the representative from Syndicate Bank.

16. Who amongst the following sit exactly between B and the representative from Bank of India?

(a) A and the representative from UCO Bank
(b) F and G
(c) H and the representative from Bank of Maharashtra
(d) H and G
(e) Representatives from Syndicate Bank and Oriental Bank of Commerce

17. Who amongst the following is the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce?

(a) A
(b) C
(c) H
(d) G
(e) D

18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) H - UCO Bank
(b) A - Canara Bank
(c) D - Bank of Maharashtra
(d) E -Syndicate Bank
(e) F - Punjab National Bank

19. Who amongst the following sits second to left of B ?

(a) C
(b) H
(c) The representative from Canara Bank
(d) The representative from Punjab National Bank
(e) G

20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

(a) B is the representative from Bank of Maharashtra.
(b) C sits second to right of H.
(c) The representative from Dena Bank sits to the immediate left of the representative from UCO Bank.
(d) A sits second to right of the representative from Bank of India.
(e) The representatives from Bank of Maharashtra and Syndicate Bank are immediate neighbours of each other.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

21. How many daughters does W have?

I. B and D are sisters of M.
II. M's father T is husband of W.
Ill. Out of the three children which T has, only one is a boy.

(a) Only I and III
(b) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(c) Only II & III are sufficient to answer the question
(d) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
(e) Only I and II

22. Who among A, B, C, D, E and F each having a different height, is the tallest?

I. B is taller than A but shorter than E.
II. Only two of them are shorter than C.
III. D is taller than only F.

(a) Only I and II
(b) Only I and III
(c) Only II and III
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) All I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question

23. How is 'go' written in a code language?

I. 'now or never again' is written as 'tom ka na sa' in that code language.
II. 'you come again now' is written as 'ja ka ta sa' in that code language.
III. 'again go now or never' is written as 'na ho ka sa tom' in that code language.

(a) Only I and III
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and II
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) None of these

24. Towards which direction is village J from village W ?

I. Village R is to the west of Village W and to the north of Village T.
II. Village Z is to the east of Village J and to the south of Village T.
III. Village M is to the northeast of Village J and north of Village Z.

(a) Only III
(b) Only II and III
(c) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(d) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
(e) None of these

25. On which day of the week starting from Monday did Suresh visit Chennai ?

l. Suresh took leave on Wednesday.
II. Suresh visited Chennai the day after his mother's visit to his house
III. Suresh's mother visited Suresh's house neither on Monday nor on Thursday

(a) Only II and III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only I and III
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.

1. Women’s rights around the world are an important indicator to understand global well-being. A major global women’s rights treaty was ratified by the majority of the world’s nations a few decades ago. ...... These ranges from the cultural, political to the economic. For example, women often work more than men, yet are paid less; gender discrimination affects girls and women throughout their lifetime; and women and girls are often the ones that suffer the most poverty. Many may think that women’s rights are only an issue in countries where  eligion is law. Or even worse, some may think this is no longer an issue at all. But reading the report about the United Nation’s Women’s Treaty and how an increasing number of countries are lodging reservations will show otherwise. Gender equality furthers the cause of child survival and development for all of society, so the importance of women’s rights and gender equality should not be underestimated.

(a) This treaty tackled and solved a number of issues related to women.
(b) Why is it then, that moment still face a number of problems on the domestic front?
(c) Thus, the woman today is ten times more empowered as compared to a woman say about a decade ago.
(d) Women’s activists across nations have implored the respective governments to take this seriously.
(e) Yet, despite many successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in all areas of life.

2. Research has shown that air pollutants from fossil fuel use make clouds reflect more of the sun’s rays back into space. This leads to an effect known as global dimming whereby less heat and energy reaches the earth. ............ However, it is believed that global dimming caused the droughts in certain parts of the world where millions died, because the northern hemisphere oceans were not warm enough to allow rain formation. Global dimming is also hiding the true power of global warming. By cleaning up global dimming-causing pollutants without talking greenhouse gas emissions, rapid warming has been observed, and various human health and ecological disasters have resulted, as witnessed during the European heat wave in 2003, which saw thousands of people die.

(a) This though, does not bring any relief in the problems associated with climate change.
(b) This phenomenon thus is part of the climate change problem.
(c) Scientists thus believe that this phenomenon goes hand in hand with global warming
(d) At first, it sounds like an ironic savior to climate change problems
(e) The answer to all our problems with respect to climate change is definitely here

3. Poverty is the state for the majority of the world’s people and nations. Why is this? .......... Have they been lazy, made poor decisions, and been solely responsible for their own plight? What about their governments? Have they pursued policies that actually harm successful development? Such causes of poverty and inequality are no doubt real. But deeper and more global causes of poverty are often less discussed. Behind the increasing interconnectedness promised by globalization are global decisions, policies, and practices. These are typically influenced, driven, or formulated by the rich and powerful. These can be leaders of rich countries or other global actors such as multinational corporations, institutions, and influential people. In the face of such enormous external influence, the governments of poor nations and their people are often powerless. As a result, in the global context, a few get wealthy while the majority struggles.

(a) Is it enough to blame poor people for their own predicament?
(b) What is the government doing about it?
(c) Are the wealthy ones in the nation even aware of this?
(d) The government has already taken measures to eradicate the same.
(e) The huge gap between the rich and the poor in the nation is now narrowing

4. Analysts and industry pundits forecast that notebook market, which has been growing faster than the desktop market for the past three years, is expected to overtake the desktop market by the year 2011-12. A fall in prices, large deals from governments and institutions, and demand from consumers and sectors such as education are expected to help the notebook numbers. According to research agencies, the year 2010-11 saw notebook volumes rise, and for the first time a million plus notebooks were sold in India in a single quarter. The market has grown nearly four times for notebooks. The demand is driven by all sectors and a very buoyant consumer market, which prefers mobile computers. Entry-level notebook prices have dropped below the Rs. 25,000 mark; this has helped break the ice with new customers. This drop in notebook prices has been helped by the drop in the prices of the building blocks that make a notebook. It’s simple. With notebook volumes growing, the prices of the components are also bound to come down. .........

(a) All this has resulted in a noticeable change in a number of large government tenders for notebooks; which were traditionally for desktops.
(b) Because of this the government still prefers desktops to notebooks and has passed tenders for the same.
(c) Thereby making them more expensive.
(d) Thus the forecast for the coming year states that desktops will be the preferred technology choice only for consumers who cannot afford the exorbitantly priced notebook.
(e) Thus notebooks will become obsolete after a decade or so.

5. Next to China, India is the most populated country in the world. ...... Particularly, rush to technical and higher education has increased as the scope for arts and science has become lesser and lesser due to lack of reforms and up gradation in the course structure and materials according to the developments of the world. Also, qualification in higher education gives added advantage to facesuccessfully competition in the job market.

(a) Keeping this in mind, the government has provided concessions in the admission fees for the arts and science streams in the country.
(b) Naturally there is too much rush and competition in every field.
(c) Despite this the rush to higher education is lesser.
(d) This population increase, though, has not kept pace with the knowledge expansion around the world.
(e) In the next decade it will become the most populous.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Rearrange the following seven sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) in the proper sequence to from a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(1) To elaborate briefly on these characteristics and dimensions that the author is talking about – NRMs are general tests intended to be used to classify students by percentile for measuring either aptitude or proficiency for admissions into or placement within a program.
(2) Contrastingly, the CRM, such as a locally produced achievement test, measures absolute performance that is compared only with the learning objective, hence a perfect score is theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the pre-specified material, or conversely, all students may fail the test.
(3) In most of these books, the authors classify a measurement strategy as either norm-referenced (NRM) or criterionreferenced (CRM).
(4) Another author points out how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is the relative performance of the students compared with that of all the others resulting in, ideally, a bell curve distribution.
(5) Numerous books on constructing and using language tests have been written by various authors.
(6) CRMs, on the other hand, are more specific, achievement or diagnostic tests intended to be used for motivating students by measuring to what percent they have achieved mastery of the thought or learned material.
(7) One of the authors clearly delineates the differences of these two types by focusing on the categories of “test characteristics” and “logistical dimensions.”

6. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 7
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

7. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

8. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
(e) 5

9. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 6

10. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 7
(d) 4
(e) 5

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick up two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. The ability of a woman to do well does not .......... on whether it is a man’s world or not, because everyone has his/her own opportunities.

(1) trust
(2) depend
(3) reckon
(4) live
(5) rest
(6) believe

(a) (4) and (5)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (1) and (6)
(d) (2) and (5)
(e) (3) and (4)

12. Drugs worth ` 3 lakhs were ......... from the apartment by the police.

(1) manufactured
(2) ruptured
(3) seized
(4) confiscated
(5) bought
(6) compared

(a) (1) and (4)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (3) and (5)
(d) (5) and (6)
(e) (3) and (4)

13. An organization .......... to the mission of road safety has prepared an action plan for reducing accidents and related injuries and fatalities.

(1) specified
(2) inaugurated
(3) committed
(4) kicked off
(5) succumbed
(6) dedicated

(a) (3) and (6)
(b) (1) and (5)
(c) (3) and (5)
(d) (4) and (6)
(e) (1) and (3)

14. A man reportedly .......... two passports with the same photograph, but under different names was arrested by the commissioner’s Task Force.

(1) possessing
(2) examining
(3) surrendering
(4) mastering
(5) holding
(6) fixating

(a) (2) and (3)
(b) (3) and (6)
(c) (1) and (5)
(d) (1) and (4)
(e) (4) and (5)

15. The Hollywood star and the Bollywood heroine are being ......... as the next big onscreen couple.

(1) labeled
(2) explained
(3) worshiped
(4) touted
(5) exclaimed
(6) shouted

(a) (2) and (4)
(b) (1) and (3)
(c) (2) and (6)
(d) (1) and (4)
(e) (3) and (4)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Below is given a single word with options to its meaning in different contexts. You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the word when the context is changed. Select the correct alterative from (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) which represents all those synonyms.

