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(Papers) LIC : Apprentice Development Officer English Language (Held on 13-06-2010)



(Papers) LIC : Apprentice Development Officer

English Language (Held on 13-06-2010)



Directions (76-80): In each question a sentence with two words/ group of words printed in bold type are given. One of them are both of them may have a certain error, you have to find out the correct word/ group of words from among the four choices given below each sentence to replace the incorrect words/ group of words and make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. If the sentence is correct as it is mark (5) i.e.,No correction required' as your answer. 

76. RBI has asked banks that disclose the fees and commissions they have camed through the sell of life insurance policies.
1) disclosure - selling 
2) disclosed - sell 
3) to disclose - sale
4) can disclose - sales 
5) No correction required

77. Our Development officer is very encourage and helps me do what ever is necessity to achieve my goals.
1) encouraging - necessary 
2) encouraged - necessarily
3) encourages - necessary 
4) encouraging - necessities
5) No correction required

 1) Very good - any
2) best - much
3) more better - all
4) better than - many
5) No correction required

79. People should be buying health insurance at a young age and maintains it for a lifetime.
1) be bought - maintained
2) buy - maintain
3) have bought - be maintaining
4) not buy - will maintain
5) No correction required

80. Life insurance companies have appointed around 13 lakh agents during 2008 -09 despite the recession
1) nearly - because
2) about - inspire
3) approximate - on account
4) alomost - In
5) No correction required

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Bank/Organisation: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Papers) LIC : Apprentice Development Officer General Knowledge and Current Affairs (Held on 13-06-2010)



(Papers) LIC : Apprentice Development Officer

General Knowledge and Current Affairs (Held on 13-06-2010)



51. Which of the following types of companies/ organisations issue ULIP? (The ULIPS were recently in news)
1) Insurance companies 
2) Banks 
3) NABARD
4) RBI
5) All of these

52. Insurance business in India is regulated by which of the following authorities?
1) NFCG 
2) IRDA 
3) CII
4) FICCI
5) All of these

53. Which amongst the following is NOT an insurance company functioning in India?
1) ICICI Prudential
2) ING Vysya
3) ICICI Lombard
4) New India Assurance Company Limited
5) National Securities Depository Ltd.

54. Which of the following is the only public sector company in the filed of life insurance?
1) General Insurance Company
2) New India Assurance Company
3) Oriental Insurance Company
4) Sahara Life Insurance
5) Life Insurance Corporation of India

55. As per the news in various financial newspapers, Larson & Toubro (L&T) is planning to enter the insurance business in India. Otherwise, what is the major business of L&T, which it is known for?
1) News paper Publications 
2) Media Entertainment
3) Car and Automobile Production 
4) Textiles
5) Heavy Engineering & Construction

56. "A contract that pledges payment of an agreed upon amount to the person (or his/her nominee) on the happening of an event covered against" is technically known as
1) Death coverage 
2) Life Insurance 
3) Savings for future
4) Provident Fund 
5) None of these

57. As per the news published in various newspapers, Life Insurance policies may become paperless in the near future. This means
1) LIC will not insure any person here after as it has already reached its peak
2) LIC will not ask for any documents from a person who wishes to purchase an Insurance policy
3) All policy related documents and policy certificates will henceforth be available in electronic form and not in their present physical form and not in their present physical form
4) LIC henceforth will not entertain any claim or complaint in written form or on paper. Things should be in electronic condition. 
5) None of these

58. In Insurance policies we always find a date which is "Date of Maturity".What does it mean?
1) This is the date on which the policy was sold to the customer/person insured.
2) This is the date on which the policy holder will have to submit his/her claim seeking the amount of the policy. Otherwise the company will not make any payment to him/her.
3) This is the date on which the contract between the person and insurance company will come to an end.
4) The date on which the insurance company makes the final payment to the insured person which is normally fifteen days after the "payment due date".
5) None of these

59. As we know, the Government is paying much attention to "Micro Finance" these days. Which of the following is one of the examples of Micro Finance?
1) Insurance for life 
2) Investment in Mutual Funds
3) Self Help Groups 
4) Letter of Credit 
5) All of these

60. Which of the following insurance plan is not launched by LIC?
1) Jeevan Abhaya 
2) Life Mahalife Gold Plan
3) Child Career Plan
4) Child Future Plan
5) Jeevan Saral

61. Which of the following is/are the highlights of the Union Budget for 2010-11?
A) Rs. 3000 crores allotted for agriculture sector
B) Fertiliser subsidy to be reduced
C) Hope to implement Direct Tax code from April 2011
1) Only A 
2) Only B 
3) Only C
4) A, B and C
5) None of these

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(Papers) LIC : Apprentice Development Officer- Numerical Ability (Held on 13-06-2010)



(Papers) LIC : Apprentice Development Officer

Numerical Ability (Held on 13-06-2010)



Directions (26-35): What should come in place of the question mark (>) in the following questions?
26. 99 ÷ 9 + 0.5 = ?

1) 5.5 
2) 11 
3) 4.5
4) 22 
5) None of these

27. 82.8 × 643.6 ÷ 5121.4 = 8?
1) 5.8 
2) 14.2 
3) 8.6
4) 9.2 
5) None of these

28. 24% of 550 − ? % lf 124 = 76.2
1) 45 
2) 30 
3) 50
4) 35 
5) None of these

29. 24.5 × 45.4 × 2.5 = ?
1) 2880.25 
2) 2780.75 
3) 2770.75
4) 2870.22 
5) None of these

30. 326 1/4 ÷ 9 = ?
1) 64.5 
2) 24.75 
3) 36.25
4) 72.5 
5) None of these

31. 2.5 × ? = 824.2
1) 333.86 
2) 329.68 
3) 337.46
4) 324.48 
5) None of these

32. 416 × 18 − 2288 = ?
1) 5202 
2) 5000 
3) 5205
4) 5002
5) None of these

33. 54% of 675 = ?
1) 307.5 
2) 346.5 
3) 370.5
4) 364.5
5) None of these

34. 888.88 + 684.48 + 726.66 = ?
1) 2230.02
2) 2030.02 
3) 2003.02
4) 2302.02
5) None of these

35. 3960 ÷ (48 × 2.5) = ?
1) 206.25 
2) 42 
3) 33
4) 260.25
5) None of these

36. A Car covers a distance of 720 Kms. in 12 hours. What is the average speed of the Car?
1) 60 kmph 
2) 40 kmph 
3) 55 kmph
4) 75 kmph
5) None of these

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(Papers) LIC : Apprentice Development Officer - Reasoning Ability (Held on 13-06-2010)



(Papers) LIC : Apprentice Development Officer

Reasoning Ability (Held on 13-06-2010)



1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRANSFER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None 
2) One 
3) Two
4) Three 
5) More than three

2. D is sister of F. M is brother of F. K is brother of D  and son of T. R is wife of T. How is F related to T?
1) Son 
2) Daughter 
3) Son or daughter
4) Data inadequate 
5) None of these

3. The positions of how many digits in the number 8359614 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?
1) None 
2) One 
3) Two
4) Three 
5) More than three

4. In a certain code 'STAGE' is written as '4@©59' and 'EARN' is written as 9©87'. How is 'NEST' written in that code?
1) 497@ 
2) 794@ 
3) @©79
4) 79@©
5) None of these

5. In a certain code TRILOGY is written as HQSMXFN. How is CREDITS written in that code?
1) DQBERSH
2) FSDCTUJ 
3) DQBETUJ
4) FSDCRSH 
5) None of these

Directions (6 - 10) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
H 3 $ E K 5 @ M % I 8 2 T A F 6 W I © N V ★ P 4 Q δ R D Z

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) FAW 
2) N©★ 
3) 4Pδ
4) M©I
5) SEH

7. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?
1) None 
2) One 
3) Two
4) Three 
5) More than three

8. Which of the following is the fifth to the left of the sixteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?
1) 2 
2) © 
3) 8
4) 6 
5) None of these

9. If all the symbols and numbers are dropped from the above arrangement which of the following will be the fourteenth from the right end?
1) T 
2) K 
3) N
4) P 
5) None of these

10. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?
1) None 
2) One 
3) Two
4) Three 
5) More than three

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(Admit Card) SBI PO (Pre.) Exam - 2019



(Admit Card) SBI PO (Pre.) Exam - 2019



Exam Name: SBI PO (Pre.) Exam

Year: 2019

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Selection Process) State Bank of India : Clerk



(Selection Process) State Bank of India : Clerk



Selection Process :

The selection process will consist of on-line test (preliminary & main examination) and test of specified opted local language.

