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Table of Contents:

  • FINANCIAL SECTOR REGULATORS IN INDIA

  • BASEL NORMS

  • STOCK MARKET INDEXES IN THE WORLD 

  • VARIOUS PAYMENTS SYSTEMS IN BANKS IN INDIA 

  • TYPES OF ATM’S 

  • What is the real value of US Dollars in terms of Indian Rupee 

  • FOREX (MEANING AND DETAILED INTRODUCTION) 

  • TYPES OF BANK ACCOUNTS 

  • DEFINITION OF MICRO, SMALL & MEDIUM ENTERPRISES 

  • WHAT IS SENSEX AND HOW IT IS CALCULATED 

  • 30 IMPORTANT BANKING TERMS FOR INTERVIEW 

  • RECENT BANKING AND FINANCIAL DEVELOPMENTS IN INDIA 

  • CORE BANKING SOLUTION 

  • FUNCTIONS OF RBI 

  • BANKING OMBUDSMAN 

  • MONETARY POLICY IN INDIA 

  • CHEQUE TRUNCATION SYSTEM 

  • DIFFERENT TYPES OF CHEQUES 

  • FDI IN INDIA 

  • NITI AAYOG 

  • MONEY MARKET AND CAPITAL MARKET INSTRUMENTS 

  • NARASIMHAM COMMITTEE 

  • GST (GOODS AND SERVICE TAX) 

  • CURRENCY DEVALUATION 

  • INDRADHANUSH APPROACH 

  • SOVEREIGN GOLD BOND SCHEME VS GOLD MONETIZATION SCHEME 

  • WORLD BANK 

  • BANDHAN BANK 

  • PAYMENT BANKS VS SMALL FINANCE BANKS 

  • CONTACT LESS MULTI CURRENCY FOREX CARD SCHEME 

  • PRIVATIZATION OF NATIONALIZED BANKS 

  • SOCIAL SECURITY SCHEMES 

  • MUDRA BANK 

  • SERVICE TAX 

  • FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT 

  • Banking Basics 

  • Basic Financial Terms A-Z 

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General: 

(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Current Affairs

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Institute of Banking Personnel Selection
Common Written Examination :2011 (Current Affairs)

Nilekani Panel Submits Report on Cash Transfer Scheme

UIDAI Chairman Nandan Nilekani submitted the report of the committee headed by him regarding direct transfer of subsidy to the beneficiaries, to the Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee. The interim report of the task force on direct transfer of subsidies on Kerosene, LPG and Fertilisers suggested creation of a Core Subsidy Management System (CSMS) for maintaining information on entitlements and subsidies for all beneficiaries. The CSMS, as indicated in the report, will provide increased transparency in the movement of goods, level of stocks, prediction and aggregation of demand and identification of beneficiaries.

Nilekani Panel on Cash Transfer Scheme

Highlights of Recommendations Nade in Interim Report Submitted by the Panel

LPG:

  • Phase I: Cap consumption of subsidised cylinders (Policy decision of government and not a specific task force recommendation).
  • Phase II: Consumers buy LPG at market price, with direct transfer of subsidy to their bank account.
  • Phase III: Identify and target segmented customers for subsidy.

Fertiliser:

  • Phase I: Information visibility up to the retailer level. Phase II: Direct transfer of subsidy to the retailer.
  • Phase III: Farmers buy fertilisers at market price, with direct transfer of subsidy to their bank account.

Kerosene:

Phase I: Cash transfer through state governments.

Phase II: Cash transfer to accounts of beneficiaries.

Report recommends creation of centralised software for the product and service transfer. The poors have been recommended to get the share of subsidies directly through bank branches, Automated Teller Machines (ATMs), business correspondents, the internet or mobile banking channels. Pilot projects for such direct cash transfers have been recommended to begin in seven places— Tamil Nadu, Assam, Maharashtra, Haryana, Delhi Rajasthan and Orissa—from October 2011.

Country’s Exports Register 45.7% Growth in Q 1 Of 2011-12:

Country’s exports in June 2011 rose for the third month in a row by growing 46.4 per cent to $ 29.2 billion, driven by high-end products such as engineering goods. Imports increased 42.4 per cent to $ 36.2 billion. About one-third of this import bill was accounted for by petroleum, oil and lubricant. This resulted trade deficit at $ 7.7 billion.

During the first quarter of 2011-12 (i.e. April- June 2011), exports rose 45×7% to $ 79 billion. With imports growing 36×2% to $ 110.6 billion, the trade deficit stood at $ 7.7 billion.

Export sector’s good performance was well supported by various industries like engineering, oil, electronics, drugs, chemicals and readymade garments. The main components in the import bill on the other hand were oil, gold and silver, machinery, electronics and pearls/ precious stones. Oil import bill has been a major head in country’s total import bill. During the first quarter of 2011-12, oil imports rose 18 per cent to $ 30.5 billion and it is projected to be around $ 120-130 billion during the entire financial year 2011-12. Machinery imports valued at $ 9 billion showing 49 per cent growth. With 71 per cent growth electronics imports went to $ 7.6 billion.

It may be recalled that during last year 2010-11, merchandise exports had grown 37.55% to $ 246 billion compared with 2009-10 while imports were up 21.6 per cent at $ 350 billion, resulting trade deficit at $ 104 billion.

The government has set a target of $ 500 billion worth of exports by 2014 and doubling of India’s share of global exports by 2020.

RBI Asks Government To Improve Expenditure Quality:

RBI in its quarterly review of Monetary and Credit Policy 2011-12 pointed out the risk of high fiscal deficit pushing up inflation and consequently it suggested central government to improve the quality of expenditure to contain demand in the economy.

Trade Figures (Ap11)
Exports–The Break-up Imports–The Break-up
Sector Value ($ b) (% growth) Sector Value ($ b) (% growth)
Engineering 23 94 Oil 30.5 18
Oil 14 60 Pearls, gems 7.5 10
Gems &jewellery 9.25 19 Gold & silver 17.7 200
Readymade garments 3.6 34 Machinery 9 49
Manmade yarn & fabrics 1.2 30 Electronics 7.6 71
Cotton yarn & fabrics 1.5 9.1 Chemicals 4.5 19
Electronics 2.8 69 Coal 3.7 27
Drugs & pharma 3.08 25 Iron & steel 2.7 -10
Chemicals 2.9 52 Transport equipment 2.5 34
Plastics & linoleum 1.5 50 Ores & scrap 3.4 37
Leather 1.1 26 Vegetable Oil 2 55
Mica, coal & ores 2.7 270 Resins & plastics 1.8 0
Marine products 0.6 27 Fertilisers 1.28 -28

As per RBI’s viewpoint, the large fiscal deficit has been a key source of demand pressures, therefore, fiscal consolidation is critical to maintain inflationary pressure in the economy. The government can support RBI’s efforts to achieve low and stable inflation by re-allocating resources to finance supply bottle-necks in food and infrastructure.

Outstanding Liabilities and Gross Fiscal Deficit

(as % of GDP)

Year Outstanding Liabilities

Gross Fiscal Deficit

2009-10 53.7 5.4
2010-11 49.9 4.7
2011-12 (BE) 48.5 4.6

Despite the hike in administered prices of fuel products, RBI still finds an element of suppressed inflation in the economy. As per RBI’s estimates, about 1 per cent of gross domestic product is still to be financed and becomes a major portion of this subsidy Bill. This subsidy Bill will result in inflationary pressure which, according to RBI is a major concern on the part of the government.

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Food Accounts Largest Share in Consumer’s Spending : NSSO

NSSO’s 66th round of survey household consumer expenditure reveals that Indians are still spending a major chunk of their expenditure on food items. The survey, covering the period from July 2009 to June 2010 shows an average rural household to have allocated 53.6 per cent of its monthly consumption expenditure on food items. The corresponding share for urban household was less, at 40×7 per cent. According to the latest figures on consumption expenditure, per capita consumption expenditure in a month was 88 per cent more in case of urban India compared to rural. India during 2009-10, a trend which was more or less five years ago.

 

Share of Food in Total Consumption Expenditure (in%)
Year Rural Urban
1987-1988 64.0 56.4
1993-1994 63.2 54.7
1999-2000 59.4 48.1
2004-2005 55.0 42.5
2009-2010 53.6 40.6

 

Per capita expenditure on consumption for the bottom 10 per cent of the people in rural areas was five times less than the top 10 per cent of the people while in case of urban parts, it was 10 per cent less.

Survey results show that cereals still make up the largest chunk of an average Indian household’s consumption budget—15.6 per cent in rural and 9.1 per cent in urban areas.

This is followed by fuel and light (9.5 per cent in rural and 8 per cent in urban), milk and milk products (8.6 per cent and 7.8 per cent), vegetables (6.2 per cent and 4.3 per cent) and clothing (4.9 per cent and 4.7 per cent).

The survey has estimated the all-India average monthly per capita expenditure at Rs. 1,053.64 in rural and Rs. 1,984.46. The States among the top in spending  are Kerala (Rs. 1,835.22 in rural and Rs. 2,412.58 in urban
areas), Punjab ( 1,648.92 and Rs. 2,108.79), Haryana (Rs. 1,509.91 and Rs. 2,321.49) and Maharashtra (Rs. 1,152.79 and Rs. 2,436.75).

The States at the bottom of the consumption chart are Bihar (Rs. 780.15 and Rs. 1,23754), hhattisgarh (Rs. 783.57 and Rs. 1,647.32), Orissa (Rs. 818.47 and Rs. 1,548.36) and Jharkhand (Rs. 825.15 and Rs. 1,583.75).

Institutional Credit Disbursement to Agriculture Sector Shows Big Rise in 2010-11:

Institutional credit disbursement to agriculture sector during 2010-11 registered a big rise. As against the target of Rs. 3,75,000 crore for agriculture credit in 2010-11, the banking system disbursed Rs.4,26,531 crore to the agriculture sector, thereby exceeding the target by around 13.7 per cent. As per the data released by the Ministry of Agriculture, out of the total disbursed credit of Rs. 4,26,531 crore, Commercial Banks, Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks contributed Rs. 3,14,182 crore, Rs. 69,076 crore and Rs. 43,273 crore respectively. Thus during 2010-11, the share of Commercial Banks, Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks in total disbursed credit stood at 73.7 per cent, 16.2 per cent and 10.1 per cent respectively.

During 2009-10, as against the target of Rs. 3,25,000 crore for agriculture credit, the banking system disbursed Rs. 3,84,514 crore to the agriculture sector, thereby exceeding the target by about 18 per cent. For the financial year 2011-12, the target of disbursing agriculture credit to farmers in Rs. 4,75,000 crore. It is worthnoting that government is providing concessional crop loans to farmers from the year 2006-07. The farmers who repay loans well in time get concession on their crop loans. In 2009—10, this concession was 1% which was raised to 2% in 2010- 11. For 2011-12, it now stands at 3%.

