(Notification) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) : Officer in Grade-B Recruitment 2024

Post Detail : 

. The Reserve Bank of India Services Board (Board) invites applications from eligible candidates for the posts mentioned below in Reserve Bank of India (RBI/Bank)

(Papers) IBPS : Specialist Officers Prelims Exam Paper -2017

Direction (1-5): Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

(Papers) IBPS : Specialist Officers Prelims Exam Paper -2018

Direction: Find the wrong term in the given series:

1. 8, 9, 20, 64, 256, 1285, 7716

A. 1285
B. 256
C. 7716
D. 64
E. 9

Direction: Find the wrong term in the given series:

2. 1015, 508, 255, 130, 66.5, 35.75,20.875

(Papers) नाबार्ड सहायक प्रबंधक ग्रेड 'ए' पेपर्स-2019

Nabard Assistant Manager in Grade ‘A’ PAPERS-2019

• Exam Name: नाबार्ड परीक्षा पेपर्स (हिन्दी)
• Year: 2019
• No of Question : 200

(Papers) नाबार्ड सहायक प्रबंधक ग्रेड 'ए' पेपर्स-2020

Nabard Assistant Manager in Grade ‘A’ PAPERS-2020

• Exam Name: नाबार्ड परीक्षा पेपर्स (हिन्दी)
• Year: 2020
• No of Question : 200

(Papers) Download Nabard Assistant Manager in Grade ‘A’ PAPERS-2018

• Exam Name: Nabard Exam Papers
• Year: 2018
• No of Question : 2018

National Rural Livelihood Mission was launched by which of the following ministries?

(Papers) Download Nabard Assistant Manager in Grade ‘A’ PAPERS-2020

• Exam Name: Nabard Exam Papers
• Year: 2020
• No of Question : 200

IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2020 (Reasoning Ability)

 Subject : Reasoning Ability

Que. 66 Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions.
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around the circular table but not necessarily in same order. All are facing towards center.
Two persons sit between F and G. G does not sit second to the left of D. D sits third to the right of C. B sits fourth to the right of A. E sits second to the right of A. D is immediate left of E.
Who among the following sits exactly between G and C?
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. E
5. F
Correct Option - 2

Que. 67 Who among the following sits third to the left of E?
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. F
5. B
Correct Option - 4

Que. 68 What is the position of E with respect to B?
1. Second to the right
2. Second to the left
3. Third to the right
4. Third to the left
5. None of the above given option
Correct Option - 2

Que. 69 Four among the five are same in a certain way thus form a group. Which among the following is odd one out?
1. E - D
2. D - A
3. C - B
4. G - E
5. F - A
Correct Option - 5

Que. 70 Which statement among the following is true regarding arrangement?
1. E sits immediate right of G
2. Only one person sit between F and B when count clockwise from B
3. C and F are immediate neighbor of each other
4. Both A 2) and 3)
5. All statements are true
Correct Option - 3

Que. 66 Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions.

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around the circular table but not necessarily in same order. All are facing towards center.
Two persons sit between F and G. G does not sit second to the left of D. D sits third to the right of C. B sits fourth to the right of A. E sits second to the right of A. D is immediate left of E.
Who among the following sits exactly between G and C?
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. E
5. F
Correct Option - 2

Que. 67 Who among the following sits third to the left of E?
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. F
5. B
Correct Option - 4

Que. 68 What is the position of E with respect to B?
1. Second to the right
2. Second to the left
3. Third to the right
4. Third to the left
5. None of the above given option
Correct Option - 2

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Que. 69 Four among the five are same in a certain way thus form a group. Which among the following is odd one out?
1. E - D
2. D - A
3. C - B
4. G - E
5. F - A
Correct Option - 5

Que. 70 Which statement among the following is true regarding arrangement?
1. E sits immediate right of G
2. Only one person sit between F and B when count clockwise from B
3. C and F are immediate neighbor of each other
4. Both A 2) and 3)
5. All statements are true
Correct Option - 3

Que. 71 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word "RESOLVE" each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward direction), as they have between them in English alphabetical series?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than Three
Correct Option - 3

Que. 72 Direction: In the question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 
Statements:
Some fan is AC.
Only a few AC is cooler.
Conclusions:
I. Some fan is cooler.
II. No fan is cooler.
1. Only conclusion I follow
2. Only conclusion II follow
3. Both conclusions I and II follow
4. Either conclusion I or II follows
5. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Correct Option - 4

Que. 73 Directions: In the question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
I. Some gases are liquids
II. Only a few gases are water
Conclusions:
I. Some gases are water
II. Some gases are not water
1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Only conclusion Ii follows
3. Either conclusion I or II follws
4. Neither conclusion I or II follows
5. Both conclusion I and II follows
Correct Option - 5

Que. 74 Directions: In the question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered
I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
All Toy is Bottle.
A little Toy are Machine.
Conclusions:
I. No Toy is Bottle.
II. Some Machine are Bottle.
1. Only I follow
2. Only II follow
3. Either I or II follows
4. Neither I nor II follows
5. Both I and II follows
Correct Option - 2

Que. 75 Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V. All of them have their birthdays in different months namely January, March, April, May, June, July and August. No two persons share the same birthday month. P's birthday is in January. There are the same number of person having their birthday before and after R. Only one person's birthday is there between S and R. Q's birthday is in the month having 31 days but not in August. There are two person's birthday between Q and V. T's birthday is before U's birthday. Q's birthday is not before R.
In which month does S have his birthday?
1. March
2. April
3. May
4. June
5. July
Correct Option - 1

Que. 76 Whose birthday is in the month of June?
1. Q
2. R
3. S
4. T
5. U
Correct Option - 4

Que. 77 How many persons have their birthday before Q?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. More than Four
Correct Option - 5

Que. 78 Four among the five are same in a certain way thus form a group. Who among the following is odd one out
1. P
2. S
3. R
4. T
5. Q
Correct Option - 4

Que. 79 Who is having his birthday at the last?
1. U
2. V
3. R
4. T
5. None of the above given option
Correct Option - 1

Que. 80 Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P is 9m to the west of R. R is 7m to the north of T, who is 5m to the east of S. S is 4m north of Q.
Q is 14m to the south of U, Where V is the midpoint of U and S.
What is the distance between V and Q?
1. 14m
2. 9m
3. 10m
4. 15m
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2

Que. 81 Point P is in which direction with respect to V?
1. Northeast
2. North
3. Southwest
4. Southeast
5. Northwest
Correct Option - 5

Que. 82 If a point W is drawn 7m to the south of point P, them what will be the distance between W and S?
1. 9m
2. 10m
3. 8m
4. 12m
5. None of these
Correct Option - 5

Que. 83 Each of the vowels in the word “OBLIQUE” is replaced by the previous letter and each consonant is replaced by next letter in alphabetical series. How many letters occur more than once in this newly formed word?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than three
Correct Option - 1

Que. 84 Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions.
An uncertain number of person is sitting in a row facing towards North. Q is sitting second from on the extreme ends. S is sitting seventh to the right of M. L is sitting exactly in between Q and S. O is sitting third to the left of R. Only two people are sitting between Q and M. Only one person is sitting between S and O. P is sitting second to the left of N who is sitting fourth to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbour of S.
Who is sitting at the extreme right end of the row?
1. P
2. R
3. S
4. N
5. None of these
Correct Option - 4

Que. 85 How many people are sitting in the row?
1. 23
2. 21
3. 25
4. 22
5. 17
Correct Option - 2

Que. 86 How many people are sitting in between L and O?
1. Five
2. Seven
3. Six
4. Four
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3

Que. 87 Which of the following statement is correct regarding P?
1. Second to the right of N
2. Second to the left of R
3. Second from one the extreme ends
4. Immediate neighbour of N
5. None of these
Correct Option - 5

Que. 88 Who is sitting exactly in between R and N?
1. P
2. J
3. M
4. Q
5. none of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 89 Direction: In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/ are definitely true, and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements: A < Z ≥ P > Q < L ≤ M < R = S
Conclusions:
I. M > P
II. L < S
1. Only I follow
2. Only II follow
3. Either I or II follow
4. Neither I nor II follows
5. Both I and II follows
Correct Option - 2

Que. 90 Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, Find which of the conclusion among the given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statement: A = G ≤ M > Z > X ≥ T
Conclusion:
I. Z > T
II. Z = T
1. Only II follow
2. Both I and II follow
3. Only I follow
4. Neither I nor II follow
5. Either I or II follow
Correct Option - 3

Que. 91 Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements:
A < B = C > E ≥ D ≥ F
Conclusions:
I. E > F
II. E = F
1. Either Conclusion I or II is true.
2. Both Conclusions I and II are true.
3. Neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
4. Only Conclusion I is true.
5. Only Conclusion II is true.
Correct Option - 1

Que. 92 Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is /are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly. 
Statement: I ≤ J ≥ K > L ≥ M = N < O
Conclusions:
I. O < J
II. K ≥ N
1. Only conclusion I is true
2. Only conclusion II is true
3. Either conclusion I or II is true
4. Both conclusion I and II are true
5. Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Correct Option - 5

Que. 93 Direction: Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Eight persons M, O, P, Q, R, S, T and U live on eight different flats of a four-storey building but not necessary in the same order, where the bottom most floor is 1 and the floor above is numbered 2 and so on. There are 2 types of flats on each floor, flat A and flat B are such that flat A is towards the west of flat B. Flat A of floor 1 is immediately below of flat A of floor 2, which is immediately below of flat A of floor 3 and so on, similarly for flat B. The dimensions of each of the flats are same. If one person lives immediately above or below the other then they have the same flat. There are two floors between the floors of U and R (both of them may or may not live in the same type of flat). U lives south-west of M. Q lives 2 floors above M (both live in the same type of flat). O lives immediately above S, who doesn’t live anywhere below M’s floor. P doesn’t live on a floor above M. Who lives immediately above O? 
1. M
2. Q
3. R
4. L
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 3

Que. 94 How many persons live below Q (in the same type of flat)?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 1
4. 0
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 2

Que. 95 Which pair of persons live on the same floor?
1. U, T
2. Q, P
3. R, Q
4. U, S
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 3

Que. 96 Q lives in the northeast of _____
1. O
2. M
3. T
4. R
5. Both (a) and (b)
Correct Option - 1

Que. 97 Who lives immediately above P in the same type of flat?
1. O
2. S
3. T
4. M
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 4

Que. 98 Direction: Study the following series carefully and answer the question given below.
M F J O L Q W E R T Y U P A H D G I N X Z C V B S K
How many vowels are there in the given series which is immediately followed by a letter which comes after ‘M’ in alphabetical series?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than four
Correct Option - 4

Que. 99 Which of the following element is tenth to the left of the seventh from m the right end?
1. Q
2. T
3. G
4. X
5. Y
Correct Option - 2

Que. 100 If all the vowels in the above arrangement are dropped then which of the following element is twelfth from the left end?
1. H
2. G
3. D
4. P
5. Y

Correct Option - 3

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IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2020 (Numerical Ability)

 Subject : Numerical Ability

Que. 31 Direction: The table below shows the number of employees in 5 companies, as well as the male to female ratio in these employees. Examine the table carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Find the ratio of males in company A and B together to females in company A and C together.
1. 25 ∶ 21
2. 15 ∶ 24
3. 23 ∶ 34
4. 18 ∶ 25
5. 28 ∶ 23
Correct Option - 5

Que. 32 Find the average number of employees working in companies A, B, D and E.
1. 922.5
2. 675
3. 1050.8
4. 580
5. 950
Correct Option - 1

Que. 33 Females in company D is what percent more than females in company A.
1. 70%
2. 30%
3. 44.44%
4. 60%
5. 25%
Correct Option - 3

Que. 34 Find the difference between the number of males in companies C and D together to females in companies B and E together.
1. 480
2. 250
3. 180
4. 270
5. 340
Correct Option - 4

Que. 35 If 90 males left the company ‘B’ and 200 new females took new recruit in company ‘B’ then find the percentage of females in company now.
1. 60%
2. 62.5%
3. 40%
4. 33.33%
5. 75%
Correct Option - 2

Que. 36 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(18)^7.9 × (3)^0.1 × (6)^0.1 ÷ {(3)⁴ × (6)⁴} = (18)^?
1. 8
2. 4
3. 3
4. 9
5. 5
Correct Option - 2

Que. 37 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
2^-2 × 4^-3 ÷ 8^-4 = 2^?
1. 12
2. 18
3. 20
4. -4
5. 4

Correct Option - 5

Que. 38 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

1. 10
2. 15
3. 18
4. 16
5. None of these
Correct Option - 4

Que. 39 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(? - 0.5) ÷ 0.4 = 150 ÷ 2
1. 20.5
2. 30.5
3. 29.5
4. 25.5
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2

Que. 40 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
√324 + 9²- 7² = 2 × (?)²
1. 25
2. 5
3. 10
4. 125
5. 20
Correct Option - 2

Que. 41 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
45% of 260 + 130% of 180 = ?
1. 341
2. 351
3. 531
4. 331
5. 361
Correct Option - 2

Que. 42 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
50% of 280 - (2/7) of 490 = 30 - ?
1. 30
2. 20
3. 35
4. 40
5. 25
Correct Option - 1