Phase-I: Preliminary Examination:

Preliminary Examination (online) consisting of Objective Tests for 100 marks will be conducted online. This test would be of 1 hour duration consisting of 3 Sections as follows:

SL.

Name of test

No. of Questions

Marks

Duration

1.

English Language

30

30

20 Minutes

2.

Numerical Ability

35

35

20 Minutes

3.

Reasoning Ability

35

35

20 Minutes

 

Total

100

100

1 Hour

  • Each test will have a separate timing as mentioned above.
  • There will be negative marks for wrong answers in the Objective tests.
  • 1/4th of mark assigned for question will be deducted for each wrong answer.
  • No minimum qualifying marks for individual subject as well as for aggregate (overall) are prescribed. 
  • Adequate number of candidates in each category as decided by the Bank (approximately 10 times  the  numbers of vacancies. subject to availability) will be shortlisted for the Main Examination from the list of all candidates arranged in descending order of aggregate marks scored.

Phase – II: Main Examination:

The structure  of main examination (online objective type) would be as follows.:

SL.

Name of Test

No. of Questions

Marks

Duration

1.

General/Financial Awareness

50

50

35 minutes

2.

General English

40

40

35 minutes

3.

Quantitative Aptitude

50

50

45 minutes

4.

Reasoning  Ability & Computer Aptitude

50

60

45 minutes

 

Total

190

200

2 Hours 40 Minutes

Each test will have a separate timing as mentioned above.
The questions in objective tests, except for the test of General English, will be bilingual i.e., English & Hindi. There will be negative marks for wrong answers in the Objective tests.  1/4th of mark assigned for question will be deducted for each wrong answer.
Candidates are required to score a minimum percentage marks on aggregate (For SC/ST/OBC/PWD/XS candidates, 5% relaxation available thereon). Minimum qualifying marks on aggregate will be decided by the bank. No minimum qualifying marks for individual subject are prescribed. Merit list will be drawn State wise, category wise. Candidates qualified in the test (main examination) will be placed according to their aggregate marks  in descending order  in respective States and Categories.
NOTE: Other detailed information regarding the examination will be given in the 'Acquaint Yourself' booklet, which will be made available to the eligible candidates along with the call letter for the test.
Test of specified opted local language:
Those who qualify for selection and produce 10th or 12th standard mark sheet/ certificate evidencing having studied the specified opted local language will not be subjected to any Language test. In case of others (qualified for selection), specified opted local language test will be conducted after provisional selection but before joining. Candidates not found to be proficient in specified opted local language would be disqualified.
Provisional Selection (Subject to qualifying  specified opted local language).
The marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination (Phase-I) will not be added for the selection and only the aggregate marks obtained in Main Examination (Phase-II) will be considered for preparation of the final merit list. Provisional selection will be made on the basis of candidate’s performance in the test (main examination).

Final selection: will be subject to:-

i)    Verification of eligibility for the post and information furnished in the online application.
ii)   Qualifying in  test  of  specified opted  local  language, where applicable, as detailed above.
Results of the candidates who have provisionally qualified for selection will be made available on the Bank's website. 

Wait List:

A wait list of up to 50% of vacancies (State-category  wise) will be maintained. Candidates will be released from this waitlist on quarterly basis against non-joining and resignation out of the current batch only, subject to the candidates securing minimum qualifying marks as may be stipulated by the Bank for selection. This wait list will be valid for a period of one year from the date of declaration of final result.

Printed Study Material for SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary Cum Mains)

Jobs: 
Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Age Limit) State Bank of India : Clerk



(Age Limit) State Bank of India : Clerk



Age Limit :

  • Minimum Age - 20 years
  • Maximum Age - 28 years

Not below 20 years and not above 28 years as on 01.04.2019, i.e candidates must have been born not earlier than 02.04.1991 and not later than 01.04.1999 (both days inclusive).

Relaxation of Upper age limit:

Sr.No.

Category

Age Relaxation

1.

SC/ST

5 years

2.

Other Backward Classes (OBC)

3 years

3.

PWD (Gen/ EWS)

10 years

4.

PWD (SC/ST)

15 years

5.

PWD (OBC)

13 years

6.

Persons domiciled inJammu & KashmirState during the period from01.01.1980 to 31.12.1989

5 years

7.

Ex-Servicemen/Disabled Ex-Servicemen"

Actual period of service

rendered in defence services+ 3 years, (8 years for Disabled Ex- servicemen belonging to SC/ST) subject to max. age of 50 years

8.

Widows, Divorced women and women judicially separated from their husbands & who  are not remarried

7 years (subject to maximum age limit f

35 years for General/EWS,

38 years for OBC & 40 years for SC/ST candidates)

NOTE (i) Candidates seeking age relaxation are required to submit copies of necessary certificate(s) at the time of joining, if qualified. No change in the category of any candidate is permitted after registration of online application. No correspondence/ email/phone will be entertained in this regard

Printed Study Material for SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary Cum Mains)

Jobs: 
Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Syllabus) LIC : Assistant Administrative Officer Examination


Life Insurance Corporation

Recruitment For the Post of Assistant Administrative Officer, LIC India

:: Syllabus ::



On-line Test Syllabus:

On-line test will be of objective type, multiple choices of 120 minutes (2 hrs) duration comprising of the following:

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Current Affairs

IBPS logo

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection
Common Written Examination :2011 (Current Affairs)

Nilekani Panel Submits Report on Cash Transfer Scheme

UIDAI Chairman Nandan Nilekani submitted the report of the committee headed by him regarding direct transfer of subsidy to the beneficiaries, to the Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee. The interim report of the task force on direct transfer of subsidies on Kerosene, LPG and Fertilisers suggested creation of a Core Subsidy Management System (CSMS) for maintaining information on entitlements and subsidies for all beneficiaries. The CSMS, as indicated in the report, will provide increased transparency in the movement of goods, level of stocks, prediction and aggregation of demand and identification of beneficiaries.

Nilekani Panel on Cash Transfer Scheme

Highlights of Recommendations Nade in Interim Report Submitted by the Panel

LPG:

  • Phase I: Cap consumption of subsidised cylinders (Policy decision of government and not a specific task force recommendation).
  • Phase II: Consumers buy LPG at market price, with direct transfer of subsidy to their bank account.
  • Phase III: Identify and target segmented customers for subsidy.

Fertiliser:

  • Phase I: Information visibility up to the retailer level. Phase II: Direct transfer of subsidy to the retailer.
  • Phase III: Farmers buy fertilisers at market price, with direct transfer of subsidy to their bank account.

Kerosene:

Phase I: Cash transfer through state governments.

Phase II: Cash transfer to accounts of beneficiaries.

Report recommends creation of centralised software for the product and service transfer. The poors have been recommended to get the share of subsidies directly through bank branches, Automated Teller Machines (ATMs), business correspondents, the internet or mobile banking channels. Pilot projects for such direct cash transfers have been recommended to begin in seven places— Tamil Nadu, Assam, Maharashtra, Haryana, Delhi Rajasthan and Orissa—from October 2011.

Country’s Exports Register 45.7% Growth in Q 1 Of 2011-12:

Country’s exports in June 2011 rose for the third month in a row by growing 46.4 per cent to $ 29.2 billion, driven by high-end products such as engineering goods. Imports increased 42.4 per cent to $ 36.2 billion. About one-third of this import bill was accounted for by petroleum, oil and lubricant. This resulted trade deficit at $ 7.7 billion.

During the first quarter of 2011-12 (i.e. April- June 2011), exports rose 45×7% to $ 79 billion. With imports growing 36×2% to $ 110.6 billion, the trade deficit stood at $ 7.7 billion.

Export sector’s good performance was well supported by various industries like engineering, oil, electronics, drugs, chemicals and readymade garments. The main components in the import bill on the other hand were oil, gold and silver, machinery, electronics and pearls/ precious stones. Oil import bill has been a major head in country’s total import bill. During the first quarter of 2011-12, oil imports rose 18 per cent to $ 30.5 billion and it is projected to be around $ 120-130 billion during the entire financial year 2011-12. Machinery imports valued at $ 9 billion showing 49 per cent growth. With 71 per cent growth electronics imports went to $ 7.6 billion.

It may be recalled that during last year 2010-11, merchandise exports had grown 37.55% to $ 246 billion compared with 2009-10 while imports were up 21.6 per cent at $ 350 billion, resulting trade deficit at $ 104 billion.

The government has set a target of $ 500 billion worth of exports by 2014 and doubling of India’s share of global exports by 2020.