Flow of Institutional Credit to Agriculture Sector
(in Rs. crore)
Agency 2009-10   2010-11
  Target Actual Credit Disbursement Target Actual Credit Disbursement
Commercial Banks 2,50,000 2,85,000 2,80,000 3,14,182
Cooperative Banks 45,000 63,497 55,000 69,076
Regional Rural Banks 30,000 35,217 40,000 43,273
Total 3,25,000 3,84,514 3,75,000 4,26,531

1. Which one of the following Public Sector Organisations has offered largest ever equity offer ?
1. SAIL
2. Coal India
3. Power Grid
4. Shipping Corporation of India
5. None of these

2. Through which one of the following sources domestic funds are raised by Companies ?
(a) IPO only
(b) FPO only
(c) Commercial papers
1. Only (a) and (b) 2. All (a), (b) and (c)
3. Only (a),and (c) 4. Only (a)
5. Only (c)

3. Which one of the following was the reason owing to which Govt. want Reserve Bank of India to tighten prudential norms for NBFCs?
1. To reduce liquidity in the market
2. It is as per Basel II requirements
3. It is as per Bank for International Settlement (BIS) directives
4. It is to protect NBFCs from any impact of possible economic slowdown
5. None of these

4. In the financial year 2009-10, which one of the following Banks has made highest Total dividend Payout?
1. SBI 2. PNB
3. Bank of India 4. Canara Bank
5. None of these

5. In respect of which one of the following countries, India has proposed non payments for import of crude oil ?
1. Iran 2. Iraq
3. Kuwait 4. Sudan
5. U.A.E.

Answers:

1.(2)   2.(3)    3.(4)    4.(5)    5. (1)

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Numerical Ability

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Numerical Ability

1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?
1. 25
2. 26
3. 27
4. 30 5. 26
Answer: (3)

2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same rational number. The required rational number is:
1. 1/8
2. 4/9
3. 2/8
4. 3/8
5. 3/8
Answer: (5)

3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as remainders respectively.
1. 36
2. 37
3. 42
4. 29
5. 47
Answer: (2)

4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayesh’s age in years?
1. 29
2. 30
3. 24
4. 25
5. 28
Answer: (3)

5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 5. Their total value is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paise coins is:
1. Rs. 28
2. Rs. 36
3. Rs. 49
4. Rs. 72
5. Rs. 50
Answer: (1)

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6. A tempo is insured to the extent of 4 5 of its original value. If the premium on it at the rate of 1.3 percent amounts to Rs. 910, the original value of the tempo is:
1. Rs. 78,000
2. Rs. 78,500
3. Rs. 80,000
4. Rs. 85,000
5. Rs. 87,500
Answer: (5)

7. By selling 45 lemons for Rs. 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs. 24 to gain 20% in the transaction?
1. 19
2. 18
3. 24
4. 22
5. 23
Answer: (2)

 

8. In a ratio, which is equal to 3 : 4, if the antecedent is 12, then the consequent is:1. 10
2. 16
3. 20
4. 22
5. 18
Answer: (2)

 

9. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs. 529. A and B together are supposed to do 19/23 of the work and B and C together 8/23 of the work. What amount should A be paid?
1. Rs. 320
2. Rs. 345
3. Rs. 355
4. Rs. 380
5. None of these
Answer: (2)

10. A boy rides his bicycle 10 km at an average speed of 12 km/hr and again travels 12 km at an average speed of 10 km/hr. His average speed for the entire trip is approximately :
1. 10.4 km/hr
2. 10.8 km/hr
3. 12 km/hr
4. 14 km/hr
5. 13 km/hr
Answer: (2)

11. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of both the cards being kings?
1. 1/19
2. 27/29
3. 35/256
4. 1/121
5. 35/121
Answer: (4)

12. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes:
1. 13%
2. 10.25%
3. 15%
4. 11%
5. None of these
Answer: (2)

13. A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage of decrease in area is:
1. 11%
2. 12%
3. 20%
4. 28%
5. 33%
Answer: (4)

14. What is the difference in exports between the periods March to May and June to August (in $ million)?
1. 418
2. 592
3. 5790
4. 585
5. None of these
Answer: (4)

15. If the exports of company B in the year 2003 were Rs. 77 crore, then, what were the imports of the company in that year?
1. 86 crore
2. 107.5 crore
3. 103.95 crore
4. 101 crore
5. None of these
Answer: (3)

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Mental Ability

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Mental Ability

Verbal

1. If Step IV reads ‘to restrict the use of air conditioners”, which of the following will definitely be the input?
(1)use to of the air conditioners restrict
(2)restrict the to of air conditioners use
(3)the air conditioners of restrict use to
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security reasons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every batch. Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch.
Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by
Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on…

2. If pass-code for the third batch is ‘night succeed day and hard work-to for’, what will be the pass-code for the sixth batch?
(1)work hard to for succeed night and day
(2)hard work for and succeed night to day
(3)work hard for to succeed night and day
(4)hard work for to succeed night and day
(5) None of these

3. If ‘visit in zoo should the time day’ is the pass-code for the fifth batch, zoo we the should visit day time in’ will be the pass-code for which of following batches?
(1) II
(2) IV
(3) I
(4) III
(5) VI

4. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code ‘to fast rush avoid not do very run’. What would have been the pass-code for him had he visited the museum in the second bitch?
(1)rush do not avoid to run very fast
(2)rush not do-avoid to run very
(3)avoid rush not do to run very fast
(4) Date inadequate
(5) None of these

5. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code ‘length the day equal of an night are’. However, he could not visit the museum in the second batch as he was a little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new pass-code issued to him?
(1)and of are night the length equal day
(2)and are of night the length equal day
(3)and of are night the equal day length
(4 )an d of are th e night len gth day equal
(5) None of these

 

6. If ass-code for the second batch is ‘to confidence hard you leads work and success’, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?(1)leads success to you hard confidence and work
(2)leads success you to hard confidence and work
(3)leads success to you hard confidence work and
(4)leads to success you hard confidence and work
(5) None of these

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - English Language

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - English Language


Direction: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested. One of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out appropriate word in each case.

The Reserve Bank has taken a bold (46) in the development of money, the government securities and the foreign exchange markets in (47) of their critical role in overall growth and development of the economy and (48) in the transmission mechanism of monetary policy. The approach has been one of simultaneous movements on several fronts, graduated and callibrated, with an (49) on institutional and infrastructural development and  improvements in market microstructure. The pace of reforms was contingent (50) putting in place appropriate systems and procedures, technologies and market practices. Initiatives taken by the Reserve Bank have brought about a (51) transformation of various segments of the financial market. These developments by improving the depth and liquidity in domestic financial markets have (52) to better price discovery of interest rates and exchange rates, which, in turn, hae led to greater (53) in resource allocation in the economy. The increase in size and depth of financial market has (54) the way for (55) use of indirect instruments.

1. (1) interest
(2) participation
(3) step
(4) role
(5) None of these

2. (1) point
(2) tune
(3) view
(4) pursuit
(5) None of these

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Computer Knowledge

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Computer Knowledge

1. Buffer is device/storage area–
1. Where data are temporarily stored
2. Where data is permanently stored
3. Where data error occurs
4. All of the above 5. None of these

2. A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number of nodes is called–
1. Car Topology
2. Bus Topology
3. Truck Topology
4. All of the above
5. None of these

3. An error in a computer program is referred as–
1. Bug
2. Bit
3. Virus
4. All of the above
5. None of these

4. Circuits that provide a communication path between two or more devices of a digital computer system is–
1. Car
2. Bus
3. Truck
4. All of the above
5. None of these

5. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred as–
1. Byte
2. Octal
3. Bubble
4. All of the above
5. None of these

6. Cache memory is a–
1. Small buffer storage
2. Permanent storage
3. Main memory
4. All of the above
5. None of these

7. The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number system is referred as–
1. Number system
2. Base
3. Power
4. All of the above
5. None of these

8. Cache memory is–
1. Smaller and faster than main storage
2. Bigger and slower than main storage
3. Smaller but slower than main memory
4. Bigger and faster than main memory
5. None of these

9. Cache memory–
1. Is a Static RAM
2. Increases the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate
3. Both 1. and 2. are true .
4. Both 1. and 2. are false
5. None of these

 

10. Following is false for BASIC–1. Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
2. High-level interactive programming language
3. Works in time sharing environment
4. Low level object oriented language
5. None of these

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11. A unit for measuring data transmission speed that describes the capacity of a carrier is referred as–
1. Baud
2. Bit
3. Bond
4. All of the above
5. Batch

12. A process of trying out a new product by independent users before it is finally manufactured/developed–
1. Alpha test
2. Beta Test
3. Gamma test
4. All of the above
5. None of these

13. A selection, choice, or condition involving two possibilities is referred as–
1. Unary
2. Binary
3. Octal
4. All of the above
5. None of these

14. Base band System is–
1. A networking system
2. Where the channel support a single digital signal
3. Both 1. and 2. are true
4. All of the above
5. None is true

15. One of the early coding systems, based on the idea of converting each digit of a decimal number into its binary equivalent rather than converting the entire decimal value into a pure binary form is–
1. ASCII code
2. BCD
3. ASCII-8
4. All of the above
5. None of these

16. In Batch processing–
1. Several computer programs runs one after another without human interaction to run each program individually
2. Several computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
3. Selected computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
4. All of the above
5. None is true

17. BISYNC is–
1. Binary synchronous
2. A process of transmitting data
3. A half-duplex, character oriented, synchronous data communication transmission method
4. All of the above 5. None of these

18. A device that is used to transmit data from one location to another is referred as–
1. Storage
2. Memory
3. Carrier
4. All of the above
5. None of these

19. Programs developed by an outside supplier and provided to the user in a machine readable form is known as–
1. Canned programs
2. Beta program
3. Alpha program
4. All of the above
5. None of these

20. A binary numbers are represented by–
1. Digits 0 and 1
2. Digits 0, 1, ..., 8
3. Digits AB, C,...
4. All of the above
5. None of these

21. BIOS is responsible for
1. Handling the particulars of input/output operations
2. Output operations
3. Input operations
4. All of the above
5. None of these

22. BIOS is an abbreviation for–
1. Binary Input/Binary Output
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above 5. None of these

23. BISYNC is an abbreviation for–
1. Binary Input/Binary Output
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above 5. None of these

24. The overall design, construction, organiz-ation and interconnecting of the various components of a computer system is referred as–
1. Computer Architecture
2. Computer Flowchart
3. Computer Algorithm
4. All of the above
5. None of these

25. A number system with a base of two is referred as–
1. Unary number system
2. Binary number system
3. Octal number system
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Answers:

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::REASONING ABILITY::



1. A school bus driver starts from the school, drives 2 km towards North, takes a left turn and drives for 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives for 8 km before taking a left turn again and driving for 5 km. The driver finally takes a leftturn and drives 1 km before stopping. How far and towards which direction should the driver drive to reach the school again?

(a) 3 km towards North
(b) 7 km towards East
(c) 6 km towards South
(d) 6 km towards West
(e) 5 km towards North

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 2-3) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:

A, B, C, D, E and F live on different floors in the same building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it , number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6. A lives on an even numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which D and F live. F lives on a floor above D’s floor. D does not live on floor number 2. B does not live on an odd numbered floor. C does not live on any of the floors below F’s floor. E does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below the floor on which B lives.

2. Who amongst the following live on the floors exactly between D and F ?

(a) E, B
(b) C, B
(c) E, C
(d) A, E
(e) B, A

3. On which of the following floors does B live?

(a) 6th
(b) 4th
(c) 2nd
(d) 5th
(e) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 4-5) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a five letter English word (which may or may not be a meaningful English word), there are two letters between L and P. S is not placed immediately next to L. There is only one letter between S and A. S is towards the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to E.