Que. 43 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
√1024 × 40 + (20)² + 0.5% of 9600 + 469 = (?)³
1. 14
2. 15
3. 21
4. 13
5. 19
Correct Option - 4

Que. 44 What should come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
90 × 20% of 105 ÷ 3 = ?
1. 630
2. 600
3. 615
4. 610
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 45 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
433 + 514 - 787 - 8 × ?% of 320 = 0
1. 6.25
2. 6
3. 6.5
4. 7.5
5. 5
Correct Option - 1

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Que. 46 In each of the following number series, a wrong number is given, find out that number.
23, 45, 89, 177, 363, 705
1. 177
2. 45
3. 89
4. 363
5. 705
Correct Option - 4

Que. 47 In each of the following number series, a wrong number is given, find out that number.
100800, 14400, 2400, 480, 240, 40
1. 40
2. 240
3. 14400
4. 480
5. 2400
Correct Option - 2

Que. 48 In each of the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out that number.
540, 540, 270, 135, 22.5, 4.5
1. 540
2. 270
3. 22.5
4. 135
5. 4.5
Correct Option - 4

Que. 49 In each of the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out that number.
38, 39, 43, 52, 70, 93, 129
1. 70
2. 52
3. 93
4. 129
5. 39
Correct Option - 1

Que. 50 In each of the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out that number.
18, 35, 69, 136, 273, 545
1. 69
2. 35
3. 18
4. 136
5. 273
Correct Option - 4

Que. 51 Two pots contain equal quantity of mixture of Alcohol and water. The ratio of alcohol and water in these pots is 2 ∶ 3 and 4 ∶ 1, respectively. Radha mixed content of the two pots together. Find the ratio of Alcohol and water in new mixture.
1. 4 ∶ 3
2. 2 ∶ 3
3. 3 ∶ 2
4. 3 ∶ 4
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3

Que. 52 The total population of a town is 2800 where number of males is 720 more than that of females. If the number of males reduces by 40% and that of females increases by 20%, then find the new population of town.
1. 2236
2. 2440
3. 2304
4. 2316
5. 2060
Correct Option - 3

Que. 53 The speed of a boat with the stream is 10 km/hr and while returning its speed becomes 6 km/hr.Find the speed of boat in still water and the speed of stream.
1. 8 km/hr and 2 km/hr
2. 7 km/hr and 3 km/hr
3. 6 km/hr and 2 km/hr
4. 9 km/hr and 1 km/hr
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 54 Sanju, Suraj and Sanjay can complete a work in 12 days, 16 days and 24 days respectively. In how many days will the three of them to do the same work together?
1. 16/3 days
2. 58/9 days
3. 6 days
4. 8 days
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 55 The length of two trains are 130 m and 150 m are running at the speed of 52 km/hr and 74 km/hr,respectively on parallel tracks in opposite direction. In how many seconds will they cross each other?
1. 5
2. 8
3. 10
4. 12
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2

Que. 56 After 5 years, the ratio between ages of A and B will be 5 : 8 and after 8 years, the sum of ages will be 71 years. Find the present age of B.
1. 33 years
2. 32 years
3. 28 years
4. 40 years
5. 35 years
Correct Option - 5

Que. 57 Raj sells a cricket bat of marked price Rs. 500 at a discount of 10% and gives a ball costing Rs. 10 free with each bat. Still, he makes a profit of 25%, the cost price of the bat is –
1. Rs. 410
2. Rs. 458
3. Rs. 352
4. Rs. 450
5. Rs. 420
Correct Option - 3

Que. 58 The sum of the radius and height of a cylinder is 19 m. The total surface area of the cylinder is 1,672 m2. What is the volume of the cylinder?
1. 3080 m³
2. 2940 m³
3. 3420 m³
4. 2860 m³
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 59 P is 10500, SI is 12% and T is 10 years. 1/3rd of interest earned from A invested in B for 5 years.
Find the amount received from B after 5 years.
1. 7240
2. 5480
3. 6720
4. 2520
5. 6250
Correct Option - 3

Que. 60 A, B and C started a business each investing 10000 Rs. Initially. After 6 months, C withdraws Rs.2000, A invests 2000 more and B invests 6000 more. At the end of year total profit was 50490 Rs.Find the share of B?
1. Rs. 19890
2. Rs. 28500
3. Rs. 24200
4. Rs. 21570
5. Rs. 20560
Correct Option - 1

Que. 61 What is the probability of getting an even number when a die is thrown ?
1. 1/6
2. 2/3
3. 1/2
4. 5/6
5. Answer not known
Correct Option - 3

Que. 62 A train starts from a place at 9 a.m. and arrives the destination at 7 p.m. on the next day. If the speed of the train is 12.5 m/s. Find the distance traveled by the train.
1. 1562 km
2. 1530 km
3. 1580 km
4. 1498 km
5. 1425 km
Correct Option - 2

Que. 63 A dishonest shopkeeper used to sell onions at Rs. 30/kg. If a customer bought 2 kg of onions. He gave 750g instead of 1 kg to a customer, find the shopkeeper’s actual profit percentage.
1. 5%
2. 10%
3. 25%
4. 33.33%
5. 50%
Correct Option - 4

Que. 64 Pipe A and B can fill the tank in 10 hours and 20 hours respectively where as pipe C can empty the tank in 8 hours. If all the pipes are opened together at the same time, what is the time to fill the tank ?
1. 45 hr
2. 36 hr
3. 40 hr
4. 27 hr
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3

Que. 65 Raju and Arun are two business partners. They invest their capital in the ratio 7 : 9. After 6 months,a third person Jitu joins them with a capital of two third of that of Arun. After a year, profit share of Raju was Rs 5600 then find total profit.
1. 15200
2. 12400
3. 16400
4. 30400
5. 24600
Correct Option - 1

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IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2020 (English Language)

 Subject : English Language

Que. 1 Read the passage and answer the following questions.

Medical practice at the start of the 21st century is at a crossroads. On the one hand, due to scientific and technological advances, there is an unprecedented ______ to improve the quality of life for people suffering from various ailments. On the other hand, health inequalities are widening and access to affordable and good quality healthcare is becoming difficult for vast sections of the population. 
Policymakers and the public look to doctors to provide the necessary leadership to tackle shortcomings, and help design better systems of care so that everyone can benefit from modern medicine. But are doctors up to the task? What should be done to ensure that they rise to the occasion? Are they still true to the Hippocratic tradition and the vocational nature of medicine, or have they become hypocrites, interested only in money? How can we restore doctors’ pride and support them and at the same time gain the confidence of patients and policymakers? 

Whilst the context is important, and not everything from the NHS will be directly applicable in India, there are parallels between the UK situation and what is happening here. I have had the privilege of meeting many dedicated and committed doctors over the years in India. Equally, I hear frequent laments about a lack of professionalism and comments about doctors overcharging, ordering unnecessary interventions, and being interested only in money. 

This last issue of a close relationship between money and medicine is especially pertinent to the Indian health system, as a vast proportion of healthcare is in the fee-for-service sector as the HLEG observed in its report. From paying huge amounts to secure admissions to both under- and postgraduate programmes (I am told that students can expect to pay Rs two crore to get a postgraduate place in specialties like orthopaedics and radiology), to receiving commissions for referring patients for tests/procedures (with referral commissions reportedly representing a substantial proportion of the costs of laboratory tests, for example), to hospital doctors being given ‘quotas’ of admissions or procedures to retain their admitting privileges (leading to unnecessary interventions), there seems to be a malignant financial angle to almost every patient interaction in the private sector. Although in theory there is a comprehensive public health system, it is disorganized, with widespread absenteeism and poor facilities, and does not inspire confidence, with the result that even the poor choose the fee-for-service private sector. 

My purpose here is not to make judgments. Regardless of which healthcare system one looks at, there will always be good and bad doctors. This is because they are both victims and perpetrators. They are victims of a less than perfect science, a society that demands zero risks, and the pervading moral and ethical culture. They are also perpetrators of the crimes they are charged with as they fail to address and adapt to the changing societal and healthcare context. 

Which of the following is the main idea of the passage?

1. Lack of medical students in India.
2. Failure of doctors to gain confidence of patients.
3. Unethical practices in the healthcare system
4. Negligence of the government towards the health care sector.
5. Doctors are the biggest victims of the society today
Correct Option - 3

Que. 2 Which of the following words fits in the sentence?
On the one hand, due to scientific and technological advances, there is an unprecedented ______ to improve the quality of life for people suffering from various ailments.
1. Growth
2. Desire
3. Hope
4. Potential
5. Stress
Correct Option - 4

Que. 3 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
I. There are complaints of doctors charging more than what is appropriate.
II. Doctors are often in danger as people demand zero risk and science is not perfect.
III. Society is not completely benefitting from the advancements of science and medicine.
1. Only II
2. Only III
3. Both I and II
4. Both II and III
5. All of these
Correct Option - 5

Que. 4 Which of the following is true according to the passage?
I. Policy makers cannot involve doctors in the policy making process as most of them are hypocrites interested only in money.
II. The role of doctors has been questioned as many of them have been engaged in money making policies.
III. There is a need to support the doctors as well as gain confidence of the public.
1. Only II
2. Only III
3. Both II and III
4. Both I and II
5. All of these
Correct Option - 3

Que. 5 Which of the following is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'pervading'?
1. Infuse
2. Optimistic
3. Verbose
4. Damaging
5. Bolster
Correct Option - 1

Que. 6 Which of the following is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'malignant'?
1. Acrimonious
2. Tiring
3. Ostentatious
4. Benevolent
5. Punctilious
Correct Option - 4

Que. 7 Which of the following is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'PERTINENT'?
1. Irrelevant
2. Apposite
3. Gigantic
4. Demanded
5. Concealing
Correct Option - 1

Que. 8 In the following question, some parts of the sentence may have an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from errors select ‘No error’ as your answer. 
Man is entirely different (A) / than other animals (B) / in the utter helplessness (C) / of his babyhood. (D) /No Error (E)
1. (A)
2. (B)
3. (C)
4. (D)
5. (E)
Correct Option - 2

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Que. 9 In the following question, some parts of the sentence may have an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from errors select ‘No error’ as your answer.
He lack the (A) / power of imparting, (B) / although he is (C) / a good mathematical scholar. (D) / No error (E)
1. (A)
2. (B)
3. (C)
4. (D)
5. No error
Correct Option - 1

Que. 10 In the following question, some parts of the sentence may have an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from errors select ‘No error’ as your answer. 
What Dr. Joshi mainly aimed at, (A) / was to promote the (B) / self-development of the young minds (C) /committed for their charge. (D) / No error (E)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error
Correct Option - 4

Que. 11 Determine the erroneous part in the options given below. If there is no error, choose Option 5-No error.
The sceneries/ was so beautiful/ that John was mesmerized/ and captivated by all that he saw./ No error
1. The sceneries
2. was so beautiful
3. that John was mesmerized
4. and captivated by all that he saw
5. No error
Correct Option - 1

Que. 12 The sentence given below may contain an error. Identify the part containing the error, if any, and mark it as you answer. If there is no error anywhere in the sentence, mark No Error(E) as your answer.
More than one (A) person are (B) a secret (C) undercover agent. (D) No Error (E)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Correct Option - 2

Que. 13 Directions: Read the passage given below carefully and then answer the questions that follow.

Pompeii was an ____(1)____ city located in what is now the comune of Pompei near Naples in the Campania region of Italy. Pompeii, along with Herculaneum and many villas in the surrounding area (e.g.at Boscoreale, Stabiae), was buried under 4 to 6 m (13 to 20 ft) of volcanic ash and pumice in the ____(2)____of Mount Vesuvius in AD 79. 
Largely preserved under the ash, the excavated city offered a unique snapshot of Roman life, _____(3)_____ at the moment it was buried, and extraordinarily detailed insight into the everyday life of its inhabitants, although much of the evidence was lost in the early excavations. It was a wealthy town, enjoying many fine public buildings and ____(4)____ private houses with lavish decorations, furnishings and works of art which were the main attractions for the early excavators. Organic remains, including wooden objects and human bodies, were entombed in the ash. Over time, they decayed, leaving voids that archaeologists found could be used as moulds to make plaster casts of unique — and often ____(5)____— figures in their final moments of life.
Which of the following is the most appropriate answer for blank no. 1?
1. former
2. artificial
3. ancient
4. advanced
5. fraudulent
Correct Option - 3

Que. 14 Which of the following is the most appropriate answer for blank no. 2?
1. tremors
2. eruption
3. crash
4. depletion
5. inflation
Correct Option - 2

Que. 15 Which of the following is the most appropriate answer for blank no. 3?
1. flowed
2. melting
3. terminate
4. frozen
5. created
Correct Option - 4

Que. 16 Which of the following is the most appropriate answer for blank no. 4?
1. despondent
2. modest
3. defective
4. imitation
5. luxurious
Correct Option - 5

Que. 17 Which of the following is the most appropriate answer for blank no. 5?
1. gruesome
2. pleasant
3. magnificent
4. generous
5. faulty
Correct Option - 1

Que. 18 In the following question, four words are given in bold, of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.
To win a title without him spoke volumes of that team’s strennth.
Correct Option - 4
1. title
2. spoke
3. volumes
4. strennth
5. All are correct.