16. MASK

(1) Cover
(2) Hide
(3) Conceal
(4) Disguise

(a) Only (1)
(b) Both (2) and (4)
(c) Only (2), (3) and (4)
(d) Only (1), (2) and (3)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

17. REGULAR

(1) Present
(2) Common
(3) Indiscriminate
(4) Uniform

(a) Only (4)
(b) Both (2) and (4)
(c) Both (1) and (3)
(d) Only (2), (3) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

18. LABOUR

(1) Expedite
(2) To move faster
(3) Controlled
(4) Toil

(a) Only (4)
(b) Both (1) and (3)
(c) Both (2), (3) and (4)
(d) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

19. MEAN

(1) Imply
(2) Understand
(3) Average
(4) Characterized by malice

(a) Only (3)
(b) Both (1) and (4)
(c) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(d) Only (1), (2) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

20. ALONE

(1) Exclusively
(2) Morose
(3) Solitary
(4) Human being

(a) Only (1)
(b) Both (1) and (3)
(c) Both (2) and (3)
(d) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-35): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. As the country embarks on planning (121) the 12th Plan (2012- 17) period, a key question mark (122) hangs over the process is on the energy requirements. Growth is energy hungry, and the aspirations of growing at 9- 0% will (123) huge demands on the energy  resources of the country. In this energy Jigsaw, renewable energy will (124) like never before in the 12th Plan and the (125). By the rule of the thumb, India will (126) about 100 gigawatts (Gw)-100,000 megawatts-of capacity addition in the next five years. Encouraging trends on energy efficiency and sustained (127) by some parts of the government the Bureau of Energy Efficiency in particular needs to be complimented for this-have led to substantially lesser energy intensity of economic growth. However, even the tendered demand numbers are (128) to be below 80Gw. As against this need the coal supply from domestic sources is unlikely to support more than 25 Gw equivalent capacity. Imported coal can add some more, but at a much (129) cost. Gas-based electricity generation is unlikely to contribute anything substantial in view of the unprecedented gas supply challenges. Nuclear will be  (130) in the foreseeable future. Between imported coal, gas, large hydro and nuclear, no more than 15-20Gw equivalent can be (131) to be added in the five-year time block. (132) (133) this, capacity addition in the renewable energy based power generation has touched about 3Gw a year. In the coming five years, the overall capacity addition in the electricity grid (134) renewable energy is likely to range between 20Gw and 25Gw. Additionally, over and above the grid-based capacity, off-grid electricity applications are reaching remote places and (135) lives where grid-based electricity supply has miserably failed.

21. (a) On
(b) Against
(c) For
(d) Onwards
(e) At

22. (a) Where
(b) That
(c) Inside
(d) Always
(e) Who

23. (a) Replace
(b) Forward
(c) Subject
(d) Place
(e) Demand

24. (a) Light
(b) Pass
(c) Publish
(d) Feature
(e) Find

25. (a) Earlier
(b) Likewise
(c) Publicity
(d) Next
(e) After

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::GENERAL AWARENESS::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::GENERAL AWARENESS::

1. Which of the following countries recently conferred its. Highest State Honour on Late Mrs. Indira Gandhi for her contribution in its 'Liberation war'?

(a) South Sudan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Bhutan
(d) Slovakin
(e) Croatia

2. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Banks cannot accept demand and time deposite from public.
(b) Banks can accept only demand deposits from public.
(c) Banks can accept only time deposits from public.
(d) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public.
(e) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government.

3. Interest payable on saving bank accounts is

(a) not regulated by RBI.
(b) regulated by State Governments
(c) regulated by Central Government
(d) regulated by RBI
(e) regulated by Finance minister.

4. Which of the following is the correct statement?

(a) State bank of India is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(b) A nationalized bank is the sole authority to Issue and manage currency in India
(c) A cooperative bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(d) RBI is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(e) None of these

5. The Home Minister of India was recently on a visit to Bangladesh where both the countries signed a Coordinated Border Management Plan (CBMP). What are major points of this agreement?

(A) The plan will help in resolving long pending border dispute between both the nations.
(B) The head count of the people living in enclaves on the border will be completed within next six month's time
(C) India assured that no BSF Jawan will open fire on the people crossing the borders unless there is an attack on them.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) and (C)
(e) Both (A) and (C)

6. Which of the following is/are commodity/ies on which subsidy is given to farmers/ poor in India?

(A) Fertiliser
(B) Kerosene
(C) LPG

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Only (A) & (C)
(e) All (A), (B) & (C)

7. The President of India was recently on a visit to South Korea and Mongolia. During her visit some agreements were signed by both the countries. Which of the following was a common area on which India signed agreements with South Korea and Mongolia both?

(a) Peaceful use of Nuclear energy
(b) Export of edible oil to South Korea and Mongolia
(c) Providing technical help to become self sufficient in production of food grains
(d) Willingness of both the countries to support India's bid to have permanent seat in UN Security Council
(e) To hold Olympic games in 2022 In New Delhi jointly with South Korea and Mongolia

8. Iran recently threatened that it will stop supply of oil to India if the payment Issue is NOT sorted out quickly. What is the problem in payment to Iran?

(A) The oil supplied by Iran is of substandard quality. Hence India suspended the supply and stopped the payment.
(B) Indian banks have stopped transfer of money to Iran as UN has imposed sanctions on Iran.
(C) India is bound to purchase oil only from OPEC members. Iran has abandoned the membership of OPEC, which has created a problem in payments.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) and (C)
(e) None of these

9. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of

(a) Both Savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
(b) Savings bank accounts and current accounts
(c) Both Savings bank accounts and loan accounts
(d) Both Savings bank accounts and cash accounts only
(e) Both Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts

10. Yingluck Shinawatra has won recently held elections to become first woman Prime Minister of

(a) Myanmar.
(b) South Korea
(c) North Korea
(d) Thailand
(e) China

11. Which of the following is correct statement?

(a) Normally no interest is paid on current deposit accounts
(b) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts
(c) The rate of interest on current account and savings account are the same
(d) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank
(e) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits.

12. The Lokayukta of which of the following States had submitted a report on illegal mining of Iron are in the State?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Orissa
(e) None of these

13. The usual deposit accounts of banks are

(a) Current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
(b) Current accounts, Post office savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(c) Loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(d) Current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(e) Current bill accounts and term deposit accounts

14. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are

(a) repayable after an agreed period.
(b) repayable on demand
(c) not repayable
(d) repayable after death of depositors
(e) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank's choice.

15. The countries these days are most worried about the currency war. They are arguing about whose actions harmed the world economy the most. What are the views of the rich countries, particularly USA, In this regard?

(A) They feel that it was China who was unwilling to allow the Yuan to rise.
(B) They feel that it was India who had snatched jobs in most of the European countries and USA. This made the situation more grim.
(C) Some countries feel that it wan Japan who allowed swapping of its currency with other nations and created a grim situation in world market.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) & (C)
(e) None of these

16. Which of the following is NOT a Millennium Goal set by the UNO?

(a) Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
(b) Reduce child mortality
(c) Ensure environmental sustainability
(d) Combat terrorism and bring people in main stream of society
(e) Achieve universal primary education

17. Financial inclusion means provision of

(a) financial services namely payments, remittances, savings, loans and Insurance at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(b) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(c) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(d) food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(e) education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.

18. Which of the following Statements containing results of India's recent Census is NOT correct?

(a) Kerala has about 94% literacy, the highest in India.
(b) The Sex Ratio in India is 940
(c) Male literacy is lower than female literacy in seven most developed states
(d) Uttar Pradesh is the most populous State in India
(e) The population of India has increased by 181 million during the decade 2001-2011

19. Which of the following is known as cross selling by Banks?

(A) Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder
(B) Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor
(C) Issuance of Cash against Cheque presented by a third party

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Both (A) and (C)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

20. Angela Merkel was recently in India to receive Jawaharlal Nehru Award for international Understanding for the year 2009. What has been her contribution in the international politics which made her the 'Best Choice' for the award?

(A) She played a major role in restarting negotiations between Russia and USA on 'START'.
(B) She initiated 'Health Care Reforms' in Germany and solved problems related to future energy development.'
(C) She played a crucial role in negotiation of the Treaty of Lisbon' and Berlin declaration.

(a) Only (B) and (C)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Only (A) and (C)
(e) None of these

21. Japan won the women's Football World Cup 2011 by defeating

(a) England
(b) Germany
(c) Argentina
(d) USA
(e) China

22. Which of the following states became the first state in the country to launch RBI's e-payment system for commercial tax payers?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Gujarat
(d) Maharashtra
(e) Karnataka

23. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid. It is called

(a) payment of the cheque
(b) drawing of the cheque
(c) cancelling of the cheque
(d) dishonour of the cheque
(e) taking of the cheque.

24. Mortgage is a

(a) security on movable property for a loan given by a bank.
(b) security on immovable property for a loan given by a bank.
(c) concession on immovable property for a loan given by a bank.
(d) facility on immovable property for a loan given by a bank.
(e) security on immovable property for a deposit received by a bank.

25. The world's highest 'Rail Bridge' is being constructed in the State of Jammu & Kashmir. This bridge will be on which of the following rivers?

(a) Jhelum
(b) Chenab
(c) Indus
(d) Ravi
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

IBPS logo

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. 11449 x √6241 - (54)2 =√?+(74)2

(a) 384
(b) 3721
(c) 381
(d) 3638
(e) None of these

2. (3√8 + √8) x (8√8 + 7√8) - 98 = ?

(a) 2√8
(b) 8√8
(c) 382
(d) 386
(e) None of these

3. 3463 x 295 – 18611 = ? + 5883

(a) 997091
(b) 997071
(c) 997090
(d) 999070
(e) None of these

4.

(a) 1/3
(b) 0.75
(c) 3/2
(d) 1/2
(e) None of these

5. (23.1)2 + (48.6)2 – (39.8)2 = ? + 1147.69

(a) (13.6)2
(b) 12.8
(c) 163.84 (d) 12.8
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

6. 3 4663 + 349= ?¸ 21.003

(a) 7600
(b) 7650
(c) 7860
(d) 7560
(e) 7680

7. 39.897% of 4331 + 58.779% of 5003 = ?

(a) 4300
(b) 4500
(c) 4700
(d) 4900
(e) 5100

8. 59.88 ¸ 12.21 ´ 6.35 = ?

(a) 10
(b) 50
(c) 30
(d) 70
(e) 90

9. 43931.03 ¸ 2111.02 ´ 401.04 = ?

(a) 8800
(b) 7600
(c) 7400
(d) 9000
(e) 8300

10. 6354 ´34.993 = ?

(a) 3000
(b) 2800
(c) 2500
(d) 3300
(e) 2600

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11–15) : In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

11. 9050 5675 3478 2147 1418 1077 950

(a) 3478
(b) 1418
(c) 5675
(d) 2147
(e) 1077

12. 7 12 40 222 1742 17390 208608

(a) 7
(b) 12
(c) 40
(d) 1742
(e) 208608

13. 6 91 584 2935 11756 35277 70558

(a) 91
(b) 70558
(c) 584
(d) 2935
(e) 35277

14. 1 4 25 256 3125 46656 823543

(a) 3125
(b) 823543
(c) 46656
(d) 25
(e) 256

15. 8424 4212 2106 1051 526.5 263.25 131.625

(a) 131.625
(b) 1051
(c) 4212
(d) 8424
(e) 263.25

16. Six-eleventh of a number is equal to twenty-two percent of second number. Second number is equal to the one-fourth of third number. The value of the third number is 2400. What is the 45% of first number?

(a) 109.8
(b) 111.7
(c) 117.6
(d) 123.4
(e) None of these

17. An HR Company employes 4800 people, out of which 45 percent are males and 60 percent of the males are either 25 years or older. How many males are employed in that HR Company who are younger than 25 years ?