4. Which of the following is correct with respect to the word thus formed?

(a) E is at one of the extreme ends of the word.
(b) P is not placed immediately next to A.
(c) There are two letters between A and E in the word thus formed.
(d) P is placed second to the right of E.
(e) None is correct

5. Which of the following words will be formed based on the given conditions?

(a) SPAEL
(b) PEALS
(c) LEAPS
(d) SEPAL
(e) LAPSE

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : In each question below are two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. Give answer (e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow. (Qs. 6-7) : Statements : All gliders are parachutes. No parachute is an airplane. All airplanes are helicopters.

6. Conclusions : I. No glider is an airplane.
II.All gliders being helicopters is a possibility.

7. Conclusions : I. No helicopter is a glider.
II. All parachutes being helicopters is a possibility.

8. Statements : Some mails are chats.
All updates are chats.
Conclusions : I. All mails being updates is a possibility.
II. No update is a mail.

(Qs. 9-10) : Statement : No stone is metal. Some metals are papers. All papers are glass.

9. Conclusions : I. All stones being glass is a possibility.
II. No stone is a paper.

10. Conclusions : I. No glass is a metal.
II. Atleast some glass is metal.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digits numbers.) Input : sine 88 71 cos theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 Step I : cos sine 71 theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 88 Step II : delta cos sine theta 14 56 gamma 26 88 71 Step III : gamma delta cos sine theta 14 26 88 71 56 Step IV : sine gamma delta cos theta 14 88 71 56 26 Step V : theta sine gamma delta cos 88 71 56 26 14 and Step V is the last Step of the arrangement of the above input as the intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input, Input for the questions: Input : for 52 all 96 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46 (All the numbers given in the arrangement are two digit numbers)

11. Which word/number would be at the 6th position from the left in Step V ?

(a) 25
(b) stop
(c) jam
(d) all
(e) road

12. Which of the following would be the Step III ?

(a) hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46
(b) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut 38 stop 96 46 73 52
(c) hut for bus all jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 25
(d) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52
(e) None of these

13. Which word/number would be at 8th position from the right in Step IV?

(a) 15
(b) road
(c) hut
(d) jam
(e) stop

14. Which of the following would be Step VII ?

(a) stop road jam hut for bus all 15 96 73 5246 38 25
(b) road jam hut for bus all stop 15 25 38 46 52 73 96
(c) stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 52 46 38 25 15
(d) jam hut for bus all 25 road stop 15 96 73 52 46 38
(e) There will be no such step as the arrangement gets established at Step VI

15. Which step number would be the following output ? bus all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73

(a) There will be no such step
(b) III
(c) II
(d) V
(e) VI

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Representatives from eight different Banks viz.. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them is from a different Bank viz. UCO Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Bank of Maharashtra, Canara Bank, Syndicate Bank, Punjab National Bank, Bank of India and Dena Bank. F sits second to right of the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of India is an immediate neighbour of the representative from Canara Bank. Two people sit between the representative of Bank of India and B, C and E are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of Maharashtra sits second to right of D. D is neither the representative of Canara Bank nor Bank of India. G and the representative from UCO Bank are immediate neighbours of each other. B is not the representative of UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce. H sits third to left of the representative from Dena Bank.  epresentative from Punjab National Bank sits second to left of the representative from Syndicate Bank.

16. Who amongst the following sit exactly between B and the representative from Bank of India?

(a) A and the representative from UCO Bank
(b) F and G
(c) H and the representative from Bank of Maharashtra
(d) H and G
(e) Representatives from Syndicate Bank and Oriental Bank of Commerce

17. Who amongst the following is the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce?

(a) A
(b) C
(c) H
(d) G
(e) D

18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) H - UCO Bank
(b) A - Canara Bank
(c) D - Bank of Maharashtra
(d) E -Syndicate Bank
(e) F - Punjab National Bank

19. Who amongst the following sits second to left of B ?

(a) C
(b) H
(c) The representative from Canara Bank
(d) The representative from Punjab National Bank
(e) G

20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

(a) B is the representative from Bank of Maharashtra.
(b) C sits second to right of H.
(c) The representative from Dena Bank sits to the immediate left of the representative from UCO Bank.
(d) A sits second to right of the representative from Bank of India.
(e) The representatives from Bank of Maharashtra and Syndicate Bank are immediate neighbours of each other.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

21. How many daughters does W have?

I. B and D are sisters of M.
II. M's father T is husband of W.
Ill. Out of the three children which T has, only one is a boy.

(a) Only I and III
(b) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(c) Only II & III are sufficient to answer the question
(d) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
(e) Only I and II

22. Who among A, B, C, D, E and F each having a different height, is the tallest?

I. B is taller than A but shorter than E.
II. Only two of them are shorter than C.
III. D is taller than only F.

(a) Only I and II
(b) Only I and III
(c) Only II and III
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) All I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question

23. How is 'go' written in a code language?

I. 'now or never again' is written as 'tom ka na sa' in that code language.
II. 'you come again now' is written as 'ja ka ta sa' in that code language.
III. 'again go now or never' is written as 'na ho ka sa tom' in that code language.

(a) Only I and III
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and II
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) None of these

24. Towards which direction is village J from village W ?

I. Village R is to the west of Village W and to the north of Village T.
II. Village Z is to the east of Village J and to the south of Village T.
III. Village M is to the northeast of Village J and north of Village Z.

(a) Only III
(b) Only II and III
(c) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(d) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
(e) None of these

25. On which day of the week starting from Monday did Suresh visit Chennai ?

l. Suresh took leave on Wednesday.
II. Suresh visited Chennai the day after his mother's visit to his house
III. Suresh's mother visited Suresh's house neither on Monday nor on Thursday

(a) Only II and III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only I and III
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::



DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.

1. Women’s rights around the world are an important indicator to understand global well-being. A major global women’s rights treaty was ratified by the majority of the world’s nations a few decades ago. ...... These ranges from the cultural, political to the economic. For example, women often work more than men, yet are paid less; gender discrimination affects girls and women throughout their lifetime; and women and girls are often the ones that suffer the most poverty. Many may think that women’s rights are only an issue in countries where  eligion is law. Or even worse, some may think this is no longer an issue at all. But reading the report about the United Nation’s Women’s Treaty and how an increasing number of countries are lodging reservations will show otherwise. Gender equality furthers the cause of child survival and development for all of society, so the importance of women’s rights and gender equality should not be underestimated.

(a) This treaty tackled and solved a number of issues related to women.
(b) Why is it then, that moment still face a number of problems on the domestic front?
(c) Thus, the woman today is ten times more empowered as compared to a woman say about a decade ago.
(d) Women’s activists across nations have implored the respective governments to take this seriously.
(e) Yet, despite many successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in all areas of life.

2. Research has shown that air pollutants from fossil fuel use make clouds reflect more of the sun’s rays back into space. This leads to an effect known as global dimming whereby less heat and energy reaches the earth. ............ However, it is believed that global dimming caused the droughts in certain parts of the world where millions died, because the northern hemisphere oceans were not warm enough to allow rain formation. Global dimming is also hiding the true power of global warming. By cleaning up global dimming-causing pollutants without talking greenhouse gas emissions, rapid warming has been observed, and various human health and ecological disasters have resulted, as witnessed during the European heat wave in 2003, which saw thousands of people die.

(a) This though, does not bring any relief in the problems associated with climate change.
(b) This phenomenon thus is part of the climate change problem.
(c) Scientists thus believe that this phenomenon goes hand in hand with global warming
(d) At first, it sounds like an ironic savior to climate change problems
(e) The answer to all our problems with respect to climate change is definitely here

3. Poverty is the state for the majority of the world’s people and nations. Why is this? .......... Have they been lazy, made poor decisions, and been solely responsible for their own plight? What about their governments? Have they pursued policies that actually harm successful development? Such causes of poverty and inequality are no doubt real. But deeper and more global causes of poverty are often less discussed. Behind the increasing interconnectedness promised by globalization are global decisions, policies, and practices. These are typically influenced, driven, or formulated by the rich and powerful. These can be leaders of rich countries or other global actors such as multinational corporations, institutions, and influential people. In the face of such enormous external influence, the governments of poor nations and their people are often powerless. As a result, in the global context, a few get wealthy while the majority struggles.

(a) Is it enough to blame poor people for their own predicament?
(b) What is the government doing about it?
(c) Are the wealthy ones in the nation even aware of this?
(d) The government has already taken measures to eradicate the same.
(e) The huge gap between the rich and the poor in the nation is now narrowing

4. Analysts and industry pundits forecast that notebook market, which has been growing faster than the desktop market for the past three years, is expected to overtake the desktop market by the year 2011-12. A fall in prices, large deals from governments and institutions, and demand from consumers and sectors such as education are expected to help the notebook numbers. According to research agencies, the year 2010-11 saw notebook volumes rise, and for the first time a million plus notebooks were sold in India in a single quarter. The market has grown nearly four times for notebooks. The demand is driven by all sectors and a very buoyant consumer market, which prefers mobile computers. Entry-level notebook prices have dropped below the Rs. 25,000 mark; this has helped break the ice with new customers. This drop in notebook prices has been helped by the drop in the prices of the building blocks that make a notebook. It’s simple. With notebook volumes growing, the prices of the components are also bound to come down. .........

(a) All this has resulted in a noticeable change in a number of large government tenders for notebooks; which were traditionally for desktops.
(b) Because of this the government still prefers desktops to notebooks and has passed tenders for the same.
(c) Thereby making them more expensive.
(d) Thus the forecast for the coming year states that desktops will be the preferred technology choice only for consumers who cannot afford the exorbitantly priced notebook.
(e) Thus notebooks will become obsolete after a decade or so.

5. Next to China, India is the most populated country in the world. ...... Particularly, rush to technical and higher education has increased as the scope for arts and science has become lesser and lesser due to lack of reforms and up gradation in the course structure and materials according to the developments of the world. Also, qualification in higher education gives added advantage to facesuccessfully competition in the job market.

(a) Keeping this in mind, the government has provided concessions in the admission fees for the arts and science streams in the country.
(b) Naturally there is too much rush and competition in every field.
(c) Despite this the rush to higher education is lesser.
(d) This population increase, though, has not kept pace with the knowledge expansion around the world.
(e) In the next decade it will become the most populous.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Rearrange the following seven sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) in the proper sequence to from a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(1) To elaborate briefly on these characteristics and dimensions that the author is talking about – NRMs are general tests intended to be used to classify students by percentile for measuring either aptitude or proficiency for admissions into or placement within a program.
(2) Contrastingly, the CRM, such as a locally produced achievement test, measures absolute performance that is compared only with the learning objective, hence a perfect score is theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the pre-specified material, or conversely, all students may fail the test.
(3) In most of these books, the authors classify a measurement strategy as either norm-referenced (NRM) or criterionreferenced (CRM).
(4) Another author points out how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is the relative performance of the students compared with that of all the others resulting in, ideally, a bell curve distribution.
(5) Numerous books on constructing and using language tests have been written by various authors.
(6) CRMs, on the other hand, are more specific, achievement or diagnostic tests intended to be used for motivating students by measuring to what percent they have achieved mastery of the thought or learned material.
(7) One of the authors clearly delineates the differences of these two types by focusing on the categories of “test characteristics” and “logistical dimensions.”

6. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 7
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

7. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

8. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
(e) 5

9. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 6

10. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 7
(d) 4
(e) 5

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick up two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. The ability of a woman to do well does not .......... on whether it is a man’s world or not, because everyone has his/her own opportunities.