Que. 19 In the following question, four words are given in bold, of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.
Meanwhile, cases of Omicron climbed to 33 after a fully vacinated person who travelled to Zimbabwe and South Africa before coming to Delhi tested positive for the new strain in the national capital on Saturday.
1. climbed
2. vacinated
3. positive
4. national
5. no error
Correct Option - 2

Que. 20 In the following question, four words are given in bold, of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.
The main reason for hapiness is that the farmers' have won.
1. reason
2. hapiness
3. farmers
4. won
5. No error
Correct Option - 2

Que. 21 In the following question, four words are given in bold, of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.
The government has said the ambitious project will complement the Purvanchal Development Corridor
1. government
2. ambitious
3. complement
4. Corridor
5. No error
Correct Option - 5

Que. 22 In the following question, four words are given in bold, of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.
"The tourism sector is ecspected to grow insignificantly", he said.
1. tourism
2. ecspected
3. grow
4. insignificantly
5. no error
Correct Option - 2

Que. 23 Rearrange the following five segments (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
A. NPCIL is a dividend-paying company with the highest credit rating of AAA by CRISIL and CARE
B. At present, NPCIL operates 22 nuclear power reactors with an installed capacity of 6780 MW.
C. NPCIL is responsible for siting, design, construction, commissioning and operation of nuclear power reactors.
D. Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL), formed in 1987, is a Public Sector Enterprise under the administrative control of Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
E. Safety is given overriding priority in all facets of nuclear power reactors.
Which is the first sentence according to the paragraph?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Correct Option - 4

Que. 24 Which is the second sentence according to the passage?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Correct Option - 1

Que. 25 Which is the third sentence according to the paragraph?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Correct Option - 3

Que. 26 Which is the fourth sentence according to the paragraph?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Correct Option - 5

Que. 27 Which is the fifth sentence according to the paragraph?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Correct Option - 2

Que. 28 Arrange the following parts of a sentence in the correct order and mark the Correct Option.
A. done to pacify the
B. wouldn't damage
C. spirits so that they
D. the crops or cause anyone grief
E. these sacrifices were
1. EACBD
2. EDCAB
3. BACDE
4. ADCBE
5. BCADE
Correct Option - 1

Que. 29 Arrange the following parts of a sentence in the correct order and mark the Correct Option.
A. remain indifferent
B. stride forward
C. even if others
D. you should
E. to the humanitarian cause
1. CABED
2. BACED
3. DBCEA
4. ECBAD
5. CAEDB
Correct Option - 5

Que. 30 The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.
A. a person
B. quickly wins
C. nice expensive clothes
D. who wears
E. the admiration of many
1. EBDCA
2. ADCBE
3. BDEAC
4. CDEAB
5. DEACB

Correct Option - 2

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IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2021 (Reasoning Ability)

 Subject : Reasoning Ability

Que. 66 Direction: Read the following information and answer the following questions.

Eight persons whose names begin with A, B, P, C, D, O, Q, and E are sitting around a circular table facing inward. Persons, whose names start with a vowel, do not sit adjacent to each other.
A sits 3rd to the right of D. Two persons sit between P and A. B sits adjacent to O, who sits 4th to the right of E. Q sits 3rd to the left of O. Who sits 2nd to the right of B?
1. O
2. P
3. A
4. C
5. Q
Correct Option - 2

Que. 67 ___ sits 5th to the left of C.
1. B
2. A
3. Q
4. E
5. D
Correct Option - 3

Que. 68 Who is sitting opposite O?
1. E
2. A
3. B
4. P
5. C
Correct Option - 1

Que. 69 Four of the five are alike in a certain way and  thus form a group. Find the one that does not belong to that group.
1. EQ
2. OP
3. BO
4. ED
5. CA
Correct Option - 5

Que. 70 Who is sitting at the immediate left of B?
1. A
2. P
3. Q
4. E
5. O
Correct Option - 1

Que. 71 Directions: These questions are based on the following information.

There are 7 members in a family. R is the only sibling of S and son of P. Q is the mother of S. T is the mother of V and sister-in-law of S. V is the nephew of S and U is the wife of S. U has no sibling.
How is T related to R?
1. Sister-in-law
2. Sister
3. Wife
4. None of these
5. Cannot be determined
Correct Option - 3

Que. 72 Who is  S to V?
1. Father
2. Paternal Uncle
3. Maternal Aunt
4. Maternal Uncle
5. Paternal Aunt
Correct Option - 2

Que. 73 How many such pairs  of digits are there in the number ‘95126139', which have as many digits between them in the number (both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the Numeric Series?
1. Three
2. Five
3. Four
4. Two
5. None
Correct Option - 3

Que. 74 Direction: Study the following  arrangement and answer the question:
C B T A E X F I M K E U V N X O D
If all the vowels are dropped from the given arrangement, which of the following is 9th from the right end?
1. T
2. X
3. B
4. F
5. C
Correct Option - 1

Que. 75 How many such consonants are there which are immediately followed by a consonant and immediately preceded by a vowel?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. Four
Correct Option - 4

Que. 76 Which letter is 5th to the right of the 3rd from the left end in the given arrangement?
1. F
2. I
3. X
4. M
5. K
Correct Option - 2

Que. 77 Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are 7 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, and G. and they have to attend a meeting in a reputed hotel in Agra on Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, and Saturday, Starting the week from Monday but not necessarily in the same order. (Assume that they attend the meeting in the same month of the year.)
B attends a meeting on Thursday. Only one person attends the meeting between B and G. A attends the meeting immediately after G. The number of people who attend a meeting before A is the same as the number of people who attend the meeting after C. Only one person attends a meeting between C and D. F attends the meeting after D. 
On which of the following days does E have to attend the meeting?
1. Sunday
2. Monday
3. Friday
4. Saturday
5. Tuesday
Correct Option - 5

Que. 78 Who among the following  has to attend the meeting on Saturday?
1. F
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. G
Correct Option - 5

Que. 79 On which of the following days does D have to attend the meeting?
1. Sunday
2. Monday
3. Wednesday
4. Saturday
5. Tuesday
Correct Option - 3

Que. 80 how many people do attend  the meeting between B and A?
1. 5
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2
5. 1
Correct Option - 4

Que. 81 Find the odd  one?
1. GA
2. CE
3. FG
4. EG
5. DB
Correct Option - 4

Que. 82 Directions: The following questions  are based on five three digit numbers given below:

453 619 574 471 372
If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order within the number, which of the following will be the second lowest number after rearrangement?
1. 453
2. 574
3. 471
4. 619
5. None of these
Correct Option - 4

Que. 83 If in each number, all the odd digit is added by 1 and all the even digit is added by 2 then, which of the following will be the lowest number after mentioned operation?
1. 619
2. 574
3. 372
4. 471
5. 453
Correct Option - 3

Que. 84 If all the digit in each of the numbers are arranged in descending order within the number then,which of the following will be the highest number in the new arrangement of numbers?
1. 453
2. 372
3. 574
4. 619
5. None of these
Correct Option - 4

Que. 85 If second digit will be interchanged with third digit in each number, then which number will be the second highest number after rearrangement?
1. 453
2. 619
3. 574
4. 372
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3

Que. 86 If in each number, both first and third digits are added and after that second digit is subtracted from that addition then how many numbers are less than 2 after mentioned operation?
1. Three
2. Four
3. None
4. Two
5. One
Correct Option - 4

Que. 87 Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Point P is 3m towards south of point Q who is 4m towards east of point R. Point S is 6m towards south of point R while point T is 8m towards west of point S. Point V is 7m towards west of point U who is 3m north of point T.What is the direction of U with respect to P?
1. South-East
2. East
3. West
4. North-West
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3

Que. 88 What is the shortest distance between R​​​​​​​ and T?
1. 11m
2. 14m
3. 12m
4. 10m
5. 13m
Correct Option - 4

Que. 89 If a person walks 3m towards the North from point V, takes  a right turn and walks for another 15m,which of the following points would he reach?
1. R
2. Q
3. T
4. S
5. Cannot be determined
Correct Option - 1

Que. 90 If in the word 'ADVANCE', all the vowels are replaced with the  next letters and all the consonants are replaced with the previous letters from the English Alphabet. Now if all vowels are deleted how many consonants are remain there?
1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Six
5. Seven
Correct Option - 4

Que. 91 Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:

There are seven persons namely A, B, C, D, E, F, and G. They all are sitting in a row facing north.G sits second from one of the ends. E has equal number of persons to his left and right side. F sits on the extreme left end of the row. There are three persons between F and B. A sits immediate right of C. A does not sit at the corner.
Who is sitting second to the left of E?
1. A
2. C
3. G
4. F
5. B
Correct Option - 2

Que. 92 How many persons are sitting between A and​​​​​​​ G?
1. Five
2. Two
3. Four
4. Three
5. One
Correct Option - 2

Que. 93 Who is sitting third from the  right end?
1. D
2. B
3. E
4. A
5. C
Correct Option - 2

Que. 94 How many persons are sitting to the  left of G?
1. Four
2. Five
3. One
4. Two
5. Three
Correct Option - 2

Que. 95 Who is sitting exactly between F  and B?
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. E
5. A
Correct Option - 5

Que. 96 Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statement:
Y ≥ C < O ≥ F < R = B
Conclusions:
I. B > F
II. R > C
1. Only I follows
2. Only II follows
3. Either I or II follow
4. Neither I nor II follow
5. Both I and II follow
Correct Option - 1

Que. 97 Directions: In each of the following questions assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusions among given conclusions is / are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statement: E < U > L > K ≤ T = H ≤ Q
Conclusions:
I. U > H
II. T ≤ Q
1. Only Conclusion I follows
2. Only Conclusion II follows
3. Either Conclusion I or II follows
4. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
5. Both Conclusion I and II follows
Correct Option - 2

Que. 98 Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements: Y > U ≥ Z ≥ K = X ≤ B ≤ A
Conclusions:
I. U = X
II. U > X
1. Only conclusion I follow
2. Only conclusion II follow
3. Both I and II are follow
4. Either conclusion I or II follow
5. None of these
Correct Option - 4

Que. 99 Directions: In each of the following questions assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusions among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statement: S > L < P = T ≥ V > R
Conclusions:
I. P > R
II. S > V
1. Only Conclusion I follows
2. Only Conclusion II follows
3. Either Conclusion I or II follows
4. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
5. Both Conclusion I and II follows
Correct Option - 1

Que. 100 If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the third, fifth, ninth, and tenth letters of the word “PERSEVERANCE” which of the following will be the second letter from the right end of that newly formed word? If more than one such word can be made, give M as the answer and if no such word can be made, give Y as the answer.
1. A
2. Y
3. R
4. M
5. E
Correct Option - 4

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IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2021 (Numerical Ability)

 Subject : Numerical Ability

Que. 31 A man buy two watches at Rs.4000. He sold one watch at 20% profit and second at 10% loss. In this transaction the overall profit or loss will be 5%.Find the cost price of first watch.
1. Rs.2000
2. Rs.3000
3. Rs.2500
4. Rs.2300
5. Rs.2400

Correct Option - 1

Que. 32 In a mixture of 156 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 7 : 6. How much water should be added to make the ratio 14 : 13?
1. 5 liters
2. 16 litres
3. 60 litres
4. 6 litres
5. 4 litres

Correct Option - 4

Que. 33 A train travelling at a speed of 72 km/hr crosses a post in 20 seconds. If it crosses another train travelling at a speed of 54 km/hr in the same direction in 1 minute 45 seconds, then the difference in length between the two trains is
1. 275 m
2. 225 m
3. 125 m
4. 175 m
5. 200 m

Correct Option - 1

Que. 34 The average mark of 13 papers is 80. The average marks of the first 7 papers are 84 and that of the last 7 papers is 70. Find the marks obtained in the 7th paper.
1. 28
2. 19
3. 40
4. 42
5. 38

Correct Option - 5

Que. 35 In an election two candidates participated, the winner got 60% of the total valid votes, 30% of the votes were declared as invalid. If the total number of votes was 8000, the number of valid votes that the other candidate got was.
1. 2440
2. 2140
3. 2340
4. 2240
5. 2540

Correct Option - 4

Que. 36 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
2, 5, 11, 23, 44, 77, ?
1. 48
2. 150
3. 125
4. 92
5. None of these

Correct Option - 3

Que. 37 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
31, 32, 36, ?, 61, 86
1. 45
2. 54
3. 51
4. 48
5. None of these

Correct Option - 1

Que. 38 What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
3, 6, 18, ?, 630, 6930
1. 60
2. 75
3. 90
4. 105
5. 250

Correct Option - 3

Que. 39 What should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following number series?
60, 40, 50, ?, 180, 460
1. 75
2. 95
3. 65
4. 85
5. None of these

Correct Option - 4

Que. 40 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
13, 14, 30, ?, 376, 1885
1. 45
2. 35
3. 32
4. 93
5. None of these

Correct Option - 4

Que. 41 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(15 + 24) × 3 ÷ 13 + 18 – 5 = ?
1. 25
2. 32
3. 22
4. 17
5. 19

Correct Option - 3

Que. 42 What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following question?
13 × 3 of 5 ÷ 26 = ? + 2.5
1. 7
2. 6
3. 4
4. 5
5. None of these

Correct Option - 4

Que. 43 What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following question?
10% of 450 - (8 × 5) = ? × 5
1. 8.2
2. 2
3. 1
4. 5
5. None of these

