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(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - General Awareness" (South Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - General Awareness" (South Zone)

151. For repayment of loan availed from Banks / NBFC we come across a term known as EMI. What does it stand for ?

(1) Equated Money Index
(2) Easy Money Installment
(3) Equated Monthly Installment
(4) Equal Monthly Installment
(5) Equal Minimum Installment

152. Dr. Manmohan Singh visited which of the following countries to hold bilateral talks on boundary dispute with it in September 2011 ?

(1) Nepal
(2) Pakistan
(3) Afghanistan
(4) China
(5) Bangladesh

153. Many a times we read in the news paper about CASA deposits of banks. CASA deposits are

(1) Demand deposits
(2) Term deposits
(3) Hybrid deposits
(4) Recurring deposits
(5) Special schemes of banks

154. India is providing economic help to which of the following Least Developed Countries by allowing access to its goods in India as Duty Free Market?

(1) Afghanistan
(2) Sudan
(3) Pakistan
(4) Greece
(5) Portugal

155. While investing in mutual funds we come across a term called NA V. What is the meaning of NAV?

(1) Net Annual Value
(2) Non Asset Value.
(3) Net Actual Value
(4) Net Asset Value
(5) Net Average Value

156. Who among the following is the leader of the Opposition in the present Lok Sabha ?

(1) Ms. Miera Kumar
(2) Mrs. Sushma Swaraj
(3) Sri L. K. Advani
(4) Sri Lalu Yadav
(5) None of these

157. Assume that Reserve Bank of India reduces the Bank Rate by 1 %, what will be its impact?

(1) Less liquidity in the market
(2) More liquidity in the market
(3) No change in the liquidity in the market
(4) Mobilisation of more deposits by commercial banks
(5) None of these

158. Which of the following States was recently in the grip of a severe earthquake and landslide?

(1) Uttarakhand
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Sikkim
(4) Punjab
(5) None of these

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159. Despite good number of ATMs many people still visit the bank branches. Which of the following reason can be attributed to this issue?

(A) lt does not accept deposits.
(B) It has a limited cash disbursement capacity.
(C) Lack of human interface.

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (8)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) Only (A) and (C)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

160. Which of the following countries is a major producer of oil and petroleum products?

(1) Brazil
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Sri Lanka
(4) South Africa
(5) Iran

161. The market in which long term securities such as stocks are bought and sold is commonly known as—

(1) Bullion Market
(2) Commodities Exchange
(3) Forex Market
(4) Capital Market
(5) Money Market

162. US lifts curbs on ISRO was the news in various newspapers. ISRO is an organisation engaged in—

(1) Space Research
(2) research on Nuclear Reactors
(3) study of climatic changes
(4) finding ways to enhance agricultural output in desert areas
(5) field of Oceanography

163. Federal Reserve is a financial organisation of which of the following country?

(1) USA
(2) Britain
(3) Germany
(4) Greece
(5) Japan

164. Qatar and some other countries are supplying LNG to India. What does the letter ‘N’ denotes in the term LNG used here?

(1) Neutral
(2) Nitrogen
(3) Natural
(4) Naptha
(5) Nitric

165. Whose signature is found on a 50 rupee currency note in India?

(1) President of India
(2) Governor, RBI
(3) Finance Minister
(4) Prime Minister of India
(5) Secretary, Ministry of Finance

166. Wages of the workers engaged in Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Act are now based on-

(1) Wholesale Price Index
(2) Prime lending rate of banks
(3) Repo Rate stipulated by the RBI
(4) Consumer Price Index
(5) Index of the Multi Commodity Exchange

167. What is the minimum prescribed age for the adult suffrage?

(1) 15 years
(2) 16 years
(3) 18 years
(4) 20 years
(5) 21 years

168. Who among the following is the President of Indonesia at present and was in news recently?

(1) Mr. Najib Tun Razak
(2) Mr. Susilo Bambang Yudhoyono
(3) Mr. Sukarno
(4) Mr. Yingluck Shinawatra
(5) None of these

169. Which ofthe following centres is the largest mobiliser of bank deposits in our country?

(1) Delhi
(2) Kolkata
(3) Chennai
(4) Ahmedabad
(5) Mumbai

170. As per recent figures Infant Mortality Rate in India has come down by few points. Which organisation / agency compiles this data?

(1) Planning Commission of India
(2) Ministry of Rural Development
(3) Ministry of Social Welfare
(4) National Advisory Council
(5) Census Commission of India

171. Which of the following institutions is involved mainly in granting Housing Loans ?

(1) RBI
(2) SBI
(3) IBA
(4) ICICI
(5) HDFC

172. Ms. Dilma Rousseff is the first woman President of—

(1) Argentina
(2) Brazil
(3) Uganda
(4) Peru
(5) New Zealand

173. Initial repayment holiday given to a borrower for repayment of loan is called as -

(1) Subvention
(2) Moratorium
(3) Reschedulement
(4) Amortization
(5) EMI

174. Which of the following terms is associated with the game of Cricket?

(1) Bully
(2) Grand Slam
(3) Smash
(4) No ball
(5) Knock-out

175. Which of the following terms is not related to banking?

(1) Repayment
(2) Loan
(3) NPA
(4) Pasting
(5) Deposit

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(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - English Language" (South Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - English Language" (South Zone)

Directions (51 - 65): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

We should recognise the indebtedness of the country to its farm families who toil to safeguard national food security. Loan waiver is the price we have to pay for the neglect of rural lndia over the past several decades. There has been a gradual decline in investment in key sectors related to agriculture such as infrastructure marketing, post harvest technology etc. The four crore farmers whose debt is to be relieved will be eligible for institutional credit for their cultivation expenses during Kharif200B. The challenge is to prevent them from getting into the debt trap again. For this purpose the Central and various State governments should set up an Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium, comprising scientists, panchayat raj officials and others relevant to assisting farmers to improve the profitability and productivity of their farms in an environmentally sustainable manner. The smaller the farm the greater is the need for marketable surplus to reduce indebtedness.
The Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium should aim to get all the four crore farmers all the benefits of the government schemes such as the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana, Irrigation Benefit Programme and others. If this is done every farm family released from the debt trap should be able to produce at least an additional half tonne per hectare of food grains. This should help increase food production by about 20 million tonnes by 2008-10. At a time when global and national food stocks are dwindling and prices are rising, this will be a timely gain for our national food security. We need to ensure that the outcome of the debt waiver is enhanced farmers’ income and production. The prevailing gap between potential and actual yields in the crops of rainfed areas such as pulses and oilseeds is over 200 per cent even with the necessary technologies on the shelf. We are now importing without duty large quantities of pulses and oilseeds. If helped, farmers can produce these at a lower cost.

Opportunities for assured and remunerative marketing are essential if loan waiver is not to become a recurring event leading to the destruction of the credit system. This is why the Minimum Support Price is necessary for all not just for a few crops which is the case at present. This is the single most effective step to make loan waivers history. There is another urgent step which needs to be taken. The loan waiver does not cover those who borrow from moneylenders. It will not be possible for the government to scrutinise the veracity of such private deals but steps can be taken such as giving them Smart Cards which will entitle them to essential inputs like seeds and fertilisers. The gram sabha can be entrusted with the task of identifying these farmers so that there is transparency in the process and elimination of the chances for falsification and corruption. Fear of occasional misuse should not come in the way of enabling millions of poor farmers who have borrowed from informal sources if we are to achieve the goal of four percent growth in agriculture.

51. What is the likely impact of ensuring farmers benefit from government schemes?

(A) They can use the credit from these schemes to repay money lenders.
(B) The government can control the price rise.
(C) Increased agricultural production.