(a) 2640
(b) 2160
(c) 1296
(d) 864
(e) None of these

18. The average marks in English subject of a class of 24 students is 56. If the marks of three students were misread as 44, 45 and 61 of the actual marks 48, 59 and 67 respectively, then what would be the correct average?

(a) 56.5
(b) 59
(c) 57.5
(d) 58
(e) None of these

19. In a test, a candidate secured 468 marks out of maximum marks 'A'. If the maximum marks 'A' were converted to 700 marks, he would have secured 336 marks. What were the maximum marks of the test?

(a) 775
(b) 875
(c) 975
(d) 1075
(e) None of these

20. The simple interest accrued on an amount of ` 22,500 at the end of four years is ` 10,800. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate at the end of two years ?

(a) 16,908
(b) 5,724
(c) 28,224
(d) 8,586
(e) None of these

21. Rubina could get equal number of ` 55, ` 85 and ` 105 tickets for a movie. She spents ` 2940 for all the tickets. How many of each did she buy?

(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

22. Ramola's monthly income is three times Ravina's monthly income. Ravina's monthly income is fifteen percent more than Ruchira's monthly income. Ruchira's monthly income is ` 32,000. What is Ramola's annual income ?

(a) 1,10,400
(b) 13,24,800
(c) 36,800
(d) 52,200
(e) None of these

23. In an Entrance Examination Ritu scored 56 percent marks, Smita scored 92 percent marks and Rina scored 634 marks. The maximum marks of the examination are 875. What are the average marks scored by all the three girls together?

(a) 1929
(b) 815
(c) 690
(d) 643
(e) None of these

24. The respective ratio between the present age of Manisha and Deepali is 5 : X. Manisha is 9 years younger than Parineeta. Parineeta's age after 9 years will be 33 years. The difference between Deepali's and Manisha's age is same as the present age of Parineeta. What will come in place of X?

(a) 23
(b) 39
(c) 15
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

25. Seema bought 20 pens, 8 packets of wax colours, 6 calculators and 7 pencil boxes. The price of one pen is ` 7, one packet of wax colour is ` 22, one calculator is ` 175 and one pencil box is ` 14 more than the combined price of one pen and one packet of wax colours. How much amount did Seema pay to the shopkeeper?

(a) 1,491
(b) 1,725
(c) 1,667
(d) 1,527
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

1. To change selected text to all capital letters, click the change case button, then click

(a) Uppercase
(b) Upper all
(c) Capslock
(d) Lock Upper
(e) Large Size

2. A person who uses his or her expertise to gain access to other people’s computers to get information illegally or do damage is a

(a) hacker
(b) analyst
(c) instant messenger
(d) programmer
(e) spammer

3. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be

(a) distributed
(b) free
(c) centralized
(d) open source
(e) None of these

4. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym

(a) CD
(b) DVD
(c) ROM
(d) RW
(e) ROS

5. The most common type of storage devices are

(a) persistent
(b) optical
(c) magnetic
(d) flash
(e) steel

6. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as

(a) an ASCII code
(b) a magnetic tape
(c) a bar code
(d) an OCR scanner
(e) None of these

7. A Web site’s main page is called its

(a) Homepage
(b) Browser page
(c) Search Page
(d) Bookmark
(e) None of these

8. Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of

(a) control
(b) output
(c) processing
(d) feedback
(e) input

9. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is

(a) dragging
(b) dropping
(c) right-clicking
(d) shift-clicking
(e) None of these

10. Computers use the ________ number system to store data and perform calculations.

(a) binary
(b) octal
(c) decimal
(d) hexadecimal
(e) None of these

11. ________ ‘are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.

(a) Phishing trips
(b) Computer viruses
(c) Spyware scams
(d) Viruses
(e) Phishing scams

12. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends?

(a) It is not unethical, because it is legal.
(b) It is unethical because the files are being given for free.
(c) Sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyright laws.
(d) It is not unethical because the files are being given for free.
(e) It is not unethical - anyone can access a computer

13. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?

(a) CTRL+A
(b) ALT+ F5
(c) SHIFT+A
(d) CTRL+K
(e) CTRL+H

14. To instruct Word to fit the width of a column to the contents of a table automatically, click the___button and then point to AutoFit Contents.

(a) Fit to Form
(b) Format
(c) Autosize
(d) Contents
(e) AutoFit

15. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is

(a) multiprogramming
(b) multitasking
(c) time-sharing
(d) multiprocessing
(e) None of these

16. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is

(a) memory-only
(b) write-only
(c) once-only
(d) run-only
(e) read-only

17. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called?

(a) RAM
(b) Floppy
(d) CD-ROM
(e) ROM

18. The default view in Excel is_____view.

(a) Work
(b) Auto
(c) Normal
(d) Roman
(e) None of these

19. What displays the contents of the active cell in Excel?

(a) Namebox
(b) Row Headings
(c) Formulabar
(d) Taskpane
(e) None of these

20. In Word you can force a page break

(a) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key
(b) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl + Enter
(c) by using the Insert/Section Break
(d) by changing the font size of your document
(e) None of these

21. Grouping and processing all of a firm’s transactions at one time is called

(a) a database management system
(b) batch processing
(c) a real-time system
(d) an on-line system
(e) None of these

22. Help menu is available at which button?

(a) End
(b) Start
(c) Turnoff
(d) Restart
(e) Reboot

23. You can keep your personal files/folders in

(a) My folder
(b) My Documents
(c) My Files
(d) My Text
(e) None of these

24. A central computer that holds collections programs for many PCs, workstations computers is a(n)

(a) supercomputer
(b) minicomputer
(c) laptop
(d) server
(e) None of these

25. When you save to this, your data will remain when the computer is turned off.

(a) RAM
(b) motherboard
(c) secondary storage device
(d) primary storage
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::REASONING ABILITY::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-4) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digits numbers)

Input : tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 bam
Step I : 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 bam alt
Step II : 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt bam
Step III : 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt bam high
Step IV : 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt bam high jar
Step V : 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt bam high jar rise
Step VI : 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt bam high jar rise tall
Step VII : 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt bam high jar rise tall wise
Step VII : is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input : 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two digits numbers)

1. Which step number is the following output ? 32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink

(a) Step V
(b) Step VI
(c) Step IV
(d) Step III
(e) There is no such step

2. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V ?

(a) 14
(b) 92
(c) feet
(d) best
(e) why

3. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between 'feet' and '32' as they appear in the last step of the output ?

(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) Seven

4. Which of the following represents the position of 'why' in the fourth step ?

(a) Eighth from the left
(b) Fifth from the right
(c) Sixth from the left
(d) Fifth from the left
(e) Seventh from the left

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 5-11) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
• B sits second to left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.
• D's daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H's husband.
• Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's other. Only one person sits between H's mother and E.
• Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

5. What is position of A with respect to his mother-in-law ?

(a) Immediate left
(b) Third to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Second to the right
(e) Fourth to the left

6. Who amongst the following is D's daughter ?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) E
(d) G
(e) H

7. What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild ?

(a) Immediate right
(b) Third to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Second to the left
(e) Fourth to the left

8. How many people sit between G and her uncle ?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) More than four

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(a) F
(b) C
(c) E
(d) H
(e) G

10. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement ?

(a) C is the cousin of E
(b) H and H's husband are immediate neighbours of each other
(c) No female is an immediate neighbour of C
(d) H sits third to left of her daughter
(e) B is the mother of H

11. Who sits to the immediate left of C ?

(a) F's grandmother
(b) G's son
(c) D's mother-in-law
(d) A
(e) G

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 12-18) : In each group of questions below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows;
Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows;
Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows;
Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows;
Give answer (e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

12. Statements : Some exams are tests. No exam is a question.
Conclusions : I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.

13. Statements : All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions : I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.

14. Statements : All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions : I. No energy is heat.
II. Some forces being heat is a possibility.

15. Statements : No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions : I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.

16. Statements : No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions : I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plastics.

17. Statements : Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics. No graphic is a picture.
Conclusions : I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.

18. Statements : All vacancies are jobs. Some jobs are occupations.
Conclusions : I. All vacancies are occupations.
II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19-21) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions :

Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only. A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

19. Which of the following could possibly be C's score ?

(a) 70
(b) 94
(c) 86
(d) 61
(e) 81

20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information ?

(a) D's score was definitely less than 60
(b) F scored the maximum marks
(c) Only two people scored more than C
(d) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks
(e) None is true

21. The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F's marks. Which of the following can be D's score ?

(a) 94
(b) 60
(c) 89
(d) 78
(e) 81

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 22-29) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions :

Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO bank, Syndicate bank, Canara bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)

• C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
• Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbour of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
• The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person  from Bank of Maharashtra.
• Q faces the person from Dena bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
• B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate bank.

22. Which of the following is true regarding A ?

(a) The person from UCO bank faces A
(b) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A
(c) A faces the person who sits second to right of R
(d) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(e) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line

23. Who is seated between R and the person from PNB ?

(a) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(b) P
(c) Q
(d) The person from Syndicate bank
(e) S

24. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?

(a) D and the person from PNB.
(b) The person from Indian bank and UCO bank.
(c) The person from Dena bank and P.
(d) The persons from Syndicate bank and D.
(e) C, Q

25. Who amongst the following faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra ?

(a) The person from Indian bank
(b) P
(c) R
(d) The person from Syndicate bank
(e) The person from Canara bank

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012" ::Quantitative Aptitude::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::Quantitative Aptitude::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 51-55) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. 4003 × 77 – 21015 = ? × 116

(a) 2477
(b) 2478
(c) 2467
(d) 2476
(e) None of these

(a) 143
(b) 72 7
(c) 134
(d) 70 7
(e) None of these

3. (4444 ÷ 40) + (645 ÷ 25) + (3991÷ 26) = ?

(a) 280.4
(b) 290.4
(c) 295.4
(d) 285.4
(e) None of these

(a) 37
(b) 33
(c) 34
(d) 28
(e) None of these

(a) 303.75
(b) 305.75
(c) 303
(d) 305
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 56-60) : What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note : You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

6. 8787 ÷ 343 × 50 = ?

(a) 250
(b) 140
(c) 180
(d) 100
(e) 280

7. 3 54821 × (303 ÷ 8) = (?)2

(a) 48
(b) 38
(c) 28
(d) 18
(e) 58

8.5/8 of 4011.33 +7/10 of 3411.22 = ?

(a) 4810
(b) 4980
(c) 4890
(d) 4930
(e) 4850

9. 23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?

(a) 6460
(b) 6420
(c) 6320
(d) 6630
(e) 6360

10. 335.01 × 244.99 ÷ 55 = ?