Correct Option - 3

Que. 44 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(66)²- (34)² + ?² = (60)²
1. 400
2. 40
3. 20
4. 30
5. 15

Correct Option - 3

Que. 45 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
3 × ? ÷ 9 = ∛729 × √121
1. 197
2. 300
3. 297
4. 295
5. None of these

Correct Option - 3

Que. 46 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
∛3375 × 75% of 400 = ?/2
1. 8000
2. 7000
3. 9000
4. 5000
5. 4000

Correct Option - 3

Que. 47 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
225 ÷ 25 × 9 - 3 × ? = 60
1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 7
5. 8

Correct Option - 4

Que. 48 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(1111 ÷ 11) - (650 ÷ 25) = 15 × ?
1. 5
2. 3
3. 90
4. 60
5. 4

Correct Option - 1

Que. 49 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
15 × 3 + 7 × ? + 24 ÷ 6 × 2 = 60
1. 5
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2
5. 1

Correct Option - 5

Que. 50 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(700 + 800 – 1300 + 800 ) ÷ ? = 200
1. 5
2. 4
3. 3
4. 6
5. 7

Correct Option - 1

Que. 51 What value should come in place of questions (?) in the following equations?
56 × 15 ÷ 3 – 83 = ? – 139
1. 314
2. 334
3. 316
4. 336
5. None of these

Correct Option - 4

Que. 52 What will come in the place of the question mark '?' in the following question?
20 × 168 ÷ 14 – 40 = ? + 110
1. 60
2. 30
3. 40
4. 80
5. 90
Correct Option - 5

Que. 53 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
12 + 12 × 10 ÷ 5 = ?2
1. 6
2. 5
3. 10
4. 7
5. 8

Correct Option - 1

Que. 54 What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
450 × 30 + 1500 × 20 = ?% × 43500
1. 100
2. 50
3. 200
4. 150
5. 250

Correct Option - 1

Que. 55 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
8974 + 3567 – 8976 – 3565 + 8652 = ?
1. 7652
2. 8752
3. 8662
4. 8652
5. None of these.

Correct Option - 4

Que. 56 Direction: Study the following line graph and answer the question accordingly.
What is the difference between the total production of Ford and Tata motors in the given years?
1. 40,000
2. 20,000
3. 26,000
4. 35,000
5. 25,000

Correct Option - 2

Que. 57 What is the average number of cars manufactured by Honda over the given period?
1. 2,10,000
2. 2,00,000
3. 2,60,000
4. 2,50,000
5. 2,55,000

Correct Option - 1

Que. 58 The production of Honda in 2018 was approximately what percent of the production of Tata
Motors in the same year?
1. 140%
2. 102%
3. 122%
4. 134%
5. None of the above

Correct Option - 3

Que. 59 What is the difference between the number of cars manufactured by Ford in the year 2018 and 2019?
1. 22,000
2. 21,000
3. 10,000
4. 20,000
5. 24,000
Correct Option - 4

Que. 60 What is the average of all the cars manufactured by Tata Motors and Honda in 2016 and 2019?
1. 2,20,000
2. 2,19,000
3. 2,15,000
4. 2,00,000
5. 2,40,000

Que. 61 Amar borrowed Rs. 10000 from Sachin at simple interest. After 4 years, Sachin received Rs. 5000 more than the amount given to Amar on loan. Find the rate of interest.
1. 12.5%
2. 25%
3. 20%
4. 4%
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 62 Mohan can do a piece of work in 10 days and Sohan in 15 days. They started working together, but after 3 days Mohan left the work . What time will Sohan take to finish the work?
1. 15/2 days
2. 18 days
3. 15 days
4. 5/2 days
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 63 Rajiv's boat can travel along the current at the 8 km/hour and against the current at the rate 6 km/hour.  Find the time taken by the boat to sail 28 km in still water.
1. 4 hours
2. 5 hours
3. 6 hours
4. 7 hours
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 64 Ram, Bharat and Sham signed agreement of partnership in the ratio 7/2 : 4/3 : 6/5 . After 4 months,Ram increases his share 50%. If the total profit at the end of one year be Rs.  16,200, then sham's share in the profit is:
1. Rs 2,700
2. Rs 3,000
3. Rs 4,000
4. Rs 5,000
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 65 Length of a rectangle is 3 cm more than width of rectangle and the difference between area of circle and area of rectangle is 84 cm2 . Fiind the length of rectangle if radius of circle is 7 cm.
(circle > rectangle)
1. 8 cm
2. 10 cm
3. 7 cm
4. 14 cm
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2

Correct Option - 3

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IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2021 (English Language)

 Subject : English Language

Que. 1 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been highlighted for your attention.

Boredom comes in a period of thought where none of my interests are being consciously struck. It’s a selfish concept so to speak. Ideally, as individuals, we would never be bored if we found happiness in all things. Everyone has their own interests and their own tastes. That's a simple phrase that almost everyone knows, but in the grand scheme of things, it means a lot. This freedom of self-concept is the window for boredom to arise. When I am happy with what I am doing, I am not bored. However, even happiness has its limits. I only want to do things for so long before I grow tired of them. 

The sensation of boredom is described as feeling weary because one is unoccupied or lacks interest in one's current activity or environment. In 1980 Robert Plutchik created the wheel of emotions. It consisted of 8 basic emotions — anger, fear, sadness, disgust, surprise, anticipation, trust, and joy. Robert’s model made connections _______ the idea of an emotion circle and a color wheel. Like colors, the primary emotions can be expressed at different levels of intensity and can be mixed with one another to form different emotions that one may feel. 
Life, itself, existing might not be enough to conquer boredom. The slow process of enlarging a hole by repetitive movements is called boring. This may be why things, that are slow and repetitive that don’t appear to be going anywhere, came to be described as the same word, these things are boring. Boredom, which means being temporarily uninterested in anything happening, has been found as far back as ancient Pompei. Boredom is a feeling we, as humans, don't like, and it happens to everyone. But now we have Facebook, Youtube, Google, and iPhone games to keep ourselves occupied. So why do we get bored and why is boredom important? Although boredom seems trivial to humans, boredom is actually exciting because it is the most unique emotion of all. 

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage. "Robert’s model made connections _______ the idea of an emotion circle and a color wheel."

1. Among
2. Between
3. Around
4. Against
5. To
Correct Option - 2

Que. 2 Choose the synonym of the word 'anticipation'.

1. Expectation
2. Ignorance
3. Amazement
4. Doubt
5. Fear
Correct Option - 1

Que. 3 Choose the antonym of the word 'happiness'.
1. Beatitude
2. Bliss
3. Felicity
4. Joy
5. Misery
Correct Option - 5

Que. 4 Which of the following is true according to the given passage:
I. The sensation of boredom is described as feeling weary because one is unoccupied or lacks
interest in one's current activity or environment.
II. The freedom of self-concept is the window for boredom to arise.
III. The slow process of enlarging a hole by repetitive movements is called happiness.
1. Only I
2. II and III
3. I and III
4. I and II
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 4

Que. 5 What did Robert Plutchik created?
1. The wheel of emotions
2. The time machine
3. The cart of emotion
4. Ways to kill boredom
5. The wheel of colors
Correct Option - 1

Que. 6 What is the theme of the passage?
1. Wheel of emotion
2. Happiness in life
3. Boredom is not boring
4. Things to conquer in life
5. Different phases of life
Correct Option - 3

Que. 7 Which of the following is false according to the given passage:
I. When I am happy with what I am doing, I am not bored.
II. It consisted of 8 basic emotions — anger, fear, sadness, disgust, surprise, anticipation, trust, and joy.
III. Life, itself, existing is enough to conquer boredom.
1. I and II
2. I and III
3. Only III
4. Only II
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 3

Que. 8 What is the synonym of the word 'grand'.
1. Imperial
2. Unimposing
3. Humble
4. Unimpressive
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 1

Que. 9 Below a word is given followed by three sentences which consist of that word. Identify the sentence/s which best expresses the meaning of the word. Choose option 5 (None of these) if the
word is not suitable in any of the sentences.
CALLOUS
A. Most small business employers aren't callous mongrels who sack workers unfairly or at the drop of a hat to gain a sense of power.
B. Treating people like pawns and playthings in your own private emotional board game is cruel and callous.
C. History paintings had to be grand and callous, with subjects drawn from the Bible, classical mythology and history.
1. Only C
2. Only A
3. Both A and B
4. Both B and C
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3

Que. 10 Directions: Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist of that word.
Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the word.
SCALE
A. We shall be making the product on a large scale next year.
B. She has a scale complexion.
C. The ruler has one scale in centimeters and one scale in inches.
1. Only A
2. Both A and B
3. Only B
4. Both A and C
5. Only C
Correct Option - 4

Que. 11 Directions: Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist of that word.
Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the word.
ISSUE
A. He has taken a public stand on the issue of misuse of hospital funds.
B. She wiped her nose with a issue.
C. The authorities have begun to issue ration cards.
1. Only A
2. Both A and B
3. Only B
4. Both A and C
5. Only C
Correct Option - 4

Que. 12 Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
The long-term _______ of AAP is to replace Congress as the alternative pole to the BJP.
1. Strategy
2. Tragedy
3. Prodigy
4. Analogy
5. Allergy
Correct Option - 1

Que. 13 Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
Bangladesh has also _______ as a top exporter in a cost-competitive global market.
1. Chosen
2. Worsen
3. Risen
4. Lessen
5. Loosen
Correct Option - 3

Que. 14 Directions: The given question has one blank indicating that something has been omitted.
Choose the word for the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.
The whole scheme was ______, to fail from the beginning.
1. destined
2. uncertain
3. decided
4. remote
5. erroneous
Correct Option - 1

Que. 15 Directions: The given question has one blank indicating that something has been omitted.
Choose the word for the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.
The excess water started ______ forcefully through the waterway.
1. stopped
2. going
3. beginning
4. flowing
5. setting
Correct Option - 4

Que. 16 Directions: The given question has one blank indicating that something has been omitted.
Choose the word for the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.
Its current was very _________ and could take away big tree trunks.
1. compelling
2. powerful
3. powerless
4. gentle
5. persuasive
Correct Option - 2

Que. 17 Arrange the following parts of a sentence in the correct order and mark the Correct Option.
A. done to pacify the
B. wouldn't damage
C. spirits so that they
D. the crops or cause anyone grief
E. these sacrifices were
1. EACBD
2. EDCAB
3. BACDE
4. ADCBE
5. BCADE
Correct Option - 1

Que. 18 Arrange the following parts of a sentence in the correct order and mark the Correct Option.
A. couldn't hit a
B. she had a laser
C. target two feet
D. gun, even if she
E. in front of her
1. BDACE
2. BADEC
3. ADEBC
4. CDABE
5. EDBAC
Correct Option - 1

Que. 19 Arrange the following parts of a sentence in the correct order and mark the Correct Option.
A. found his copy
B. of the bicycle
C. he fished around until he
D. at the Byrne home.
E. magazine he'd seen
1. DEABC
2. ABCDE
3. CABED
4. CABDE
5. CDABE
Correct Option - 3

Que. 20 Direction: In the following question, arrange the jumbled words or phrases to make a meaningful sentence.
P. five star hotel to stay during our visit / Q. we went in a / R. to Mumbai where I asked only for / S. bread and butter as breakfast /
1. QSRP
2. PQRS
3. SRPQ
4. QPRS
5. RPRQ
Correct Option - 4

Que. 21 DIRECTION: In the following question, parts of a sentence have been jumbled and labelled as P, Q, R, and S. You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly by selecting the Correct Option.
P. are not allowed / Q. players / R. to change to a different position / S. unless there is a special requirement
1. SPRQ
2. QPRS
3. SQPR
4. RQSP
5. PQRS
Correct Option - 2

Que. 22 Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.
Mr. Putin’s purported(A) objective of ensuring(B) the security(C) of his country(D) will not be
acheived(E).
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Correct Option - 5

Que. 23 Directions: In the following sentence, four words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.
It is a big blow for family(A) members to return without(B) being granted a meeting(C) after having incurred the necessary(D) time, travel, and other expanses(E).
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Correct Option - 5

Que. 24 In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D).
These words may or may not be placed in the correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.
The minister was not the pretended(A) man he virtuous(B) to be and was soon discharged(C) from his position because of immoral(D) behaviour.
1. A-C
2. C-D
3. A-B
4. B-C
5. No rearrangement
Correct Option - 3

Que. 25 In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D).These words may or may not be placed in the correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.
Known for his audience(A) comebacks, the comedian’s amusing(B) stand-up routine(C) is a hit with every witty(D).
1. A-C
2. C-D
3. B-D
4. A-D
5. No rarrangement
Correct Option - 4

Que. 26 Directions: Five sentences A, B, C, D, and E are given below, you need to rearrange the sentences so that the five sentences can together form a meaningful paragraph.
A. We breathe polluted air, drink polluted water and eat polluted food.
B. Rising pollution is a very big problem for us.
C. The question is rising how can we protect ourselves from this enemy.
D. It is producing health challenges for all.
E. Pollution produces many health challenges not only for all creatures but also for our environment.
Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Correct Option - 2