RBI Asks Government To Improve Expenditure Quality:

RBI in its quarterly review of Monetary and Credit Policy 2011-12 pointed out the risk of high fiscal deficit pushing up inflation and consequently it suggested central government to improve the quality of expenditure to contain demand in the economy.

Trade Figures (Ap11)
Exports–The Break-up Imports–The Break-up
Sector Value ($ b) (% growth) Sector Value ($ b) (% growth)
Engineering 23 94 Oil 30.5 18
Oil 14 60 Pearls, gems 7.5 10
Gems &jewellery 9.25 19 Gold & silver 17.7 200
Readymade garments 3.6 34 Machinery 9 49
Manmade yarn & fabrics 1.2 30 Electronics 7.6 71
Cotton yarn & fabrics 1.5 9.1 Chemicals 4.5 19
Electronics 2.8 69 Coal 3.7 27
Drugs & pharma 3.08 25 Iron & steel 2.7 -10
Chemicals 2.9 52 Transport equipment 2.5 34
Plastics & linoleum 1.5 50 Ores & scrap 3.4 37
Leather 1.1 26 Vegetable Oil 2 55
Mica, coal & ores 2.7 270 Resins & plastics 1.8 0
Marine products 0.6 27 Fertilisers 1.28 -28

As per RBI’s viewpoint, the large fiscal deficit has been a key source of demand pressures, therefore, fiscal consolidation is critical to maintain inflationary pressure in the economy. The government can support RBI’s efforts to achieve low and stable inflation by re-allocating resources to finance supply bottle-necks in food and infrastructure.

Outstanding Liabilities and Gross Fiscal Deficit

(as % of GDP)

Year Outstanding Liabilities

Gross Fiscal Deficit

2009-10 53.7 5.4
2010-11 49.9 4.7
2011-12 (BE) 48.5 4.6

Despite the hike in administered prices of fuel products, RBI still finds an element of suppressed inflation in the economy. As per RBI’s estimates, about 1 per cent of gross domestic product is still to be financed and becomes a major portion of this subsidy Bill. This subsidy Bill will result in inflationary pressure which, according to RBI is a major concern on the part of the government.

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

General: 
STUDY KITS: 

(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Numerical Ability

IBPS logo

(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Numerical Ability

1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?
1. 25
2. 26
3. 27
4. 30 5. 26
Answer: (3)

2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same rational number. The required rational number is:
1. 1/8
2. 4/9
3. 2/8
4. 3/8
5. 3/8
Answer: (5)

3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as remainders respectively.
1. 36
2. 37
3. 42
4. 29
5. 47
Answer: (2)

4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayesh’s age in years?
1. 29
2. 30
3. 24
4. 25
5. 28
Answer: (3)

5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 5. Their total value is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paise coins is:
1. Rs. 28
2. Rs. 36
3. Rs. 49
4. Rs. 72
5. Rs. 50
Answer: (1)

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

General: 
STUDY KITS: 

(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Mental Ability

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Mental Ability

Verbal

1. If Step IV reads ‘to restrict the use of air conditioners”, which of the following will definitely be the input?
(1)use to of the air conditioners restrict
(2)restrict the to of air conditioners use
(3)the air conditioners of restrict use to
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security reasons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every batch. Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch.
Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by
Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on…

2. If pass-code for the third batch is ‘night succeed day and hard work-to for’, what will be the pass-code for the sixth batch?
(1)work hard to for succeed night and day
(2)hard work for and succeed night to day
(3)work hard for to succeed night and day
(4)hard work for to succeed night and day
(5) None of these

3. If ‘visit in zoo should the time day’ is the pass-code for the fifth batch, zoo we the should visit day time in’ will be the pass-code for which of following batches?
(1) II
(2) IV
(3) I
(4) III
(5) VI

4. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code ‘to fast rush avoid not do very run’. What would have been the pass-code for him had he visited the museum in the second bitch?
(1)rush do not avoid to run very fast
(2)rush not do-avoid to run very
(3)avoid rush not do to run very fast
(4) Date inadequate
(5) None of these

5. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code ‘length the day equal of an night are’. However, he could not visit the museum in the second batch as he was a little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new pass-code issued to him?
(1)and of are night the length equal day
(2)and are of night the length equal day
(3)and of are night the equal day length
(4 )an d of are th e night len gth day equal
(5) None of these

 

6. If ass-code for the second batch is ‘to confidence hard you leads work and success’, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?(1)leads success to you hard confidence and work
(2)leads success you to hard confidence and work
(3)leads success to you hard confidence work and
(4)leads to success you hard confidence and work
(5) None of these

 

7. If the pass-code issued for the last (sixth) batch is ‘and pencil by all boys used are pen’, what will be the passcode for the first batch?
(1)pencil and pen are used by all boys
(2)pen and pencil used are by all boys
(3)pen and pencil are used by all boys
(4)Pencil and pen are used all by boys
(5) None of these

 

8. If the pass-code for the sixth batch is ‘not go the way to of out do’, what will be the pass-code for the third batch?(1)Of do to out go not way the
(2)of to do out not go way the
(3)of to go out do not way the
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

 

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word rearrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement:
Input: Over you pat me crow easy to.
Steps: (I) pat over you crow easy to me
Steps: (II) crow pat over you to me easy
Steps: (III) over crow pal to me easy you
Steps: (IV) to over crow pat easy you me and so on.
As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate step for the given input in the following questions:

9. If Step II of an input is ‘ge su but he for game free’, what would be step VI?
(1)a for but fine he game su
(2)for free ge game su he but
(3)free ge for but game su he
(4)he ge su but game free for
(5) None of these

10. If step IV of an input is ‘blue navy kit lime se get‘, which of the following would definitely be the input?
(1)navy get lime out kit se blue
(2)lime navy get kit se blue out
(3)lime blue navy kit get out se
(4)kit blue navy se get out lime
(5) None of these

11. Input: but calm free are so not eat. Which of the following will be the 3rd step for this input?
(1)so free but calm eat are not
(2)but calm are free not so eat
(3)are but calm free not eat so
(4)but so free eat are not calm
(5) None of these

 

12. If step V of an input is ‘put down col in as mach sa’ , what would be the 8th step?(1)down in put much sa as col
(2)in put down cot much sa as
(3)much in put down sa as col
(4)col put down as much sa in
(5) None of these

 

13. Input: rim bye eat klin fe to low Which of the following steps would be ‘fe low rim to bye klin eat’?
(1) VIth
(2) vth
(3) IVth
(4) IIIrd
(5) None of these

Directions: A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:

Input: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
Step I: Put for he watch hand pocket them.
Step II: Put he for watch pocket hand them.
Step III: Put hand pocket watch for he them.
Step IV: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
And so on goes the machine. Study the logic and answer the questions that follow:

14. If Step III of a given input be ‘fly sky birds my su fur say’, what is the seventh step of the input?
(1)fly sky birds my su fur say
(2)fly birds sky my fur su say
(3)fly fur su my birds sky say
(4)fly su fur my sky birds say
(5) None of these

15. If Step VII of an input is ‘slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi’, what is step V of that input?
(1)slow dig hak pat dhurwa ran vi
(2)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(3)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(4)slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi
(5) None of these

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - English Language

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - English Language


Direction: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested. One of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out appropriate word in each case.

The Reserve Bank has taken a bold (46) in the development of money, the government securities and the foreign exchange markets in (47) of their critical role in overall growth and development of the economy and (48) in the transmission mechanism of monetary policy. The approach has been one of simultaneous movements on several fronts, graduated and callibrated, with an (49) on institutional and infrastructural development and  improvements in market microstructure. The pace of reforms was contingent (50) putting in place appropriate systems and procedures, technologies and market practices. Initiatives taken by the Reserve Bank have brought about a (51) transformation of various segments of the financial market. These developments by improving the depth and liquidity in domestic financial markets have (52) to better price discovery of interest rates and exchange rates, which, in turn, hae led to greater (53) in resource allocation in the economy. The increase in size and depth of financial market has (54) the way for (55) use of indirect instruments.