(a) 1490
(b) 1550
(c) 1420
(d) 1590
(e) 1400

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

11. 5531 5506 5425 5304 5135 4910 4621

(a) 5531
(b) 5425
(c) 4621
(d) 5135
(e) 5506

12. 6 7 9 13 26 37 69

(a) 7
(b) 26
(c) 69
(d) 37
(e) 9

13. 1 3 10 36 152 760 4632

(a) 3
(b) 36
(c) 4632
(d) 760
(e) 152

14. 7 4 5 9 20 51 160.5

(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 20
(e) 51

15. 157.5 45 15 6 3 2 1

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) 157.5
(e) 45

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Study the following graph and table carefully and answer the questions given below :

16. Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on both the days ?

(a) Vehicle A
(b) Vehicle C
(c) Vehicle F
(d) Vehicle B
(e) None of these

17. What was the difference between the speed of vehicle A on day 1 and the speed of vehicle C on the same day ?

(a) 7 km/hr.
(b) 12 km/hr.
(c) 11 km/hr.
(d) 8 km/hr.
(e) None of these

18. What was the speed of vehicle C on day 2 in terms of meters per second ?

(a) 15.3
(b) 12.8
(c) 11.5
(d) 13.8
(e) None of these

19. The distance travelled by vehicle F on day 2 was approximately what percent of the distance travelled by it on day 1 ?

(a) 80
(b) 65
(c) 85
(d) 95
(e) 90

20. What is the respective ratio between the speeds of vehicle D and vehicle E on day 2 ?

(a) 15:13
(b) 17:13
(c) 13:11
(d) 17:14
(e) None of these

21. An article was purchased for ` 78,350/-. Its price was marked up by 30%. It was sold at a discount of 20% on the marked up price. What was the profit percent on the cost price ?

(a) 4
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 3
(e) 6

22. When X is subtracted from the numbers 9,15 and 27, the remainders are in continued proportion. What is the value of X ?

(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) None of these

23. What is the difference between the simple and compound interest on ? ` 7,300/- at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. in 2 years ?

(a) ` 29.37/-
(b) ` 26.28/-
(c) ` 31.41/-
(d) ` 23.22/-
(e) ` 21.34/-

24. Sum of three consecutive numbers is 2262. What is 41 % of the highest number ?

(a) 301.51
(b) 303.14
(c) 308.73
(d) 306.35
(e) 309.55

25. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘THERAPY’ be arranged so that the vowels never come together ?

(a) 720
(b) 1440
(c) 5040
(d) 3600
(e) 4800

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012" ::General Awareness::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::General Awareness::


1. A money deposited at a bank that cannot be withdrawn for a preset fixed period of time is known as a __________ .

(a) Term deposit
(b) Checking Account
(c) Savings Bank Deposit
(d) No Frills Account
(e) Current Deposit

2. A worldwide financial messaging network which exchanges messages between banks and financial institutions is known as __________ .

(a) CHAPS
(b) SWIFT
(c) NEFT
(d) SFMS
(e) CHIPS

3. Which of the following Ministries along with Planning Commission of India has decided to set up a Corpus Fund of ` 500 crore, so that Tribals in Naxal-hit areas can be provided proper means of livelihood ?

(a) Ministry of Rural Development
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(e) Ministry of Finance

4. Which of the following was the issue over which India decided to vote against Sri Lanka in the meeting of one of the UN governed bodies/agencies ?

(a) Violations of human rights in Sri Lanka
(b) Allowing China to establish a military base in Indian ocean
(c) Issue of subsidy on agricultural products in the meeting of the WTO
(d) Allowing part of Sri Lanka to become an independent country governed by LTTE
(e) Sri Lanka's claim to become a permanent member of UN Security Council

5. The term 'Smart Money" refers to __________ .

(a) Foreign Currency
(b) Internet Banking
(c) US Dollars
(d) Travelers' cheques
(e) Credit Cards

6. Which one of the following is not a 'Money Market Instrument' ?

(a) Treasury Bills
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Certificate of Deposit
(d) Equity Shares
(e) None of these

7. Which one of the following is a retail banking product ?

(a) Home Loans
(b) Working capital finance
(c) Corporate term loans
(d) Infrastructure financing
(e) Export Credit

8. Which of the following Statements is TRUE about political situation in Mali, where a military coup burst out recently ?

(a) General elections were due there in March/April 2012 but did not take place
(b) The country was under the control of US army since last 18 months
(c) Army of the country was not happy as Amadou Toure was made President without elections for the next five years
(d) Coup broke out in Mali when Amadou Toure. the Military Chief got seriously injured in a bomb blast
(e) NATO and its associates had planned a coup there

9. In the summit of which of the following organizations/group of Nations it was decided that all members should enforce Budget Discipline ?

(a) G-8
(b) OPEC
(c) European Union
(d) SAARC
(e) G-20

10. As per newspaper reports, India is planning to use 'SEU' as fuel in its 700 MW nuclear reactors being developed in new plants. What is full form of 'SEU' as used here ?

(a) Safe Electrical Units
(b) Small Electrical Unite
(c) Slightly Enriched Uranium
(d) Sufficiently Enriched Units
(e) Safely Enriched Uranium

11. Technological Advancement in the recent times has given a new dimension to banks, mainly to which one of the following aspects ?

(a) New Age Financial Derivatives
(b) Service Delivery Mechanism
(c) Any Banking
(d) Any Type Banking
(e) Multilevel Marketing

12. When there is a difference between all receipts and expenditure of the Govt. of India, both capital and revenue, it is called __________ .

(a) Revenue Deficit
(b) Budgetary Deficit
(c) Zero Budgeting
(d) Trade Gap
(e) Balance of payment problem

13. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Reserve Bank of India ?

(a) Fiscal Policy Functions
(b) Exchange Control Functions
(c) Issuance, Exchange and destruction of currency notes
(d) Monetary Authority Functions
(e) Supervisory and Control Functions

14. Which of the following is NOT required for opening a bank account ?

(a) Identity Proof
(b) Address Proof
(c) Recent Photographs
(d) Domicile Certificate
(e) None of these

15. The Golden Jubilee of Afro-Asian Rural Development organization was organized in which of the following places in March 2012 ?

(a) Dhaka
(b) Tokyo
(c) Cairo
(d) Kuala Lampur
(e) New Delhi

16. What is the maximum deposit amount insured by DICGC ?

(a) ` 2,00,000 per depositor per bank
(b) ` 2,00,000 per depositor across all banks
(c) ` 1,00,000 per depositor per bank
(d) ` 1,00,000 per depositor across all banks
(e) None of these

17. The present Foreign Trade policy of India will continue till-

(a) December 2012
(b) March 2013
(c) March 2014
(d) June 2013
(e) December 2014

18. With reference to a cheque which of the following is the “drawee bank” ?

(a) The bank that collects the cheque
(b) The payee's bank
(c) The endorsee's bank
(d) The endorser's bank
(e) The bank upon which the cheque is drawn

19. In which of the following fund transfer mechanisms, can funds be moved from one bank to another and where the transaction is settled instantly without being bunched with any other transaction ?

(a) RTGS
(b) NEFT
(c) TT
(d) EFT
(e) MT

20. What was the reason owing to which Enrica Lexie, an Italian ship was detained by the Port Authorities in Kerala and was brought to Cochin port for inspection and search ?

(a) It was carrying objectionable material
(b) It was involved in sea piracy
(c) It was detained as the crew killed two Indian fishermen
(d) The ship started sailing without making payments of iron ore it loaded
(e) It was detained as it was dumping nuclear waste in deep sea

21. Which of the following agencies/organizations recently gave 'go-ahead' verdict to India's one of the most controversial project of inter linking rivers? (some of the rivers are international rivers)

(a) UN Food and Agriculture Organisation
(b) World Meteorological Organisation
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) Central Water Commission
(e) Supreme Court of India

22. Who among the following was the Captain of the Australian Team which played 4 Test matches against India in January 2012 and won all of them ?

(a) Ricky Ponting
(b) Michael Clarke
(c) Nathan Lyon
(d) Stuart Clark
(e) Andrew Symonds

23. The committee on review of National Small Saving Fund (NSSF) was headed by __________ .

(a) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(b) Mr. U. K. Sinha
(c) Dr. Y. V. Reddy
(d) Mrs.Shyamala Gopinath
(e) Dr. Usha Thorat

24. Banking Ombudsman Scheme is applicable to the business of __________ .

(a) All scheduled commercial banks excluding RRBs
(b) All scheduled commercial banks including RRBs
(c) Only Public Sector Banks
(d) All Banking Companies
(e) All scheduled banks except private banks

25. The 5th Asian tndoor Athletics Championship was organized in February 2012 in __________ .

(a) Bangladesh
(b) India
(c) Qatar
(d) China
(e) South Korea

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012" ::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::


1. __________ allows users to upload files to an online site so they can be viewed and edited from another location.

(a) General-purpose applications
(b) Microsoft Outlook
(c) Web-hosted technology
(d) Office Live
(e) None of these

2. What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins so that the text is centered vertically on the printed page ?

(a) Vertical justifying
(b) Vertical adjusting
(c) Dual centering
(d) Horizontal centering
(e) Vertical centering

3. Which of these is not a means of personal communication on the Internet ?

(a) chat
(b) instant messaging
(c) instanotes
(d) electronic mail
(e) None of these

4. What is the overall term for creating, editing, formatting, storing, retrieving, and printing a text document ?

(a) Word processing
(b) Spreadsheet design
(c) Web design
(d) Database management
(e) Presentation generation

5. Fourth-generation mobile technology provides enhanced capabilities allowing the transfer of both __________ data, including full-motion video, high-speed Internet access, and video conferencing.

(a) video data and information
(b) voice and nonvoice
(c) music and video
(d) video and audio
(e) None of these

6. __________ is a form of denial of service attack in which a hostile client repeatedly sends SYN packets to every port on the server using fake IP addresses.

(a) Cyborgaming crime
(b) Memory shaving
(c) Syn flooding
(d) Software piracy
(e) None of these

7. Which of these is a point-and-draw device ?

(a) mouse
(b) scanner
(c) printer
(d) CD-ROM
(e) Keyboard

8. The letter and number of the intersecting column and row is the __________.

(a) cell location
(b) cell position
(c) cell address
(d) cell coordinates
(e) cell contents

9. A set of rules for telling the computer what operations to perform is called a __________.

(a) procedural language
(b) structures
(c) natural language
(d) command language
(e) programming language

10. A detailed written description of the programming cycle and the program, along with the test results and a printout of the program is called __________.

(a) documentation
(b) output
(c) reporting
(d) spec sheets
(e) Directory

11. Forms that are used to organize business data into rows and columns are called __________.

(a) transaction sheets
(b) registers
(c) business forms
(d) sheet-spreads
(e) spreadsheets

12. In Power Point, the Header and Footer button can be found on the Insert tab in what group ?

(a) Illustrations group
(b) Object group
(c) Text group
(d) Tables group
(e) None of these

13. A(n)_________is a set of programs designed to manage the resources of a computer, including starting the computer, managing programs, managing memory, and coordinating tasks between input and output devices.