(1) Both (A) and (B)
(2) All (A), (B) and (C)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Both (B) and (C)
(5) None of these

52. Why does the author feel that rural India has been overlooked in the past?

(A) Institutional credit was only made available for Kharif crops.
(B) Drop in investment in central areas related to agriculture.
(C) Records of those eligible for loan waivers have not been maintained over time.

(1) Only (B)
(2) Both (A) and (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(5) None of these

53. How can small farmers avoid debt?

(1) They need’ to acquire additional land holdings
(2) They need to take advantage of both government schemes as well as credit from moneylenders.
(3) They have to ensure a sufficient amount of their farm produce is sold.
(4) The Government should provide periodic loan waivers.
(5) None of these

54. What is the objective of the Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium?

(1) It is a support group for the families of indebted farmers.
(2) It has to devise new government schemes for farmers.
(3) It has to track farmers eligible for government schemes.
(4) It has to evaluate government schemes and weed out the inefficient ones.
(5) It will assist farmers to improve profitability and productivity

55. What does the author mean by the phrase “indebtedness of the country to its farm families”?

(1) If farmers are in debt it impacts the entire country
(2) Citizens should be grateful to farmers and their families for the hardships borne by them to cultivate crops and safeguard national food security
(3) India’s food production has fallen causing it to be in debt since it has to import food.
(4) The number of farmers’ descendants taking up agriculture has fallen .
(5) None of these

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57. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

(1) The Minimum Support Price for agricultural products is yet to be implemented.
(2) Loan waiver is a permanent solution to indebtedness of farmers.
(3) Current agricultural growth is below four percent.
(4) India’s food production has increased in 2008.
(5) Moneylenders benefit from loan waivers.

58. Why does the loan waiver not cover credit taken from money lenders?

(A) It is difficult to verify these contracts between farmers and moneylenders.
(B) It will increase the deficit in the budget.
(C) There is a risk that the funds may be misappropriated.

(1) Both (A) and (C)
(2) All (A), (B) and
(C) (3) Only (B)
(4) Both (A) and (B)
(5) None of these

59. Why is there a vast gap in actual and potential yields of crops in rainfed areas?

(1) The government prefers to import these crops at a lower rate.
(2) No technological advances have been made to improve the growth of crops in these areas.
(3) There is no Minimum Support Price available for these crops.
(4) Farmers are forced to sell these crops at a low rate.
(5) None of these

60. How does the government in tend to ensure transparency in the Smart card issuance process?

(1) Screening private players involved in the scheme.
(2) Granting access to those farmers who register with their local moneylenders.
(3) Providing cards which cannot be forged. (4) Regularly rotating members of the gram sabha so there is no corruption.
(5) The gram sabha can be entrusted with the task of identifying farmers.

Directions (61-63) : Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

61. Assured

(1) insured
(2) definite
(3) doubted
(4) confident
(5) reliance

62. Relieved

(1) exempted
(2) backed
(3) supported
(4) calmed
(5) substituted

63. Gap

(1) hole
(2) break
(3) pause
(4) difference
(5) interruption

Directions (64-65) : Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

64. Timely

(1) young
(2) lately
(3) overdue
(4) aged
(5) slowly

65. Elimination

(1) authority
(2) forgiveness
(3) attack
(4) protection
(5) provision

Directions (66-70): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (5) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

66. Usually (1)/ we are required (2)/ to supply a title (3)/ to the paragraph. (4)/ All correct (5).
67. The movement (1)/ he was asked to recite (2)/ a rhyme, (3)/ he started to do so in his clear (4)/ voice. All correct (5).
68. The maintenance (1)/ expences (2)/ on such accounts(3)/ include recovery (4)f charges. All correct (5).
69. Under the new exploration licencing (1)/ policy, (2)/ companies win exploration blocks in a competitive (3)/ bidding process. (4)/ All correct (5).
70. He was eagrosed (1)/ in his job (2)/ to the detriment (3)/ of his health.(4)/ All correct (5).

Directions (71-75): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and
(5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer.

71. I. It is when he _____ a new method, he faced opposition.
II. The suspect was ____ for the crime.


(1) suggested
(2) sentenced
(3) tried
(4) found
(5) evolved

72. I. The human ____ has its own healing powers.
II. The elected _____ is responsible for major


policy changes.

(1) being
(2) body
(3) representative
(4) segment
(5) mind

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(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Reasoning" (West Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Reasoning" (West Zone)

1. In a certain code ROBUST is written as ‘593127’ and BONE is written as ‘3964’. How is SORE written in that: code?

(1) 2934
(2) 2594
(3) 2954
(4) 3954
(5) None of these

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SPORADIC (in both forward and backward direction) each of which has as many letters -
between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

3. In a certain code TOWN is written as ‘POSV and CARE is written as ‘BFBQ’. How is BELT written in that code?

(1) FUAK
(2) DSCM
(3) DSAK
(4) FUCM
(5) None of these

4. The positions of how many digits in the number 9671285 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in ascending
order from left to right?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

5. How many meaningful English words can be formed - not ending with E - with the second, the fourth, the sixth and the ninth letters of the word PROACTIVE ? (To be counted from left side)

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

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Directions (6-10) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and--

Give answer (1)  if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and

Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

6. In a row of twenty students facing North, what is P’s position from the right end?

I. Q is fifth to the right of P and eighteenth from the left end of the row.
II. M is third to the left of P and eleventh from the right end of the row.

7. How many daughters does D have?

I. M and K are sisters of T.
II. T’s mother is wife of D

8. How is ‘come’ written in a code language?

I. ‘come and go’ is written as ‘je ta ma’ in that code language.
II. ‘go back and’ is written as ‘ta sa je’ in that code language

9. On which day of the week definitely was R’s birthday?

I. R celebrated his birthday after Monday but before Saturday.
II. R’s sister visited R on his birthday after Wednesday.

10. Among A, B, C, D and E, each securing different marks in an examination, whose position is last but one among them?

I. D has secured less marks than only C and E:
II. B has secured more marks than A.

11. Mohan walked 30 metres towards West, took a right turn and walked 20 metres. He then took a left turn and walked 40 metres and stopped.
Towards which direction was he from the starting point?

(1) West
(2) North
(3) South-West
(4) North-West
(5) Data inadequate

Directions (12-15) : Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below:

M 5 $ T @ 2 J © D F I 9 W P # E 3 8 I 6  NA T U 7  Z 4

12. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

13. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between tenth element from the left end and eighth element from the right end?

( l) E
(2) 3
(3) #
(4) E or #
(5) None of these

14. If the positions of the first sixteen elements in the above arrangement are reversed, which of the following will be the eighteenth from the right end’)

(l) J
(2) @
(3) 9
(4) F
(5) None of these

15. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is preceded by a number and not immediately followed by a symbol?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More man three

Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. S is third to the right of P. P is second to the right of’ V, R is second to the left of V and third to the right of Q. W is not an immediate neighbour of Z is second to the right of T.

16. Who is to the immediate right of R?

(1) S
(2) T
(3) Z
(4) V
(5) Date inadequate

17. Who is second to the right of Z ?

(1) P
(2) W
(3) Q
(4) T
(5) Data inadequate

18. What is T’s position with respect to Q?

(A) Fourth to the left
(B) Fourth to the right
(C) Fifth to the left
(D) Third to the right

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only(C)
(4) Only (D)
(5) Both (A) and (B)

19. If Sand Z interchange their positions, who will be second to the right of Q?

(1) Z
(2) S
(3) R
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

20. Which of the following is correct?

(1) R is second to the left of W
(2) S is third to the left of T
(3) P is fifth to the left of R
(4) P is fourth to the left of R
(5) All are correct

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(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Reasoning" (South Zone)

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: Reasoning

1. The positions of how many digits in the number 523169 will remain unchanged if the digits within the number are written in ascending order? (from left to right)

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

2. In a certain code ‘BUILD’ is written as ‘5#31@’ and ‘LIKES’ is written as ‘13©*8’. How is ‘SKID’ written in that code?