Que. 27 Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Correct Option - 4

Que. 28 Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Correct Option - 1

Que. 29 Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Correct Option - 5

Que. 30 Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Correct Option - 3

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Download E-BOOK : Banking General Knowledge GK Awareness PDF

• Medium: English
• E-BOOK NAME : BANK IBPS Banking Knowledge Awareness PDF
• PRICE: 110/- 29/- Only (only for few days)
• Hosting Charges: NIL
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Table of Contents:

• FINANCIAL SECTOR REGULATORS IN INDIA

• BASEL NORMS

• STOCK MARKET INDEXES IN THE WORLD 

• VARIOUS PAYMENTS SYSTEMS IN BANKS IN INDIA 

• TYPES OF ATM’S 

• What is the real value of US Dollars in terms of Indian Rupee 

• FOREX (MEANING AND DETAILED INTRODUCTION) 

• TYPES OF BANK ACCOUNTS 

• DEFINITION OF MICRO, SMALL & MEDIUM ENTERPRISES 

• WHAT IS SENSEX AND HOW IT IS CALCULATED 

• 30 IMPORTANT BANKING TERMS FOR INTERVIEW 

• RECENT BANKING AND FINANCIAL DEVELOPMENTS IN INDIA 

• CORE BANKING SOLUTION 

• FUNCTIONS OF RBI 

• BANKING OMBUDSMAN 

• MONETARY POLICY IN INDIA 

• CHEQUE TRUNCATION SYSTEM 

• DIFFERENT TYPES OF CHEQUES 

• FDI IN INDIA 

• NITI AAYOG 

• MONEY MARKET AND CAPITAL MARKET INSTRUMENTS 

• NARASIMHAM COMMITTEE 

• GST (GOODS AND SERVICE TAX) 

• CURRENCY DEVALUATION 

• INDRADHANUSH APPROACH 

• SOVEREIGN GOLD BOND SCHEME VS GOLD MONETIZATION SCHEME 

• WORLD BANK 

• BANDHAN BANK 

• PAYMENT BANKS VS SMALL FINANCE BANKS 

• CONTACT LESS MULTI CURRENCY FOREX CARD SCHEME 

• PRIVATIZATION OF NATIONALIZED BANKS 

• SOCIAL SECURITY SCHEMES 

• MUDRA BANK 

• SERVICE TAX 

• FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT 

• Banking Basics 

• Basic Financial Terms A-Z 

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Nilekani Panel Submits Report on Cash Transfer Scheme

UIDAI Chairman Nandan Nilekani submitted the report of the committee headed by him regarding direct transfer of subsidy to the beneficiaries, to the Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee. The interim report of the task force on direct transfer of subsidies on Kerosene, LPG and Fertilisers suggested creation of a Core Subsidy Management System (CSMS) for maintaining information on entitlements and subsidies for all beneficiaries. The CSMS, as indicated in the report, will provide increased transparency in the movement of goods, level of stocks, prediction and aggregation of demand and identification of beneficiaries.

Nilekani Panel on Cash Transfer Scheme

Highlights of Recommendations Nade in Interim Report Submitted by the Panel

LPG:

• Phase I: Cap consumption of subsidised cylinders (Policy decision of government and not a specific task force recommendation).
• Phase II: Consumers buy LPG at market price, with direct transfer of subsidy to their bank account.
• Phase III: Identify and target segmented customers for subsidy.

Fertiliser:

• Phase I: Information visibility up to the retailer level. Phase II: Direct transfer of subsidy to the retailer.
• Phase III: Farmers buy fertilisers at market price, with direct transfer of subsidy to their bank account.

Kerosene:

Phase I: Cash transfer through state governments.

Phase II: Cash transfer to accounts of beneficiaries.

Report recommends creation of centralised software for the product and service transfer. The poors have been recommended to get the share of subsidies directly through bank branches, Automated Teller Machines (ATMs), business correspondents, the internet or mobile banking channels. Pilot projects for such direct cash transfers have been recommended to begin in seven places— Tamil Nadu, Assam, Maharashtra, Haryana, Delhi Rajasthan and Orissa—from October 2011.

Country’s Exports Register 45.7% Growth in Q 1 Of 2011-12:

Country’s exports in June 2011 rose for the third month in a row by growing 46.4 per cent to $ 29.2 billion, driven by high-end products such as engineering goods. Imports increased 42.4 per cent to $ 36.2 billion. About one-third of this import bill was accounted for by petroleum, oil and lubricant. This resulted trade deficit at $ 7.7 billion.

During the first quarter of 2011-12 (i.e. April- June 2011), exports rose 45×7% to $ 79 billion. With imports growing 36×2% to $ 110.6 billion, the trade deficit stood at $ 7.7 billion.

Export sector’s good performance was well supported by various industries like engineering, oil, electronics, drugs, chemicals and readymade garments. The main components in the import bill on the other hand were oil, gold and silver, machinery, electronics and pearls/ precious stones. Oil import bill has been a major head in country’s total import bill. During the first quarter of 2011-12, oil imports rose 18 per cent to $ 30.5 billion and it is projected to be around $ 120-130 billion during the entire financial year 2011-12. Machinery imports valued at $ 9 billion showing 49 per cent growth. With 71 per cent growth electronics imports went to $ 7.6 billion.

It may be recalled that during last year 2010-11, merchandise exports had grown 37.55% to $ 246 billion compared with 2009-10 while imports were up 21.6 per cent at $ 350 billion, resulting trade deficit at $ 104 billion.

The government has set a target of $ 500 billion worth of exports by 2014 and doubling of India’s share of global exports by 2020.

RBI Asks Government To Improve Expenditure Quality:

RBI in its quarterly review of Monetary and Credit Policy 2011-12 pointed out the risk of high fiscal deficit pushing up inflation and consequently it suggested central government to improve the quality of expenditure to contain demand in the economy.

As per RBI’s viewpoint, the large fiscal deficit has been a key source of demand pressures, therefore, fiscal consolidation is critical to maintain inflationary pressure in the economy. The government can support RBI’s efforts to achieve low and stable inflation by re-allocating resources to finance supply bottle-necks in food and infrastructure.

Despite the hike in administered prices of fuel products, RBI still finds an element of suppressed inflation in the economy. As per RBI’s estimates, about 1 per cent of gross domestic product is still to be financed and becomes a major portion of this subsidy Bill. This subsidy Bill will result in inflationary pressure which, according to RBI is a major concern on the part of the government.

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Food Accounts Largest Share in Consumer’s Spending : NSSO

NSSO’s 66th round of survey household consumer expenditure reveals that Indians are still spending a major chunk of their expenditure on food items. The survey, covering the period from July 2009 to June 2010 shows an average rural household to have allocated 53.6 per cent of its monthly consumption expenditure on food items. The corresponding share for urban household was less, at 40×7 per cent. According to the latest figures on consumption expenditure, per capita consumption expenditure in a month was 88 per cent more in case of urban India compared to rural. India during 2009-10, a trend which was more or less five years ago.

Per capita expenditure on consumption for the bottom 10 per cent of the people in rural areas was five times less than the top 10 per cent of the people while in case of urban parts, it was 10 per cent less.

Survey results show that cereals still make up the largest chunk of an average Indian household’s consumption budget—15.6 per cent in rural and 9.1 per cent in urban areas.

This is followed by fuel and light (9.5 per cent in rural and 8 per cent in urban), milk and milk products (8.6 per cent and 7.8 per cent), vegetables (6.2 per cent and 4.3 per cent) and clothing (4.9 per cent and 4.7 per cent).

The survey has estimated the all-India average monthly per capita expenditure at Rs. 1,053.64 in rural and Rs. 1,984.46. The States among the top in spending  are Kerala (Rs. 1,835.22 in rural and Rs. 2,412.58 in urban
areas), Punjab ( 1,648.92 and Rs. 2,108.79), Haryana (Rs. 1,509.91 and Rs. 2,321.49) and Maharashtra (Rs. 1,152.79 and Rs. 2,436.75).

The States at the bottom of the consumption chart are Bihar (Rs. 780.15 and Rs. 1,23754), hhattisgarh (Rs. 783.57 and Rs. 1,647.32), Orissa (Rs. 818.47 and Rs. 1,548.36) and Jharkhand (Rs. 825.15 and Rs. 1,583.75).

Institutional Credit Disbursement to Agriculture Sector Shows Big Rise in 2010-11:

Institutional credit disbursement to agriculture sector during 2010-11 registered a big rise. As against the target of Rs. 3,75,000 crore for agriculture credit in 2010-11, the banking system disbursed Rs.4,26,531 crore to the agriculture sector, thereby exceeding the target by around 13.7 per cent. As per the data released by the Ministry of Agriculture, out of the total disbursed credit of Rs. 4,26,531 crore, Commercial Banks, Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks contributed Rs. 3,14,182 crore, Rs. 69,076 crore and Rs. 43,273 crore respectively. Thus during 2010-11, the share of Commercial Banks, Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks in total disbursed credit stood at 73.7 per cent, 16.2 per cent and 10.1 per cent respectively.

During 2009-10, as against the target of Rs. 3,25,000 crore for agriculture credit, the banking system disbursed Rs. 3,84,514 crore to the agriculture sector, thereby exceeding the target by about 18 per cent. For the financial year 2011-12, the target of disbursing agriculture credit to farmers in Rs. 4,75,000 crore. It is worthnoting that government is providing concessional crop loans to farmers from the year 2006-07. The farmers who repay loans well in time get concession on their crop loans. In 2009—10, this concession was 1% which was raised to 2% in 2010- 11. For 2011-12, it now stands at 3%.

1. Which one of the following Public Sector Organisations has offered largest ever equity offer ?
1. SAIL
2. Coal India
3. Power Grid
4. Shipping Corporation of India
5. None of these

2. Through which one of the following sources domestic funds are raised by Companies ?
(a) IPO only
(b) FPO only
(c) Commercial papers
1. Only (a) and (b) 2. All (a), (b) and (c)
3. Only (a),and (c) 4. Only (a)
5. Only (c)

3. Which one of the following was the reason owing to which Govt. want Reserve Bank of India to tighten prudential norms for NBFCs?
1. To reduce liquidity in the market
2. It is as per Basel II requirements
3. It is as per Bank for International Settlement (BIS) directives
4. It is to protect NBFCs from any impact of possible economic slowdown
5. None of these

4. In the financial year 2009-10, which one of the following Banks has made highest Total dividend Payout?
1. SBI 2. PNB
3. Bank of India 4. Canara Bank
5. None of these

5. In respect of which one of the following countries, India has proposed non payments for import of crude oil ?
1. Iran 2. Iraq
3. Kuwait 4. Sudan
5. U.A.E.

Answers:

1.(2)   2.(3)    3.(4)    4.(5)    5. (1)

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Numerical Ability

1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?
1. 25
2. 26
3. 27
4. 30 5. 26
Answer: (3)

2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same rational number. The required rational number is:
1. 1/8
2. 4/9
3. 2/8
4. 3/8
5. 3/8
Answer: (5)

3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as remainders respectively.
1. 36
2. 37
3. 42
4. 29
5. 47
Answer: (2)

4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayesh’s age in years?
1. 29
2. 30
3. 24
4. 25
5. 28
Answer: (3)

5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 5. Their total value is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paise coins is:
1. Rs. 28
2. Rs. 36
3. Rs. 49
4. Rs. 72
5. Rs. 50
Answer: (1)

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6. A tempo is insured to the extent of 4 5 of its original value. If the premium on it at the rate of 1.3 percent amounts to Rs. 910, the original value of the tempo is:
1. Rs. 78,000
2. Rs. 78,500
3. Rs. 80,000
4. Rs. 85,000
5. Rs. 87,500
Answer: (5)

7. By selling 45 lemons for Rs. 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs. 24 to gain 20% in the transaction?
1. 19
2. 18
3. 24
4. 22
5. 23
Answer: (2)

8. In a ratio, which is equal to 3 : 4, if the antecedent is 12, then the consequent is:1. 10
2. 16
3. 20
4. 22
5. 18
Answer: (2)

9. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs. 529. A and B together are supposed to do 19/23 of the work and B and C together 8/23 of the work. What amount should A be paid?
1. Rs. 320
2. Rs. 345
3. Rs. 355
4. Rs. 380
5. None of these
Answer: (2)

10. A boy rides his bicycle 10 km at an average speed of 12 km/hr and again travels 12 km at an average speed of 10 km/hr. His average speed for the entire trip is approximately :
1. 10.4 km/hr
2. 10.8 km/hr
3. 12 km/hr
4. 14 km/hr
5. 13 km/hr
Answer: (2)

11. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of both the cards being kings?
1. 1/19
2. 27/29
3. 35/256
4. 1/121
5. 35/121
Answer: (4)

12. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes:
1. 13%
2. 10.25%
3. 15%
4. 11%
5. None of these
Answer: (2)

13. A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage of decrease in area is:
1. 11%
2. 12%
3. 20%
4. 28%
5. 33%
Answer: (4)

14. What is the difference in exports between the periods March to May and June to August (in $ million)?
1. 418
2. 592
3. 5790
4. 585
5. None of these
Answer: (4)

15. If the exports of company B in the year 2003 were Rs. 77 crore, then, what were the imports of the company in that year?
1. 86 crore
2. 107.5 crore
3. 103.95 crore
4. 101 crore
5. None of these
Answer: (3)

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Mental Ability

Verbal

1. If Step IV reads ‘to restrict the use of air conditioners”, which of the following will definitely be the input?
(1)use to of the air conditioners restrict
(2)restrict the to of air conditioners use
(3)the air conditioners of restrict use to
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security reasons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every batch. Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch.
Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by
Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on…

2. If pass-code for the third batch is ‘night succeed day and hard work-to for’, what will be the pass-code for the sixth batch?
(1)work hard to for succeed night and day
(2)hard work for and succeed night to day
(3)work hard for to succeed night and day
(4)hard work for to succeed night and day
(5) None of these

3. If ‘visit in zoo should the time day’ is the pass-code for the fifth batch, zoo we the should visit day time in’ will be the pass-code for which of following batches?
(1) II
(2) IV
(3) I
(4) III
(5) VI

4. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code ‘to fast rush avoid not do very run’. What would have been the pass-code for him had he visited the museum in the second bitch?
(1)rush do not avoid to run very fast
(2)rush not do-avoid to run very
(3)avoid rush not do to run very fast
(4) Date inadequate
(5) None of these

5. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code ‘length the day equal of an night are’. However, he could not visit the museum in the second batch as he was a little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new pass-code issued to him?
(1)and of are night the length equal day
(2)and are of night the length equal day
(3)and of are night the equal day length
(4 )an d of are th e night len gth day equal
(5) None of these

6. If ass-code for the second batch is ‘to confidence hard you leads work and success’, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?(1)leads success to you hard confidence and work
(2)leads success you to hard confidence and work
(3)leads success to you hard confidence work and
(4)leads to success you hard confidence and work
(5) None of these

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - English Language

Direction: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested. One of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out appropriate word in each case.