(1) trust
(2) depend
(3) reckon
(4) live
(5) rest
(6) believe

(a) (4) and (5)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (1) and (6)
(d) (2) and (5)
(e) (3) and (4)

12. Drugs worth ` 3 lakhs were ......... from the apartment by the police.

(1) manufactured
(2) ruptured
(3) seized
(4) confiscated
(5) bought
(6) compared

(a) (1) and (4)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (3) and (5)
(d) (5) and (6)
(e) (3) and (4)

13. An organization .......... to the mission of road safety has prepared an action plan for reducing accidents and related injuries and fatalities.

(1) specified
(2) inaugurated
(3) committed
(4) kicked off
(5) succumbed
(6) dedicated

(a) (3) and (6)
(b) (1) and (5)
(c) (3) and (5)
(d) (4) and (6)
(e) (1) and (3)

14. A man reportedly .......... two passports with the same photograph, but under different names was arrested by the commissioner’s Task Force.

(1) possessing
(2) examining
(3) surrendering
(4) mastering
(5) holding
(6) fixating

(a) (2) and (3)
(b) (3) and (6)
(c) (1) and (5)
(d) (1) and (4)
(e) (4) and (5)

15. The Hollywood star and the Bollywood heroine are being ......... as the next big onscreen couple.

(1) labeled
(2) explained
(3) worshiped
(4) touted
(5) exclaimed
(6) shouted

(a) (2) and (4)
(b) (1) and (3)
(c) (2) and (6)
(d) (1) and (4)
(e) (3) and (4)

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::GENERAL AWARENESS::



1. Which of the following countries recently conferred its. Highest State Honour on Late Mrs. Indira Gandhi for her contribution in its 'Liberation war'?

(a) South Sudan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Bhutan
(d) Slovakin
(e) Croatia

2. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Banks cannot accept demand and time deposite from public.
(b) Banks can accept only demand deposits from public.
(c) Banks can accept only time deposits from public.
(d) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public.
(e) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government.

3. Interest payable on saving bank accounts is

(a) not regulated by RBI.
(b) regulated by State Governments
(c) regulated by Central Government
(d) regulated by RBI
(e) regulated by Finance minister.

4. Which of the following is the correct statement?

(a) State bank of India is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(b) A nationalized bank is the sole authority to Issue and manage currency in India
(c) A cooperative bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(d) RBI is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(e) None of these

5. The Home Minister of India was recently on a visit to Bangladesh where both the countries signed a Coordinated Border Management Plan (CBMP). What are major points of this agreement?

(A) The plan will help in resolving long pending border dispute between both the nations.
(B) The head count of the people living in enclaves on the border will be completed within next six month's time
(C) India assured that no BSF Jawan will open fire on the people crossing the borders unless there is an attack on them.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) and (C)
(e) Both (A) and (C)

6. Which of the following is/are commodity/ies on which subsidy is given to farmers/ poor in India?

(A) Fertiliser
(B) Kerosene
(C) LPG

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Only (A) & (C)
(e) All (A), (B) & (C)

7. The President of India was recently on a visit to South Korea and Mongolia. During her visit some agreements were signed by both the countries. Which of the following was a common area on which India signed agreements with South Korea and Mongolia both?

(a) Peaceful use of Nuclear energy
(b) Export of edible oil to South Korea and Mongolia
(c) Providing technical help to become self sufficient in production of food grains
(d) Willingness of both the countries to support India's bid to have permanent seat in UN Security Council
(e) To hold Olympic games in 2022 In New Delhi jointly with South Korea and Mongolia

8. Iran recently threatened that it will stop supply of oil to India if the payment Issue is NOT sorted out quickly. What is the problem in payment to Iran?

(A) The oil supplied by Iran is of substandard quality. Hence India suspended the supply and stopped the payment.
(B) Indian banks have stopped transfer of money to Iran as UN has imposed sanctions on Iran.
(C) India is bound to purchase oil only from OPEC members. Iran has abandoned the membership of OPEC, which has created a problem in payments.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) and (C)
(e) None of these

9. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of

(a) Both Savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
(b) Savings bank accounts and current accounts
(c) Both Savings bank accounts and loan accounts
(d) Both Savings bank accounts and cash accounts only
(e) Both Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts

10. Yingluck Shinawatra has won recently held elections to become first woman Prime Minister of

(a) Myanmar.
(b) South Korea
(c) North Korea
(d) Thailand
(e) China

11. Which of the following is correct statement?

(a) Normally no interest is paid on current deposit accounts
(b) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts
(c) The rate of interest on current account and savings account are the same
(d) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank
(e) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits.

12. The Lokayukta of which of the following States had submitted a report on illegal mining of Iron are in the State?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Orissa
(e) None of these

13. The usual deposit accounts of banks are

(a) Current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
(b) Current accounts, Post office savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(c) Loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(d) Current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(e) Current bill accounts and term deposit accounts

14. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are

(a) repayable after an agreed period.
(b) repayable on demand
(c) not repayable
(d) repayable after death of depositors
(e) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank's choice.

15. The countries these days are most worried about the currency war. They are arguing about whose actions harmed the world economy the most. What are the views of the rich countries, particularly USA, In this regard?

(A) They feel that it was China who was unwilling to allow the Yuan to rise.
(B) They feel that it was India who had snatched jobs in most of the European countries and USA. This made the situation more grim.
(C) Some countries feel that it wan Japan who allowed swapping of its currency with other nations and created a grim situation in world market.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) & (C)
(e) None of these

16. Which of the following is NOT a Millennium Goal set by the UNO?

(a) Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
(b) Reduce child mortality
(c) Ensure environmental sustainability
(d) Combat terrorism and bring people in main stream of society
(e) Achieve universal primary education

17. Financial inclusion means provision of

(a) financial services namely payments, remittances, savings, loans and Insurance at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(b) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(c) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(d) food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(e) education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::



DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. 11449 x √6241 - (54)2 =√?+(74)2

(a) 384
(b) 3721
(c) 381
(d) 3638
(e) None of these

2. (3√8 + √8) x (8√8 + 7√8) - 98 = ?

(a) 2√8
(b) 8√8
(c) 382
(d) 386
(e) None of these

3. 3463 x 295 – 18611 = ? + 5883

(a) 997091
(b) 997071
(c) 997090
(d) 999070
(e) None of these

4.

(a) 1/3
(b) 0.75
(c) 3/2
(d) 1/2
(e) None of these

5. (23.1)2 + (48.6)2 – (39.8)2 = ? + 1147.69

(a) (13.6)2
(b) 12.8
(c) 163.84 (d) 12.8
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

6. 3 4663 + 349= ?¸ 21.003

(a) 7600
(b) 7650
(c) 7860
(d) 7560
(e) 7680

7. 39.897% of 4331 + 58.779% of 5003 = ?

(a) 4300
(b) 4500
(c) 4700
(d) 4900
(e) 5100

8. 59.88 ¸ 12.21 ´ 6.35 = ?

(a) 10
(b) 50
(c) 30
(d) 70
(e) 90

9. 43931.03 ¸ 2111.02 ´ 401.04 = ?

(a) 8800
(b) 7600
(c) 7400
(d) 9000
(e) 8300

10. 6354 ´34.993 = ?

(a) 3000
(b) 2800
(c) 2500
(d) 3300
(e) 2600

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11–15) : In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

11. 9050 5675 3478 2147 1418 1077 950

(a) 3478
(b) 1418
(c) 5675
(d) 2147
(e) 1077

12. 7 12 40 222 1742 17390 208608

(a) 7
(b) 12
(c) 40
(d) 1742
(e) 208608

13. 6 91 584 2935 11756 35277 70558

(a) 91
(b) 70558
(c) 584
(d) 2935
(e) 35277

14. 1 4 25 256 3125 46656 823543

(a) 3125
(b) 823543
(c) 46656
(d) 25
(e) 256

15. 8424 4212 2106 1051 526.5 263.25 131.625

(a) 131.625
(b) 1051
(c) 4212
(d) 8424
(e) 263.25

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::



1. To change selected text to all capital letters, click the change case button, then click

(a) Uppercase
(b) Upper all
(c) Capslock
(d) Lock Upper
(e) Large Size

2. A person who uses his or her expertise to gain access to other people’s computers to get information illegally or do damage is a

(a) hacker
(b) analyst
(c) instant messenger
(d) programmer
(e) spammer

3. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be

(a) distributed
(b) free
(c) centralized
(d) open source
(e) None of these

4. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym

(a) CD
(b) DVD
(c) ROM
(d) RW
(e) ROS

5. The most common type of storage devices are

(a) persistent
(b) optical
(c) magnetic
(d) flash
(e) steel

6. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as

(a) an ASCII code
(b) a magnetic tape
(c) a bar code
(d) an OCR scanner
(e) None of these

7. A Web site’s main page is called its

(a) Homepage
(b) Browser page
(c) Search Page
(d) Bookmark
(e) None of these

8. Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of

(a) control
(b) output
(c) processing
(d) feedback
(e) input

9. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is

(a) dragging
(b) dropping
(c) right-clicking
(d) shift-clicking
(e) None of these

10. Computers use the ________ number system to store data and perform calculations.

(a) binary
(b) octal
(c) decimal
(d) hexadecimal
(e) None of these

11. ________ ‘are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.

(a) Phishing trips
(b) Computer viruses
(c) Spyware scams
(d) Viruses
(e) Phishing scams

12. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends?

(a) It is not unethical, because it is legal.
(b) It is unethical because the files are being given for free.
(c) Sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyright laws.
(d) It is not unethical because the files are being given for free.
(e) It is not unethical - anyone can access a computer

13. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?

(a) CTRL+A
(b) ALT+ F5
(c) SHIFT+A
(d) CTRL+K
(e) CTRL+H

14. To instruct Word to fit the width of a column to the contents of a table automatically, click the___button and then point to AutoFit Contents.

(a) Fit to Form
(b) Format
(c) Autosize
(d) Contents
(e) AutoFit

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15. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is

(a) multiprogramming
(b) multitasking
(c) time-sharing
(d) multiprocessing
(e) None of these

16. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is

(a) memory-only
(b) write-only
(c) once-only
(d) run-only
(e) read-only

17. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called?

(a) RAM
(b) Floppy
(d) CD-ROM
(e) ROM

18. The default view in Excel is_____view.

(a) Work
(b) Auto
(c) Normal
(d) Roman
(e) None of these

19. What displays the contents of the active cell in Excel?

(a) Namebox
(b) Row Headings
(c) Formulabar
(d) Taskpane
(e) None of these

20. In Word you can force a page break

(a) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key
(b) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl + Enter
(c) by using the Insert/Section Break
(d) by changing the font size of your document
(e) None of these

21. Grouping and processing all of a firm’s transactions at one time is called

(a) a database management system
(b) batch processing
(c) a real-time system
(d) an on-line system
(e) None of these

22. Help menu is available at which button?

(a) End
(b) Start
(c) Turnoff
(d) Restart
(e) Reboot

23. You can keep your personal files/folders in

(a) My folder
(b) My Documents
(c) My Files
(d) My Text
(e) None of these

24. A central computer that holds collections programs for many PCs, workstations computers is a(n)

(a) supercomputer
(b) minicomputer
(c) laptop
(d) server
(e) None of these

25. When you save to this, your data will remain when the computer is turned off.

(a) RAM
(b) motherboard
(c) secondary storage device
(d) primary storage
(e) None of these

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::REASONING ABILITY::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-4) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digits numbers)

Input : tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 bam
Step I : 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 bam alt
Step II : 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt bam
Step III : 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt bam high
Step IV : 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt bam high jar
Step V : 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt bam high jar rise
Step VI : 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt bam high jar rise tall
Step VII : 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt bam high jar rise tall wise
Step VII : is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input : 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two digits numbers)

1. Which step number is the following output ? 32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink

(a) Step V
(b) Step VI
(c) Step IV
(d) Step III
(e) There is no such step

2. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V ?