(1) 8©*@
(2) 8@3©
(3) 8©3@
(4) 83©@
(5) None of these

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘DAREDEVIL’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (in both forward and backward directions)

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

4. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the third, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word STEADFAST, which of the following will be the second letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y as the answer.

(1) E
(2) A
(3) T
(4) X
(5) Y

5. In a certain code ’TASK’ is written as ‘BUJR’ and ‘BIND’ is written as ‘JCCM’. How is ‘SUIT written in that code?

(1) VTSH
(2) VSTH
(3) TRUJ
(4) TRJU
(5) None of these

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Directions (6-10): In the following questions, the symbols ,*,$,@ and © are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’.
‘A B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.
‘A © B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B’.
‘A * B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true,
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true,
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true,
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true,
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

6. Statements:

W $ F, F R, R * M

Conclusions:

I. R * W
II. R $ W

7. Statements’:

V T, T@N, N $ J

Conclusions:

I. J * T
II. N * V

8. Statements:

K © R, R M, M * F

Conclusions:

I. F @ R
II. K * M

9. Statements:

B @ J, J * H, H © N

Conclusions:

I. N @ J
II. N @ B

10. Statements:

T * K, K © M, M D

Conclusions:

I. D K
II. M @ T

Directions (11-15): Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below:

R 4 $ M E 7 T # A 2 J @ U K 9 P I % 1 8 Q W 3 d Z 5 * N 6 F © V G

11. Which of the following should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the elements in the above arrangement?

M$7 A#J KU P ?

(l) 1 % W
(2) 11 Q
(3) 1 I W
(4) 1 %Q
(5) None of these

12. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four

13. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not, immediately preceded by a letter?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

14. If the positions of twenty-five elements from the right end are reversed, which of the following will be the sixteenth element from the left end?

(1) Z
(2) P
(3) W
(4) Q
(5) None of these

15. Which of the following is the eighth to the left of the twenty- third element from the left end of the above arrangement?

(1) 9
(2) I
(3) $
(4) ©
(5) None of these

Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, Q, A, B, D, Rand F are sitting around a circular table [acing the centre. R is not second to the left of D and D is not an immediate neighbour of B, A is third to the right of F. B is second to the left of F. Q is not an immediate neighbour of B or F.

16. Who is second to the right of P ?

(1) R
(2) Q
(3) D
(4) A
(5) Data inadequate

17. Who is to the immediate left of F?

(1) R
(2) P
(3) D
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

18. Who is to the immediate right of D?

(1) Q
(2) A
(3) F
(4) P
(5) None of these

19. What is D’s position with respect to B ?

(1) Second to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the left
(4) Fourth to the right
(5) Third to the right

20. Who is to the immediate right of Q?

(1) D
(2) R
(3) A
(4) B
(5) None of these

Directions (21-25): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

21. Who among P, Q, R. S and T, each having a different age, is definitely the youngest?

I. R is younger than only T and P.
II. Q is younger than T but not the youngest.

22. Towards which direction was Q facing after he stopped walking?

I. Q walked 30 metres towards West, took a left turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a left turn and stopped after walking 30 metres,
II. Q walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 metres and he took a left turn and stopped after walking 30 metres.

23. How is ‘always’ written in a code language?

I. ‘rain is always good’ is written as ‘5 3 9 7 in that code language.
II. ‘he is always there’ is written as ‘3 6 8 5’ in that code language.

24. How is M related to D?

I. M has only one son and two daughters.
II. D’s brother is son of M’s wife:

25. On which date in April is definitely Pravm’s mother’s birthday?

I. Pravin correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is after fourteenth but before nineteenth of April.
II. Pravin’s sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is after sixteenth but before twenty-first of April.

Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Following are the conditions for selecting a Marketing Manager in an organisation:

The candidate must ______
(i) be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years old as on 01.12.2011.
(ii) be a graduate In any discipline with at least 55% aggregate marks.
(iii) have completed Post Graduate Degree/Diploma in Management with specialization in Marketing Management with at least 60% marks.
(iv) have post qualification work experience of at least 5 years as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organization.
In the case of a candidate who fulfills all the conditions except ______

(a) at (ii) above, but has secured at least 50% in graduation and at least 65% in Post Graduate Degree/Diploma in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management his/her case is to be referred to Head- Marketing.
(b) at (i) above, but is not more than 40 years old and has work experience of 8 years as Assistant Marketing Manager, his/her case is to be referred to Managing Director.
In each question below, details of one candidate are provided. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the conditions given above and the information provided in each question and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01-12-2011.

Mark answer (1) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
Mark answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer (3) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer (4) if the case is to be referred to Head-Marketing.
Mark answer (5) if the case is to be referred to Managing Director.

Now read the information provided in each question and mark your answer accordingly.

26. Mansi was born on 8th March 1982. She has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organization for the past six years after completing her Post Graduate Degree in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management with 70% marks. She has secured 53% marks in B.Com.

27. Manoj was born on 24th July 1980. He has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after completing his Post Graduate diploma in marketing management with 60% marks. He has secured 54% marks in graduation.

28. Rajat has secured 59% marks in graduation and has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after completing his Post Graduate Diploma in Management with specialization in Marketing Management. He was born on 15th February 198l.

29. Tarun was born on 2nd January 1978. He has secured 58% marks in B.Sc. and 65% marks in Post Graduate Degree in Marketing Management. He has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organization for the past six years after completing his post graduation.

30. Mohini has secured 60% marks in graduation. She has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past nine years after completing her Post Graduate degree in marketing management with 65% marks. She was born on 18th August 1972.

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F and G study in Standard IV, V and VI with at least two in any of these Standards. Each one of them has a favourite (likes) colour, viz. black, red, yellow, green, white, blue and pink not necessarily in the same order.

B likes yellow and does not study in Standard VI. The one who likes black studies in the same Standard as E, C likes blue and studies in the same Standard as G. D studies in Standard V only with the one who likes pink. G does not study either in Standard V or VI. F does not like black. G does not like either green or white. D does not like green. E does not like pink.

31. Who likes white?

(1) A
(2) G
(3) D
(4) F
(5) None of these

32. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(1) A- Black - V
(2) D - White - IV
(3) B - Red - IV
(4) C - Blue - IV
(5) All are correct

33. What is A’s favourite colour?

(1) Red
(2) Black
(3) White
(4) Black or White
(5) None of these

34. Which of the following students study in Standard IV?

(1) BC
(2) BG
(3) BCD
(4) BCG
(5) None of these

35. Who likes red?

(1) G
(2) D
(3) A
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to lake the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.

36. Statements:

All cards are sheets.
All files are cards.

Conclusions:

I. All cards are files.
II. All files are sheets.

37. Statements:

Some questions are answers.
All questions are issues.

Conclusions:

I. At least some answers are issues.
II. Some answers are definitely not questions.

38. Statements:

All roads are streets.
No road is a highway.

Conclusions:

I. No highway is street.
II. All streets are roads.

39. Statements:

No book is library. ,
Some books are diaries.

Conclusions:

I. Atleast some libraries are diaries.
II. No diary is library.

40. Statements :

No pin is a clip.
All pins are fans.