The Reserve Bank has taken a bold (46) in the development of money, the government securities and the foreign exchange markets in (47) of their critical role in overall growth and development of the economy and (48) in the transmission mechanism of monetary policy. The approach has been one of simultaneous movements on several fronts, graduated and callibrated, with an (49) on institutional and infrastructural development and  improvements in market microstructure. The pace of reforms was contingent (50) putting in place appropriate systems and procedures, technologies and market practices. Initiatives taken by the Reserve Bank have brought about a (51) transformation of various segments of the financial market. These developments by improving the depth and liquidity in domestic financial markets have (52) to better price discovery of interest rates and exchange rates, which, in turn, hae led to greater (53) in resource allocation in the economy. The increase in size and depth of financial market has (54) the way for (55) use of indirect instruments.

1. (1) interest
(2) participation
(3) step
(4) role
(5) None of these

2. (1) point
(2) tune
(3) view
(4) pursuit
(5) None of these

(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Computer Knowledge

1. Buffer is device/storage area–
1. Where data are temporarily stored
2. Where data is permanently stored
3. Where data error occurs
4. All of the above 5. None of these

2. A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number of nodes is called–
1. Car Topology
2. Bus Topology
3. Truck Topology
4. All of the above
5. None of these

3. An error in a computer program is referred as–
1. Bug
2. Bit
3. Virus
4. All of the above
5. None of these

4. Circuits that provide a communication path between two or more devices of a digital computer system is–
1. Car
2. Bus
3. Truck
4. All of the above
5. None of these

5. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred as–
1. Byte
2. Octal
3. Bubble
4. All of the above
5. None of these

6. Cache memory is a–
1. Small buffer storage
2. Permanent storage
3. Main memory
4. All of the above
5. None of these

7. The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number system is referred as–
1. Number system
2. Base
3. Power
4. All of the above
5. None of these

8. Cache memory is–
1. Smaller and faster than main storage
2. Bigger and slower than main storage
3. Smaller but slower than main memory
4. Bigger and faster than main memory
5. None of these

9. Cache memory–
1. Is a Static RAM
2. Increases the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate
3. Both 1. and 2. are true .
4. Both 1. and 2. are false
5. None of these

10. Following is false for BASIC–1. Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
2. High-level interactive programming language
3. Works in time sharing environment
4. Low level object oriented language
5. None of these

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11. A unit for measuring data transmission speed that describes the capacity of a carrier is referred as–
1. Baud
2. Bit
3. Bond
4. All of the above
5. Batch

12. A process of trying out a new product by independent users before it is finally manufactured/developed–
1. Alpha test
2. Beta Test
3. Gamma test
4. All of the above
5. None of these

13. A selection, choice, or condition involving two possibilities is referred as–
1. Unary
2. Binary
3. Octal
4. All of the above
5. None of these

14. Base band System is–
1. A networking system
2. Where the channel support a single digital signal
3. Both 1. and 2. are true
4. All of the above
5. None is true

15. One of the early coding systems, based on the idea of converting each digit of a decimal number into its binary equivalent rather than converting the entire decimal value into a pure binary form is–
1. ASCII code
2. BCD
3. ASCII-8
4. All of the above
5. None of these

16. In Batch processing–
1. Several computer programs runs one after another without human interaction to run each program individually
2. Several computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
3. Selected computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
4. All of the above
5. None is true

17. BISYNC is–
1. Binary synchronous
2. A process of transmitting data
3. A half-duplex, character oriented, synchronous data communication transmission method
4. All of the above 5. None of these

18. A device that is used to transmit data from one location to another is referred as–
1. Storage
2. Memory
3. Carrier
4. All of the above
5. None of these

19. Programs developed by an outside supplier and provided to the user in a machine readable form is known as–
1. Canned programs
2. Beta program
3. Alpha program
4. All of the above
5. None of these

20. A binary numbers are represented by–
1. Digits 0 and 1
2. Digits 0, 1, ..., 8
3. Digits AB, C,...
4. All of the above
5. None of these

21. BIOS is responsible for
1. Handling the particulars of input/output operations
2. Output operations
3. Input operations
4. All of the above
5. None of these

22. BIOS is an abbreviation for–
1. Binary Input/Binary Output
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above 5. None of these

23. BISYNC is an abbreviation for–
1. Binary Input/Binary Output
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above 5. None of these

24. The overall design, construction, organiz-ation and interconnecting of the various components of a computer system is referred as–
1. Computer Architecture
2. Computer Flowchart
3. Computer Algorithm
4. All of the above
5. None of these

25. A number system with a base of two is referred as–
1. Unary number system
2. Binary number system
3. Octal number system
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Answers:

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::REASONING ABILITY::

1. A school bus driver starts from the school, drives 2 km towards North, takes a left turn and drives for 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives for 8 km before taking a left turn again and driving for 5 km. The driver finally takes a leftturn and drives 1 km before stopping. How far and towards which direction should the driver drive to reach the school again?

(a) 3 km towards North
(b) 7 km towards East
(c) 6 km towards South
(d) 6 km towards West
(e) 5 km towards North

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 2-3) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:

A, B, C, D, E and F live on different floors in the same building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it , number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6. A lives on an even numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which D and F live. F lives on a floor above D’s floor. D does not live on floor number 2. B does not live on an odd numbered floor. C does not live on any of the floors below F’s floor. E does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below the floor on which B lives.

2. Who amongst the following live on the floors exactly between D and F ?

(a) E, B
(b) C, B
(c) E, C
(d) A, E
(e) B, A

3. On which of the following floors does B live?

(a) 6th
(b) 4th
(c) 2nd
(d) 5th
(e) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 4-5) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a five letter English word (which may or may not be a meaningful English word), there are two letters between L and P. S is not placed immediately next to L. There is only one letter between S and A. S is towards the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to E.

4. Which of the following is correct with respect to the word thus formed?

(a) E is at one of the extreme ends of the word.
(b) P is not placed immediately next to A.
(c) There are two letters between A and E in the word thus formed.
(d) P is placed second to the right of E.
(e) None is correct

5. Which of the following words will be formed based on the given conditions?

(a) SPAEL
(b) PEALS
(c) LEAPS
(d) SEPAL
(e) LAPSE

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : In each question below are two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. Give answer (e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow. (Qs. 6-7) : Statements : All gliders are parachutes. No parachute is an airplane. All airplanes are helicopters.

6. Conclusions : I. No glider is an airplane.
II.All gliders being helicopters is a possibility.

7. Conclusions : I. No helicopter is a glider.
II. All parachutes being helicopters is a possibility.

8. Statements : Some mails are chats.
All updates are chats.
Conclusions : I. All mails being updates is a possibility.
II. No update is a mail.

(Qs. 9-10) : Statement : No stone is metal. Some metals are papers. All papers are glass.

9. Conclusions : I. All stones being glass is a possibility.
II. No stone is a paper.

10. Conclusions : I. No glass is a metal.
II. Atleast some glass is metal.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digits numbers.) Input : sine 88 71 cos theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 Step I : cos sine 71 theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 88 Step II : delta cos sine theta 14 56 gamma 26 88 71 Step III : gamma delta cos sine theta 14 26 88 71 56 Step IV : sine gamma delta cos theta 14 88 71 56 26 Step V : theta sine gamma delta cos 88 71 56 26 14 and Step V is the last Step of the arrangement of the above input as the intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input, Input for the questions: Input : for 52 all 96 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46 (All the numbers given in the arrangement are two digit numbers)

11. Which word/number would be at the 6th position from the left in Step V ?

(a) 25
(b) stop
(c) jam
(d) all
(e) road

12. Which of the following would be the Step III ?

(a) hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46
(b) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut 38 stop 96 46 73 52
(c) hut for bus all jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 25
(d) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52
(e) None of these

13. Which word/number would be at 8th position from the right in Step IV?

(a) 15
(b) road
(c) hut
(d) jam
(e) stop

14. Which of the following would be Step VII ?

(a) stop road jam hut for bus all 15 96 73 5246 38 25
(b) road jam hut for bus all stop 15 25 38 46 52 73 96
(c) stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 52 46 38 25 15
(d) jam hut for bus all 25 road stop 15 96 73 52 46 38
(e) There will be no such step as the arrangement gets established at Step VI

15. Which step number would be the following output ? bus all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73

(a) There will be no such step
(b) III
(c) II
(d) V
(e) VI

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Representatives from eight different Banks viz.. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them is from a different Bank viz. UCO Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Bank of Maharashtra, Canara Bank, Syndicate Bank, Punjab National Bank, Bank of India and Dena Bank. F sits second to right of the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of India is an immediate neighbour of the representative from Canara Bank. Two people sit between the representative of Bank of India and B, C and E are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of Maharashtra sits second to right of D. D is neither the representative of Canara Bank nor Bank of India. G and the representative from UCO Bank are immediate neighbours of each other. B is not the representative of UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce. H sits third to left of the representative from Dena Bank.  epresentative from Punjab National Bank sits second to left of the representative from Syndicate Bank.

16. Who amongst the following sit exactly between B and the representative from Bank of India?

(a) A and the representative from UCO Bank
(b) F and G
(c) H and the representative from Bank of Maharashtra
(d) H and G
(e) Representatives from Syndicate Bank and Oriental Bank of Commerce

17. Who amongst the following is the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce?

(a) A
(b) C
(c) H
(d) G
(e) D

18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) H - UCO Bank
(b) A - Canara Bank
(c) D - Bank of Maharashtra
(d) E -Syndicate Bank
(e) F - Punjab National Bank

19. Who amongst the following sits second to left of B ?

(a) C
(b) H
(c) The representative from Canara Bank
(d) The representative from Punjab National Bank
(e) G

20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

(a) B is the representative from Bank of Maharashtra.
(b) C sits second to right of H.
(c) The representative from Dena Bank sits to the immediate left of the representative from UCO Bank.
(d) A sits second to right of the representative from Bank of India.
(e) The representatives from Bank of Maharashtra and Syndicate Bank are immediate neighbours of each other.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

21. How many daughters does W have?

I. B and D are sisters of M.
II. M's father T is husband of W.
Ill. Out of the three children which T has, only one is a boy.

(a) Only I and III
(b) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(c) Only II & III are sufficient to answer the question
(d) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
(e) Only I and II

22. Who among A, B, C, D, E and F each having a different height, is the tallest?

I. B is taller than A but shorter than E.
II. Only two of them are shorter than C.
III. D is taller than only F.

(a) Only I and II
(b) Only I and III
(c) Only II and III
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) All I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question

23. How is 'go' written in a code language?

I. 'now or never again' is written as 'tom ka na sa' in that code language.
II. 'you come again now' is written as 'ja ka ta sa' in that code language.
III. 'again go now or never' is written as 'na ho ka sa tom' in that code language.

(a) Only I and III
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and II
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) None of these

24. Towards which direction is village J from village W ?

I. Village R is to the west of Village W and to the north of Village T.
II. Village Z is to the east of Village J and to the south of Village T.
III. Village M is to the northeast of Village J and north of Village Z.

(a) Only III
(b) Only II and III
(c) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(d) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
(e) None of these

25. On which day of the week starting from Monday did Suresh visit Chennai ?

l. Suresh took leave on Wednesday.
II. Suresh visited Chennai the day after his mother's visit to his house
III. Suresh's mother visited Suresh's house neither on Monday nor on Thursday

(a) Only II and III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only I and III
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.