(a) 14
(b) 92
(c) feet
(d) best
(e) why

3. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between 'feet' and '32' as they appear in the last step of the output ?

(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) Seven

4. Which of the following represents the position of 'why' in the fourth step ?

(a) Eighth from the left
(b) Fifth from the right
(c) Sixth from the left
(d) Fifth from the left
(e) Seventh from the left

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 5-11) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
• B sits second to left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.
• D's daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H's husband.
• Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's other. Only one person sits between H's mother and E.
• Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

5. What is position of A with respect to his mother-in-law ?

(a) Immediate left
(b) Third to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Second to the right
(e) Fourth to the left

6. Who amongst the following is D's daughter ?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) E
(d) G
(e) H

7. What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild ?

(a) Immediate right
(b) Third to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Second to the left
(e) Fourth to the left

8. How many people sit between G and her uncle ?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) More than four

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(a) F
(b) C
(c) E
(d) H
(e) G

10. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement ?

(a) C is the cousin of E
(b) H and H's husband are immediate neighbours of each other
(c) No female is an immediate neighbour of C
(d) H sits third to left of her daughter
(e) B is the mother of H

11. Who sits to the immediate left of C ?

(a) F's grandmother
(b) G's son
(c) D's mother-in-law
(d) A
(e) G

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 12-18) : In each group of questions below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows;
Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows;
Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows;
Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows;
Give answer (e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

12. Statements : Some exams are tests. No exam is a question.
Conclusions : I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.

13. Statements : All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions : I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.

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14. Statements : All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions : I. No energy is heat.
II. Some forces being heat is a possibility.

15. Statements : No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions : I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.

16. Statements : No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions : I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plastics.

17. Statements : Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics. No graphic is a picture.
Conclusions : I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.

18. Statements : All vacancies are jobs. Some jobs are occupations.
Conclusions : I. All vacancies are occupations.
II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19-21) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions :

Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only. A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

19. Which of the following could possibly be C's score ?

(a) 70
(b) 94
(c) 86
(d) 61
(e) 81

20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information ?

(a) D's score was definitely less than 60
(b) F scored the maximum marks
(c) Only two people scored more than C
(d) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks
(e) None is true

21. The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F's marks. Which of the following can be D's score ?

(a) 94
(b) 60
(c) 89
(d) 78
(e) 81

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 22-29) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions :

Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO bank, Syndicate bank, Canara bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)

• C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
• Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbour of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
• The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person  from Bank of Maharashtra.
• Q faces the person from Dena bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
• B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate bank.

22. Which of the following is true regarding A ?

(a) The person from UCO bank faces A
(b) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A
(c) A faces the person who sits second to right of R
(d) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(e) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line

23. Who is seated between R and the person from PNB ?

(a) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(b) P
(c) Q
(d) The person from Syndicate bank
(e) S

24. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?

(a) D and the person from PNB.
(b) The person from Indian bank and UCO bank.
(c) The person from Dena bank and P.
(d) The persons from Syndicate bank and D.
(e) C, Q

25. Who amongst the following faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra ?

(a) The person from Indian bank
(b) P
(c) R
(d) The person from Syndicate bank
(e) The person from Canara bank

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(Download) LIC AAO Paper 2016 : Computer Knowledge



(Download) LIC AAO Paper 2016 : Computer Knowledge



1. A small picture that represents either a program or a shortcut on a computer screen is–
(A) a pointer 
(B) a logo
(C) a graphics 
(D) an icon
(E) a shortcut
(Ans : D)

2. The speed of a PC is measured in–
(A) Megabytes
(B) Nanoseconds 
(C) Megahertz 
(D) Milliseconds 
(E) Kilo seconds
(Ans : C)

3. ………. is the maximum number of horizontal and vertical pixels that are displayed on the screen.
(A) Pixel
(B) Response Rate 
(C) Resolution 
(D) Screen size
(E) Reflection 
(Ans : C)

4. Which component of a computer system perform arithmetic calculations?
(A) CU
(B) ALU
(C) US 
(D) CD-ROM 
(E) Memory
(Ans : B)

5. What is another name for a computer's main volatile memory ?
(A) RAM
(B) PROM 
(C) ROM
(D) HDD
(E) CD-ROM
(Ans : A)

6. Oracle is a–
(A) RDBMS
(B) Hardware
(C) System software
(D) High level language 
(E) Operating system 
(Ans : A)

7. Which is a software?
(A) Mouse
(B) Pointer
(C) MS Word 
(D) Keyboard
(E) Plotter 
(Ans : C)

8. Which of the following are input devices?
(i) Keyboard
(ii) Pointer 
(iii) Speaker
(iv) Scanner 
(v) Plotter 
(vi) Webcam

(A) i, ii, v
(B) i, iv, v
(C) i, v, vi 
(D) i, iii, vi
(E) i, ii, iv

(Ans : E)

9. Windows Explorer is the name of–
(A) a network 
(B) a web browser 
(C) a file manager 
(D) an internet browser
(E) a drive 
(Ans : B)

10. Which of these is not a peripheral, in computer terms?
(A) Keyboard
(B) Mouse
(C) Monitor
(D) Printer
(E) Motherboard
(Ans : E)

11. Every web page has a  unique address called a(n)–
(A) RUL
(B) ARL 
(C) LUR 
(D) URL
(E) Hyperlink
(Ans : D)

12. Power Point is–
(A) an application program for document preparations 
(B) an application program for graphics
(C) an application program for spreadsheet
(D) an application program for presentation
(E) a program for powerful applications
(Ans : D)

13. The operating system is the most common type of ………. software.
(A) application
(B) presentation software
(C) system 
(D) word-processing software
(E) communication
(Ans : C)

14. Which of the following is not a type of computer network?
(A) PAN 
(B) LAN 
(C) WAN 
(D) MAN
(E) RAN 
(Ans : E)

15. Connections to other documents or to other locations within a Web site are–
(A) hyperlinks
(B) bots
(C) hyperconnects
(D) plug-ins
(E) filters
(Ans : A)

16. The largest unit of digital information is–
(A) Kilobyte
(B) Byte
(C) Terabyte
(D) Megabyte
(E) Gigabyte
(Ans : C)

17. Programs such as Mozilla Firefox that serve as navigable windows into web are called–
(A) Networks
(B) Hyperlinks
(C) Web Browsers
(D) Internet
(E) URLs
(Ans : C)

18. Which of the following is contained at the end of the computer file name and helps to determine the type of file ?
(A) File sub-name 
(B) File property
(C) File extension
(D) File name
(E) File nomenclature
(Ans : C)

19. Which of the' following is a text-based operating system?
(A) MS-DOS 
(B) Windows 95
(C) Windows 2000 
(D) Windows XP
(E) Windows CE
(Ans : A)

20. The 'http' you type at the beginning of any site's address stands for–
(A) Hidden Text Transfer Protocol
(B) Hyperspace Techniques and Technology Progress
(C) Hyperspace Terms and Technology Protocol
(D) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(E) HTML Transfer Technology Process 
(Ans : D)

21. GUI in computing stands for–
(A) General User Interaction
(B) Graphical User Interface
(C) Graphical Utility Interface
(D) Good User Interface 
(E) Graphical User Interlude 
(Ans : B)

22. VoIP stands for–
(A) Vote over IP
(B) Voice over IP
(C) Vendor over IP
(D) Voice on IP
(E) Version over IP 
(Ans : B)

23. ………. is an area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed, stored or output.
(A) Storage
(B) Motherboard 
(C) CPU (D) Memory
(E) ALU
(Ans : D)

24. What is the name of a computer pointing input device?
(A) Monitor 
(B) Sound card
(C) Mouse 
(D) Modem 
(E) Keyboard
(Ans : C)

25. The process of writing computer instructions in a programming language is known as–
(A) Instructioning 
(B) Coding 
(C) File
(D) Algorithming
(E) Processing
(Ans : B)

26. ADSL is a data communication technology that enables faster data transmissions over telephone lines. ADSL stands for–
(A) Accelerated Digital Subscriber Line
(B) Accelerated Digitized Subscriber Line 
(C) Analogous Digital Service Line
(D) Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
(E) Asynchronous Data Subscriber Line
(Ans : D)

27. Which of the following is not one of the basic components of a desktop personal computer system?
(A) Input Device
(B) Storage Devices 
(C) System Unit 
(D) Internet
(E) Display Device 
(Ans : D)

28. Which of the following is not an output device in a computer system?
(A) Printer
(B) Keyboard
(C) Monitor
(D) Speaker
(E) Plotter 
(Ans: B)

29. What do we use to change the appearance and positioning of text document in MS Word ?
(A) Scaling
(B) Editing 
(C) Re-appearance
(D) Indenting
(E) Formatting
(Ans : E)

30. What is the full form of BASIC?
(A) Balanced Assembly System Integrated Code
(B) Basic All System Internal Code 
(C) Beginners Assembly Syntax Instruction Code
(D) Beginners All purpose Symbolic Instruction Code 
(E) Basic All purpose Syntax Integrated Code
(Ans : D)

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(Download) LIC AAO Paper 2016 : General Awareness



(Download) LIC AAO Paper 2016 : General Awareness



1. The recent (February, 2016) 12th South Asian Games 2016 were hosted by–
(A) India 
(B) Sri Lanka 
(C) South Korea 
(D) Nepal
(E) Bangladesh
(Ans : A)

2. The currency of the 'Republic of Austria' is–
(A) Peso
(B) Schilling
(C) Franc
(D) Euro
(E) Lia 
(Ans : : D)

3. The 'BCCI Polly Umrigar' Best Indian Cricketer of the Year 2014-15 Award was recently (January, 2016) awarded to–
(A) Virat Kohli
(B) Rishi Dhawan 
(C) M. S. Dhoni 
(D) Deepak Hooda 
(E) Robin Uthappa
(Ans : A)

4. A joint venture agreement between Indian Railways and French company Astom was recently signed for supply of 800 high horsepower locomotives manufactured in India and to set up electric locomotive factory at Madhapura in the Indian state of–
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Odisha
(C) Chattisgarh
(D) Madhya Pradesh 
(E) Bihar 
(Ans : E)

5. The 7th joint military exercise 'Lamitye 2016' was recently conducted by Indian Army with defence forces of–
(A) Singapore 
(B) Saudi Arabia 
(C) Seychelles
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) South Korea
(Ans :C)

6. Regardless of the mode of payment the Government of India has now (from 1st January, 2016) made it mandatory to quote PAN (Permanent Account Number) for all transactions in excess of–
(A) Rs. 2.50 lakh
(B) Rs. 1.50 lakh
(C) Rs. 3.00 lakh 
(D) Rs. 2.00 lakh
(E) Rs. 1.75 lakh
(Ans : D)

7. PM Shri Narendra Modi recently (February, 2016) released the guidelines for operationalisation of the PMFBY at a 'Kisan Kalyan Mela' organised in the Indian state of–
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Haryana 
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Punjab 
(E) Madhya Pradesh 
(Ans : E)

8. The 'UDAY' scheme recently launched by the Government of India focuses on improving operational efficiency at–
(A) Public sector telecom companies
(B) Electricity distribution companies
(C) Public sector insurance companies
(D) Public sector banks
(E) Public sector undertakings
(Ans :B)