Conclusions:

I. All fans are pins.
II. No clip is fan.

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - English Language" (South Zone)

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: English Language

Directions (1-15): Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Though the U.S. prides itself on being a leader in the world community a recent report shows that it lags far behind other industrialised countries in meeting the needs of its youngest and most vulnerable citizens. The U.S. has a higher infant mortality rate a higher proportion of low birth weight babies, a smaller proportion of babies immunized against childhood diseases and a much higher rate of adolescent pregnancies. These findings described as a “quiet crisis” requiring immediate and far-reaching action appeared in a report prepared by a task force of educators. Doctors, politicians and business people. According to the report, a fourth of the nation’s 12 million infants and toddlers live in poverty. As many as half confront risk factors that could harm their ability to develop intellectually physically and socially. Child immolations are too low more children are born into poverty more are in substandard care while their parents work and more are being raised by single parents. When taken together these and other risk factors can lead to educational and health problems that are much harder and more costly to reverse.
The crisis begins in the womb with unplanned parenthood. Women with unplanned pregnancies are less likely to seek pre-natal care. In the U.S. 80% of teenage pregnancies and 56% of all pregnancies are unplanned. The problems continue after birth where unplanned pregnancies and unstable partnerships often go hand in hand since 1950, the number of single parent families has nearly tripled. More than 25 per cent of all births today are to unmarried mothers. As the number of single parent families grows and more women enter the work force infants and toddlers are increasingly in the care of people other than their parents.

Most disturbingly recent statistics show that American parents are increasingly neglecting or abusing their children. In only four years from 1987-1991 the number of children in foster care increased by over 50 per cent. Babies under the age of one are the fastest growing category of children entering foster care. This crisis affects children under the age of three most severely the report says. Yet it is this period-from Infancy through preschool years-that sets the stage for a child’s future.

1. The main focus of the passage is on the plight of

(1) orphaned children
(2) teenage mothers
(3) low birth weight babies
(4) unwed mother
(5) None of these

2. Children failing in which age group are most severely affected by the ‘quiet crisis’?

(1) Below 1 year
(2) Below 3 year
(3) Below 3 years
(4) Between 2 and 3 years
(5) None of these

3. Which of the following does not constitute the ‘quiet crisis’ in the U.S. as per the task force report?

(1) Lower proportion of new born babies with normal weight
(2) Higher incidence of adolescent girls becoming mothers
(3) Lower rate of babies surviving childhood diseases
(4) Larger proportion of babies who are deprived of immunization
(5) Increasing cases of teenage couples getting divorced

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - General Awareness" (South Zone)

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: General Awareness

1. Which of the following organization/agencies is specifically set up to boost overall rural development in India?

(1) RBI
(2) SIDBI
(3) NABARD
(4) SEBI
(5) EXIM

2. Which of the following States has expressed its unhappiness over the agreement on sharing of Teesta water between India and Bangladesh? (Agreement was not signed because of the objection)

 (1) Jharkhand
(2) Assam
(3) Manipur
(4) Bihar
(5) West Bengal

3. Banks in India are regulated under——

(1) Companies Act, 1956
(2) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(3) Reserve Bank of India Act. 1934
(4) Special powers conferred on the RBI
(5) None of these

4. Which of the following countries is a major producer of Jute?

(1) Pakistan
(2) Afghanistan
(3) South Africa
(4) Bangladesh
(5) Sri Lanka

5. Compilation of data on industrial production in India is done by which of the following agencies / organizations?

(1) National Testing Lab
(2) Reserve Bank of India
(3) Census Commission of India
(4) Planning Commission of India
(5) Central Statistics Office

 

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Numerical Ability" (South Zone)

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: Numerical Ability

Directions (101-115): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. 6.2 × 5.5 × 4.5 = ?

(1) 156.35
(2) 135.54
(3) 155.54
(4) 145.45
(5) None of these

2.



3.

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 15-12-2012, Reasoning Ability"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Reasoning Ability

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence from a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) Walk
(2) Cry
(3) Play
(4) Study
(5) Alive

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘VIRTUAL’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

3. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘ILP’ using all the letters only once in each word ?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

4. If each alternate letter in the word ‘FLIPPER’ starting with F is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each of the remaining letters Is. changed to the previous letters in the English alphabetical series. then how many letters will appear more than once in the new arrangement?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 15-12-2012, English Language"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: English Language

Directions (1-5): In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.

1. The stunt that I recently attempted was a piece of cake.

(1) The stunt that I recently attempted was enjoyable to watch
(2) The stunt that I recently attempted was very challenging
(3) The stunt that I recently attempted was celebrated by all
(4) The stunt that I recently attempted turned out to be a failure
(5) The stunt that I recently attempted was a Simple task

2. The boy broke the window and took to his heels.

(1) The boy broke the window and fell on his heels
(2) The boy broke the window and ran away
(3) The boy broke the window with his heels
(4) The boy ran into the window
(5) The boy broke the window and robbed a pair of heels

3. I pledged myself to serve the king faithfully.

(1) I made a mistake by promising to serve the king faithfully
(2) I made a fool of myself in order to serve the king
(3) I boasted about serving the king faithfully
(4) I was forcibly made to serve the king
(5) I made a solemn and formal promise to serve the king faithfully

4. There is a crying need for improvements to our public transport system.

(1) There is an obvious need for improvements to our public transport system
(2) Tht1e is a well documented need for improvements to our public transport system.
(3) There is a minor need for improvements to our public transport system.
(4) There is a serious need for improvements to our public transport system.
(5) There is no urgency for improvements to our public transport system.

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5. In an old bookshop I happened to light upon a volume that belonged to my grandfather.

(1) In an old bookshop I happened to discard a volume that belonged to my grandfather.
(2) In an old bookshop I happened to purchase a volume that belonged to my grand-father.
(3) In an old books hop I happened to look for a volume that belonged to my grandfather.
(4) In an old bookshop I happened to discover by chance a volume that belonged to my grandfather
(5) In an old books hop I happened to reveal  a volume that belonged to my grandfather.

Directions (6-10): Pick out the most effective word/phrases from the given alternatives marked (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) given below each sentence to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningful and grammatically Correct.

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 15-12-2012, General Awareness"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: General Awareness

1. The Head of the Reserve Bank of India is officially known as

(1) President of RBI
(2) Chief Executive of RBI
(3) Managing Director (MD) or RBI
(4) Executive Director of RBI
(5) Governor of RBI

2. An engineer working in a big City in India wishes to send some money to his/her parents in a small village. How can a bank help him/her? (Both of them have accounts in the branches of the same bank.)

A. By issuing a Demand Draft.
B. By opening a letter of credit in the name of his/her parents.
C. Through E-transfer of money

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Both A and B
(5) Both A and C

3. Which of the following is the Central Bank of our country?

(1) State Bank of India
(2) Central Bank or India
(3) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(4) Reserve Bank of India
(5) None of these

4. People normally go to a bank for withdrawal or/and depositing their money. In addition to that banks provide many other services these days. Which of the following is/are such new services?

A. Sale of insurance policies.
B. Loans for higher studies for children.
C. Acceptance of bills for Telephone / Electric supply services on behalf of such organizations.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Both A and B
(5) All A. B and C

5. Who amongst the following is the Head of the RBI at present?

(1) Mr. K. V. Kamath
(2) Dr. Yaga Venugopal Reddy
(3) Mr. N. R. Narayanamurthy
(4) Mr. O. P. Bhatt
(5) D Subba Rao

6. India has different categories of Commercial banks. Which of the following is not one such category?

(1) Private Banks
(2) Commodity Banks
(3) Nationalised Banks
(4) Co-operative Banks
(5) Foreign Banks

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 15-12-2012,Computer Knowledge"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. __ key is the example of Toggle key

(1) Alt
(2) Shift
(3) Control
(4) Escape
(5) Caps Lock

2. _____ is a feature for scheduling and multiprogramming to provide an economical interactive system of two or more users

(1) Time sharing
(2) Multitasking
(3) Time tracing
(4) Multiprocessing
(5) None of these

3. ROLLBACK in a database is _____ statement

(1) TCL
(2) DCL
(3) DML
(4) DDL
(5) SDL

4. Video controller

(1) Controls the resolution of images on screen
(2) Controls the signals to be sent and received from processor for display
(3) Handles the entire electronic work behind the formation of images on the screen
(4) Is responsible for allocating pixels for formation of images
(5) Is responsible for the refresh rate of the screen/monitor

5. The disks stores information in

(1) Tables
(2) Rows and columns
(3) Blocks
(4) Tracks and sectors
(5) All of these

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 15-12-2012,Numerical Ability"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Numerical Ability

Directions (1-10): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. (3325 ÷ 25) × (152 ÷ 16) =?