1. (1) interest
(2) participation
(3) step
(4) role
(5) None of these

2. (1) point
(2) tune
(3) view
(4) pursuit
(5) None of these

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Computer Knowledge

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Computer Knowledge

1. Buffer is device/storage area–
1. Where data are temporarily stored
2. Where data is permanently stored
3. Where data error occurs
4. All of the above 5. None of these

2. A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number of nodes is called–
1. Car Topology
2. Bus Topology
3. Truck Topology
4. All of the above
5. None of these

3. An error in a computer program is referred as–
1. Bug
2. Bit
3. Virus
4. All of the above
5. None of these

4. Circuits that provide a communication path between two or more devices of a digital computer system is–
1. Car
2. Bus
3. Truck
4. All of the above
5. None of these

5. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred as–
1. Byte
2. Octal
3. Bubble
4. All of the above
5. None of these

6. Cache memory is a–
1. Small buffer storage
2. Permanent storage
3. Main memory
4. All of the above
5. None of these

7. The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number system is referred as–
1. Number system
2. Base
3. Power
4. All of the above
5. None of these

8. Cache memory is–
1. Smaller and faster than main storage
2. Bigger and slower than main storage
3. Smaller but slower than main memory
4. Bigger and faster than main memory
5. None of these

9. Cache memory–
1. Is a Static RAM
2. Increases the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate
3. Both 1. and 2. are true .
4. Both 1. and 2. are false
5. None of these

 

10. Following is false for BASIC–1. Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
2. High-level interactive programming language
3. Works in time sharing environment
4. Low level object oriented language
5. None of these

 

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::REASONING ABILITY::

1. A school bus driver starts from the school, drives 2 km towards North, takes a left turn and drives for 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives for 8 km before taking a left turn again and driving for 5 km. The driver finally takes a leftturn and drives 1 km before stopping. How far and towards which direction should the driver drive to reach the school again?

(a) 3 km towards North
(b) 7 km towards East
(c) 6 km towards South
(d) 6 km towards West
(e) 5 km towards North

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 2-3) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:

A, B, C, D, E and F live on different floors in the same building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it , number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6. A lives on an even numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which D and F live. F lives on a floor above D’s floor. D does not live on floor number 2. B does not live on an odd numbered floor. C does not live on any of the floors below F’s floor. E does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below the floor on which B lives.

2. Who amongst the following live on the floors exactly between D and F ?

(a) E, B
(b) C, B
(c) E, C
(d) A, E
(e) B, A

3. On which of the following floors does B live?

(a) 6th
(b) 4th
(c) 2nd
(d) 5th
(e) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 4-5) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a five letter English word (which may or may not be a meaningful English word), there are two letters between L and P. S is not placed immediately next to L. There is only one letter between S and A. S is towards the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to E.

4. Which of the following is correct with respect to the word thus formed?

(a) E is at one of the extreme ends of the word.
(b) P is not placed immediately next to A.
(c) There are two letters between A and E in the word thus formed.
(d) P is placed second to the right of E.
(e) None is correct

5. Which of the following words will be formed based on the given conditions?

(a) SPAEL
(b) PEALS
(c) LEAPS
(d) SEPAL
(e) LAPSE

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : In each question below are two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. Give answer (e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow. (Qs. 6-7) : Statements : All gliders are parachutes. No parachute is an airplane. All airplanes are helicopters.

6. Conclusions : I. No glider is an airplane.
II.All gliders being helicopters is a possibility.

7. Conclusions : I. No helicopter is a glider.
II. All parachutes being helicopters is a possibility.

8. Statements : Some mails are chats.
All updates are chats.
Conclusions : I. All mails being updates is a possibility.
II. No update is a mail.

(Qs. 9-10) : Statement : No stone is metal. Some metals are papers. All papers are glass.

9. Conclusions : I. All stones being glass is a possibility.
II. No stone is a paper.

10. Conclusions : I. No glass is a metal.
II. Atleast some glass is metal.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digits numbers.) Input : sine 88 71 cos theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 Step I : cos sine 71 theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 88 Step II : delta cos sine theta 14 56 gamma 26 88 71 Step III : gamma delta cos sine theta 14 26 88 71 56 Step IV : sine gamma delta cos theta 14 88 71 56 26 Step V : theta sine gamma delta cos 88 71 56 26 14 and Step V is the last Step of the arrangement of the above input as the intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input, Input for the questions: Input : for 52 all 96 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46 (All the numbers given in the arrangement are two digit numbers)

11. Which word/number would be at the 6th position from the left in Step V ?

(a) 25
(b) stop
(c) jam
(d) all
(e) road

12. Which of the following would be the Step III ?

(a) hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46
(b) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut 38 stop 96 46 73 52
(c) hut for bus all jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 25
(d) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52
(e) None of these

13. Which word/number would be at 8th position from the right in Step IV?

(a) 15
(b) road
(c) hut
(d) jam
(e) stop

14. Which of the following would be Step VII ?

(a) stop road jam hut for bus all 15 96 73 5246 38 25
(b) road jam hut for bus all stop 15 25 38 46 52 73 96
(c) stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 52 46 38 25 15
(d) jam hut for bus all 25 road stop 15 96 73 52 46 38
(e) There will be no such step as the arrangement gets established at Step VI

15. Which step number would be the following output ? bus all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73

(a) There will be no such step
(b) III
(c) II
(d) V
(e) VI

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Representatives from eight different Banks viz.. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them is from a different Bank viz. UCO Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Bank of Maharashtra, Canara Bank, Syndicate Bank, Punjab National Bank, Bank of India and Dena Bank. F sits second to right of the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of India is an immediate neighbour of the representative from Canara Bank. Two people sit between the representative of Bank of India and B, C and E are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of Maharashtra sits second to right of D. D is neither the representative of Canara Bank nor Bank of India. G and the representative from UCO Bank are immediate neighbours of each other. B is not the representative of UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce. H sits third to left of the representative from Dena Bank.  epresentative from Punjab National Bank sits second to left of the representative from Syndicate Bank.

16. Who amongst the following sit exactly between B and the representative from Bank of India?

(a) A and the representative from UCO Bank
(b) F and G
(c) H and the representative from Bank of Maharashtra
(d) H and G
(e) Representatives from Syndicate Bank and Oriental Bank of Commerce

17. Who amongst the following is the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce?

(a) A
(b) C
(c) H
(d) G
(e) D

18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) H - UCO Bank
(b) A - Canara Bank
(c) D - Bank of Maharashtra
(d) E -Syndicate Bank
(e) F - Punjab National Bank

19. Who amongst the following sits second to left of B ?

(a) C
(b) H
(c) The representative from Canara Bank
(d) The representative from Punjab National Bank
(e) G

20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

(a) B is the representative from Bank of Maharashtra.
(b) C sits second to right of H.
(c) The representative from Dena Bank sits to the immediate left of the representative from UCO Bank.
(d) A sits second to right of the representative from Bank of India.
(e) The representatives from Bank of Maharashtra and Syndicate Bank are immediate neighbours of each other.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

21. How many daughters does W have?

I. B and D are sisters of M.
II. M's father T is husband of W.
Ill. Out of the three children which T has, only one is a boy.

(a) Only I and III
(b) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(c) Only II & III are sufficient to answer the question
(d) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
(e) Only I and II

22. Who among A, B, C, D, E and F each having a different height, is the tallest?

I. B is taller than A but shorter than E.
II. Only two of them are shorter than C.
III. D is taller than only F.

(a) Only I and II
(b) Only I and III
(c) Only II and III
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) All I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question

23. How is 'go' written in a code language?

I. 'now or never again' is written as 'tom ka na sa' in that code language.
II. 'you come again now' is written as 'ja ka ta sa' in that code language.
III. 'again go now or never' is written as 'na ho ka sa tom' in that code language.

(a) Only I and III
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and II
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) None of these

24. Towards which direction is village J from village W ?

I. Village R is to the west of Village W and to the north of Village T.
II. Village Z is to the east of Village J and to the south of Village T.
III. Village M is to the northeast of Village J and north of Village Z.

(a) Only III
(b) Only II and III
(c) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(d) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
(e) None of these

25. On which day of the week starting from Monday did Suresh visit Chennai ?

l. Suresh took leave on Wednesday.
II. Suresh visited Chennai the day after his mother's visit to his house
III. Suresh's mother visited Suresh's house neither on Monday nor on Thursday

(a) Only II and III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only I and III
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.

1. Women’s rights around the world are an important indicator to understand global well-being. A major global women’s rights treaty was ratified by the majority of the world’s nations a few decades ago. ...... These ranges from the cultural, political to the economic. For example, women often work more than men, yet are paid less; gender discrimination affects girls and women throughout their lifetime; and women and girls are often the ones that suffer the most poverty. Many may think that women’s rights are only an issue in countries where  eligion is law. Or even worse, some may think this is no longer an issue at all. But reading the report about the United Nation’s Women’s Treaty and how an increasing number of countries are lodging reservations will show otherwise. Gender equality furthers the cause of child survival and development for all of society, so the importance of women’s rights and gender equality should not be underestimated.

(a) This treaty tackled and solved a number of issues related to women.
(b) Why is it then, that moment still face a number of problems on the domestic front?
(c) Thus, the woman today is ten times more empowered as compared to a woman say about a decade ago.
(d) Women’s activists across nations have implored the respective governments to take this seriously.
(e) Yet, despite many successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in all areas of life.