(a) application suite
(b) compiler
(c) input/output system
(d) interface
(e) operating system (OS)

14. A typical slide in a slide presentation would not include __________.

(a) photo images charts, and graphs
(b) graphs and clip art
(c) clip art and audio clips
(d) full-motion video
(e) content templates

15. The PC productivity tool that manipulates data organized in rows and columns is called a __________.

(a) spreadsheet
(b) word processing document
(c) presentation mechanism
(d) database record manager
(e) EDI creator

16. In the absence of parentheses, the order of operation is __________.

(a) Exponentiation, addition or subtraction, multiplication or division
(b) Addition or subtraction, multiplication or division, exponentiation
(c) Multiplication or division, exponentiation, addition or subtraction
(d) Exponentiation, multiplication or division, addition or subtraction
(e) Addition or subtraction, exponentiation, Multiplication or division

17. To find the Paste Special option, you use the Clipboard group on the _____ tab of PowerPoint.

(a) Design
(b) Slide Show
(c) Page Layout
(d) Insert
(e) Home

18. An _____ program is one that is ready to run and does not need to be altered in any way.

(a) interpreter
(b) high-level
(c) compiler
(d) COBOL
(e) executable

19. Usually downloaded into folders that hold temporary Internet files, _____ are written to your computer's hard disk by some of the Web sites you visit.

(a) anonymous files
(b) behaviour files
(c) banner ads
(d) large files
(e) cookies

20. What is the easiest way to change the phrase, revenues, profits, gross margin, to read revenues, profits, and gross margin ?

(a) Use the insert mode, position the cursor before the g gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(b) Use the insert mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(c) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(d) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(e) None of these

21. A program, either talk or music, that is made available in digital format tor automatic download over the Internet is called a __________.

(a) wiki
(b) broadcast
(c) vodcast
(d) blog
(e) podcast

22. Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the presentation as a thumbnail and is useful for rearranging slides ?

(a) Slide Sorter
(b) Slide Show
(c) Slide Master
(d) Notes Page
(e) Slide Design

23. Different components on the motherboard of a PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called ?

(a) Conductors
(b) Buses
(c) Connectors
(d) Consecutives
(e) None of these

24. What is the name given to those applications that combine text, sound, graphics, motion video, and/ or animation ?

(a) motionware
(b) anigraphics
(c) videoscapes
(d) multimedia
(e) maxomedia

25. A USB communication device that supports data encryption for secure wireless communication for notebook users is called a __________.

(a) USB wireless network adapter
(b) wireless switch
(c) wireless hub
(d) router
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

IBPS logo


(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate  them while answering some of the questions.

When times are hard, doomsayers are aplenty. The problem is that if you listen to them too carefully, you tend to overlook the most obvious signs of change. 2011 was a bad year. Can 2012 be any worse? Doomsday forecasts are the easiest to make these days. So let's try a contrarian's forecast instead. Let's start with the global economy. We have seen a steady flow of good news from the US. The employment situation seems to be improving rapidly and consumer sentiment, reflected in retail expenditures on discretionary items like electronics and clothes, has picked up. If these trends sustain, the US might post better growth numbers for 2012 than the 1.5-1.8 percent being forecast currently. Japan is likely to pull out of a recession in 2012 as postearthquake reconstruction efforts gather momentum and the fiscal stimulus announced in 2011 begins to pay off. The consensus estimate for growth in Japan is a respectable 2 per cent for 2012. The "hard-landing" scenario for China remains and will remain a myth. Growth might decelerate further from the 9 per cent that it expected to clock in 2011 but is unlikely to drop below 8-8.5 percent in 2012. Europe is certainly in a spot of trouble. It is perhaps already in recession and for 2012 it is likely to post mildly negative growth. The risk of implosion has dwindled over the last few months - peripheral economies like Greece, Italy and Spain have new governments in place and have made progress towards genuine economic reform. Even with some of these positive factors in place, we have to accept the fact that global growth in 2012 will be tepid. But there is a flipside to this. Softer growth means lower demand for commodities and this is likely to drive a correction in commodity prices. Lower commodity inflation will enable emerging market central banks to reverse their monetary stance. China, for instance, has already reversed its stance and has pared its reserve ratio twice. The RBI also seems poised for a reversal in its rate cycle as headline inflation seems well on its way to its target of 7 per cent for March 2012. That said, oil might be an exception to the general trend in commodities. Rising geopolitical tensions, particularly the continuing face-off between Iran and the US, might lead to a spurt in prices. It might make sense for our oil companies to hedge this risk instead of buying oil in the spot market. As inflation fears abate and emerging market central banks begin to cut rates, two things could happen Lower commodity inflation would mean lower interest rates and better credit availability. This could set a floor to growth and slowly reverse the business cycle within these economies. Second, as the fear of untamed, runaway inflation in these economies abates, the global investor's comfort levels with their markets will increase. Which of the emerging markets will outperform and who will get left behind? In an environment in which global growth is likely to be weak, economies like India that have a powerful domestic consumption dynamic should lead; those dependent on exports should, prima facie, fall behind. Specifically for India, a fall in the exchange rate could not have come at a better time. It will help Indian exporters gain market share even it global trade remains depressed. More importantly, it could lead to massive import substitution that favours domestic producers. Let's now focus on India and start with a caveat. It is important not to confuse a short-run cyclical dip with a permanent de-rating of its long-term structural potential. The arithmetic is simple. Our growth rate can be in the range of 7-10 per cent depending on policy action.  Ten per cent if we get everything right, 7 per cent if we get it all wrong. Which policies and reforms are critical to taking us to our 10 per cent potential ? In judging this, let's again be careful. Lets not go by the laundry list of reforms that FIIs like to wave: increase in foreign equity limits in foreign shareholding, greater voting rights tor institutional shareholders in banks, FDI in retail, etc. These can have an impact only at the margin. We need not bend over backwards to appease the FIIs through these reforms - they will invest in our markets when momentum picks up and will be the first to exit when the momentum flags, reforms or not. The reforms that we need are the ones that can actually raise out. Sustainable long-term growth rate. These have to come in areas like better targeting of subsidies, making projects in infrastructure viable so that they draw capital, raising the productivity of agriculture, improving healthcare and education, bringing the parallel economy under the tax net, implementing fundamental reforms in taxation like GST and the direct tax code and finally easing the myriad rules andregulations that make doing business in India such a nightmare. A number of these things do not require new legislation and can be done through executive order.

1. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage ?

(a) China's economic growth may decline in the year 2012 as compared to the year 2011
(b) The European economy is not doing very well
(c) Greece is on the verge of bringing about economic reforms
(d) In the year 2012, Japan may post a positive growth and thus pull out of recession
(e) All are true

2. Which of the following will possibly be a result of softer growth estimated for the year 2012 ?

(A) Prices of oil will not increase.
(B) Credit availability would be lesser.
(C) Commodity inflation would be lesser.

(a) Only (B)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (A) and (C)
(d) Only (C)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

3 Which of the following can be said about the present status of the US economy ?

(a) There is not much improvement in the economic scenario of the country from the year 2011
(b) The growth in the economy of the country, in the year 2012, would definitely be lesser than 1.8 percent
(c) The expenditure on clothes and electronic commodities, by consumers, is lesser than that in the year 2011
(d) There is a chance that in 2012 the economy would do better than what has been forecast
(e) The pace of change in the employment scenario of the country is very slow.

4. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?

(a) The Economic Disorder
(b) Indian Economy Versus The European Economy
(c) Global Trade
(d) The Current Economic Scenario
(e) Characteristics of The Indian Economy

5. According to the author, which of the following would characterize Indian growth scenario in 2012 ?

(A) Domestic producers will take a hit because of depressed global trade scenario.
(B) On account of its high domestic consumption, India will lead.
(C) Indian exporters will have a hard time in gaining market share.

(a) Only (B)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (B) and (C)
(d) Only (A)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

6. Why does the author not recommend taking up the reforms suggested by FII's ?

(a) These will bring about only minor growth
(b) The reforms suggested will have no effect on the economy ol our country, whereas will benefit the FII's significantly
(c) The previous such recommendations had backfired
(d) These reforms will be the sole reason for our country's economic downfall
(e) The reforms suggested by them are not to be trusted as they will not bring about any positive growth in India

7. Which of the following is TRUE as per the scenario presented in the passage?

(a) The highest growth rate that India can expect is 7 percent
(b) The fall in the exchange rate will prove beneficial to India
(c) Increased FDI in retail as suggested by Flls would benefit India tremendously
(d) The reforms suggested by the author require new legislation in India
(e) None is true

8. According to the author, which ot the following reform/s is/ are needed to ensure long term growth in India?

(A) Improving healthcare and educational facilities.
(B) Bringing about reforms in taxation.
(C) Improving agricultural productivity.

(a) Only (B)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (B) and (C)
(d) Only (A)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9-12) : Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. DRAW

(a) entice
(b) push
(c) decoy
(d) attract
(e) persuade

10. CLOCK

(a) watch
(b) achieve
(c) time
(d) second
(e) regulate

11. ABATE

(a) rise
(b) gear
(c) hurl
(d) lessen
(e) retreat

12. EMERGING

(a) raising
(b) developing
(c) noticeable
(d) conspicuous
(e) uproaring

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13-15) : Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. MYRIAD

(a) trivial
(b) difficult
(c) few
(d) effortless
(e) countless

14. TEPID

(a) moderate
(b) high
(c) warm
(d) irregular
(e) little

15. MYTH

(a) reality
(b) belief
(c) contrast
(d) idealism
(e) falsehood

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) If China is the world's factory, India has become the world's outsourcing centre - keeping in line with this image.
(B) But India's future depends crucially on its ability to compete fully in the Creative Economy - not just in tech and software, but across design and entrepreneurship; arts, culture and entertainment; and the knowledge-based professions of medicine, finance and law.
(C) While its creative assets outstrip those of other emerging competitors, India must address several challenges to increase its international competitiveness as the world is in the midst of a sweeping transformation.
(D) This transformation is evident in the fact that the world is moving from an industrial economy to a Creative Economy that generates wealth by harnessing intellectual labour, intangible goods and human creative capabilities.
(E) Its software industry is the world's second-largest, its tech outsourcing accounts for more than hall of the $ 300 billion global industry, according to a technology expert.
(F) If the meeting of world leaders at Davos is any indication, India is rapidly becoming an economic'rock star'.

16. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

17. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

18. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
(e) E

19. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) F
(b) B
(c) C
(d) A
(e) E

20. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25) : The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words denoted by A, B, C, D, E & F as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

21. ___________ before the clock struck 8 on Saturday night, India Gate was swamped with people wearing black teeshirts and holding candles.