(1) 1269.4
(2) 1264.9
(3) 1265.3
(4) 1263.5
(5) None of these

2.

(1) 14
(2) (196)2
(3) -14
(4) 144
(5) None of these

3.

 

(1) 15
(2) 13
(3)
(4) 12
(5) None of these

4. -15 - 27 - 88 - 63 + 255 =?

(1) 55
(2) 74
(3) 62
(4) 59
(5) None of these

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 16-12-2012, Computer Knowledge"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. The system unit—

(1) coordinates input and output devices
(2) is the container that houses electronic components
(3) is a combination of hardware and software
(4) controls and manipulates data
(5) does the arithmetic operations

2. In Word you can force a page break —

(1) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key
(2) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl + Enter
(3) By using the Insert/Section Break
(4) By changing the font size of your document
(5) None of these

3. The basic unit of a worksheet into which your enter data in Excel is called a _____

(1) tab
(2) cell
(3) box
(4) range
(5) None of these

4. To reload a Web page, press the _____ button.

(1) Redo
(2) Reload
(3) Restore
(4) Ctrl
(5) Refresh

5. Which of the following is a programming language for creating special programs like applets?

(1) Java
(2) Cable
(3) Domain name
(4) Net
(5) COBOL

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 16-12-2012, Numerical Ability"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Numerical Ability

1. In an urn there are 4 red balls and 3 blue balls. If two balls are drawn at random, find the probability that none is red.

2. On annual day of a school some chocolates were to be distributed equally among 420 children. But on that particular day, due to some reason 140 more children of another school joined them: hence each child got 1 chocolate less. How many chocolates were originally supposed to be distributed among the children?

(1) 1640
(2) 1680
(3) 1690
(4) 1600
(5) None of these

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 16-12-2012, General Awareness"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: General Awareness

1. Which of the following is not correct regarding the JICA President Award?

(1) It is given to an individual
(2) It is given to an organization
(3) It is given for making contributions in the field of development
(4) The ‘J’ in JICA denotes Jordan
(5) Delhi Metro is the recipient of the 2012 Award

2. Who among the following was never the Governor of Reserve Bank of India?

(1) Osborne Smith
(2) James Braid Taylor
(3) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(4) C.D. Deshmukh
(5) D. Subbarao

3. Which one of the following is correct regarding the Note Issuing Authority of the Reserve Bank of India?

(1) Apart from the government it has the authority / monopoly to issue currency notes other than one rupee notes/ coins
(2) One rupee notes/coins and coins of smaller denominations are put into circulation by the Central government
(3) At present the RBI issues notes in seven denominations
(4) The functions of note issue and currency management is discharged by the RBI through its head office in Mumbai
(5) None of these

4. Which of the following Is not correct regarding the National Integration Day?

(1) It aims to bring unity, peace, and spreading of love and brotherhood among fellow Indians
(2) It is also celebrated as Quami Ekata Divas
(3) It is celebrated in remembrance of Indira Gandhi
(4) It is celebrated on October 31
(5) National Integration Day celebration ends with Children’s Day

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 16-12-2012, English Language"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: English Language

Directions (1-5): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and there is no correction required mark (5) i.e. ‘No correction required’ as the answer.

1. During the recession many companies will be forced to lay oil workers.

(1) have the force to
(2) be forced into
(3) forcibly have
(4) forcefully
(5) No correction required

2. He wanted nothing else expecting to sleep after a stressful day at work.

(1) nothing better than
(2) anything else unless
(3) nothing but having
(4) nothing else than
(5) No correction required

3. Ramesh took charge of the project, within a few days of having appointed?

(1) having an appointment
(2) being appointed
(3) after being appointed
(4) appointing
(5) No correction required

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 16-12-2012, Reasoning Ability"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Reasoning Ability

Directions (1-5): Each of the questions given below is based on the given diagram. The diagram shows three circles each representing Doctors, Experienced Hospital Employee and Post Graduates.

1. Which of the following represents such people who are Experienced- Hospital Employees but are not doctors?

(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) A and C
(4) F and C
(5) G and A

2. Which of the following represents such people who are Doctors and Post Graduates but not Experienced- Hospital Employees?

(1) Only D
2) B and F
(3) Only E
(4) Only B
(5) B and E

3. Which of the following represents such Doctors who are also Experienced- Hospital Employees?

(1) G and F
(2) D and G
(3) Only A
(4) Only G
(5) Band F

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, English Language"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: English Language

Directions (1-5): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these. only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer.

1. I. Future generations will be left with a __ of pollution and destruction.

II. They each received a __ of $ 10000.

(1) legacy
(2) sum
(3) fortune
(4) amount
(5) inheritable

2. I. He was ––––– in bringing about an end to the Conflict.

II. Mr. Hart Prasad Chaurasia is an exponent of __ music.

(1) instrument
(2) instrumental
(3) keen
(4) instructor
(5) popular

3. I. Many __ men remarry and have second families.

II. When he was depressed. he felt utterly __ from reality.

(1) divided
(2) separate
(3) disturbed
(4) divorced
(5) destined

4. I. Most of our employees get __ abroad at some stage.

II. The aircraft and its crew were __ missing.

(1) announced
(2) arrested
(3) sent
(4) posted
(5) stationed

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5. I. He admired his __ in the mirror.

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, Reasoning"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: Reasoning

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Seven persons – A, B, C, D, E, F and G - are standing in a straight line facing north at equal distances but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is a different professional viz. Actor. Reporter, Doctor, Engineer, Lawyer. Teacher and Painter but not necessarily in the same order.

G is standing at the fifth position to the left of C. Reporter is standing at the third position to the right of G. F is standing at the fifth position to the right of A. E is standing second to the left of B. Engineer is standing the second position to the left of D. Three persons are sitting between Engineer and Painter. Doctor is to the immediate left of Engineer. Lawyer is to the immediate right of teacher.