2. Research has shown that air pollutants from fossil fuel use make clouds reflect more of the sun’s rays back into space. This leads to an effect known as global dimming whereby less heat and energy reaches the earth. ............ However, it is believed that global dimming caused the droughts in certain parts of the world where millions died, because the northern hemisphere oceans were not warm enough to allow rain formation. Global dimming is also hiding the true power of global warming. By cleaning up global dimming-causing pollutants without talking greenhouse gas emissions, rapid warming has been observed, and various human health and ecological disasters have resulted, as witnessed during the European heat wave in 2003, which saw thousands of people die.

(a) This though, does not bring any relief in the problems associated with climate change.
(b) This phenomenon thus is part of the climate change problem.
(c) Scientists thus believe that this phenomenon goes hand in hand with global warming
(d) At first, it sounds like an ironic savior to climate change problems
(e) The answer to all our problems with respect to climate change is definitely here

3. Poverty is the state for the majority of the world’s people and nations. Why is this? .......... Have they been lazy, made poor decisions, and been solely responsible for their own plight? What about their governments? Have they pursued policies that actually harm successful development? Such causes of poverty and inequality are no doubt real. But deeper and more global causes of poverty are often less discussed. Behind the increasing interconnectedness promised by globalization are global decisions, policies, and practices. These are typically influenced, driven, or formulated by the rich and powerful. These can be leaders of rich countries or other global actors such as multinational corporations, institutions, and influential people. In the face of such enormous external influence, the governments of poor nations and their people are often powerless. As a result, in the global context, a few get wealthy while the majority struggles.

(a) Is it enough to blame poor people for their own predicament?
(b) What is the government doing about it?
(c) Are the wealthy ones in the nation even aware of this?
(d) The government has already taken measures to eradicate the same.
(e) The huge gap between the rich and the poor in the nation is now narrowing

4. Analysts and industry pundits forecast that notebook market, which has been growing faster than the desktop market for the past three years, is expected to overtake the desktop market by the year 2011-12. A fall in prices, large deals from governments and institutions, and demand from consumers and sectors such as education are expected to help the notebook numbers. According to research agencies, the year 2010-11 saw notebook volumes rise, and for the first time a million plus notebooks were sold in India in a single quarter. The market has grown nearly four times for notebooks. The demand is driven by all sectors and a very buoyant consumer market, which prefers mobile computers. Entry-level notebook prices have dropped below the Rs. 25,000 mark; this has helped break the ice with new customers. This drop in notebook prices has been helped by the drop in the prices of the building blocks that make a notebook. It’s simple. With notebook volumes growing, the prices of the components are also bound to come down. .........

(a) All this has resulted in a noticeable change in a number of large government tenders for notebooks; which were traditionally for desktops.
(b) Because of this the government still prefers desktops to notebooks and has passed tenders for the same.
(c) Thereby making them more expensive.
(d) Thus the forecast for the coming year states that desktops will be the preferred technology choice only for consumers who cannot afford the exorbitantly priced notebook.
(e) Thus notebooks will become obsolete after a decade or so.

5. Next to China, India is the most populated country in the world. ...... Particularly, rush to technical and higher education has increased as the scope for arts and science has become lesser and lesser due to lack of reforms and up gradation in the course structure and materials according to the developments of the world. Also, qualification in higher education gives added advantage to facesuccessfully competition in the job market.

(a) Keeping this in mind, the government has provided concessions in the admission fees for the arts and science streams in the country.
(b) Naturally there is too much rush and competition in every field.
(c) Despite this the rush to higher education is lesser.
(d) This population increase, though, has not kept pace with the knowledge expansion around the world.
(e) In the next decade it will become the most populous.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Rearrange the following seven sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) in the proper sequence to from a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(1) To elaborate briefly on these characteristics and dimensions that the author is talking about – NRMs are general tests intended to be used to classify students by percentile for measuring either aptitude or proficiency for admissions into or placement within a program.
(2) Contrastingly, the CRM, such as a locally produced achievement test, measures absolute performance that is compared only with the learning objective, hence a perfect score is theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the pre-specified material, or conversely, all students may fail the test.
(3) In most of these books, the authors classify a measurement strategy as either norm-referenced (NRM) or criterionreferenced (CRM).
(4) Another author points out how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is the relative performance of the students compared with that of all the others resulting in, ideally, a bell curve distribution.
(5) Numerous books on constructing and using language tests have been written by various authors.
(6) CRMs, on the other hand, are more specific, achievement or diagnostic tests intended to be used for motivating students by measuring to what percent they have achieved mastery of the thought or learned material.
(7) One of the authors clearly delineates the differences of these two types by focusing on the categories of “test characteristics” and “logistical dimensions.”

6. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 7
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

7. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

8. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
(e) 5

9. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 6

10. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 7
(d) 4
(e) 5

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick up two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. The ability of a woman to do well does not .......... on whether it is a man’s world or not, because everyone has his/her own opportunities.

(1) trust
(2) depend
(3) reckon
(4) live
(5) rest
(6) believe

(a) (4) and (5)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (1) and (6)
(d) (2) and (5)
(e) (3) and (4)

12. Drugs worth ` 3 lakhs were ......... from the apartment by the police.

(1) manufactured
(2) ruptured
(3) seized
(4) confiscated
(5) bought
(6) compared

(a) (1) and (4)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (3) and (5)
(d) (5) and (6)
(e) (3) and (4)

13. An organization .......... to the mission of road safety has prepared an action plan for reducing accidents and related injuries and fatalities.

(1) specified
(2) inaugurated
(3) committed
(4) kicked off
(5) succumbed
(6) dedicated

(a) (3) and (6)
(b) (1) and (5)
(c) (3) and (5)
(d) (4) and (6)
(e) (1) and (3)

14. A man reportedly .......... two passports with the same photograph, but under different names was arrested by the commissioner’s Task Force.

(1) possessing
(2) examining
(3) surrendering
(4) mastering
(5) holding
(6) fixating

(a) (2) and (3)
(b) (3) and (6)
(c) (1) and (5)
(d) (1) and (4)
(e) (4) and (5)

15. The Hollywood star and the Bollywood heroine are being ......... as the next big onscreen couple.

(1) labeled
(2) explained
(3) worshiped
(4) touted
(5) exclaimed
(6) shouted

(a) (2) and (4)
(b) (1) and (3)
(c) (2) and (6)
(d) (1) and (4)
(e) (3) and (4)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Below is given a single word with options to its meaning in different contexts. You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the word when the context is changed. Select the correct alterative from (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) which represents all those synonyms.

16. MASK

(1) Cover
(2) Hide
(3) Conceal
(4) Disguise

(a) Only (1)
(b) Both (2) and (4)
(c) Only (2), (3) and (4)
(d) Only (1), (2) and (3)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

17. REGULAR

(1) Present
(2) Common
(3) Indiscriminate
(4) Uniform

(a) Only (4)
(b) Both (2) and (4)
(c) Both (1) and (3)
(d) Only (2), (3) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

18. LABOUR

(1) Expedite
(2) To move faster
(3) Controlled
(4) Toil

(a) Only (4)
(b) Both (1) and (3)
(c) Both (2), (3) and (4)
(d) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

19. MEAN

(1) Imply
(2) Understand
(3) Average
(4) Characterized by malice

(a) Only (3)
(b) Both (1) and (4)
(c) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(d) Only (1), (2) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

20. ALONE

(1) Exclusively
(2) Morose
(3) Solitary
(4) Human being

(a) Only (1)
(b) Both (1) and (3)
(c) Both (2) and (3)
(d) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-35): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. As the country embarks on planning (121) the 12th Plan (2012- 17) period, a key question mark (122) hangs over the process is on the energy requirements. Growth is energy hungry, and the aspirations of growing at 9- 0% will (123) huge demands on the energy  resources of the country. In this energy Jigsaw, renewable energy will (124) like never before in the 12th Plan and the (125). By the rule of the thumb, India will (126) about 100 gigawatts (Gw)-100,000 megawatts-of capacity addition in the next five years. Encouraging trends on energy efficiency and sustained (127) by some parts of the government the Bureau of Energy Efficiency in particular needs to be complimented for this-have led to substantially lesser energy intensity of economic growth. However, even the tendered demand numbers are (128) to be below 80Gw. As against this need the coal supply from domestic sources is unlikely to support more than 25 Gw equivalent capacity. Imported coal can add some more, but at a much (129) cost. Gas-based electricity generation is unlikely to contribute anything substantial in view of the unprecedented gas supply challenges. Nuclear will be  (130) in the foreseeable future. Between imported coal, gas, large hydro and nuclear, no more than 15-20Gw equivalent can be (131) to be added in the five-year time block. (132) (133) this, capacity addition in the renewable energy based power generation has touched about 3Gw a year. In the coming five years, the overall capacity addition in the electricity grid (134) renewable energy is likely to range between 20Gw and 25Gw. Additionally, over and above the grid-based capacity, off-grid electricity applications are reaching remote places and (135) lives where grid-based electricity supply has miserably failed.

