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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2017-QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2017 


:: ::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE:: ::


Note : There were 4 shifts on 7 Oct. In Some shifts 5 questions on quadratic were asked in place of 5 series.

General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2017-REASONING ABILITY

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2017 


:: REASONING ABILITY ::


Direction (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
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STUDY KITS: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2017 - ENGLISH LANGUAGE

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2017


:: ENGLISH LANGUAGE ::


Direction (01-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Result) State Bank of India (Probationary Officers) SBI-PO :Prelims Exam Result-2018

(Result) State Bank of India (Probationary Officers) SBI-PO :Prelims Exam Result-2018

Phase - II (Mains Examination) will be held on 04/08/2018. Candidates are advised to visit Bank's website www.sbi.co.in or https://bank.sbi/careers to download Call-Letter for Mains Exam from 20-07-2018 onwards.

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
General: 

(Download) State Bank of India : SBI CLERK Exam Admit Card-2018

(Download) State Bank of India : SBI CLERK Exam Admit Card-2018

Exam Name: SBI Clerk Exam-2018

Bank Name: State Bank of India (SBI)

Year: 2018

Commencement of Call letter Download : 06 - 06 - 2018

Closure of Call letter Download : 30 - 06 - 2018

Click Here To Download Admit Card

Jobs: 

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2016 (Held on: 01-01-2017) "Reasoning"


IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2016 (Held on: 01-01-2017) "Reasoning"


Directions (1-4): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

In a certain code language, “work for earning money” is coded as “Go3 None5 Xor4 Farnin7”, “like six years passed” is coded as “Ti3 Qasse6 Zear5 Mik4” “hence good amount received” is coded as “Seceive8 Lenc5 Hoo4 Bmoun6”

1.What is the code for last earning was money ?

(1) Xa3 Mas4 Noney5 Farnin7
(2) None5 Xa3 Mas4 Darnin7
(3) None5 Mas4 Farnin7 Xa3
(4) Mas4 Lone5 Farnin7 Xa3
(5) Other than those given as options

2.If “money makes man perfect” is coded as “Nake5 Qerfec7 Na3 None5”, then what is the code for good people always perfect?

(1) Qeop16 Hoo4 Blway6
(2) Hoo4 Qerfec7 Blway6 Qeop16
(3) Qeople6 Hoo4 Qerfec7Blway6
(4) Qerfec7 Blway6 Qeop15 Hoo5
(5) Other than those given as options

3.What is the code for “hence always wrong hance”?

(1) Blway6 Lance5 Xron5 Lenc5
(2) Lanc5 Xron5 Blway5 Lenc5
(3) Lanc5 Xron5 Blway5 Lenc5
(4) Blway6 Lenc5 Lanc5 Xron5
(5) Lanc6 Xron6 Blway5 Lenc5

4.“Farming” is coded as :

(1) Earmin7
(2) Gramin8
(3) Garing8
(4) Earnin7
(5) Garmin7

Directions (5-10): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

There are five units i.e. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Each unit has a different height. Also each unit contains books and boxes. Unit 2 is above Unit 1 and Unit 3 is above Unit 2 and so on. Every unit belongs to different country i.e. Beijing, Paris, London, Sydney and Zurich. The total height of all five units is equal to 252 ft.

  • Total height of unit is equal to the total height of books plus total height of boxes in each unit.
  • Height of books is not equal to the height of boxes, unless specified.

The books belongs to London is an even unit. The total height of Unit 1 is 75 ft. Sydney is not a Unit 1. The total height of unit, which belongs to Sydney, is 55 ft. There is only one gap between London and Paris. The height of books and height of boxes in Unit 3 are equal. The height of books in Unit 2 is not less than 30 ft. The books in Unit 4 are four more than books, which is in Unit 3. The total height of London is not 37 ft. The total height of unit, which contains 37 ft is not taking the place which is immediately above a unit, which contains ’20 ft more than the unit, which belongs to Sydney. The height of boxes in Unit 2 is 23 ft. Unit belongs to Zurich does not contain the equal height of books and boxes. The total height ofUnit 2 is an odd number and height is more than 50 ft and less than 55 ft. Unit 1 contains 23 ft height of boxes more than Unit 4 contains height of boxes and Unit 5 contains 7 ft height of books less than Unit 1 contains.