9. The Union Health Ministry has recently (February, 2016) announced a plan to eliminate Malaria from the country by–
(A) 2030 
(B) 2032 
(C) 2025
(D) 2020
(E) 2028
(Ans : A)

10. The country's first Braille-embedded express train has recently (January, 2016) been introduced. It will run once in two weeks between the stations–
(A) Mumbai and Ahmedabad 
(B) Badodara and Allahabad
(C) Kolkata and Jaipur
(D) Varanasi and Mysuru
(E) Mumbai and Pune 
(Ans :D)

11. Who among the following is the author of the book 'The White Tiger' ?
(A) Chetan Bhagat 
(B) Anish Tripathi
(C) Anita Desai
(D) Salman Rushdie
(E) Arvind Adiga
(Ans : E)

12. The 'Mahamaham Festival' which is held once in twelve years was recently (February, 2016) held in–
(A) Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu
(B) Kochi, Kerala
(C) Karvar, Karnataka
(D) Kolkata, West Bengal
(E) Kozhikode, Kerala 
(Ans :A)

13. The Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) has recently (February, 2016) commissioned a 270 MW generation unit for the 540 MW (2 x 270 MW) coal-fired Goindwal Sahib Thermal Power Project of GVK, Power and Infra Limited located in the Indian state of–
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Haryana 
(C) Himachal Pradesh 
(D) Punjab
(E) Rajasthan
(Ans : D)

14. 'Rajamani' who recently (February, 2016) died in Chennai at the age of 60 years was a–
(A) well known journalist
(B) well known music composer
(C) famous architect
(D) former minister and freedom fighter 
(E) veteran photographer
(Ans : B)

15. The Women's Cricket World Cup in 2017 shall be hosted by–
(A) New Zealand
(B) South Africa 
(C) England
(D) India
(E) Australia 
(Ans : C)

16. 'Sushil Koirala' who died recently (February, 2016) at the age of 76 was the former Prime Minister of–
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Bhutan
(C) Mauritius
(D) Myanmar 
(E) Nepal 
(Ans : E)

17. With a view to suggest measures to help the members of 'Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), to understand the nuances of film certification, the Government of India has set up a panel (to revamp censor board) headed by film-maker–
(A) Actor Gopalakrishnan
(B) Amol Palekar
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Shyam Benegal 
(E) Prakash Jha 
(Ans :D)

18. With a view to facilitate Japanese Corporates looking to invest in India, State Bank of India has recently launched a first-ofits-kind initiative by setting up a 'Japanese Desk'. This 'SBI Japan Desk' is based in–
(A) Tokyo
(B) New Delhi
(C) Kolkata
(D) Yokohama
(E) Mumbai
(Ans :: B)

19. American multinational technology company Apple Inc. headquartered in California has recently (February, 2016) announced that it plans to set up its first technology development centre outside the U.S. in India's–
(A) Hyderabad, Telangana
(B) Kochi, Kerala
(C) Bengaluru, Karnataka
(D) Pune, Maharashtra 
(E) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
(Ans :: A)

20. The 103rd 'Indian Science Congress' 2015 was recently (January, 2016) held in–
(A) Margaon, Goa
(B) Mount Abu, Rajasthan
(C) Mysuru, Karnataka 
(D) Madurai, Tamil Nadu
(E) Mumbai, Maharashtra

(Ans : C)

21. In order to raise awareness of its many benefits the UN Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAa) has announced the year 2016 as the 'international year of –
(A) Pulses 
(B) Potato 
(C) Peanuts 
(D) Purple Rice
(E) Pepper
(Ans : A)

22. Every year 25th April is observed allover the world as the–
(A) World Radio Day
(B) World Diabetes Day 
(C) World Malaria Day
(D) World Health Day
(E) World Haemophilia Day
(Ans : C)

23. The host of the 8th annual BRICS summit is–
(A) Russia
(B) China 
(C) India 
(D) Brazil 
(E) South Africa 
(Ans : C)

24. With view to set up an LCD manufacturing unit at an investment of USD 10 billion Anil Agarwal owned 'Twinstar Display Technologies' has recently (February, 2016) signed an agreement with the state government of–
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Gujarat
(C) Telangana
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Karnataka 
(Ans : D)

25. 'Copenhagen' is the capital of–
(A) Sweden
(B) Austria
(C) Denmark
(D) Belgium
(E) Spain
(Ans : C)

26. The largest single-location 6 MTPA capacity Greenfield steel project has recently (November, 2015) been commissioned in Kalinga Nagar steel plant in the Indian state of Od'isha commissioned by–
(A) Tata Steel 
(B) Steel Authority of India
(C) Jindal Steel and Power Limited
(D) Bhushan Power and Steel Limited
(E) Essar Steel Limited 
(Ans : A)

27. Who among the following is the founder of 'Banaras Hindu University' (BHU) which has recently completed 100 years?
(A) Mahatma Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(D) Mahamana Madan Mohan Malviya 
(E) Manial Mohan Das Gandhi 
(Ans : D)

28. The men's singles category title at the 'Brisbane International Tennis Tournament 2015' was won by–
(A) Roger Federer
(B) John Peers
(C) Marin Cllic
(D) Milos Raonic 
(E) Giles Simon 
(Ans : A)

29. The 'Connemara National Park' is located in–
(A) Brazil
(B) Australia 
(C) Ireland
(D) Indonesia
(E) Mexico 
(Ans : C)

30. As per the 2015 revision of the UN World Population Projections, the World population in 2030 is projected to be.
(A) 7.9 billion 
(B) 9.5 billion 
(C) 9.1 billion 
(D) 8.5 billion
(E) 9.9 billion
(Ans : D)

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Question 1
Who lives immediately above A?
1) D
2) F
3) C
4) E
5) None of these

Question 2
Who among following lives exactly between E and H?
1) A
2) G
3) B
4) F
5) C

Question 3
On which of the following floors F lives?
1) 4th
2) 1st
3) 8th
4) 6th
5) 2nd

Question 4
Which of the following statements is not correct?
1) H lives on the topmost floor
2) G lives immediately below C
3) There are three people living between E and G
4) D lives on the odd numbered floor
5) All are correct

Question 5
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group, which one of the following does not belong to the group?
1) G
2) D
3) B
4) H
5) A

Question 6
Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I, and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 
Statements:

All dates are appointment.
No appointment is a visit.
Only a few visits are months.
Conclusions:
I. No date is a visit.
II. All months being appointment is a possibility.
1) Only I follows
2) Only II follows
3) Both I or II follow
4) Either I or II follows
5) Neither I or II follows

Question 7
Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:

Some sign are park.
Some cube are park.
Some park are rare.
Conclusion:
I. Some sign are rare.
II. Some cube are rare.
1) None follows
2) Only I follows
3) Only II follows
4) Both I & II follow
5) Either I or II follows

Question 8
Directions: Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:

All wings are summer.
Some summer are soap.
No soap is an ant.
Conclusion:
I. At least some wing are soap.
II. Some ant being summer is a possibility.
1) None follows
2) Only I follows
3) Only II follows
4) Both I & II follow
5) Either I or II follows

Question 9
Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among the given two conclusion(s) is /are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements:

P ≤ Q > R ≥ S; T > R < X
Conclusions:
I. X > S
II. T < P
1) Only conclusion I follows.
2) Only conclusion I & II follow.
3) Only conclusion II follow.
4) Either I or II follows.
5) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

Question 10
Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among the given two conclusion(s) is /are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements:

K ≤ U = J ≥ H ≥ W < B
Conclusions:
I. K < B
II. U ≥ W
1) Only conclusion I follows.
2) Only conclusion I & II follow.
3) Only conclusion II follow.
4) Either I or II follows.
5) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

 

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Question 1 
Find the odd one (as per the direction).
1) EA
2) GB
3) GA
4) CI
5) BD

Question 2 
B is in which direction with respect to D?
1) North
2) North-east
3) South-west
4) South-east
5) East

Question 3
If H is 15 m south of E, at which distance and in which direction H is with respect to B?
1) 20 m, East
2) 20 m, West
3) 30 m, North
4) 15 m, North
5) 15 m, South

Question 4
How many persons are sitting between A and F (if counted to the right of F)?
1) Only G
2) Both G and J
3) Both B and E
4) Only H
5) Only C

Question 5
How many people are between H and D (if counted to the right of D)?
1) Two
2) One
3) None
4) More than three
5) Three

Question 6
What is the position of B with respect of C?
1) Second to the right
2) Third to the right
3) Second to the left
4) Third to the left
5) Fourth to the right

Question 7
Find the odd one.
1) EF
2) BA
3) GH
4) HE
5) CJ

Question 8
Complete the given series (as per the seating arrangemnet):
AB, FG, JB, FH, AG, ___.
1) HA
2) CF
3) GH
4) BG
5) JC

Question 9
According to numerical series, How many pairs of digits are there in the number “67289574” each of which has as many digits between them as in the numerical series in both forward and backward directions?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three

Question 10
In a certain coding language, 'HONEST' is coded as 'INODTS', and 'HEAT' is coded as 'IDBS', then how 'LENGTH' can be coded in the given coding language?

1) MODUFG
2) DOMGFU
3) MFDUGO
4) MDOFUG
5) GUDMOF

 

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SBI PO (Main) Exam Paper - 2017 "English Language"

SBI PO (Main) Exam Paper - 2017 "English Language"

Direction (41-45): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
At first sight, it looks as though Panchayati raj, the lower layer of federalism in our polity, is as firmly entrenched in our system as is the older and higher layer comprising the Union Government and the States. Like the democratic institutions at the higher level, those at the panchayat level, the Panchayati raj institutions (PRIs), are written into andprotected by the Constitution. All the essential features, which distinguish a unitary system  from a federal one, are as much enshrined at the lower as at the upper level of our federal system. But look closely and you will discover a fatal flaw. The letter of the Constitution as well as the spirit of the present polity have exposed the intra-State level of our federal system to a dilemma of which the inter-State and Union-State layers are free. The flaw has many causes. But all of them are rooted in an historical anomaly, that while the dynamics of federalism and democracy have given added strength to the rights given to the States in the Constitution, they have worked against the rights of panchayats.
At both levels of our federal system there is the same tussle between those who have certain rights and those who try to encroach upon them if they believe they can. Thus, the Union Government was able to encroach upon certain rights given to the States by the Constitution. It got away with that because the single dominant party system, which characterised Centre-State relations for close upon two decades, gave the party in power at the Union level many extra-constitutional political levers. Second, the Supreme Court had not yet begun to extend the limits of its power. But all that has changed in recent times. The spurt given to a multi-party democracy by the overthrow of the Emergency in 1977 became a long-term trend later on because of the ways in which a vigorously democratic multi-party system works in a political society which is as assertively pluralistic as Indian society is. It gives political clout to all the various segments which constitute that society. Secondly, because of the linguistic reorganisation of States in the 1950s, many of the most assertive segments have found their most assertive expression as States. Thirdly, with single-party dominance becoming a thing of the past at the Union level, governments can be formed at that level only by multi-party coalitions in which State-level parties are major players. This has made it impossible for the Union Government to do much about anything unless it also carries a sufficient number of State-level parties with it. Indian federalism is now more real than it used to be, but an unfortunate side-effect is that India's Panchayati raj system, inaugurated with such fanfare in the early 1980s, has become less real. By the time the PRIs came on the scene, most of the political space in our federal system had been occupied by the Centre in the first 30 years of Independence, and most of what was still left after that was occupied by the States in the next 20. PRIs might have hoped to wrest some space from their immediate neighbour, the States, just as the States had wrested some from the Centre. But having at last managed to checkmate the Centre's encroachments on their rights, the States were not about to allow the PRIs to do some encroaching of their own.
By the 1980s and early 1990s, the only national party left, the Congress, had gone deeper into a siege mentality. Finding itself surrounded by State-level parties, it had built walls against them instead of winning them over. Next, the States retaliated by blocking Congress proposals for Panchayati raj in Parliament, suspecting that the Centre would try to use panchayats to bypass State Governments. The suspicion fed on the fact that the powers proposed by the Congress for panchayats were very similar to many of the more lucrative powers of State Governments. State-level leaders also feared, perhaps, that if panchayat-level leaders captured some of the larger PRIs, such as district-level panchayats, they would exert pressure on State-level leaders through intra-State multi- party federalism.