1. How many persons are there to the left of Reporter?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

2. Which o f the following pairs of persons are sitting at the extreme ends?

(1) A and Actor
(2) Engineer and C
(3) Doctor and F
(4) F and Lawyer
(5) Teacher and Doctor

3. Who among the following is Sitting exactly in the middle of the row?

(1) Doctor
(2) F
(3) Lawyer
(4) B (5) Teacher

4. Who among the following is sitting second to the right of Teacher?

(1) Painter
(2) B
(3) A
(4) Actor
(5) Lawyer

5. Who among the following are the immediate neighbours of Painter?

(1) Actor and Teacher
(2) B and Lawyer
(3) B and Engineer
(4) Reporter and C
(5) Doctor and Lawyer

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, Computer Knowledge"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. The advantage of a LAN is

(1) Sharing peripherals
(2) Backing up your data
(3) Saving all your data
(4) Accessing the Web
(5) Automatic printing of data

2. Of the 5 words listed below which one is the odd one out?

(1) Applications
(2) Peripherals
(3) Programs
(4) Software
(5) Operating System

3. What type of device is a computer printer?

(1) Input
(2) Input / Output
(3) Software
(4) Storage
(5) Output

4. What is the biggest number you can get with 8 bits?

(1) 256
(2) 128
(3) 1000
(4) 255
(5) 1024

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, General Awareness"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: General Awareness

1. Derivatives Contract which gives the buyer/holder of the contract the right (but not the obligation) to buy/sell the underlying asset at a predetermined price within or at end of a specified period is known as

(1) Futures Contract
(2) Option Contract
(3) Index Futures contract
(4) Mini Derivative Contract
(5) None of these

2. The first Yash Chopra Memorial Award has been given to

(1) A. R. Rahman
(2) Lata Mangeshkar
(3) Amitabh Bachchan
(4) Rishi Kapoor
(5) Gulzar

3. CASA ratio of bank indicate the

(1) Bank’s deposits
(2) Bank’s Non Performing Assets
(3) Bank’s liabilities
(4) Bank’s base rate
(5) Bank’s total assets

4. The process by which LIC holder can transfer all rights, title and interest under a policy contract to any third person is known as

(1) Subrogation
(2) Escrow
(3) Mortgage
(4) Assignment
(5) Nomination

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, Numerical Ability"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: Numerical Ability

1. The ratio of monthly salaries of two persons. A and B is 8:7. If the salary of A is increased by 20% and that of B by 11% the new ratio becomes 96: 77. What is A’s salary?

(1) Rs.800
(2) Rs.700
(3) Rs.750
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

2. Simple interest on a certain sum at 7 p.c. p.a for four years is Rs. 3584. What will be the compound interest on the same principal at 4 p.c. p.a. in two years?

(1) Rs. 1054.48
(2) Rs. 1044.48
(3) Rs. 1044.84
(4) Rs. 1064.84
(5) None of these

3. The cost of pure milk is Rs. 16 per litre. On adding water the mixture is sold at Rs. 15/litre. In this way the milkman earns 25% profit. What is the ratio of milk and water in the mixture?

(1) 25 : 7
(2) 7 : 25
(3) 15 : 1
(4) 1 : 15
(5) None of these

4. Four persons - M. N, O and P-distributed a sum of Rs. 44352 among themselves. M got th of total amount. N got th part of the remaining amount. Thereafter, the remaining amount was divided between O and P in teh ratio 3 : 2. The amount received by P is

(1) Rs. 1648
(2) Rs. 1848
(3) Rs. 1884
(4) Rs. 1684
(5) Rs.1448

5. Three persons A. B and C start a business with Rs. 12800. Rs. 16800 and Rs. 9600 respectively. At the end of the year. B received Rs. 13125 as share in total profit. What is the share of Mr. C in the profit?

(1) Rs.7850
(2) Rs.7550
(3) Rs.7500
(4) Rs.8500
(5) None of these

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6. One-third of a diagonal of a square is units. What is the measure or the side or the square?

(1) 6 units
(2) 3 units
(3) 18 units
(4) 9 units
(5) None of these

7. 56 men can do a job in 14 days. How many additional men are required to do the same job in 8 days?

(1) 42
(2) 24
(3) 52
(4) 25
(5) None of these

8. A shopkeeper has goods of worth Rs. 6000. He sold hall’ or the goods at a gain of 12%. At what profit percent should he sell the remaining half of the stock so that he gets 18% profit on the whole?

(1) 25%
(2) 24%
(3) 18%
(4) 21%
(5) None of these

9. A 210 metre long train crosses a man running at 9 kmph in opposite direction in 6 seconds. Find the speed or the train.

(1) 98 kmph
(2) 97 kmph
(3) 107 kmph
(4) 117 kmph
(5) None of these

10. Average score of a cricketer in 13 matches is 42 runs. If the average score in the first five matches be 54 runs what is the average score in the last eight matches?

(1) 36.5
(2) 34.5
(3) 35.4
(4) 38.5
(5) None of these

11. The perimeter- of a rectangle whose length is 6 metre more than its breadth is 84 metre. What is the area of the triangle whose base is equal to the diagonal of the rectangle and height is equal to the length of the rectangle?

(1) 360 sq. metre
(2) 360 sq. metre
(3) 380 metre
(4) 400 sq. metre
(5) None of these

12. Due to decrease of 10% in the price of tea per kg. a consumer buys 250gm of tea more than before for Rs. 270. What is the Original price of tea ?

(1) Rs. 130/kg
(2) Rs. 120/kg
(3) Rs. 115/kg
(4) Rs. 140/kg
(5) None of these

Directions (93-107): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

13.(34.5 × 14 × 42) ÷ 2.8 = ?

(1) 7445
(2) 7425
(3) 7245
(4) 7435
(5) None of these

14. -676.76 + 1237.87 + 897.34 - ? = 1294.25

(1) 168.2
(2) 164.2
(3) 154.2
(4) 164.8
(5) None of these

15. 3/8 of {4624 ÷ (564 - 428)} = ?

(1) 11.75
(2) 12.57
(3) 21.75
(4) 12.75
(5) None of these

16.

 

(1) 18
(2) 17
(3) 28
(4) 19
(5) None of these

17. (216) 4 ÷ (36) 4 x 6 5 = (6)?

(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 7
(4) 10
(5) 11

18. 456 ÷ 24 × 38 - 958 + 364 = ?

(1) 228
(2) 124
(3) 128
(4) 138
(5) 145

19.

 

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2014, Computer Knowledge"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. ......... refers to the unauthorised copying and distibution of software.

(1) Hacking
(2) Software piracy
(3) Software literacy
(4) Cracking
(5) Copyright

2. Which of the following is an operating system?

(1) Linux
(2) Debugger
(3) Mozilla
(4) Google Chrome
(5) Intel 8085

3. A collection of programs that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called

(1) operating system
(2) computer
(3) office
(4) compiler
(5) interpreter

4. Which of the following statements is a false conceiving file names?

(1) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name.
(2) The file name comes before the dot (.).
(3) File extension is another name for the type.
(4) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name.
(5) Files may share the same name or the same extension, but not both at the same time.

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5. Which is not a storage device?

(1) Printer
(2) CD
(3) Hard Disk
(4) Floppy Disk
(5) DVD

6. ......... tags, placed on animal’s body can be used to record and truck in a database all of the animal’s movements.

(1) POS
(2) RFID
(3) PPS
(4) GPS
(5) Other than those given as options

7. Which of the following cables can transmit data at high speeds?

(1) Flat cables
(2) Coaxial cable
(3) Optic fibre cable
(4) Twisted pair cable
(5) UTP cable

8. The hardware device or software program that sends messages between networks is known as a

(1) bridge
(2) backbone
(3) router
(4) gateway
(5) Other than those given as options

9. If you are performing Windows 98 operating system to Windows XP you are performing a(n)

(1) push up
(2) China
(3) patch
(4) pull down
(5) update

10. ......... technology enables you to carry a powerful navigational aid in websites.

(1) Convergence
(2) Locator
(3) Sampling rate
(4) Synchronisation
(5) Global Positioning System

11. Which of the following is not true about RAM?

(1) RAM is the same as hard disk storage.
(2) RAM is a temporary storage area.
(3) RAM is volatile.
(4) RAM stands for Random Access Memory
(5) Information stored in RAM is gone when you turn the computer off.

12. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT

(1) spyware
(2) spam
(3) hackers
(4) identity theft
(5) viruses

13. Which of the following commands in Office 2007, can be used to go to first cell in the current row?

(1) Tab
(2) Shift + Tab
(3) Esc + Home
(4) Shift + Home
(5) Home

14. Software such as Viruses, Worms and Trojan Horses that has a malicious content, is known as

(1) malicious software (malware)
(2) adware
(3) scareware
(4) spyware
(5) firewall

15. Chip is a common nickname for a(n)

(1) transistor
(2) resistor
(3) integrated circuit
(4) semi-conductor
(5) other than those given as options

16. What is extension of Microsoft Word document?

(1) doc
(2) ppt
(3) dcc
(4) bd
(5) hml

17. Which of the following enables to determine how often a user visited a website?

(1) Hackers
(2) Spammers
(3) Phish
(4) Identity thefts
(5) Cookies

18. To move to the bottom of a document while working on MS Word, which command is used?

(1) Home key
(2) End key
(3) Ctrl + Page Down
(4) Insert key
(5) Ctrl key + End key

19. What is a person called who uses a computer to cause harm to people or destroy critical systems?

(1) Cyber Terrorist
(2) Black-hat Hacker
(3) Cyber Cracker
(4) Hacktivist
(5) Other than those given as options

20. ........ can interpret voice data into words that can be understood by the computer.

(1) Speech input hardware
(2) Speech recognition software
(3) Word recognition software
(4) Talking software
(5) Other than those given as options

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2014, Numerical Ability"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Numerical Ability

1. 161. In an examination, a student scores 6 marks for every correct answer and loses 4 marks for every wrong answer. If he attempted 80 questions and obtained 310 marks, how many questions did he attempted correctly?

(1) 59
(2) 67
(3) 63
(4) 65
(5) 61

2. The diameter of a wheel is 49 m. How many revolutions will it make to cover a distance of 3200 m?

(1) 17
(2) 27
(3) 24
(4) 22
(5) 18

3. The average run of a cricketer after 18 matches was 56.5. If he made 101 runs and 123 runs in 19th and 20th match respectively. What is his new average run after 20th match?
 

(1) 62.05
(2) 64.45
(3) 60.75
(4) 61.25
(5) 63.85

4. Two types of rice (type 1 and type 2) were mixed in the respective ratio of 1 : 3. The mixture was then sold @ 75.60 per kg to gain a profit of 20%. If the price of type 1 rise is Rs. 75 per kg, what is the price of type 2 price per kg?

(1) Rs. 55
(2) Rs. 53
(3) Rs. 59
(4) Rs. 57
(5) Rs. 62

5. Mr. Shah’s monthly income is Rs. 54550. In an entire year, he spends 32% of his annual salaries on groceries, he spend 12% on repairs and 10% he pays to his servant. If half of the remaining amount he invests in fixed deposits, what is the amount invested by him in fixed deposits?

(1) Rs. 150558
(2) Rs. 155240
(3) Rs. 152610
(4) Rs. 158789
(5) Rs. 154336

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6. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in hours when opened simultaneously. If B alone can takes 2 hours less than A alone takes to fill the tank completely. How much does A alone take to fill the tank?

(1) 8 h
(2) 12 h
(3) 4 h
(4) 6 h
(5) 10 h

7. A man can row 10.2 km downstream in 18 minutes. If the speed of the stream is 3.5 km/h, how much time he would take to cover 121.5 km upstream? (in hours)

8. The respective ratio of two numbers is 16 : 21. If the first number is increased by 30% and the second number is decreased by 20%, what will be the respective ratio of the first and the second number?

(1) 32 : 21
(2) 26 : 21
(3) 25 : 21
(4) 20 : 21
(5) 22 : 21

9. A bag of fruits was distributed among 4 students P, Q, R and S. P took 3/8th of the fruits. Q took 1/5th of the remaining fruits and the remaining fruits were equally distributed among R and S. What fraction of fruits did R get?

10. The present population of village P is 2.5 time the present population of village Q. If after a year the population of village Q is 16537 and has been increased at a rate of 15%. What is the present population of village P?
 

(1) 34740
(2) 38560
(3) 36820
(4) 35950
(5) 30350

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

11. 29 31 37 49 69 ?
 

(1) 108
(2) 99
(3) 94
(4) 103
(5) 88

12. 13 13 20 37.5 83 ?

(1) 233
(2) 216
(3) 234
(4) 235
(5) 239

13. 17 16 30 87 344 ?

(1) 1735
(2) 1760
(3) 1660
(4) 1685
(5) 1715

14. 8 94 12.2 17.8 29 ?

(1) 53.6
(2) 51.4
(3) 52.1
(4) 48.6
(5) 49.8

15. 26 12 11 15.5 30 ?

(1) 72
(2) 68
(3) 74
(4) 82
(5) 78

16. Arunika brought some articles and sold half of them at Rs. 22103 thereby making a profit of 15%/ At what price should sell the rest of them so as to earn a total profit of 25%?

(1) Rs. 25947
(2) Rs. 23528
(3) Rs. 27130
(4) Rs. 24682
(5) Rs. 26240

17. The height of a triangle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose diagonal is m and the base of the same triangle is equal to the side of the square whose area is 784 m2. What is the area of the triangle? (in m2)

(1) 504
(2) 558
(3) 478
(4) 522
(5) 496

18. Arunavo invested total sum of Rs. 16000 in two schemes (A and B) for two years. Scheme A offers compound interest (compounded annually) at the rate of 10% per annum and scheme B offers simple interest at the rate of 12% per annum. If the total interest earned by him from both the schemes after two years is Rs. 3504. How much money (principle) did he invest in scheme B?

(1) Rs. 4800
(2) Rs. 4200
(3) Rs. 4600
(4) Rs. 4400
(5) Rs. 5200

19. Ravi is older than Simar by 4 years. Four years from now, the respective ratio between Ravi’s age and Simar’s age will be 9:8. What will be the Ravi’s age 15 years ago? (in years)

(1) 19
(2) 36
(3) 17
(4) 25
(5) 21

20. A started a business by investing Rs. 33600. After three month B joined him by investing Rs. 23100. After 3 months of B’s investment, C joined them by investing Rs. 18900. If the total annual profit earned by them is Rs. 26450, what is C’s share of profit?

(1) Rs. 4630
(2) Rs. 4080
(3) Rs. 4260
(4) Rs. 4420
(5) Rs. 4140

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2014, General Knowledge"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: General Knowledge

1. India has recently signed a deal to build a $ 100 billion 900 MW hydro-power project on Arun river with

(1) Bhutan
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Myanmar
(4) Nepal
(5) China

2. Indian player ‘Anirban Lahiri’ is associated with the game of

(1) rifle shooting
(2) golf
(3) billiards
(4) wrestling
(5) chess

3. The abbreviation ‘ATS’ stand for

(1) Anti Terrorism Sensor
(2) Anti Terrorist Set-up
(3) Anti Terrorist System
(4) Anti Terrorism Squad
(5) Anti Terrorism Scheme

4. China has recently announced that it has completed a major hydro-power dam in Tibet over the river Yartung Zangbo known in India as

(1) Indus river
(2) Brahmaputra river
(3) Zanskar river
(4) Ranganadi river
(5) Doyang river

5. According to which of the following acts, a fixed deposit in a bank should not be paid in cash if it is Rs. 20000 and above?

(1) Wealth Tax Act
(2) RBI Act
(3) Income Tax Act
(4) Banking Regulation Act
(5) Negotiation Instruments Act

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2014,English Language"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5): Choose the best word that fits in the meaning of the sentences to make grammatical coherent.

1.

I. Governments in     `these countries should create education systems since ......... good schools the bulk of people entering the world force will not have the skills they need.
II. We cannot process colour, details of rapid changes in our surroundings ......... the cone shaped cells packed around the centre of the retina.

(1) lack
(2) missing
(3) eficient
(4) without
(5) absence

2.

I. Japan is investing in strengthening bonds with ASEAN countries and Japanese countries recently won a $ 370 million contract to start .......... a new underground railway system in Jakarta.