21. (a) On
(b) Against
(c) For
(d) Onwards
(e) At

22. (a) Where
(b) That
(c) Inside
(d) Always
(e) Who

23. (a) Replace
(b) Forward
(c) Subject
(d) Place
(e) Demand

24. (a) Light
(b) Pass
(c) Publish
(d) Feature
(e) Find

25. (a) Earlier
(b) Likewise
(c) Publicity
(d) Next
(e) After

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::GENERAL AWARENESS::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::GENERAL AWARENESS::

1. Which of the following countries recently conferred its. Highest State Honour on Late Mrs. Indira Gandhi for her contribution in its 'Liberation war'?

(a) South Sudan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Bhutan
(d) Slovakin
(e) Croatia

2. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Banks cannot accept demand and time deposite from public.
(b) Banks can accept only demand deposits from public.
(c) Banks can accept only time deposits from public.
(d) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public.
(e) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government.

3. Interest payable on saving bank accounts is

(a) not regulated by RBI.
(b) regulated by State Governments
(c) regulated by Central Government
(d) regulated by RBI
(e) regulated by Finance minister.

4. Which of the following is the correct statement?

(a) State bank of India is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(b) A nationalized bank is the sole authority to Issue and manage currency in India
(c) A cooperative bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(d) RBI is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(e) None of these

5. The Home Minister of India was recently on a visit to Bangladesh where both the countries signed a Coordinated Border Management Plan (CBMP). What are major points of this agreement?

(A) The plan will help in resolving long pending border dispute between both the nations.
(B) The head count of the people living in enclaves on the border will be completed within next six month's time
(C) India assured that no BSF Jawan will open fire on the people crossing the borders unless there is an attack on them.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) and (C)
(e) Both (A) and (C)

6. Which of the following is/are commodity/ies on which subsidy is given to farmers/ poor in India?

(A) Fertiliser
(B) Kerosene
(C) LPG

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Only (A) & (C)
(e) All (A), (B) & (C)

7. The President of India was recently on a visit to South Korea and Mongolia. During her visit some agreements were signed by both the countries. Which of the following was a common area on which India signed agreements with South Korea and Mongolia both?

(a) Peaceful use of Nuclear energy
(b) Export of edible oil to South Korea and Mongolia
(c) Providing technical help to become self sufficient in production of food grains
(d) Willingness of both the countries to support India's bid to have permanent seat in UN Security Council
(e) To hold Olympic games in 2022 In New Delhi jointly with South Korea and Mongolia

8. Iran recently threatened that it will stop supply of oil to India if the payment Issue is NOT sorted out quickly. What is the problem in payment to Iran?

(A) The oil supplied by Iran is of substandard quality. Hence India suspended the supply and stopped the payment.
(B) Indian banks have stopped transfer of money to Iran as UN has imposed sanctions on Iran.
(C) India is bound to purchase oil only from OPEC members. Iran has abandoned the membership of OPEC, which has created a problem in payments.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) and (C)
(e) None of these

9. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of

(a) Both Savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
(b) Savings bank accounts and current accounts
(c) Both Savings bank accounts and loan accounts
(d) Both Savings bank accounts and cash accounts only
(e) Both Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts

10. Yingluck Shinawatra has won recently held elections to become first woman Prime Minister of

(a) Myanmar.
(b) South Korea
(c) North Korea
(d) Thailand
(e) China

11. Which of the following is correct statement?

(a) Normally no interest is paid on current deposit accounts
(b) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts
(c) The rate of interest on current account and savings account are the same
(d) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank
(e) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits.

12. The Lokayukta of which of the following States had submitted a report on illegal mining of Iron are in the State?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Orissa
(e) None of these

13. The usual deposit accounts of banks are

(a) Current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
(b) Current accounts, Post office savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(c) Loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(d) Current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(e) Current bill accounts and term deposit accounts

14. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are

(a) repayable after an agreed period.
(b) repayable on demand
(c) not repayable
(d) repayable after death of depositors
(e) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank's choice.

15. The countries these days are most worried about the currency war. They are arguing about whose actions harmed the world economy the most. What are the views of the rich countries, particularly USA, In this regard?

(A) They feel that it was China who was unwilling to allow the Yuan to rise.
(B) They feel that it was India who had snatched jobs in most of the European countries and USA. This made the situation more grim.
(C) Some countries feel that it wan Japan who allowed swapping of its currency with other nations and created a grim situation in world market.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) & (C)
(e) None of these

16. Which of the following is NOT a Millennium Goal set by the UNO?

(a) Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
(b) Reduce child mortality
(c) Ensure environmental sustainability
(d) Combat terrorism and bring people in main stream of society
(e) Achieve universal primary education

17. Financial inclusion means provision of

(a) financial services namely payments, remittances, savings, loans and Insurance at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(b) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(c) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(d) food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(e) education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.

18. Which of the following Statements containing results of India's recent Census is NOT correct?

(a) Kerala has about 94% literacy, the highest in India.
(b) The Sex Ratio in India is 940
(c) Male literacy is lower than female literacy in seven most developed states
(d) Uttar Pradesh is the most populous State in India
(e) The population of India has increased by 181 million during the decade 2001-2011

19. Which of the following is known as cross selling by Banks?

(A) Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder
(B) Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor
(C) Issuance of Cash against Cheque presented by a third party

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Both (A) and (C)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

20. Angela Merkel was recently in India to receive Jawaharlal Nehru Award for international Understanding for the year 2009. What has been her contribution in the international politics which made her the 'Best Choice' for the award?

(A) She played a major role in restarting negotiations between Russia and USA on 'START'.
(B) She initiated 'Health Care Reforms' in Germany and solved problems related to future energy development.'
(C) She played a crucial role in negotiation of the Treaty of Lisbon' and Berlin declaration.

(a) Only (B) and (C)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Only (A) and (C)
(e) None of these

21. Japan won the women's Football World Cup 2011 by defeating

(a) England
(b) Germany
(c) Argentina
(d) USA
(e) China

22. Which of the following states became the first state in the country to launch RBI's e-payment system for commercial tax payers?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Gujarat
(d) Maharashtra
(e) Karnataka

23. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid. It is called

(a) payment of the cheque
(b) drawing of the cheque
(c) cancelling of the cheque
(d) dishonour of the cheque
(e) taking of the cheque.

24. Mortgage is a

(a) security on movable property for a loan given by a bank.
(b) security on immovable property for a loan given by a bank.
(c) concession on immovable property for a loan given by a bank.
(d) facility on immovable property for a loan given by a bank.
(e) security on immovable property for a deposit received by a bank.

25. The world's highest 'Rail Bridge' is being constructed in the State of Jammu & Kashmir. This bridge will be on which of the following rivers?

(a) Jhelum
(b) Chenab
(c) Indus
(d) Ravi
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. 11449 x √6241 - (54)2 =√?+(74)2

(a) 384
(b) 3721
(c) 381
(d) 3638
(e) None of these

2. (3√8 + √8) x (8√8 + 7√8) - 98 = ?

(a) 2√8
(b) 8√8
(c) 382
(d) 386
(e) None of these

3. 3463 x 295 – 18611 = ? + 5883

(a) 997091
(b) 997071
(c) 997090
(d) 999070
(e) None of these

4.

(a) 1/3
(b) 0.75
(c) 3/2
(d) 1/2
(e) None of these

5. (23.1)2 + (48.6)2 – (39.8)2 = ? + 1147.69

(a) (13.6)2
(b) 12.8
(c) 163.84 (d) 12.8
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

6. 3 4663 + 349= ?¸ 21.003

(a) 7600
(b) 7650
(c) 7860
(d) 7560
(e) 7680

7. 39.897% of 4331 + 58.779% of 5003 = ?

(a) 4300
(b) 4500
(c) 4700
(d) 4900
(e) 5100

8. 59.88 ¸ 12.21 ´ 6.35 = ?

(a) 10
(b) 50
(c) 30
(d) 70
(e) 90

9. 43931.03 ¸ 2111.02 ´ 401.04 = ?