1. Women’s rights around the world are an important indicator to understand global well-being. A major global women’s rights treaty was ratified by the majority of the world’s nations a few decades ago. ...... These ranges from the cultural, political to the economic. For example, women often work more than men, yet are paid less; gender discrimination affects girls and women throughout their lifetime; and women and girls are often the ones that suffer the most poverty. Many may think that women’s rights are only an issue in countries where  eligion is law. Or even worse, some may think this is no longer an issue at all. But reading the report about the United Nation’s Women’s Treaty and how an increasing number of countries are lodging reservations will show otherwise. Gender equality furthers the cause of child survival and development for all of society, so the importance of women’s rights and gender equality should not be underestimated.

(a) This treaty tackled and solved a number of issues related to women.
(b) Why is it then, that moment still face a number of problems on the domestic front?
(c) Thus, the woman today is ten times more empowered as compared to a woman say about a decade ago.
(d) Women’s activists across nations have implored the respective governments to take this seriously.
(e) Yet, despite many successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in all areas of life.

2. Research has shown that air pollutants from fossil fuel use make clouds reflect more of the sun’s rays back into space. This leads to an effect known as global dimming whereby less heat and energy reaches the earth. ............ However, it is believed that global dimming caused the droughts in certain parts of the world where millions died, because the northern hemisphere oceans were not warm enough to allow rain formation. Global dimming is also hiding the true power of global warming. By cleaning up global dimming-causing pollutants without talking greenhouse gas emissions, rapid warming has been observed, and various human health and ecological disasters have resulted, as witnessed during the European heat wave in 2003, which saw thousands of people die.

(a) This though, does not bring any relief in the problems associated with climate change.
(b) This phenomenon thus is part of the climate change problem.
(c) Scientists thus believe that this phenomenon goes hand in hand with global warming
(d) At first, it sounds like an ironic savior to climate change problems
(e) The answer to all our problems with respect to climate change is definitely here

3. Poverty is the state for the majority of the world’s people and nations. Why is this? .......... Have they been lazy, made poor decisions, and been solely responsible for their own plight? What about their governments? Have they pursued policies that actually harm successful development? Such causes of poverty and inequality are no doubt real. But deeper and more global causes of poverty are often less discussed. Behind the increasing interconnectedness promised by globalization are global decisions, policies, and practices. These are typically influenced, driven, or formulated by the rich and powerful. These can be leaders of rich countries or other global actors such as multinational corporations, institutions, and influential people. In the face of such enormous external influence, the governments of poor nations and their people are often powerless. As a result, in the global context, a few get wealthy while the majority struggles.

(a) Is it enough to blame poor people for their own predicament?
(b) What is the government doing about it?
(c) Are the wealthy ones in the nation even aware of this?
(d) The government has already taken measures to eradicate the same.
(e) The huge gap between the rich and the poor in the nation is now narrowing

4. Analysts and industry pundits forecast that notebook market, which has been growing faster than the desktop market for the past three years, is expected to overtake the desktop market by the year 2011-12. A fall in prices, large deals from governments and institutions, and demand from consumers and sectors such as education are expected to help the notebook numbers. According to research agencies, the year 2010-11 saw notebook volumes rise, and for the first time a million plus notebooks were sold in India in a single quarter. The market has grown nearly four times for notebooks. The demand is driven by all sectors and a very buoyant consumer market, which prefers mobile computers. Entry-level notebook prices have dropped below the Rs. 25,000 mark; this has helped break the ice with new customers. This drop in notebook prices has been helped by the drop in the prices of the building blocks that make a notebook. It’s simple. With notebook volumes growing, the prices of the components are also bound to come down. .........

(a) All this has resulted in a noticeable change in a number of large government tenders for notebooks; which were traditionally for desktops.
(b) Because of this the government still prefers desktops to notebooks and has passed tenders for the same.
(c) Thereby making them more expensive.
(d) Thus the forecast for the coming year states that desktops will be the preferred technology choice only for consumers who cannot afford the exorbitantly priced notebook.
(e) Thus notebooks will become obsolete after a decade or so.

5. Next to China, India is the most populated country in the world. ...... Particularly, rush to technical and higher education has increased as the scope for arts and science has become lesser and lesser due to lack of reforms and up gradation in the course structure and materials according to the developments of the world. Also, qualification in higher education gives added advantage to facesuccessfully competition in the job market.

(a) Keeping this in mind, the government has provided concessions in the admission fees for the arts and science streams in the country.
(b) Naturally there is too much rush and competition in every field.
(c) Despite this the rush to higher education is lesser.
(d) This population increase, though, has not kept pace with the knowledge expansion around the world.
(e) In the next decade it will become the most populous.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Rearrange the following seven sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) in the proper sequence to from a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(1) To elaborate briefly on these characteristics and dimensions that the author is talking about – NRMs are general tests intended to be used to classify students by percentile for measuring either aptitude or proficiency for admissions into or placement within a program.
(2) Contrastingly, the CRM, such as a locally produced achievement test, measures absolute performance that is compared only with the learning objective, hence a perfect score is theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the pre-specified material, or conversely, all students may fail the test.
(3) In most of these books, the authors classify a measurement strategy as either norm-referenced (NRM) or criterionreferenced (CRM).
(4) Another author points out how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is the relative performance of the students compared with that of all the others resulting in, ideally, a bell curve distribution.
(5) Numerous books on constructing and using language tests have been written by various authors.
(6) CRMs, on the other hand, are more specific, achievement or diagnostic tests intended to be used for motivating students by measuring to what percent they have achieved mastery of the thought or learned material.
(7) One of the authors clearly delineates the differences of these two types by focusing on the categories of “test characteristics” and “logistical dimensions.”

6. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 7
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

7. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

8. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
(e) 5

9. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 6

10. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 7
(d) 4
(e) 5

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick up two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. The ability of a woman to do well does not .......... on whether it is a man’s world or not, because everyone has his/her own opportunities.

(1) trust
(2) depend
(3) reckon
(4) live
(5) rest
(6) believe

(a) (4) and (5)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (1) and (6)
(d) (2) and (5)
(e) (3) and (4)

12. Drugs worth ` 3 lakhs were ......... from the apartment by the police.

(1) manufactured
(2) ruptured
(3) seized
(4) confiscated
(5) bought
(6) compared

(a) (1) and (4)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (3) and (5)
(d) (5) and (6)
(e) (3) and (4)

13. An organization .......... to the mission of road safety has prepared an action plan for reducing accidents and related injuries and fatalities.

(1) specified
(2) inaugurated
(3) committed
(4) kicked off
(5) succumbed
(6) dedicated

(a) (3) and (6)
(b) (1) and (5)
(c) (3) and (5)
(d) (4) and (6)
(e) (1) and (3)

14. A man reportedly .......... two passports with the same photograph, but under different names was arrested by the commissioner’s Task Force.

(1) possessing
(2) examining
(3) surrendering
(4) mastering
(5) holding
(6) fixating

(a) (2) and (3)
(b) (3) and (6)
(c) (1) and (5)
(d) (1) and (4)
(e) (4) and (5)

15. The Hollywood star and the Bollywood heroine are being ......... as the next big onscreen couple.

(1) labeled
(2) explained
(3) worshiped
(4) touted
(5) exclaimed
(6) shouted

(a) (2) and (4)
(b) (1) and (3)
(c) (2) and (6)
(d) (1) and (4)
(e) (3) and (4)

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::GENERAL AWARENESS::

1. Which of the following countries recently conferred its. Highest State Honour on Late Mrs. Indira Gandhi for her contribution in its 'Liberation war'?

(a) South Sudan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Bhutan
(d) Slovakin
(e) Croatia

2. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Banks cannot accept demand and time deposite from public.
(b) Banks can accept only demand deposits from public.
(c) Banks can accept only time deposits from public.
(d) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public.
(e) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government.

3. Interest payable on saving bank accounts is

(a) not regulated by RBI.
(b) regulated by State Governments
(c) regulated by Central Government
(d) regulated by RBI
(e) regulated by Finance minister.

4. Which of the following is the correct statement?

(a) State bank of India is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(b) A nationalized bank is the sole authority to Issue and manage currency in India
(c) A cooperative bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(d) RBI is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(e) None of these

5. The Home Minister of India was recently on a visit to Bangladesh where both the countries signed a Coordinated Border Management Plan (CBMP). What are major points of this agreement?

(A) The plan will help in resolving long pending border dispute between both the nations.
(B) The head count of the people living in enclaves on the border will be completed within next six month's time
(C) India assured that no BSF Jawan will open fire on the people crossing the borders unless there is an attack on them.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) and (C)
(e) Both (A) and (C)

6. Which of the following is/are commodity/ies on which subsidy is given to farmers/ poor in India?

(A) Fertiliser
(B) Kerosene
(C) LPG

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Only (A) & (C)
(e) All (A), (B) & (C)

7. The President of India was recently on a visit to South Korea and Mongolia. During her visit some agreements were signed by both the countries. Which of the following was a common area on which India signed agreements with South Korea and Mongolia both?

(a) Peaceful use of Nuclear energy
(b) Export of edible oil to South Korea and Mongolia
(c) Providing technical help to become self sufficient in production of food grains
(d) Willingness of both the countries to support India's bid to have permanent seat in UN Security Council
(e) To hold Olympic games in 2022 In New Delhi jointly with South Korea and Mongolia

8. Iran recently threatened that it will stop supply of oil to India if the payment Issue is NOT sorted out quickly. What is the problem in payment to Iran?

(A) The oil supplied by Iran is of substandard quality. Hence India suspended the supply and stopped the payment.
(B) Indian banks have stopped transfer of money to Iran as UN has imposed sanctions on Iran.
(C) India is bound to purchase oil only from OPEC members. Iran has abandoned the membership of OPEC, which has created a problem in payments.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) and (C)
(e) None of these

9. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of

(a) Both Savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
(b) Savings bank accounts and current accounts
(c) Both Savings bank accounts and loan accounts
(d) Both Savings bank accounts and cash accounts only
(e) Both Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts

10. Yingluck Shinawatra has won recently held elections to become first woman Prime Minister of

(a) Myanmar.
(b) South Korea
(c) North Korea
(d) Thailand
(e) China

11. Which of the following is correct statement?

(a) Normally no interest is paid on current deposit accounts
(b) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts
(c) The rate of interest on current account and savings account are the same
(d) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank
(e) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits.

12. The Lokayukta of which of the following States had submitted a report on illegal mining of Iron are in the State?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Orissa
(e) None of these

13. The usual deposit accounts of banks are

(a) Current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
(b) Current accounts, Post office savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(c) Loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(d) Current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(e) Current bill accounts and term deposit accounts

14. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are

(a) repayable after an agreed period.
(b) repayable on demand
(c) not repayable
(d) repayable after death of depositors
(e) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank's choice.

15. The countries these days are most worried about the currency war. They are arguing about whose actions harmed the world economy the most. What are the views of the rich countries, particularly USA, In this regard?

(A) They feel that it was China who was unwilling to allow the Yuan to rise.
(B) They feel that it was India who had snatched jobs in most of the European countries and USA. This made the situation more grim.
(C) Some countries feel that it wan Japan who allowed swapping of its currency with other nations and created a grim situation in world market.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) & (C)
(e) None of these

16. Which of the following is NOT a Millennium Goal set by the UNO?

(a) Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
(b) Reduce child mortality
(c) Ensure environmental sustainability
(d) Combat terrorism and bring people in main stream of society
(e) Achieve universal primary education

17. Financial inclusion means provision of

(a) financial services namely payments, remittances, savings, loans and Insurance at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(b) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(c) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(d) food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(e) education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. ^{√11449 x √6241 -} (54)^{2 =√?+}(74)²

(a) 384
(b) 3721
(c) 381
(d) 3638
(e) None of these

2. (^{3√8 + √8}) x (^{8√8 + 7√8}) - 98 = ?

(a) 2√8
(b) 8√8
(c) 382
(d) 386
(e) None of these

3. 3463 x 295 – 18611 = ? + 5883

(a) 997091
(b) 997071
(c) 997090
(d) 999070
(e) None of these

4.

(a) 1/3
(b) 0.75
(c) 3/2
(d) 1/2
(e) None of these

5. (23.1)2 + (48.6)2 – (39.8)2 = ? + 1147.69

(a) (13.6)2
(b) 12.8
(c) 163.84 (d) 12.8
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

6. 3 4663 + 349= ?¸ 21.003

(a) 7600
(b) 7650
(c) 7860
(d) 7560
(e) 7680

7. 39.897% of 4331 + 58.779% of 5003 = ?

(a) 4300
(b) 4500
(c) 4700
(d) 4900
(e) 5100

8. 59.88 ¸ 12.21 ´ 6.35 = ?

(a) 10
(b) 50
(c) 30
(d) 70
(e) 90

9. 43931.03 ¸ 2111.02 ´ 401.04 = ?

(a) 8800
(b) 7600
(c) 7400
(d) 9000
(e) 8300

10. 6354 ´34.993 = ?