It soon became obvious to Congress leaders that there was no way the Panchayati raj amendments they wanted to write into the Constitution would pass muster unless State- level parties were given their pound of flesh. The amendments were allowed only after it was agreed that the powers of panchayats could be listed in the Constitution. Illustratively, they would be defined and endowed on PRIs by the State Legislature acting at its discretion.
This left the door wide open for the States to exert the power of the new political fact that while the Union and State Governments could afford to ignore panchayats as long as the MLAs were happy, the Union Government had to be sensitive to the demands of State-level parties. This has given State-level actors strong beachheads on the shores of both inter-State and intra-State federalism. By using various administrative devices and non- elected parallel structures, State Governments have subordinated their PRIs to the State administration and given the upper hand to State Government officials againstthe elected heads of PRIs. Panchayats have become local agencies for implementing schemes drawn up in distant State capitals. And their own volition has been further circumscribed by a plethora of “Centrally- sponsored schemes”. These are drawn up by even more distant Central authorities but at the same time tie up local staff and resources on pain of the schemes being switched off in the absence of matching local contribution. The "foreign aid" syndrome can be clearly seen at work behind this kind of "grass roots development".
41. The central theme of the passage can be best summarized as

A. Our grassroots development at the panchayat level is now driven by the "foreign aid" syndrome.

B. Panchayati raj is firmly entrenched at the lower level of our federal system of governance.

C. A truly federal polity has not developed since PRIs have not been allowed the necessary political space.

D. The Union government and State-level parties are engaged in a struggle for the protection of their respective rights.

E. None of these

42. The sentence in the last paragraph, “And their own volition has been further circumscribed...”, refers to:

A. The weakening of the local institutions' ability to plan according to their needs.

B. The increasing demands made on elected local leaders to match central grants with local contributions.

C. The empowering of the panchayat system as implementers of schemes from State capitals.

D. The process by which the prescribed Central schemes are reformulated by local elected leaders.

E. None of these

43. What is the "dilemma" at the intra-State level mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage?

A. Should the state governments wrest more space from the Union, before considering the Panchayati system?

B. Should rights similar to those that the States managed to get be extended to panchayats as well?

C. Should the single party system which has withered away be brought back at the level of the States?

D. Should the States get "their pound of flesh" before allowing the Union government to pass any more laws?

E. None of these

44. Which of the following most closely describes the 'fatal flaw' that the passage refers to?

A. The ways in which the democratic multi- party system works in an assertively pluralistic society like India's are flawed.

B. The mechanisms that our federal system uses at the Union government level to deal with States are imperfect.

C. The instruments that have ensured federalism at one level, have been used to achieve the opposite at another.

D. The Indian Constitution and the spirit of the Indian polity are fatally flawed.

E. None of these

45. Which of the following best captures the current state of Indian federalism as described in the passage?

A. The Supreme Court has not begun to extend the limits of its power.

B. The multi-party system has replaced the single party system.

C. The Union, state and Panchayati raj levels have become real.

D. There is real distribution of power between the Union and State level parties.

E. None of these

Direction (46-50): Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The world is leaning on its biggest economy to sustain the global recovery, according to the International Monetary Fund. The fund left its forecast for global growth unchanged in the latest quarterly update to its World Economic Outlook, released Monday in Kuala Lumpur. The world economy will expand 3.4 percent this year, up from 3.2 percent in 2016, and by 3.6 percent next year, the IMF said. The forecasts for this year and next are unchanged from the fund’s projections in April. Beneath the headline figures, though, the drivers of the recovery are shifting, with the world relying less than expected on the US and the UK and more on China, Japan, the euro zone and Canada, according to the Washington-based IMF.

The dollar fell to its lowest in 14 months last week as investors discounted the ability of President Donald Trump’s administration to deliver on its economic agenda after efforts by the Republican Senate to overhaul healthcare collapsed. The IMF estimated US growth at 2.1 percent this year and again in 2018, consistent with what the fund said June 27 in its annual assessment of the US 2.3 percent and 2.5 percent, respectively, in 2017 and 2018. The economy expanded by 1.6 percent in 2016. “US growth projections are lower than in April, primarily reflecting the assumption that fiscal policy will be less expansionary going forward than previously anticipated,” the IMF said in the latest report. In June, the IMF said it had dropped assumptions of a boost to growth from Trump’s plans to cut taxes and increase infrastructure spending. Trump’s budget director, Mick Mulvaney, wrote in July that the administration’s goal is “sustained 3 percent economic growth,” and he named the program “MAGAnomies” after Trump’s campaign slogan, “Make America Great Again”.

Meanwhile, as the UK works through its Brexit negotiations, the IMF also chopped its forecast for UK growth this year by 0.3 percentage point to 1.7 percent on weaker- than-expected activity in the first quarter. “This forecast underscores exactly why our plans to increase productivity and ensure we get the very best deal with the EU, are vitally important,” the UK Treasury said in an emailed statement. “The fundamentals of our economy are strong.”

Other countries are picking up the slack. The IMF’s projection for growth in China is 6.7 percent for 2017 – the same as its estimate made June 14 in an annual staff report, and up 0.1 point from April’s world economic outlook. For 2018 the fund sees Chinese growth at 6.4 percent, an increase of 0.2 points from three months ago. In the report, the IMF looked for average annual growth of 6.4 percent in China during 2018 through 2020. “Rich market valuations and very low volatility in an environment of high policy uncertainty raise the likelihood of a market correction, which could dampen growth and confidence, said the fund, which also cited China’s credit growth and protectionist policies as threats.

While risks to the global outlook are “broadly balanced” in the near term, medium term risks are titled to the downside, the IMF said. IMF urged advanced countries with weak demand and low inflation to continue supporting growth through monetary and fiscal policy while cautioning central banks against raising borrowing costs too quickly. The fund said widespread protectionism or a “race to the bottom” on financial and regulatory oversight would leave all countries worse off.

46. Which of the following statements can definitely be concluded from the given passage?

(i) IMF does not perceive any considerable long term risk to global market in the short term
(ii) IMF views China’s credit and growth policy as a risk to global outlook
(iii) The US can perform well in global outlook by abandoning its protectionist policies

A. Both (i) and (ii)

B. Both (i) and (iii)

C. Only (i)

D. Only (ii)

E. Only (iii)

47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of IMF’s growth forecast of China?
(i) An annual average growth of 6.4 percent during 2018 through 2020
(ii) No change in its forecast for 2017 from its Annual Staff report of June 14th
(iii) The forecast for 2018 has grown a meager 0.2 percent from previous quarter

A. Only (ii) and (iii)

B. Only (i) and (ii)

C. Only (i) and (iii)

D. None of these

E. All of the above

48. IMF has cut growth forecast of UK by 0.3 percent. What does it imply for the UK?

A. It should increase infrastructure spending and cut taxes

B. It made a mistake to withdraw itself from Europe

C. It should work on its fundamental for faster economic recovery

D. It should ensure best deal out of Brexit negotiations

E. None of these

49. According to the IMF, the advanced countries with weak demand and low inflation should-
(i) discard their protectionist policies
(ii) support growth through monetary and fiscal policy
(iii) keep a check on rapid increase in rate of interest by central banks

A. Both (i) and (ii)

B. Both (ii) and (iii)

C. Both (i) and (iii)

D. Only (i)

E. Only (ii)

50. Which of the following factors can be attributed to the fall of dollar to its lowest in the 14 weeks period?

A. The US’ diminishing role in global recovery

B. The emergence of Japan, China and Euro Zone as the driver of global recovery

C. The protectionist policies of Trump

D. The inability of Trump to keep his economic promises

E. Less expansionary fiscal policy of the US than expected

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Quantitative Aptitude


Direction: What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

Q1. 48, 63, 52, 67, ?, 71

a. 52
b. 60
c. 54
d. 62
e. 56

Q2. 17, 29, 53, 101, 197, ?

a. 391
b. 374
c. 383
d. 375
e. 389

Q3. 15, 24, 52, 117, ?, 460

a. 237
b. 243
c. 257
d. 251
e. 239

Q4. 16, 21, 31, 45, 62, ?

a. 81
b. 89
c. 87
d. 78
e. 93

Q5. 6, 11, 27, 86, ?, 1750

a. 349
b. 341
c. 355
d. 351
e. 363

Q6. 5, 14, 78, 103, 319, ?

a. 368
b. 372
c. 364
d. 354
e. 378

Direction: Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below:

Q. The given bar graph depicting the number of pillows sold by two stores A and B in the given 5 months.

Q7. What is the respective ratio between total number of pillows sold by store A in June and July together and that by store B in May and June together?

a. 14 : 9
b. 16 : 13
c. 14 : 11
d. 12 : 7
e. 16 : 11

Q8. If the total number of pillows sold by stores A and B together in August is 230 more than that sold in May, then what is the total number of pillows sold by stores A and B together in August?

a. 690
b. 720
c. 710
d. 680
e. 700

Q9. The respective ratio between number of pillows sold by store A in February and March is 11 : 7 and the respective ratio between number of pillows sold by store B in February and April is 9 : 13. What is the difference between number of pillows sold by stores A and B in February?

a. 170
b. 160
c. 150
d. 200
e. 180

Q10.What is the percentage increment in the number of pillows sold by store A from April to June?

a. 700/11
b. 762/11
c. 782/11
d. 720/11
e. 675/11

Q11. What is the average number of pillows sold by store B in March, April and June?

a. 280
b. 300
c. 270
d. 310
e. 290

Q12. If the total number of pillows sold by stores A and B together in December is 15% less than that in July, then what is the total number of pillows sold by stores A and B together in December?

a. 468
b. 456
c. 436
d. 442
e. 454

Q13. A shopkeeper mixed two varieties of rice at Rs. 24/kg and Rs. x/kg in the ratio 2 : 3 respectively and sold the mixture at Rs. 29.88/kg at 20% profit. Find the value of x.

a. 25
b. 25.5
c. 27
d. 30
e. None of these

Q14. There are 8 blue, 5 yellow and 7 red balls. What is the probability of choosing either 1 yellow or red ball?

a. 2/3
b. 3/4
c. 4/5
d. 3/5
e. 1/2

Q15. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 60 hours and 40 hours respectively and pipe C can empty the tank in 15 hours. If pipes A and B are opened for 12 hours, then pipe C is also opened. After how many hours, the tank will be emptied?

a. 15 hours
b. 20 hours
c. 12.5 hours
d. 10 hours
e. None of these

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(Download) IBPS PO 2019 Exam Paper Reasoning Ability

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Reasoning Ability


Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. In the table, the details of total number students and students in class 10 is given.