(a) 8800
(b) 7600
(c) 7400
(d) 9000
(e) 8300

10. 6354 ´34.993 = ?

(a) 3000
(b) 2800
(c) 2500
(d) 3300
(e) 2600

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11–15) : In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

11. 9050 5675 3478 2147 1418 1077 950

(a) 3478
(b) 1418
(c) 5675
(d) 2147
(e) 1077

12. 7 12 40 222 1742 17390 208608

(a) 7
(b) 12
(c) 40
(d) 1742
(e) 208608

13. 6 91 584 2935 11756 35277 70558

(a) 91
(b) 70558
(c) 584
(d) 2935
(e) 35277

14. 1 4 25 256 3125 46656 823543

(a) 3125
(b) 823543
(c) 46656
(d) 25
(e) 256

15. 8424 4212 2106 1051 526.5 263.25 131.625

(a) 131.625
(b) 1051
(c) 4212
(d) 8424
(e) 263.25

16. Six-eleventh of a number is equal to twenty-two percent of second number. Second number is equal to the one-fourth of third number. The value of the third number is 2400. What is the 45% of first number?

(a) 109.8
(b) 111.7
(c) 117.6
(d) 123.4
(e) None of these

17. An HR Company employes 4800 people, out of which 45 percent are males and 60 percent of the males are either 25 years or older. How many males are employed in that HR Company who are younger than 25 years ?

(a) 2640
(b) 2160
(c) 1296
(d) 864
(e) None of these

18. The average marks in English subject of a class of 24 students is 56. If the marks of three students were misread as 44, 45 and 61 of the actual marks 48, 59 and 67 respectively, then what would be the correct average?

(a) 56.5
(b) 59
(c) 57.5
(d) 58
(e) None of these

19. In a test, a candidate secured 468 marks out of maximum marks 'A'. If the maximum marks 'A' were converted to 700 marks, he would have secured 336 marks. What were the maximum marks of the test?

(a) 775
(b) 875
(c) 975
(d) 1075
(e) None of these

20. The simple interest accrued on an amount of ` 22,500 at the end of four years is ` 10,800. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate at the end of two years ?

(a) 16,908
(b) 5,724
(c) 28,224
(d) 8,586
(e) None of these

21. Rubina could get equal number of ` 55, ` 85 and ` 105 tickets for a movie. She spents ` 2940 for all the tickets. How many of each did she buy?

(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

22. Ramola's monthly income is three times Ravina's monthly income. Ravina's monthly income is fifteen percent more than Ruchira's monthly income. Ruchira's monthly income is ` 32,000. What is Ramola's annual income ?

(a) 1,10,400
(b) 13,24,800
(c) 36,800
(d) 52,200
(e) None of these

23. In an Entrance Examination Ritu scored 56 percent marks, Smita scored 92 percent marks and Rina scored 634 marks. The maximum marks of the examination are 875. What are the average marks scored by all the three girls together?

(a) 1929
(b) 815
(c) 690
(d) 643
(e) None of these

24. The respective ratio between the present age of Manisha and Deepali is 5 : X. Manisha is 9 years younger than Parineeta. Parineeta's age after 9 years will be 33 years. The difference between Deepali's and Manisha's age is same as the present age of Parineeta. What will come in place of X?

(a) 23
(b) 39
(c) 15
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

25. Seema bought 20 pens, 8 packets of wax colours, 6 calculators and 7 pencil boxes. The price of one pen is ` 7, one packet of wax colour is ` 22, one calculator is ` 175 and one pencil box is ` 14 more than the combined price of one pen and one packet of wax colours. How much amount did Seema pay to the shopkeeper?

(a) 1,491
(b) 1,725
(c) 1,667
(d) 1,527
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

1. To change selected text to all capital letters, click the change case button, then click

(a) Uppercase
(b) Upper all
(c) Capslock
(d) Lock Upper
(e) Large Size

2. A person who uses his or her expertise to gain access to other people’s computers to get information illegally or do damage is a

(a) hacker
(b) analyst
(c) instant messenger
(d) programmer
(e) spammer

3. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be

(a) distributed
(b) free
(c) centralized
(d) open source
(e) None of these

4. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym

(a) CD
(b) DVD
(c) ROM
(d) RW
(e) ROS

5. The most common type of storage devices are

(a) persistent
(b) optical
(c) magnetic
(d) flash
(e) steel

6. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as

(a) an ASCII code
(b) a magnetic tape
(c) a bar code
(d) an OCR scanner
(e) None of these

7. A Web site’s main page is called its

(a) Homepage
(b) Browser page
(c) Search Page
(d) Bookmark
(e) None of these

8. Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of

(a) control
(b) output
(c) processing
(d) feedback
(e) input

9. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is

(a) dragging
(b) dropping
(c) right-clicking
(d) shift-clicking
(e) None of these

10. Computers use the ________ number system to store data and perform calculations.

(a) binary
(b) octal
(c) decimal
(d) hexadecimal
(e) None of these

11. ________ ‘are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.

(a) Phishing trips
(b) Computer viruses
(c) Spyware scams
(d) Viruses
(e) Phishing scams

12. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends?

(a) It is not unethical, because it is legal.
(b) It is unethical because the files are being given for free.
(c) Sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyright laws.
(d) It is not unethical because the files are being given for free.
(e) It is not unethical - anyone can access a computer

13. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?

(a) CTRL+A
(b) ALT+ F5
(c) SHIFT+A
(d) CTRL+K
(e) CTRL+H

14. To instruct Word to fit the width of a column to the contents of a table automatically, click the___button and then point to AutoFit Contents.

(a) Fit to Form
(b) Format
(c) Autosize
(d) Contents
(e) AutoFit

15. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is

(a) multiprogramming
(b) multitasking
(c) time-sharing
(d) multiprocessing
(e) None of these

16. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is

(a) memory-only
(b) write-only
(c) once-only
(d) run-only
(e) read-only

17. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called?

(a) RAM
(b) Floppy
(d) CD-ROM
(e) ROM

18. The default view in Excel is_____view.

(a) Work
(b) Auto
(c) Normal
(d) Roman
(e) None of these

19. What displays the contents of the active cell in Excel?

(a) Namebox
(b) Row Headings
(c) Formulabar
(d) Taskpane
(e) None of these

20. In Word you can force a page break

(a) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key
(b) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl + Enter
(c) by using the Insert/Section Break
(d) by changing the font size of your document
(e) None of these

21. Grouping and processing all of a firm’s transactions at one time is called

(a) a database management system
(b) batch processing
(c) a real-time system
(d) an on-line system
(e) None of these

22. Help menu is available at which button?

(a) End
(b) Start
(c) Turnoff
(d) Restart
(e) Reboot

23. You can keep your personal files/folders in

(a) My folder
(b) My Documents
(c) My Files
(d) My Text
(e) None of these

24. A central computer that holds collections programs for many PCs, workstations computers is a(n)

(a) supercomputer
(b) minicomputer
(c) laptop
(d) server
(e) None of these

25. When you save to this, your data will remain when the computer is turned off.

(a) RAM
(b) motherboard
(c) secondary storage device
(d) primary storage
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::REASONING ABILITY::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-4) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digits numbers)

Input : tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 bam
Step I : 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 bam alt
Step II : 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt bam
Step III : 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt bam high
Step IV : 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt bam high jar
Step V : 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt bam high jar rise
Step VI : 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt bam high jar rise tall
Step VII : 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt bam high jar rise tall wise
Step VII : is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input : 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two digits numbers)

1. Which step number is the following output ? 32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink

(a) Step V
(b) Step VI
(c) Step IV
(d) Step III
(e) There is no such step

2. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V ?

(a) 14
(b) 92
(c) feet
(d) best
(e) why

3. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between 'feet' and '32' as they appear in the last step of the output ?

(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) Seven

4. Which of the following represents the position of 'why' in the fourth step ?

(a) Eighth from the left
(b) Fifth from the right
(c) Sixth from the left
(d) Fifth from the left
(e) Seventh from the left

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 5-11) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
• B sits second to left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.
• D's daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H's husband.
• Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's other. Only one person sits between H's mother and E.
• Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

5. What is position of A with respect to his mother-in-law ?

(a) Immediate left
(b) Third to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Second to the right
(e) Fourth to the left

6. Who amongst the following is D's daughter ?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) E
(d) G
(e) H

7. What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild ?

(a) Immediate right
(b) Third to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Second to the left
(e) Fourth to the left

8. How many people sit between G and her uncle ?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) More than four

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(a) F
(b) C
(c) E
(d) H
(e) G

10. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement ?