(a) 3000
(b) 2800
(c) 2500
(d) 3300
(e) 2600

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11–15) : In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

11. 9050 5675 3478 2147 1418 1077 950

(a) 3478
(b) 1418
(c) 5675
(d) 2147
(e) 1077

12. 7 12 40 222 1742 17390 208608

(a) 7
(b) 12
(c) 40
(d) 1742
(e) 208608

13. 6 91 584 2935 11756 35277 70558

(a) 91
(b) 70558
(c) 584
(d) 2935
(e) 35277

14. 1 4 25 256 3125 46656 823543

(a) 3125
(b) 823543
(c) 46656
(d) 25
(e) 256

15. 8424 4212 2106 1051 526.5 263.25 131.625

(a) 131.625
(b) 1051
(c) 4212
(d) 8424
(e) 263.25

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

1. To change selected text to all capital letters, click the change case button, then click

(a) Uppercase
(b) Upper all
(c) Capslock
(d) Lock Upper
(e) Large Size

2. A person who uses his or her expertise to gain access to other people’s computers to get information illegally or do damage is a

(a) hacker
(b) analyst
(c) instant messenger
(d) programmer
(e) spammer

3. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be

(a) distributed
(b) free
(c) centralized
(d) open source
(e) None of these

4. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym

(a) CD
(b) DVD
(c) ROM
(d) RW
(e) ROS

5. The most common type of storage devices are

(a) persistent
(b) optical
(c) magnetic
(d) flash
(e) steel

6. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as

(a) an ASCII code
(b) a magnetic tape
(c) a bar code
(d) an OCR scanner
(e) None of these

7. A Web site’s main page is called its

(a) Homepage
(b) Browser page
(c) Search Page
(d) Bookmark
(e) None of these

8. Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of

(a) control
(b) output
(c) processing
(d) feedback
(e) input

9. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is

(a) dragging
(b) dropping
(c) right-clicking
(d) shift-clicking
(e) None of these

10. Computers use the ________ number system to store data and perform calculations.

(a) binary
(b) octal
(c) decimal
(d) hexadecimal
(e) None of these

11. ________ ‘are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.

(a) Phishing trips
(b) Computer viruses
(c) Spyware scams
(d) Viruses
(e) Phishing scams

12. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends?

(a) It is not unethical, because it is legal.
(b) It is unethical because the files are being given for free.
(c) Sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyright laws.
(d) It is not unethical because the files are being given for free.
(e) It is not unethical - anyone can access a computer

13. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?

(a) CTRL+A
(b) ALT+ F5
(c) SHIFT+A
(d) CTRL+K
(e) CTRL+H

14. To instruct Word to fit the width of a column to the contents of a table automatically, click the___button and then point to AutoFit Contents.

(a) Fit to Form
(b) Format
(c) Autosize
(d) Contents
(e) AutoFit

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15. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is

(a) multiprogramming
(b) multitasking
(c) time-sharing
(d) multiprocessing
(e) None of these

16. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is

(a) memory-only
(b) write-only
(c) once-only
(d) run-only
(e) read-only

17. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called?

(a) RAM
(b) Floppy
(d) CD-ROM
(e) ROM

18. The default view in Excel is_____view.

(a) Work
(b) Auto
(c) Normal
(d) Roman
(e) None of these

19. What displays the contents of the active cell in Excel?

(a) Namebox
(b) Row Headings
(c) Formulabar
(d) Taskpane
(e) None of these

20. In Word you can force a page break

(a) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key
(b) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl + Enter
(c) by using the Insert/Section Break
(d) by changing the font size of your document
(e) None of these

21. Grouping and processing all of a firm’s transactions at one time is called

(a) a database management system
(b) batch processing
(c) a real-time system
(d) an on-line system
(e) None of these

22. Help menu is available at which button?

(a) End
(b) Start
(c) Turnoff
(d) Restart
(e) Reboot

23. You can keep your personal files/folders in

(a) My folder
(b) My Documents
(c) My Files
(d) My Text
(e) None of these

24. A central computer that holds collections programs for many PCs, workstations computers is a(n)

(a) supercomputer
(b) minicomputer
(c) laptop
(d) server
(e) None of these

25. When you save to this, your data will remain when the computer is turned off.

(a) RAM
(b) motherboard
(c) secondary storage device
(d) primary storage
(e) None of these

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::REASONING ABILITY::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-4) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digits numbers)

Input : tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 bam
Step I : 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 bam alt
Step II : 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt bam
Step III : 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt bam high
Step IV : 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt bam high jar
Step V : 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt bam high jar rise
Step VI : 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt bam high jar rise tall
Step VII : 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt bam high jar rise tall wise
Step VII : is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input : 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two digits numbers)

1. Which step number is the following output ? 32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink

(a) Step V
(b) Step VI
(c) Step IV
(d) Step III
(e) There is no such step

2. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V ?

(a) 14
(b) 92
(c) feet
(d) best
(e) why

3. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between 'feet' and '32' as they appear in the last step of the output ?

(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) Seven

4. Which of the following represents the position of 'why' in the fourth step ?

(a) Eighth from the left
(b) Fifth from the right
(c) Sixth from the left
(d) Fifth from the left
(e) Seventh from the left

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 5-11) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
• B sits second to left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.
• D's daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H's husband.
• Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's other. Only one person sits between H's mother and E.
• Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

5. What is position of A with respect to his mother-in-law ?

(a) Immediate left
(b) Third to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Second to the right
(e) Fourth to the left

6. Who amongst the following is D's daughter ?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) E
(d) G
(e) H

7. What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild ?

(a) Immediate right
(b) Third to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Second to the left
(e) Fourth to the left

8. How many people sit between G and her uncle ?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) More than four

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(a) F
(b) C
(c) E
(d) H
(e) G

10. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement ?

(a) C is the cousin of E
(b) H and H's husband are immediate neighbours of each other
(c) No female is an immediate neighbour of C
(d) H sits third to left of her daughter
(e) B is the mother of H

11. Who sits to the immediate left of C ?

(a) F's grandmother
(b) G's son
(c) D's mother-in-law
(d) A
(e) G

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 12-18) : In each group of questions below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows;
Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows;
Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows;
Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows;
Give answer (e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

12. Statements : Some exams are tests. No exam is a question.
Conclusions : I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.

13. Statements : All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions : I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.

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14. Statements : All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions : I. No energy is heat.
II. Some forces being heat is a possibility.

15. Statements : No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions : I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.

16. Statements : No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions : I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plastics.

17. Statements : Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics. No graphic is a picture.
Conclusions : I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.

18. Statements : All vacancies are jobs. Some jobs are occupations.
Conclusions : I. All vacancies are occupations.
II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19-21) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions :

Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only. A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

19. Which of the following could possibly be C's score ?

(a) 70
(b) 94
(c) 86
(d) 61
(e) 81

20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information ?

(a) D's score was definitely less than 60
(b) F scored the maximum marks
(c) Only two people scored more than C
(d) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks
(e) None is true

21. The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F's marks. Which of the following can be D's score ?

(a) 94
(b) 60
(c) 89
(d) 78
(e) 81

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 22-29) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions :

Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO bank, Syndicate bank, Canara bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)

• C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
• Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbour of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
• The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person  from Bank of Maharashtra.
• Q faces the person from Dena bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
• B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate bank.

22. Which of the following is true regarding A ?

(a) The person from UCO bank faces A
(b) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A
(c) A faces the person who sits second to right of R
(d) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(e) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line

23. Who is seated between R and the person from PNB ?

(a) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(b) P
(c) Q
(d) The person from Syndicate bank
(e) S

24. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?

(a) D and the person from PNB.
(b) The person from Indian bank and UCO bank.
(c) The person from Dena bank and P.
(d) The persons from Syndicate bank and D.
(e) C, Q

25. Who amongst the following faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra ?

(a) The person from Indian bank
(b) P
(c) R
(d) The person from Syndicate bank
(e) The person from Canara bank

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(Download) LIC AAO Paper 2016 : Computer Knowledge

1. A small picture that represents either a program or a shortcut on a computer screen is–
(A) a pointer 
(B) a logo
(C) a graphics 
(D) an icon
(E) a shortcut
(Ans : D)

2. The speed of a PC is measured in–
(A) Megabytes
(B) Nanoseconds 
(C) Megahertz 
(D) Milliseconds 
(E) Kilo seconds
(Ans : C)

3. ………. is the maximum number of horizontal and vertical pixels that are displayed on the screen.
(A) Pixel
(B) Response Rate 
(C) Resolution 
(D) Screen size
(E) Reflection 
(Ans : C)

4. Which component of a computer system perform arithmetic calculations?
(A) CU
(B) ALU
(C) US 
(D) CD-ROM 
(E) Memory
(Ans : B)

5. What is another name for a computer's main volatile memory ?
(A) RAM
(B) PROM 
(C) ROM
(D) HDD
(E) CD-ROM
(Ans : A)

6. Oracle is a–
(A) RDBMS
(B) Hardware
(C) System software
(D) High level language 
(E) Operating system 
(Ans : A)

7. Which is a software?
(A) Mouse
(B) Pointer
(C) MS Word 
(D) Keyboard
(E) Plotter 
(Ans : C)

8. Which of the following are input devices?
(i) Keyboard
(ii) Pointer 
(iii) Speaker
(iv) Scanner 
(v) Plotter 
(vi) Webcam

(A) i, ii, v
(B) i, iv, v
(C) i, v, vi 
(D) i, iii, vi
(E) i, ii, iv

(Ans : E)

9. Windows Explorer is the name of–
(A) a network 
(B) a web browser 
(C) a file manager 
(D) an internet browser
(E) a drive 
(Ans : B)

10. Which of these is not a peripheral, in computer terms?
(A) Keyboard
(B) Mouse
(C) Monitor
(D) Printer
(E) Motherboard
(Ans : E)

11. Every web page has a  unique address called a(n)–
(A) RUL
(B) ARL 
(C) LUR 
(D) URL
(E) Hyperlink
(Ans : D)

12. Power Point is–
(A) an application program for document preparations 
(B) an application program for graphics
(C) an application program for spreadsheet
(D) an application program for presentation
(E) a program for powerful applications
(Ans : D)

13. The operating system is the most common type of ………. software.
(A) application
(B) presentation software
(C) system 
(D) word-processing software
(E) communication
(Ans : C)

14. Which of the following is not a type of computer network?
(A) PAN 
(B) LAN 
(C) WAN 
(D) MAN
(E) RAN 
(Ans : E)

15. Connections to other documents or to other locations within a Web site are–
(A) hyperlinks
(B) bots
(C) hyperconnects
(D) plug-ins
(E) filters
(Ans : A)

16. The largest unit of digital information is–
(A) Kilobyte
(B) Byte
(C) Terabyte
(D) Megabyte
(E) Gigabyte
(Ans : C)

17. Programs such as Mozilla Firefox that serve as navigable windows into web are called–
(A) Networks
(B) Hyperlinks
(C) Web Browsers
(D) Internet
(E) URLs
(Ans : C)

18. Which of the following is contained at the end of the computer file name and helps to determine the type of file ?
(A) File sub-name 
(B) File property
(C) File extension
(D) File name
(E) File nomenclature
(Ans : C)

19. Which of the' following is a text-based operating system?
(A) MS-DOS 
(B) Windows 95
(C) Windows 2000 
(D) Windows XP
(E) Windows CE
(Ans : A)

20. The 'http' you type at the beginning of any site's address stands for–
(A) Hidden Text Transfer Protocol
(B) Hyperspace Techniques and Technology Progress
(C) Hyperspace Terms and Technology Protocol
(D) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(E) HTML Transfer Technology Process 
(Ans : D)

21. GUI in computing stands for–
(A) General User Interaction
(B) Graphical User Interface
(C) Graphical Utility Interface
(D) Good User Interface 
(E) Graphical User Interlude 
(Ans : B)

22. VoIP stands for–
(A) Vote over IP
(B) Voice over IP
(C) Vendor over IP
(D) Voice on IP
(E) Version over IP 
(Ans : B)

23. ………. is an area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed, stored or output.
(A) Storage
(B) Motherboard 
(C) CPU (D) Memory
(E) ALU
(Ans : D)

24. What is the name of a computer pointing input device?
(A) Monitor 
(B) Sound card
(C) Mouse 
(D) Modem 
(E) Keyboard
(Ans : C)

25. The process of writing computer instructions in a programming language is known as–
(A) Instructioning 
(B) Coding 
(C) File
(D) Algorithming
(E) Processing
(Ans : B)

26. ADSL is a data communication technology that enables faster data transmissions over telephone lines. ADSL stands for–
(A) Accelerated Digital Subscriber Line
(B) Accelerated Digitized Subscriber Line 
(C) Analogous Digital Service Line
(D) Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
(E) Asynchronous Data Subscriber Line
(Ans : D)

27. Which of the following is not one of the basic components of a desktop personal computer system?
(A) Input Device
(B) Storage Devices 
(C) System Unit 
(D) Internet
(E) Display Device 
(Ans : D)

28. Which of the following is not an output device in a computer system?
(A) Printer
(B) Keyboard
(C) Monitor
(D) Speaker
(E) Plotter 
(Ans: B)

29. What do we use to change the appearance and positioning of text document in MS Word ?
(A) Scaling
(B) Editing 
(C) Re-appearance
(D) Indenting
(E) Formatting
(Ans : E)

30. What is the full form of BASIC?
(A) Balanced Assembly System Integrated Code
(B) Basic All System Internal Code 
(C) Beginners Assembly Syntax Instruction Code
(D) Beginners All purpose Symbolic Instruction Code 
(E) Basic All purpose Syntax Integrated Code
(Ans : D)

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