(A) Minutes
(B) Time
(C) Later
(D) Quickly
(E) Since
(F) Seconds

(a) (B) and (E)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (A) and(F)
(d) (B) and (D)
(e) (C) and (E)

22. The Stales should take steps to the process of teachers" appointments as the Centre has already sanctioned six lakh posts.

(A) fasten
(B) move
(C) hasten
(D) speed
(E) early
(F) quicken

(a) (D) and (F)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (C) and (F)
(d) (D) and (E)
(e) (B) and (D)

23. A senior citizen's son threatened her every day and physically harmed her, forcing her to transfer her properly to him.

(A) superficially
(B) mistakenly
(C) allegedly
(D) miserably
(E) doubtfully
(F) purportedly

(a) (C) and (F)
(b) (A) and (E)
(c) (C) and (E)
(d) (D) and (F)
(e) (A) and (C)

24. Medical teachers said that the management had continued o remain to their cause leading to the stretching of their strike.

(A) unmoved
(B) lethargic
(C) unconcerned
(D) apathetic
(E) indifferent (F) bored

(a) (B) and (C)
(b) (C) and (F)
(c) (A) and (E)
(d) (A) and (D)
(e) (D) and (E)

25. The parents had approached the high court to the government order after their children, who passed UKG, were denied admission by a school.

(A) void
(B) quash
(C) annual
(D) stay
(E) lift
(F) post

(a) (A) and (D)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (C) and (E)
(d) (E) and (F)
(e) (C) and (D)

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "Computer Knowledge"

IBPS logo


IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  Computer Knowledge


181. Macros stored in the global macro sheet can be used

(1) in the current document only
(2) in any document
(3) can be used only with other macros of  the global macro sheet
(4) not consistent behaviour
(5) None of the above

182. About pasting from the clip board

(1) a part of the clip board contents can be pasted
(2) whole of the contents of clip board can be pasted
(3) sometimes (1) and sometimes (2)
(4) (1) and (2)
(5) None of the above

183. One of the following statements is not true for BUFFERS command

(1) Increasing numbers of BUFFERS can speed program execution, but only to a certain extent
(2) The more buffers that exist the more sectors can be stored in memory; hence fewer accesses of disk are necessary
(3) The BUFFERS command is used to establish the number of disk buffers set up by MS-DOS during booting
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

184. EPROM can be used for

(1) erasing the contents of ROM
(2) reconstructing the contents of ROM
(3) erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
(4) duplicating the ROM
(5) None of the above

185. Attributes can be defined for

(1) entity
(2) switch board
(3) macro
(4) pages
(5) None of the above

186. Where will we find the referential integrity command ?

(1) Tools
(2) View
(3) Format
(4) Table
(5) None of these

187. Anything that is typed in a worksheet appears

(1) in the formula bar only
(2) in the active cell only
(3) in both active cell and formula bar
(4) in the formula bar first and when we press ENTER it appears in active cell
(5) None of the above

188. Which bar is usually located below the Title Bar that provides categorised options ?

(1) Menu Bar (2) Status Bar
(3) Toolbar (4) Scroll Bar
(5) None of the above

189. A pixel is

(1) a computer program that draws picture
(2) a picture stored in the secondary memory
(3) the smallest resolvable part of a picture
(4) a virus
(5) None of the above

190. How many types of cell references are available in Excel ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 10
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-3


(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-3


ENGLISH LANGUAGE :

Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

Laxmi Vilas Bank


Laxmi Vilas Bank


About :

The Lakshmi Vilas Bank Limited, a well-known and technology driven private sector bank, with over 9 decades of distinguished and dedicated service, is now embarking on a growth journey with strengths and new capabilities.

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-2


(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-2


REASONING ABILITY :

This is a test to see how well you can think. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions.

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-1


(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-1


ENGLISH LANGUAGE :

This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through questions on grammar & vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, sentence completion, comprehension of a pas- 
sage etc.

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Notification) SBI Specialist Officers - 2018

(Jobs) SBI : Posts of Specialist Cadre Officer Recruitment-2018

Post Detail :

State Bank of India invites Online application from Indian citizen for appointment to the following Specialist Cadre Officers posts.Candidates are requested to apply Online through the link given on Bank’s website 

  • *Sector Credit Specialists – Sector wise Positions (Total 19): Engineering & EPC -2, Banks & NBFC- 1, Metal & Metal Products – 2, Chemicals/Pharmaceuticals/ Fertilisers/ Plastics – 3, Other Manufacturing – 5, Other Non-Manufacturing – 4, International Credit – 2.
  • **Sector Risk Specialists – Sector wise Positions (Total 20): Power & Infrastructure – 3, Petroleum & Petrochemicals – 2, Engineering & EPC – 2,Banks & NBFC – 2, Metal & Metal Products – 2, Chemicals/ Pharmaceutical/ Fertilisers/ Plastics – 2, Other Manufacturing -3, Other Non-Manufacturing – 2, Large Accounts/ Key Group Analyst – 2.
  • $ VI and HI category candidates will not be suitable in these positions, as it will require travel, interaction and giving presentation at various levels etc

Education Qualification: 

Analytics Translators :
B. Tech/ B. E. (Computer Sciences)/ MCA/MBA (Business Analytics)/ M. Stat. (ISI Kolkata)
Other Qualifcations (Preferred): Data Analytics Qualifcations

Sector Credit Specialists :
B. Tech/ B. E. (Computer Sciences)/ MCA/MBA (Business Analytics)/ M. Stat. (ISI Kolkata)
Other Qualifcations (Preferred): Data Analytics Qualifcations Charted Accountant / MBA (Finance))/ Master in Finance Control/ Master in Management Studies/ PGDM (Finance).

Portfolio Management Specialists :
Chartered Accountant / MBA (Finance)

Sector Risk Specialists :
Chartered Accountant / MBA (Finance) /ICWA/ CFA

Other Qualifcations (Preferred): Financial Risk Manager (FRM) Certifcation by Global Association of Risk Professional (GARP)

Payment of Fees  :

i. Application fees and Intimation Charges (Non-refundable) is 600/-(Six Hundred only) for General and OBC candidates and intimation charges of 100/- (One hundred only) for SC/ ST/PWD candidates.
ii. Fee payment will have to be made online through payment gateway available thereat.

Age :

(As on 30-09-2018)

  • Minimum-25 years
  • Maximum- 35 years

Method of Selection :

The selection will be based on shortlisting and interview.
Interview:
Mere fulflling minimum qualifcation and experience will not vest any right in candidate for being called for interview. The Shortlisting Committee constituted by the Bank will decide the shortlisting parameters and thereafter, adequate number of candidates, as decided by the Bank will be shortlisted and called for interview. The decision of the bank to call the candidates for the interview shall be fnal. No correspondence will be entertained in this regard.
Merit List: Merit list for selection will be prepared in descending order on the basis of scores obtained in interview only. In case more than one candidate score the cut-of marks (common marks at cut-of point), such candidates will be ranked according to their age in descending order, in the merit

Pay Scale:

How to Apply :   

Candidates should have valid email ID which should be kept active till the declaration of result. It will help him/her in getting call letter/ Interview advices etc. by email.

i. Candidates will be required to register themselves online through the link available on SBI official website  or given below link to pay the application fee using Internet Banking/ Debit Card/  Credit Card etc.
ii. Candidates should frst scan their latest photograph and signature. Online application will not be registered unless candidate uploads his/her photo and signature as specifed on the online registration page (under ‘How to Apply”). 
iii. Candidates should fll the application carefully. Once application is flled-in completely, candidate should submit the same. In the event of candidate not being able to fll the application in one go, he can save the information already entered. When the information/ application is saved, a provisional registration number and password is generated by the system and displayed on the screen. Candidate should note down the registration number and password. They can re-open the saved application using registration number and password and edit the particulars, if needed. This facility of editing the saved information will be available for three times only. Once the 
application is flled completely, candidate should submit the same and proceed for online payment of fee.
iv. After registering online, the candidates are advised to take a printout of the system generated online application forms
i. Application fees and Intimation Charges (Non-refundable) is 600/- (Six Hundred only) for General and OBC candidates and intimation charges of 100/- (One hundred only) for SC/ ST/PWD candidates. 
ii. Fee payment will have to be made online through payment gateway available thereat.
iii. After ensuring correctness of the particulars in the application form, candidates are required to pay the fees through payment gateway integrated with the application. No change/ edit in the application will be allowed thereafter.
iv. The payment can be made by using Debit Card/ Credit Card/ Internet Banking etc. by providing information as asked on the screen. Transaction charges for online payment, if any, will be borne by the candidates.
v. On successful completion of the transaction, e-receipt and application form, bearing the date of submission by the candidate, will be generated which should be printed and retained by the candidate.
vi. If the online payment of fee is not successfully completed in frst instance, please make fresh attempts to make online payment. vii. There is also a provision to reprint the e-Receipt and Application form containing fee details, at later stage. 
viii. Application Fee once paid will NOT be refunded on any account NOR can it be adjusted for any other examination or selection in future.

Important Date :

  • Online Registration of Application : 30.10.2018 
  • Last Date to Apply Online & Payment of Fee    22-11-2018

Click Here To Download Official Notification

Click Here To Apply Online

Study Kit for Bank Specialist Officer Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
General: 

(Result) State Bank of India (Probationary Officers) SBI-PO :Prelims Exam Result-2018

(Result) State Bank of India (Probationary Officers) SBI-PO :Prelims Exam Result-2018

Phase - II (Mains Examination) will be held on 04/08/2018. Candidates are advised to visit Bank's website www.sbi.co.in or https://bank.sbi/careers to download Call-Letter for Mains Exam from 20-07-2018 onwards.

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
General: 

(Download) State Bank of India : SBI CLERK Exam Admit Card-2018

(Download) State Bank of India : SBI CLERK Exam Admit Card-2018

Exam Name: SBI Clerk Exam-2018

Bank Name: State Bank of India (SBI)

Year: 2018

Commencement of Call letter Download : 06 - 06 - 2018

Closure of Call letter Download : 30 - 06 - 2018

Click Here To Download Admit Card

Jobs: 

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2016 (Held on: 01-01-2017) "Reasoning"


IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2016 (Held on: 01-01-2017) "Reasoning"


Directions (1-4): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

In a certain code language, “work for earning money” is coded as “Go3 None5 Xor4 Farnin7”, “like six years passed” is coded as “Ti3 Qasse6 Zear5 Mik4” “hence good amount received” is coded as “Seceive8 Lenc5 Hoo4 Bmoun6”

1.What is the code for last earning was money ?

(1) Xa3 Mas4 Noney5 Farnin7
(2) None5 Xa3 Mas4 Darnin7
(3) None5 Mas4 Farnin7 Xa3
(4) Mas4 Lone5 Farnin7 Xa3
(5) Other than those given as options

2.If “money makes man perfect” is coded as “Nake5 Qerfec7 Na3 None5”, then what is the code for good people always perfect?