SCHOOL TOTAL NUMBER OF STUDENTS [MALE + FEMALE] NUMBER OF STUDENTS [MALE + FEMALE] IN CLASS 10 NUMBER OF FEMALES IN CLASS 10
A 250 48 12
B 480 64 10
C 360 80 25

Q1. In school C, the number of female students in classes other than 10 is 101. What percent of student in school C are female?

a. 30%
b. 46%
c. 26%
d. 40%
e. 35%

Q2. What is the difference between number of male students in class 10 of school A and that of school B?

a. 12
b. 18
c. 11
d. 16
e. 5

Q3. In school A, there are only three classes 8th , 9th and 10th. If the respective ratio between the number of students (male + female) in class 8th and class 9th is 55 : 46. What is the number of student (male + female) in class 8th?

a. 56
b. 165
c. 110
d. 132
e. 99

Q4. In school B, the number of students (male + female) in classes other than class 10 is what % more than the number of students (male + female) in class 10?

a. 560
b. 550
c. 660
d. 650
e. 450

Q5. What is the respective ratio between the number of students (male + female) in class 10 of school C and total number of students (male + female) in all class together of school B?

a. 1 : 8
b. 1 : 9
c. 1 : 4
d. 1 : 6
e. 1 : 16

Q6. What is average number of students (male + female) in class 10 of schools A and B?

a. 56
b. 58
c. 55
d. 52
e. 54

Direction: Read the following information carefully to give the answer of the questions based on it.

Six people J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. They like different colours i.e. pink, red, green, blue, white and yellow. N is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes red. K is sitting second to the right of N. One person sits between K and the one who likes yellow (either from the right or left side). N neither likes yellow nor red. Only two people are sitting between the one who likes yellow and L. J sits third to the right of the one who likes pink. J neither likes yellow nor red. Only one person sits between J and the one who likes white (either from the right or left side). O sits to the immediate left of the one who likes green.

Q7. Who among the following likes green colour?

a. L
b. K
c. J
d. O
e. M

Q8. What is the position of J with respect to the one who likes blue?

a. Immediate right
b. Second to the left
c. Second to the right
d. Immediate left
e. None of these

Q9. How many people are sitting between the one who likes pink and M when counted from the left of M?

a. One
b. None
c. Two
d. Three
e. More than three

Q10. Who sits third to the left of O?

a. The one who likes red
b. K
c. The one who likes green
d. N
e. The one who likes blue

Q11. Which of the following statement is true about M and L?

a. M sits second to the left of L.
b. There are two people between M and L.
c. No one sits between M and L.
d. L sits second to the right of M.
e. None of the above.

Direction: In the following questions assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusion (s) among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Q12. Statement:

A > B < C < D; F < C < E < R

Conclusions:

I. R > D
II. F < A

a. If only conclusion I follows
b. If only conclusion II follows
c. If either conclusion I or II follows
d. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
e. If both conclusions I and II follow

Q13. Statement:

V < W < X = Y > T = Z

Conclusions:

I. Z > X
II. V < Y

a. If only conclusion I follows
b. If only conclusion II follows
c. If either conclusion I or II follows
d. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
e. If both conclusions I and II follow

Q14. Statement:

A > B < C < D; F < C < E < R

Conclusions:

I. E > B
II. A > D

a. If only conclusion I follows
b. If only conclusion II follows
c. If either conclusion I or II follows
d. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
e. If both conclusions I and II follow

Q15. Statement:

J < R < K = M; T > R = Y

Conclusions:

I. J < T
II. M > Y

a. If only conclusion I follows
b. If only conclusion II follows
c. If either conclusion I or II follows
d. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
e. If both conclusions I and II follow

Q16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain manner and hence form a group. Find the one which does not belong to that group?

a. SXTY
b. CHFK
c. OTRW
d. EJHM
e. LQOT

Direction: Read the following information carefully to give the answer of the questions based on it.

Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F are placed one above the other in a stack. Each box is of a different color. Only two boxes are there between A and B. Black box is kept immediately above B. Only two boxes are kept between Black box and C. C is not kept the bottom. Only one box is kept between C and Yellow colored box. Box B is not Yellow in color. Only two boxes are there Yellow colored box and Green colored box. Green colored box is kept above Yellow colored box. Only one box is kept between Green colored box and Red colored box. D is kept immediately below Red colored box. Only three boxes are there between D and Orange colored box. E is kept above Orange colored box. Blue colored box is kept below E.

Q17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, find the odd one out.

a. Green – A
b. Red – E
c. Black – F
d. Blue – D
e. Orange – C

Q18. Which of the following statements is true?

a. No box is kept below D
b. No box is kept between Black box and B
c. F is kept above C
d. Only two boxes are there between Orange colored box and A
e. All of the above.

Q19. How many boxes are there below Blue colored box?

a. One
b. Three
c. More than Three
d. Two
e. None

Q20. As many boxes are kept between the Yellow colored box and the Orange colored box as between A and __.

a. Blue box
b. Black box
c. D
d. Green Box
e. B

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Bank/Organisation: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Download) IBPS PO 2019 Exam Paper ENGLISH LANGUAGE

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(Download) IBPS PO 2019 Exam Paper

ENGLISH LANGUAGE


Direction (1 – 6) : In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Invasive pests and weeds can

Q1. country by flying over the border or by simply growing gratuitously. In such cases,

Q2. their entry is difficult. However, when they land up at airports and dockyards in cargos of imported grain or with items carried by tourists, the authorities should be able to,

Q3. them out. For this reason, countries have animal, plant and health quarantine facilities at all trans border entry points. Tanzania, however, seems to have let its guard,

Q4. late, especially with regards to agricultural products, which form the bulk of its imports. It is difficult to establish how pests and weeds are entering the country. What is

Q5.  is that there is no institutional mechanism to even probe these invasions. The concerned ministry has not,

Q6. a single invasion till date.

Q1. Find the appropriate word in each case.

a. Reach
b. Leave on
c. Protrude
d. Enter any
e. Search for

Q2. Find the appropriate word in each case.

a. Getting
b. Allowing
c. Blocked
d. Detecting
e. Checking

Q3. Find the appropriate word in each case.

a. Hide
b. Weed
c. Grow
d. Cultivate
e. Filtered

Q4. Find the appropriate word in each case.

a. Closed of
b. Down of
c. Loose
d. Up a bit
e. Though

Q5. Find the appropriate word in each case.

a. Accountable
b. Understandable
c. Inexplicable
d. Pleasing
e. Efficient

Q6. Find the appropriate word in each case.

a. Investigated
b. Followed up
c. Recruited
d. Accused
e. Entertain

Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part will be your answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as ‘No error’. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

Q7. Several new business (1)/ have come up recently due to (2)/ the various schemes (3)/ introduced by the government. (4)

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. No error

Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part will be your answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as ‘No error’. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

Q8. If there is something you want (1)/ to accomplish then simply make (2)/ a decision and do it rather than (2)/ waiting for the right time. (4)

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. No error

Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part will be your answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as ‘No error’. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

Q9. Experts suggest that (1)/ making work rewarding (2)/ may mean rethinking the way (3)/ company are led. (4)

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. No error

Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part will be your answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as ‘No error’. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

Q10. Psychologists has done a (1)/ considerable amount of research (2)/ to assess the effectiveness of various strategies (3)/ for behavior modification. (4)

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. No error

Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part will be your answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as ‘No error’. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

Q11. We all have the ability to focus (1)/ and concentrate, but only if we (2)/ decide what is important to us (3)/ and we want to accomplishing. (4)

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. No error

Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part will be your answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as ‘No error’. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

Q12. Just around two decades ago, (1)/ few imagine that the robust data, (2)/ messaging, voice and video connections (3)/ could be established with such ease. (4)

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. No error

Direction (13 – 19) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these.

There was something pathetic about a minister’s wishful thinking as he addressed the media and talked about his vision of 5G mobile generation for country X. He said his vision of 5G for the country was not just a rollout of services, but the creation of intellectual property (IP) in the country and patents in 5G technology.

This may be possible in a couple of decades, but right now we might as well be crying for the moon. While companies around the world, notably the Chinese, have secured thousands of patents in this revolutionary technology that will provide the platform for inventing a host of new products, technologies and services, the companies in country X are yet to start field trials of 5G spectrum for which permission was granted just recently. Equipment for these trials, needless to say, will be provided by foreign vendors. Most people assume that 5G will provide faster speeds than 4G, which bypasses the hinterland and works only patchily in the urban area, but that would be a gross simplification.

A global 5G network will unify mobile communication and connect people and devices to everything through the Internet of Things. Given that 3G and 4G patent holders have controlled the use of mobile technologies in the Smartphone industry, those who own the intellectual property (IP), primarily the standard essential patents, will become the market leaders in a technology that will reshape the future.

Country X has sent missions to the moon but in the area where technological prowess matters most, the country is lost in a black hole. Not a single telecom firm of the country is in the list of 303 deployment of 5G technology worldwide. This industry list has 20 operators in 294 locations. Worse, although the domestic firms are expected to start their three-month-long trial shortly, it is worth remembering that the industry is in dire straits with huge debts and has indicated that it would be in no position to bid for 5G spectrum.

Nor does country X have the kind of resources that China is investing in 5G apart from the sharp research effort on it. No wonder Chinese firms command the lion’s share of patents among the clutch of global firms that own IP in 5G. Its star performer Huawei __________ to surge ahead with revenues soaring by 23 percent.

Country X has to decide if Huawei is a security threat or not. Can country X ever catch up? Field trials are just the starting point; it merely allows operators and equipment makers to prove that the network they have designed in a laboratory actually works in practice. Then there is the long haul to a commercial rollout.

As country X obsesses about its technological expertise in a mythical past, the future is looking decidedly dim. Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in

Q13. Which of the following carries a similar meaning to DIRE STRAITS?

a. Lack of employees
b. Investing Elsewhere
c. Financially Stable
d. Facing a paucity of researchers
e. A difficult situation

Q14. Which of the following is true with reference to the passage?

a. 5G connectivity will improve connectivity only in rural areas.
b. Country X lags behind other countries in every field of science and technology.
c. None of the given options.
d. Many companies of country X feature in the list of companies holding 5G patents.
e. The government of country X has hugely invested in 5G technology, which has paid huge dividends.

Q15. What does the author intend to convey from the following segment of the passage? “…but that would be a gross simplification…”

a. 5G technology is a lot more than just improved speed and connectivity.
b. Telecom companies worldwide will incur losses once 5G technology is commercialized.
c. There is not much difference between 4G and 5G technology.
d. Connectivity will be the only issue with 5G technology.
e. 5G technology will provide only internet at a high speed.

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Bank/Organisation: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Paper) SBI Clerk Prelims Exam Paper - 2020 ::Quantitative Aptitude::

(Paper) SBI Clerk Prelims Exam Paper - 2020 ::Quantitative Aptitude::

Directions (36-40): Table given below shows the number of male and female participated in an event from five different schools (A, B, C, D & E). Study the table carefully and answer the following questions.

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Paper) SBI Clerk Prelims Exam Paper - 2020 ::English Language::

(Paper) SBI Clerk Prelims Exam Paper - 2020 ::English Language::

Directions (71-77) Read the given passage carefully and answer the following questions. Certain parts have been highlighted to help answer the questions.

Bank/Organisation: 
Subject: 
General: 

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