(a) C is the cousin of E
(b) H and H's husband are immediate neighbours of each other
(c) No female is an immediate neighbour of C
(d) H sits third to left of her daughter
(e) B is the mother of H

11. Who sits to the immediate left of C ?

(a) F's grandmother
(b) G's son
(c) D's mother-in-law
(d) A
(e) G

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 12-18) : In each group of questions below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows;
Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows;
Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows;
Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows;
Give answer (e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

12. Statements : Some exams are tests. No exam is a question.
Conclusions : I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.

13. Statements : All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions : I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.

14. Statements : All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions : I. No energy is heat.
II. Some forces being heat is a possibility.

15. Statements : No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions : I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.

16. Statements : No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions : I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plastics.

17. Statements : Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics. No graphic is a picture.
Conclusions : I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.

18. Statements : All vacancies are jobs. Some jobs are occupations.
Conclusions : I. All vacancies are occupations.
II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19-21) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions :

Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only. A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

19. Which of the following could possibly be C's score ?

(a) 70
(b) 94
(c) 86
(d) 61
(e) 81

20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information ?

(a) D's score was definitely less than 60
(b) F scored the maximum marks
(c) Only two people scored more than C
(d) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks
(e) None is true

21. The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F's marks. Which of the following can be D's score ?

(a) 94
(b) 60
(c) 89
(d) 78
(e) 81

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 22-29) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions :

Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO bank, Syndicate bank, Canara bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)

• C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
• Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbour of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
• The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person  from Bank of Maharashtra.
• Q faces the person from Dena bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
• B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate bank.

22. Which of the following is true regarding A ?

(a) The person from UCO bank faces A
(b) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A
(c) A faces the person who sits second to right of R
(d) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(e) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line

23. Who is seated between R and the person from PNB ?

(a) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(b) P
(c) Q
(d) The person from Syndicate bank
(e) S

24. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?

(a) D and the person from PNB.
(b) The person from Indian bank and UCO bank.
(c) The person from Dena bank and P.
(d) The persons from Syndicate bank and D.
(e) C, Q

25. Who amongst the following faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra ?

(a) The person from Indian bank
(b) P
(c) R
(d) The person from Syndicate bank
(e) The person from Canara bank

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-3


(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-3


ENGLISH LANGUAGE :

Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

Laxmi Vilas Bank


Laxmi Vilas Bank


About :

The Lakshmi Vilas Bank Limited, a well-known and technology driven private sector bank, with over 9 decades of distinguished and dedicated service, is now embarking on a growth journey with strengths and new capabilities.

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-2


(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-2


REASONING ABILITY :

This is a test to see how well you can think. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions.

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-1


(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-1


ENGLISH LANGUAGE :

This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through questions on grammar & vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, sentence completion, comprehension of a pas- 
sage etc.

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Notification) SBI Specialist Officers - 2018

(Jobs) SBI : Posts of Specialist Cadre Officer Recruitment-2018

Post Detail :

State Bank of India invites Online application from Indian citizen for appointment to the following Specialist Cadre Officers posts.Candidates are requested to apply Online through the link given on Bank’s website 

  • *Sector Credit Specialists – Sector wise Positions (Total 19): Engineering & EPC -2, Banks & NBFC- 1, Metal & Metal Products – 2, Chemicals/Pharmaceuticals/ Fertilisers/ Plastics – 3, Other Manufacturing – 5, Other Non-Manufacturing – 4, International Credit – 2.
  • **Sector Risk Specialists – Sector wise Positions (Total 20): Power & Infrastructure – 3, Petroleum & Petrochemicals – 2, Engineering & EPC – 2,Banks & NBFC – 2, Metal & Metal Products – 2, Chemicals/ Pharmaceutical/ Fertilisers/ Plastics – 2, Other Manufacturing -3, Other Non-Manufacturing – 2, Large Accounts/ Key Group Analyst – 2.
  • $ VI and HI category candidates will not be suitable in these positions, as it will require travel, interaction and giving presentation at various levels etc

Education Qualification: 

Analytics Translators :
B. Tech/ B. E. (Computer Sciences)/ MCA/MBA (Business Analytics)/ M. Stat. (ISI Kolkata)
Other Qualifcations (Preferred): Data Analytics Qualifcations

Sector Credit Specialists :
B. Tech/ B. E. (Computer Sciences)/ MCA/MBA (Business Analytics)/ M. Stat. (ISI Kolkata)
Other Qualifcations (Preferred): Data Analytics Qualifcations Charted Accountant / MBA (Finance))/ Master in Finance Control/ Master in Management Studies/ PGDM (Finance).

Portfolio Management Specialists :
Chartered Accountant / MBA (Finance)

Sector Risk Specialists :
Chartered Accountant / MBA (Finance) /ICWA/ CFA

Other Qualifcations (Preferred): Financial Risk Manager (FRM) Certifcation by Global Association of Risk Professional (GARP)

Payment of Fees  :

i. Application fees and Intimation Charges (Non-refundable) is 600/-(Six Hundred only) for General and OBC candidates and intimation charges of 100/- (One hundred only) for SC/ ST/PWD candidates.
ii. Fee payment will have to be made online through payment gateway available thereat.

Age :

(As on 30-09-2018)

  • Minimum-25 years
  • Maximum- 35 years

Method of Selection :

The selection will be based on shortlisting and interview.
Interview:
Mere fulflling minimum qualifcation and experience will not vest any right in candidate for being called for interview. The Shortlisting Committee constituted by the Bank will decide the shortlisting parameters and thereafter, adequate number of candidates, as decided by the Bank will be shortlisted and called for interview. The decision of the bank to call the candidates for the interview shall be fnal. No correspondence will be entertained in this regard.
Merit List: Merit list for selection will be prepared in descending order on the basis of scores obtained in interview only. In case more than one candidate score the cut-of marks (common marks at cut-of point), such candidates will be ranked according to their age in descending order, in the merit

Pay Scale:

How to Apply :   

Candidates should have valid email ID which should be kept active till the declaration of result. It will help him/her in getting call letter/ Interview advices etc. by email.

i. Candidates will be required to register themselves online through the link available on SBI official website  or given below link to pay the application fee using Internet Banking/ Debit Card/  Credit Card etc.
ii. Candidates should frst scan their latest photograph and signature. Online application will not be registered unless candidate uploads his/her photo and signature as specifed on the online registration page (under ‘How to Apply”). 
iii. Candidates should fll the application carefully. Once application is flled-in completely, candidate should submit the same. In the event of candidate not being able to fll the application in one go, he can save the information already entered. When the information/ application is saved, a provisional registration number and password is generated by the system and displayed on the screen. Candidate should note down the registration number and password. They can re-open the saved application using registration number and password and edit the particulars, if needed. This facility of editing the saved information will be available for three times only. Once the 
application is flled completely, candidate should submit the same and proceed for online payment of fee.
iv. After registering online, the candidates are advised to take a printout of the system generated online application forms
i. Application fees and Intimation Charges (Non-refundable) is 600/- (Six Hundred only) for General and OBC candidates and intimation charges of 100/- (One hundred only) for SC/ ST/PWD candidates. 
ii. Fee payment will have to be made online through payment gateway available thereat.
iii. After ensuring correctness of the particulars in the application form, candidates are required to pay the fees through payment gateway integrated with the application. No change/ edit in the application will be allowed thereafter.
iv. The payment can be made by using Debit Card/ Credit Card/ Internet Banking etc. by providing information as asked on the screen. Transaction charges for online payment, if any, will be borne by the candidates.
v. On successful completion of the transaction, e-receipt and application form, bearing the date of submission by the candidate, will be generated which should be printed and retained by the candidate.
vi. If the online payment of fee is not successfully completed in frst instance, please make fresh attempts to make online payment. vii. There is also a provision to reprint the e-Receipt and Application form containing fee details, at later stage. 
viii. Application Fee once paid will NOT be refunded on any account NOR can it be adjusted for any other examination or selection in future.

Important Date :

  • Online Registration of Application : 30.10.2018 
  • Last Date to Apply Online & Payment of Fee    22-11-2018

Click Here To Download Official Notification

Click Here To Apply Online

Study Kit for Bank Specialist Officer Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
General: 

(Result) State Bank of India (Probationary Officers) SBI-PO :Prelims Exam Result-2018

(Result) State Bank of India (Probationary Officers) SBI-PO :Prelims Exam Result-2018

Phase - II (Mains Examination) will be held on 04/08/2018. Candidates are advised to visit Bank's website www.sbi.co.in or https://bank.sbi/careers to download Call-Letter for Mains Exam from 20-07-2018 onwards.

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
General: 

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