5.What is the total height in Unit 3 ?

(1) 37 ft
(2) 32 ft
(3) 53 ft
(4) 75 ft
(5) 80 ft

6.Unit 3 belongs to which country?

(1) Paris
(2) Zurich
(3) Sydney
(4) Beijing
(5) London

7.If ‘Sydney’ is related to 37 ft in the same way as Beijing is related to 53 ft. Which of the following is `Paris’ related to, following the same pattern ?

(1) 53 ft
(2) 37 ft
(3) 75 ft
(4) 32 ft
(5) 30 ft

8.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group ?

(1) Sydney
(2) 32 ft
(3) 75 ft
(4) Paris
(5) 37 ft

9.What is the height of box in Unit 4 ?

(1) 23 ft
(2) 17 ft
(3) 27 ft
(4) 40 ft
(5) 20 ft

10.Which unit contains 30 ft book ?

(1) Unit 2
(2) Unit 3
(3) Unit 1
(4) Unit 5
(5) Unit 4

Directions (11-15): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Two buses-A and B start their journey from same depot but not necessary in the same order. Bus A starts moving 6 km towards north direction to -Point P and then takes a right turn and moves 18 km to reach Point R, then take a left turn and ? roves 12 km to reach Point S. Points P, Q and R lies in a same line. Distance between P and Q is half of the distance between Q and R. Bus B starts to move towards west 2 km more than Point Q and R from Depot and reach Point W, then take a right turn and walk 18 km to reach Point U. U, V and W lies in the same line as distance of V and W is double of the distance between U and V. From Point U Bus B take a right turn and reach Point S. Point T lies between U and S in exact midway.

11.What is the total distance between U and S ?

(1) 29 km
(2) 32 km
(3) 36 km
(4) 30 km
(5) 28 km

12.In which direction is Point T with respect to Point W?

(1) North
(2) South
(3) North-west
(4) North-east
(5) South-west

13.A boy wants to go depot and starts walking towards north from Point W. After reaching Point V, he suddenly realize that he is going to wrong direction. So what is the shortest route from Point V to bus depot?

(1) Back to Point W then go to depot from there
(2) From Point V he should go to east direction 14km than move toward south and reach depot
(3) From Point V going towards north to reach Point U from there, he should reach Point S then Point R then Point P and then depot.
(4) Both (1) and (2) are shortest routes.
(5) Back to Point V he should go to west direction 14 km then move towards north and reach depot.

14.What is the distance between T and S ?

(1) 14 km
(2) 12 km
(3) 16 km
(4) 18 km
(5) 6 km

15.Bus A is moving in which direction currently ?

(1) West
(2) North-east
(3) South
(4) North
(5) East

Directions (16-20) : In each of these questions, two statements marked as I and II are provided. These may have a cause and effect relationship or may have independent causes or be the effects of independent causes.
Give answer:

(1) If statement I is cause and statement II is its effect.
(2) If statement II is cause and statement I is its effect.
(3) If statements I and II are independent causes.
(4) If statements I and, II are effects of independent causes.
(5) If statements I and II are effects of common causes.

16.Statements :

I. It is the bounden duty of each member of the civil society to control the air pollution by contributing their best in this endeavour to safeguard the health of their countrymen.
II. The alarming air pollution in our country is causing asthma cases to constantly multiply.

17.Statements :

I. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for the past few months.
II. The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the last few months.

18.Statements :

I. There has been an increase in the underground water level column at all places in Delhi due to the last year’s monsoon rains.
II. Many trains had to be cancelled last year due to water-logging on the railway tracks.

19.Statements

I. The prices of sugar had risen very sharply in Indian markets last year.
II. The government imported large quantities of sugar as per trade agreements with other countries last year.