(1) Qeop16 Hoo4 Blway6
(2) Hoo4 Qerfec7 Blway6 Qeop16
(3) Qeople6 Hoo4 Qerfec7Blway6
(4) Qerfec7 Blway6 Qeop15 Hoo5
(5) Other than those given as options

3.What is the code for “hence always wrong hance”?

(1) Blway6 Lance5 Xron5 Lenc5
(2) Lanc5 Xron5 Blway5 Lenc5
(3) Lanc5 Xron5 Blway5 Lenc5
(4) Blway6 Lenc5 Lanc5 Xron5
(5) Lanc6 Xron6 Blway5 Lenc5

4.“Farming” is coded as :

(1) Earmin7
(2) Gramin8
(3) Garing8
(4) Earnin7
(5) Garmin7

Directions (5-10): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

There are five units i.e. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Each unit has a different height. Also each unit contains books and boxes. Unit 2 is above Unit 1 and Unit 3 is above Unit 2 and so on. Every unit belongs to different country i.e. Beijing, Paris, London, Sydney and Zurich. The total height of all five units is equal to 252 ft.

  • Total height of unit is equal to the total height of books plus total height of boxes in each unit.
  • Height of books is not equal to the height of boxes, unless specified.

The books belongs to London is an even unit. The total height of Unit 1 is 75 ft. Sydney is not a Unit 1. The total height of unit, which belongs to Sydney, is 55 ft. There is only one gap between London and Paris. The height of books and height of boxes in Unit 3 are equal. The height of books in Unit 2 is not less than 30 ft. The books in Unit 4 are four more than books, which is in Unit 3. The total height of London is not 37 ft. The total height of unit, which contains 37 ft is not taking the place which is immediately above a unit, which contains ’20 ft more than the unit, which belongs to Sydney. The height of boxes in Unit 2 is 23 ft. Unit belongs to Zurich does not contain the equal height of books and boxes. The total height ofUnit 2 is an odd number and height is more than 50 ft and less than 55 ft. Unit 1 contains 23 ft height of boxes more than Unit 4 contains height of boxes and Unit 5 contains 7 ft height of books less than Unit 1 contains.

5.What is the total height in Unit 3 ?

(1) 37 ft
(2) 32 ft
(3) 53 ft
(4) 75 ft
(5) 80 ft

6.Unit 3 belongs to which country?

(1) Paris
(2) Zurich
(3) Sydney
(4) Beijing
(5) London

7.If ‘Sydney’ is related to 37 ft in the same way as Beijing is related to 53 ft. Which of the following is `Paris’ related to, following the same pattern ?

(1) 53 ft
(2) 37 ft
(3) 75 ft
(4) 32 ft
(5) 30 ft

8.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group ?

(1) Sydney
(2) 32 ft
(3) 75 ft
(4) Paris
(5) 37 ft

9.What is the height of box in Unit 4 ?

(1) 23 ft
(2) 17 ft
(3) 27 ft
(4) 40 ft
(5) 20 ft

10.Which unit contains 30 ft book ?

(1) Unit 2
(2) Unit 3
(3) Unit 1
(4) Unit 5
(5) Unit 4

Directions (11-15): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Two buses-A and B start their journey from same depot but not necessary in the same order. Bus A starts moving 6 km towards north direction to -Point P and then takes a right turn and moves 18 km to reach Point R, then take a left turn and ? roves 12 km to reach Point S. Points P, Q and R lies in a same line. Distance between P and Q is half of the distance between Q and R. Bus B starts to move towards west 2 km more than Point Q and R from Depot and reach Point W, then take a right turn and walk 18 km to reach Point U. U, V and W lies in the same line as distance of V and W is double of the distance between U and V. From Point U Bus B take a right turn and reach Point S. Point T lies between U and S in exact midway.

11.What is the total distance between U and S ?

(1) 29 km
(2) 32 km
(3) 36 km
(4) 30 km
(5) 28 km

12.In which direction is Point T with respect to Point W?

(1) North
(2) South
(3) North-west
(4) North-east
(5) South-west

13.A boy wants to go depot and starts walking towards north from Point W. After reaching Point V, he suddenly realize that he is going to wrong direction. So what is the shortest route from Point V to bus depot?

(1) Back to Point W then go to depot from there
(2) From Point V he should go to east direction 14km than move toward south and reach depot
(3) From Point V going towards north to reach Point U from there, he should reach Point S then Point R then Point P and then depot.
(4) Both (1) and (2) are shortest routes.
(5) Back to Point V he should go to west direction 14 km then move towards north and reach depot.

14.What is the distance between T and S ?

(1) 14 km
(2) 12 km
(3) 16 km
(4) 18 km
(5) 6 km

15.Bus A is moving in which direction currently ?

(1) West
(2) North-east
(3) South
(4) North
(5) East

Directions (16-20) : In each of these questions, two statements marked as I and II are provided. These may have a cause and effect relationship or may have independent causes or be the effects of independent causes.
Give answer:

(1) If statement I is cause and statement II is its effect.
(2) If statement II is cause and statement I is its effect.
(3) If statements I and II are independent causes.
(4) If statements I and, II are effects of independent causes.
(5) If statements I and II are effects of common causes.

16.Statements :

I. It is the bounden duty of each member of the civil society to control the air pollution by contributing their best in this endeavour to safeguard the health of their countrymen.
II. The alarming air pollution in our country is causing asthma cases to constantly multiply.

17.Statements :

I. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for the past few months.
II. The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the last few months.

18.Statements :

I. There has been an increase in the underground water level column at all places in Delhi due to the last year’s monsoon rains.
II. Many trains had to be cancelled last year due to water-logging on the railway tracks.

19.Statements

I. The prices of sugar had risen very sharply in Indian markets last year.
II. The government imported large quantities of sugar as per trade agreements with other countries last year.

20.Statements :

I. The government has recently fixed the fees for professional courses offered by the unaided institutions which are much lower than the fees charged last year.
II. The parents of the aspiring students launched a severe agitation last year protesting against the high fees charged by the unaided institutions.

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IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2016 (Held on: 01-01-2017) "English Language"


IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2016 (Held on: 01-01-2017) "English Language"


Directions (1-5): In each of the following questions, each sentence has some blank spaces. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words out of the given alternatives.

1. Activists in the country have long protested its……… society that essentially……………. women from travelling, marrying or attending college without permission from a male relative, who is called their ……………

(1) benevolent, forbid, steward
(2) pre-Adamite, prevent, custodian
(3) pre-eminent, restrict, protector
(4) venerable, condemns, manciple
(5) patriarchal, prohibits, guardian

2. Individual tax rates in the country are substantially…………. compared to tax rates in the US and Western Europe but slightly than those in emerging markets………………..

(1) slow, more
(2) decreasing, increased
(3) lesser, much
(4) lower, higher
(5) stricter, lower

3. The regulator body is likely to………. stricter trading norms, create special liquidity window on the budget day to combat potential market………..

(1) implement, versatile
(2) let, flexibility
(3) remove, steady
(4) ignore, dynamic
(5) impose, volatility

4. Sales of consumer packaged goods companies are…………………….. to record their slowest growth in two years as customers cut back their expenditure even on……………….. items and groceries.

(1) expected, essential
(2) willing, regularly
(3) estimate, necessary
(4) approximately, daily
(5) determined, important

5. The bad loan ratios are………………….. to be uglier in the fourth quarter given the……………….. loan growth.

(1) moved, frail
(2) likely, weaker
(3) tend, skewed
(4) intend, meagre
(5) going, swiftly

Directions (6-13): Read the the following passage and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Though global multinationals account for only 2% of the world’s jobs, they own or orchestrate the supply chains that account for over 50% of world trade, they make up 40% of the value of the West’s stock markets; and they own most of the world’ intellectual property. Although the idea of being at the top of the food chain makes these companies sound all-conquering, rickety and overextended are often more fitting adjectives. Companies became obsessed with internationalising their customers, production, capital and management. In 2016multinationals’ cross-border investment fell by 10-15%, the share of trade accounted for by cross-border supply chains has stagnated since 2007 and the proportion of sales that Western firms make outside their home region has shrunk. They are in retreat. To understand why this is, consider the three parties that made the boom possible, investors, the “headquarters countries” in which global firms are domiciled, and the “host countries” that received multinational investment. Each thought that multinational firms would provide superior financial or economic performance. Investors saw a huge potential for economies of scale. As China, India and the Soviet Union opened up,- and as Europe liberalised itself into a single market, firms could sell the same product to more people.
Moreover, they saw ‘geographical arbitrage’ i.e. from the rich world they could get management, capital, brands and technology and from the emerging world they could get cheap workers and raw materials as well as lighter rules on pollution. These advantages led investors to think global firms would grow faster and make higher profits. That was true for a while, not today. The profits of the top 700-odd multinational firms have dropped by 25% over the past five years, according to FTSE, an index firm. The weakness of many currencies against the dollar is part of the story; the stump in commodity prices, and thus the profits of oil firms, mining firms and the like is a factor too. Another 10% of deterioration is due to the collapse of banks. Individual bosses will often blame one-off factors, currency moves, the economic collapse of Venezuela, currency swaps and the like can be thought of, a depression in Europe, a crackdown on graft in China, and so on. But the deeper explanation is that both the advantages of scale and those of arbitrage have worn away.
As a result, firms with a domestic focus are winning market share by 2%. In Brazil, two local banks, have trounced global lenders. What about the “headquarters countries”? In the 1990s and 2000s they wanted their national champions to go global in order to become bigger and brainier. The mood changed after the financial crisis.
Multinational firms started to be seen as agent of inequality. They created jobs abroad, but not at home. As a result, the tapestry of rules designed to help business globally is fraying. Takeovers of western firms now often come with strings attached by governments to safeguard local jobs and plants. There are gathering clouds in host countries as well. China has been turning the screws on foreign firms in a push for “Indigenous innovation”. Bosses say that more products have to be sourced locally and intellectual property often ends up handed over to local partners. Strategic local partners. Strategic industries, including the internet, are out of bounds to foreign investment. Many fear that China’s approach will be mimicked around the developing world, forcing multinational firms to invest more locally and create more jobs-a mirror image of the pressure placed on them at home.

6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

A. Multinationals wanted their champions to go global in 1990s and 2000s.
B. Financial measures to address the situation in Venezuela.
C. Breaking of large corporate entities.