II. The cost of ......... space vehicles is high no doubt, but the costs of complying with legal and regulatory paperwork and rules is huge too.

(1) construction
(2) manufacture
(3) launch
(4) assembly
(5) building

3.

I. A troubled student and his PhD guide ........... a way for websites to reduce the incidence of spam which troubled internet users in the 2000s.
II. One of the biggest drawback of concrete is that it often develop cracks and scientists have now .......... self-healing concrete.

(1) create
(2) devised
(3) develop
(4) thought
(5) invent

4.

I. Politicians have promised to ........ the goal of eradicating extreme poverty many times but have failed because they cannot agree about what exactly counts as poverty and how exactly to measure it.
II. Reserve Bank hoped that a cut in its benchmark rate will .......... a reduction in inflation and improve confidence in the economy.

(1) achieve
(2) get
(3) end
(4) finish
(5) undertake

5.

I. According to some exports, subsidising crop insurance to a large extent may be bad for the environment since farmers may take .......... such as farming on food plains or sleep hills.
II. In the 1990s, Germany was known as the ‘sick man of Europe’ and had high unemployment but its success today is on account of the huge ........ it took in reforming the labour market.

(1) danger
(2) chance
(3) possibility
(4) risks
(5) threats

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2014, Reasoning"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the given questions.

W 2 X T 3 * Z b U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W E J 6 & 8 K @ 7 +

1. If all the symbols are dropped from the arrangement, then which will be the eleventh element from the right end of the given arrangement?

(1) 9
(2) G
(3) D
(4) 5
(5) P

2. How many such symbols are there in the given arrangment each of which is immediately followed by a letter and also immediately preceded by a number?

(1) More than three
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None
(5) One

3. Which of the following is sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the given arrangement?

(1) b
(2) *
(3) U
(4) Z
(5) 4

4. What should come in place of the question mark(?) in the following series based on the given arrangement?

WXT 3ZU 4PQ G5J ?

(1) W2b
(2) 6%8
(3) 6%+
(4) WXZ
(5) &8+

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) TW3
(2) @%7
(3) G9D
(4) b3U
(5) $9Q

 

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IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015) "Numerical Ability"


IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015)


Subject: Numerical Ability

(Based on Memory)

161. In an examination, a student scores 6 marks for every correct answer and loses 4 marks for every wrong answer. If he attempted 80 questions and obtained 310 marks, how many questions did he attempted correctly?

(1) 59
(2) 67
(3) 63
(4) 65
(5) 61

162. The diameter of a wheel is 49 m. How many revolutions will it make to cover a distance of 3200 m?

(1) 17
(2) 27
(3) 24
(4) 22
(5) 18

163. The average run of a cricketer after 18 matches was 565. If he made 101 runs and 123 runs in 19th and 20th match respectively. What is his new average run after 20th match?

(1) 62.05
(2) 64.45
(3) 60.45
(4) 61.25
(5) 63.85

164. Two types of rice (type 1 and type 2) were mixed in the respective ratio of 1 : 3. The mixture was then sold at the rate of Rs. 75.60 per kg to gain a profit of 20%. If the price of type 1 rice is Rs. 75 per kg, what is the price of type 2 rice per kg?

(1) Rs. 55
(2) Rs. 53
(3) Rs. 59
(4) Rs. 57
(5) Rs. 62

165. Mr. Shah’s monthly income is Rs. 54550. In an entire year, he spends 32% of his annual salaries on groceries, he spend 12% on repairs and 10% he pays to his servant. If half of the remaining amount he invests in fixed deposits, what is the amount invested by him in fixed deposits?

(1) Rs. 150558
(2) Rs. 155240
(3) Rs. 152610
(4) Rs. 158789
(5) Rs. 154336

166. Two pipes A and B can fill tank in h when opened simultaneously. If B alone can takes 2 h less than A alone takes to fill the tank compleletely. How much does A alone take to fill the tank?

(1) 8 h
(2) 12 h
(3) 4 h
(4) 6 h
(5) 10 h

167. A man can now 10.2 km downstream in 18 min. If the speed of the stream in 3.5 km/h, how much time (in h) he would take to cover 121.5 km upstream?

168. The respective ratio of two numer is 16 : 21. If the first number is increased by 30% and the second number is decreased by 20%, what will be the respective ratio of the first and the second number?

(1) 32 : 21
(2) 26 : 21
(3) 25 : 21
(4) 20 : 21
(5) 22 : 21

169. A bag of fruits was distributed among 4 studens P, Q, R and S. P took 3/8th of the fruits. Q took 1/5th of the remaining fruits and the remaining fruits were equally distributed among R and S. What fraction of fruits did R get?

170. The present population of village P is 2.5 times the present population of village Q. If after a year the population of village Q is 16537 and has been increased at a rate of 15%. What is the present population of village P?

(1) 34740
(2) 38560
(3) 36820
(4) 35950
(5) 30350

Directions (171-175): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

171. 29 31 37 49 69 ?

(1) 108
(2) 99
(3) 94
(4) 103
(5) 88

172. 13 13 20 37.5 83 ?

(1) 233
(2) 216
(3) 234
(4) 235
(5) 239

173. 17 16 30 87 344 ?

(1) 1735
(2) 1760
(3) 1660
(4) 1685
(5) 1715

174. 8 9.4 12.2 17.8 29 ?

(1) 53.6
(2) 51.4
(3) 52.1
(4) 48.6
(5) 49.8

175. 26 12 11 15.5 30 ?

(1) 72
(2) 68
(3) 74
(4) 82
(5) 78

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IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015) "General Knowledge"


IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015)


Subject: General Knowledge

(Based on Memory)

121. India has recently signed a deal to build a $ 1 billion 900 MW hydro-power project on Arun river with

(1) Bhutan
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Myanmar
(4) Nepal
(5) China

122. Indian player ‘Anirban Lahiri’ is associated with the game of

(1) rifle shooting
(2) golf
(3) billiards
(4) wrestling
(5) chess

123. The abbreviation ATS stand for

(1) Anti Terrorism Sensor
(2) Anti Terrorist Set-up
(3) Anti Terrorist System
(4) Anti Terrorism Squad
(5) Anti Terrorism Scheme

124. China has recently announced that it has completed a major hydro-power darn in Tibet over the river Yartung Zangbo known in India as

(1) Indus river
(2) Brahmaputra rive
(3) Zanskar river
(4) Ranganadi rive
(5) Doyanq river

125. According to which of the following acts, a fixed deposit in a bank should not be paid in cash if it is Rs. 20000 and above?

(1) Wealth Tax Act
(2) RBI Act
(3) Income Tax Act
(4) Banking Regulation Act
(5) Negotiation Instruments Act

126. The Commonwealth Association for Public Administration and Management’s (CAP AM) International Innovation Awards for 2014 has recently been conferred upon the Indian State of

(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Gujarat
(4) Karnataka
(5) Maharashtra

127. In 2016, the Olympic Games shall be held in

(1) Beijing (China)
(2) Tokyo (Japan)
(3) Rio de Janeiro (Brazil)
(4) Seoul (South Korea)
(5) Bangkok (Thailand)

128. Banks borrow money from the RBI at which of the following rates?

(1) CRR
(2) Base Rate
(3) Repo Rate
(4) SLR
(5) Reverse Repo Rate

129. Which of the following is not an online travel safe?

(1) Goibibo.com
(2) Thomascook.in
(3) Zomato.com
(4) Arzoo.com
(5) Expedia.co.in

130. Under the PMJDY, the government is looking to open at least . . . . . . . .. basic bank accounts for unbanked tambles in the country.

(1) 7.5 crore
(2) 1.8 crore
(3) 5.7 crore
(4) 3 crore
(5) 4.5 crore

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