20.Statements :

I. The government has recently fixed the fees for professional courses offered by the unaided institutions which are much lower than the fees charged last year.
II. The parents of the aspiring students launched a severe agitation last year protesting against the high fees charged by the unaided institutions.

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Jobs: 
General: 

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2016 (Held on: 01-01-2017) "English Language"


IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2016 (Held on: 01-01-2017) "English Language"


Directions (1-5): In each of the following questions, each sentence has some blank spaces. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words out of the given alternatives.

1. Activists in the country have long protested its……… society that essentially……………. women from travelling, marrying or attending college without permission from a male relative, who is called their ……………

(1) benevolent, forbid, steward
(2) pre-Adamite, prevent, custodian
(3) pre-eminent, restrict, protector
(4) venerable, condemns, manciple
(5) patriarchal, prohibits, guardian

2. Individual tax rates in the country are substantially…………. compared to tax rates in the US and Western Europe but slightly than those in emerging markets………………..

(1) slow, more
(2) decreasing, increased
(3) lesser, much
(4) lower, higher
(5) stricter, lower

3. The regulator body is likely to………. stricter trading norms, create special liquidity window on the budget day to combat potential market………..

(1) implement, versatile
(2) let, flexibility
(3) remove, steady
(4) ignore, dynamic
(5) impose, volatility

4. Sales of consumer packaged goods companies are…………………….. to record their slowest growth in two years as customers cut back their expenditure even on……………….. items and groceries.

(1) expected, essential
(2) willing, regularly
(3) estimate, necessary
(4) approximately, daily
(5) determined, important

5. The bad loan ratios are………………….. to be uglier in the fourth quarter given the……………….. loan growth.

(1) moved, frail
(2) likely, weaker
(3) tend, skewed
(4) intend, meagre
(5) going, swiftly

Directions (6-13): Read the the following passage and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Though global multinationals account for only 2% of the world’s jobs, they own or orchestrate the supply chains that account for over 50% of world trade, they make up 40% of the value of the West’s stock markets; and they own most of the world’ intellectual property. Although the idea of being at the top of the food chain makes these companies sound all-conquering, rickety and overextended are often more fitting adjectives. Companies became obsessed with internationalising their customers, production, capital and management. In 2016multinationals’ cross-border investment fell by 10-15%, the share of trade accounted for by cross-border supply chains has stagnated since 2007 and the proportion of sales that Western firms make outside their home region has shrunk. They are in retreat. To understand why this is, consider the three parties that made the boom possible, investors, the “headquarters countries” in which global firms are domiciled, and the “host countries” that received multinational investment. Each thought that multinational firms would provide superior financial or economic performance. Investors saw a huge potential for economies of scale. As China, India and the Soviet Union opened up,- and as Europe liberalised itself into a single market, firms could sell the same product to more people.
Moreover, they saw ‘geographical arbitrage’ i.e. from the rich world they could get management, capital, brands and technology and from the emerging world they could get cheap workers and raw materials as well as lighter rules on pollution. These advantages led investors to think global firms would grow faster and make higher profits. That was true for a while, not today. The profits of the top 700-odd multinational firms have dropped by 25% over the past five years, according to FTSE, an index firm. The weakness of many currencies against the dollar is part of the story; the stump in commodity prices, and thus the profits of oil firms, mining firms and the like is a factor too. Another 10% of deterioration is due to the collapse of banks. Individual bosses will often blame one-off factors, currency moves, the economic collapse of Venezuela, currency swaps and the like can be thought of, a depression in Europe, a crackdown on graft in China, and so on. But the deeper explanation is that both the advantages of scale and those of arbitrage have worn away.
As a result, firms with a domestic focus are winning market share by 2%. In Brazil, two local banks, have trounced global lenders. What about the “headquarters countries”? In the 1990s and 2000s they wanted their national champions to go global in order to become bigger and brainier. The mood changed after the financial crisis.
Multinational firms started to be seen as agent of inequality. They created jobs abroad, but not at home. As a result, the tapestry of rules designed to help business globally is fraying. Takeovers of western firms now often come with strings attached by governments to safeguard local jobs and plants. There are gathering clouds in host countries as well. China has been turning the screws on foreign firms in a push for “Indigenous innovation”. Bosses say that more products have to be sourced locally and intellectual property often ends up handed over to local partners. Strategic local partners. Strategic industries, including the internet, are out of bounds to foreign investment. Many fear that China’s approach will be mimicked around the developing world, forcing multinational firms to invest more locally and create more jobs-a mirror image of the pressure placed on them at home.