(1) Only C
(2) Only B
(3) Only A
(4) B and C
(5) All A, B and C

7. Which of the following can be said about the multinationals in the context of the passage?

A. Investors in multinational firms may stop investing.
B. There is resistance to multinational firms in their own domestic markets.
C. Multinationals are struggling.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) A and B
(4) All A, B and C
(5) A and C

8. Which of the following phrases from the passage can be replaced by ‘trouble’ in the context of the passage?

A. Out of bounds
B. Economies of scale
C. Gathering clouds
D. In retreat

(1) Only C
(2) All A, B, C and D
(3) B and D
(4) A and B
(5) Only B

9. Which of the following is responsible for and are best explanation(s) for the current health of global firms?

A. Economic trouble in some countries
B. Advatages of labour taht were earlier have diminished
C. Failure of banks

(1) Only C
(2) Only B
(3) Only A
(4) A and B
(5) All A, B and G

10. Which of the following is/are reason(s) for the author’s mention of various countries in the passage ?

A. To illustrate the changing climate for global businesses.
B. To elucidate the similarities in response to multinational businesses.
C. To negate the popular assumption that developing economies have overtaken developed ones.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) A and B
(4) B and C
(5) None

11. Which of the following words is/are the opposite of the word ‘lighter’ as used in the passage ?

A. Tighter
B. Stricter
C. Insignificant
D. Robust

(1) Only A
(2) A and B
(3) Only C
(4) A and C
(5) None

12. Which of the following cannot besaid about ‘geographical arbitrage’?

(1) It has facilitated the spread of cross-border trade.
(2) It caused stagnation of trade in the 1990s.
(3) Its effects have worn off.
(4) Western firms could increase profits.
(5) All the given options can be said.

13. Which of the following do(es) the passage centrally address ?

A. Prosperity of multinational firms
B. Governments’ increasingly protecting the interests of local firms
C. Concern for global trade and industry

(1) A and C
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A and B
(5) All A, B and C

Directions (54-58): In these questions, a sentence is given with three words/group of word$, in bold type. One or more of them may have a certain error. Below the sentence are given three combinations of words/group of words i.e. (A), (B). and (C). You have to find out the correct word/group of words from among (A), (B) and (C) given below each sentence to replace the incorrect words and make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. One, two, all three or none of them may be correct. Decide upon which is/are correct, if any and mark the correct option which denotes your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.

14. In 2015, two years after Hurricane Sandy hit his city, the mayor announced to set up a $3 billion restoration fund, partly was intended to pay for sea walls that would help city from storms ahead.

A. He was setting up-which-any storms in the future
B. The setting up of-that-storms
C. The creation of-part of which future storms

(1) Only A
(2) All A, B and C
(3) A and B
(4) Only C
(5) No correction required

15. Since ancient times, medics have relied on their sense of smell to help them work out what is wrong with their patients- fruity odours on the breath, for example, let them monitor the condition of diabetics, while foul odours assist in the diagnosis of respiratory tract infections.

A. relying-to work out anything-diagnosing
B. were reliant-work out whether anything-how to diagnose
C. had to rely in working out the anything any diagnosis

(1) Only A
(2) All A, B and C
(3) A and B
(4) Only C
(5) No correction required

16. Thailand’s performing dismally is not drastically out of step with countries of similar incomes, not strange given its unusually generous spending on education.

A. dismal performance but it is expenditure on
B. having a dismal performance-being-budget
C. dismally performing- is not amount spent on

(1) Only C
(2) All A, B and C
(3) A and B
(4) Only A
(5) No correction required

17. There is a government survey, about 12.6 million Japanese aged 60 or older now opting working, up from 8.7 million in 2000 and two-thirds of Japan’s over-65s want to stay gainfully employed. A. In have an option and gain employment B. As revealed by-are opting-gains from employment C. According to opt to keep gainfully employed

(1) Only B
(2) All A, B and C
(3) A and B
(4) Only C
(5) No correction required

18. The hope is that the torrents of data which generate will contain some crucial nuggets that let neuroscientists get more understanding how exactly the brain does all it does.

A. This schemes closer to what it does
B. Which will able to-function
C. That this studies-abetter-work

(1) Only A
(2) All A, B and C
(3) A and B
(4) Other than those given as options
(5) None

Directions (19-23) : In these questions, there are four/five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and/or (E). Three or four of these sentences contribute to one main idea when these sentences are formed into a paragraph. One sentence does not contribute to that main idea. That sentence is your answer.

19. Which of the following does not contribute to the main idea of the given passage ?

A. The cost of production for luxury goods is not usually a prime concern and capital investment is generally modest, except for watches.
B. Some of the normal rules do not apply to luxury-goods makers, even though in many ways they are similar to other consumer-goods companies.
C. To view the world through the lens of luxury is to see it subtly offered.
D. A really prestigious item can be a ‘Veblen good’, named after an American economist born in themed-19th century who noticed that demand for some goods actually rises as they get more expensive because they confer yet more status.

(1) Only A(2)Only B
(3) A and B(4) B and C
(5) B and D

20. Which of the following does not contribute to the main idea of the given passage?

A. These present drivers of its economy, however, are under threat from technology.
B. Africa is a hopeful continent with an exuberance driven by minerals, hydrocarbon and commodities.
C. Without the ability to create knowledge through hands-on learning the quality of education, in the country is unlikely to improve.
D. The long-view trajectory of electric vehicles in Africa suggests a future where electrons will power more cars than carbon compounds.

(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) Only B
(4) Both B and C
(5) All those given as options contribute

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IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2016 (Held on: 01-01-2017) "Numerical Ability"


IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2016 (Held on: 01-01-2017) "Numerical Ability"


1.Raj while going by bus from home to airport (without any halt) takes 10 min less than time taken when the bus halts for some time. The average speed is 4 km/h more than the average speed of the bus when it halts. If the distance from home to airport is 60 km, what is the speed of the bus when it is travelled without any halt? (in km/h)

(1) 24
(2) 46
(3) 20
(4) 40
(5) 18

2.Every month, Mr. Duggabati spends 24% of his monthly income in paying rent and 30% on shopping of groceries. Out of the remaining, he invests in fixed deposit and respective ratio of 9 : 7. If in a year, he deposited a total of Rs.1,24,200/- in fixed deposit, how much did he pay as rent-in a year?

(1) Rs .1,24,000/-
(2) Rs. 1,10,400/-
(3) Rs. 1,17,600/-
(4) Rs. 1,24,560/-
(5) Rs.1,15,200/-

3.The total time taken by a boat to travel ‘x’ km downstream and `x-52 km upstream was 285 min. If the difference between speed of the boat downstream and upstream is 3 km/h and the respective ratio between speed of boat in still water and speed of water current was 9 : 1, what is the value of x ?

(1) 40.4
(2) 30
(3) 20.4
(4) 34.4
(5) Other than those given as options

Directions (4-8): Read the graph and answer the given questions.

The data given below are regarding percentage of fiction books sold by five bookstores in the months of June and December in the year 2002. All the bookstores sold either fiction or non-fiction books



Note : Total number of books sold = Fiction + Non-fiction

4.Number of fiction books sold by store B in December was 200 more than that sold by the same store in June. If the total number of books sold by the store in both the given months together was 2000, how many books (fiction + non-fiction), did the store sell in December?

(1) 2000
(2) 1600
(3) 1200
(4) 1800
(5) 1500

5.Total number of books sold by store C in June was 1500 and that in December was 2000. What is the total number of non-fiction books sold by the store in both the given months together?

(1)1200
(2) 1720
(3) 1800
(4) 1600
(5) 1900

6.Number of fiction books sold by store D in both the given months are equal. Total number of books sold by the same store in December was What percentage more than that in June?

(1) 16%
(2) 18%
(3) 10%
(4) 12.5%
(5) 8%

7.Total number of books sold by E in June was 1800 which was 25% less than that sold by the same store in December. What is the total number of fiction books sold by the same store together?

(1) 1442
(2) 1620
(3) 1572
(4) 1640
(5) 1548

8.Total number of books sold by store A in December are 60 more than that sold by the same store in June. If the number of fiction books sold by store A in both the given months were equal, what is the total number of books sold by store A in June ?

(1) 840
(2) 800
(3) 660
(4) 900
(5) 720

Directions (9-13) : Refer to the pie charts and answer the given questions.

The following data are regarding number of students(Boys + Girls) studying in standard Xth of various schools(A, B, C, D and E) in the year 2010Total number of students(Boys + Girls) = 3000





9.What is the difference between the total number of students (boys + girls) in schools A and B together and the total number of students (boys + girls) in schools D and E together ? What is the difference between the total number of students (boys + girls) in schools A and B together and the total number of students (boys + girls) in schools D and E together ?

(1) 640
(2) 600
(3) 620
(4) 680
(5) 660

10.Number of girls studying in school C are what percent of total number of students (boys + girls) studying in the same school ?



11.What is the average number of boys studying in schools A and B ?

(1) 280
(2) 288
(3) 272
(4) 248
(5) 278

12.Number of girls studying in school E are approximately what percent more than the number of boys studying in the same school?

(1)10%
(2) 30%
(3) 50%
(4) 42%
(5) 34%

13.the respective ratio between the number of boys and the number of girls studying in school D ?

(1) 12 : 7
(2) 16 : 9
(3) 16 : 7
(4) 18 : 7
(5) 14 : 9

Directions (14-18): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

The following data are regarding total number of male and female employees (MBAs and non-MBAs) working in three organizations—A, B and CIn organisation :
In organisation :

A: 30% of the total number of employees are females, of which 10% are MBA’s. In organization, 168 males are MBAs which are 20% of total number of males.
B: 40% of the total number of employees are females, of which 25% are MBAs. 10% of the total male employees in organization B are MBAs. The total number of female employees in organization B are equal to that in organization A.
C: Total number of female employees are twice of that in organization B. 20% of the total number of male employees and 20% of the total number of female employees are MBAs. Number of male employees who are not MBAs are 672 more than that of female employees who are not MBAs.

14.The respective ratio between the number of male MBA employees, who are science graduates, in organizations B and C is 1 : 3. Total number of male MBA employees who are tot science graduates in both the organization together is 262. What is the number of male MBA employees who are science graduates in organization B ?

(1) 24
(2) 22
(3) 25
(4) 26
(5) Other than those given as options

15.What is the difference between the number of Non-MBA employees in organizations .A and B?

(1) 220
(2) 360
(3) 340
(4) 240
(5) Other than those given as options

16.What is the average number of female employees working in organizations A, B and C ?

(1) 360
(2) 540
(3) 580
(4) 420
(5) 480

17.What percent of the total number of employees in organization C, are males ?

(1) 68%
(2) 70%
(3) 80%
(4) 75%
(5)50%

18.Total number of employees in organization C, are what percent more than – that in organization A ?

(1) 20%
(2) 50%
(3) 25%
(4) 75%
(5) 90%

Directions (19-23) : Study the table and answer the given questions.

Data related to rating of 5movies in two cities (X and Y)

Note: I. Few data are missing (indicated by—). You need to calculate the value based on given data, if required, to answer a given question.
II. Total sum of ratings obtained = Number of raters x Average rating obtained

19.For movie C, the respective ratio of total sum of ratings from city X and that from city Y is 16 : 21. What is the average rating obtained from movie C from city Y?

(1) 73.5
(2) 72.5
(3) 75.5
(4) 75
(5) 74

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