6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

A. Multinationals wanted their champions to go global in 1990s and 2000s.
B. Financial measures to address the situation in Venezuela.
C. Breaking of large corporate entities.

(1) Only C
(2) Only B
(3) Only A
(4) B and C
(5) All A, B and C

7. Which of the following can be said about the multinationals in the context of the passage?

A. Investors in multinational firms may stop investing.
B. There is resistance to multinational firms in their own domestic markets.
C. Multinationals are struggling.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) A and B
(4) All A, B and C
(5) A and C

8. Which of the following phrases from the passage can be replaced by ‘trouble’ in the context of the passage?

A. Out of bounds
B. Economies of scale
C. Gathering clouds
D. In retreat

(1) Only C
(2) All A, B, C and D
(3) B and D
(4) A and B
(5) Only B

9. Which of the following is responsible for and are best explanation(s) for the current health of global firms?

A. Economic trouble in some countries
B. Advatages of labour taht were earlier have diminished
C. Failure of banks

(1) Only C
(2) Only B
(3) Only A
(4) A and B
(5) All A, B and G

10. Which of the following is/are reason(s) for the author’s mention of various countries in the passage ?

A. To illustrate the changing climate for global businesses.
B. To elucidate the similarities in response to multinational businesses.
C. To negate the popular assumption that developing economies have overtaken developed ones.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) A and B
(4) B and C
(5) None

11. Which of the following words is/are the opposite of the word ‘lighter’ as used in the passage ?

A. Tighter
B. Stricter
C. Insignificant
D. Robust

(1) Only A
(2) A and B
(3) Only C
(4) A and C
(5) None

12. Which of the following cannot besaid about ‘geographical arbitrage’?

(1) It has facilitated the spread of cross-border trade.
(2) It caused stagnation of trade in the 1990s.
(3) Its effects have worn off.
(4) Western firms could increase profits.
(5) All the given options can be said.

13. Which of the following do(es) the passage centrally address ?

A. Prosperity of multinational firms
B. Governments’ increasingly protecting the interests of local firms
C. Concern for global trade and industry

(1) A and C
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A and B
(5) All A, B and C

Directions (54-58): In these questions, a sentence is given with three words/group of word$, in bold type. One or more of them may have a certain error. Below the sentence are given three combinations of words/group of words i.e. (A), (B). and (C). You have to find out the correct word/group of words from among (A), (B) and (C) given below each sentence to replace the incorrect words and make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. One, two, all three or none of them may be correct. Decide upon which is/are correct, if any and mark the correct option which denotes your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.

14. In 2015, two years after Hurricane Sandy hit his city, the mayor announced to set up a $3 billion restoration fund, partly was intended to pay for sea walls that would help city from storms ahead.

A. He was setting up-which-any storms in the future
B. The setting up of-that-storms
C. The creation of-part of which future storms

(1) Only A
(2) All A, B and C
(3) A and B
(4) Only C
(5) No correction required

15. Since ancient times, medics have relied on their sense of smell to help them work out what is wrong with their patients- fruity odours on the breath, for example, let them monitor the condition of diabetics, while foul odours assist in the diagnosis of respiratory tract infections.

A. relying-to work out anything-diagnosing
B. were reliant-work out whether anything-how to diagnose
C. had to rely in working out the anything any diagnosis

(1) Only A
(2) All A, B and C
(3) A and B
(4) Only C
(5) No correction required

16. Thailand’s performing dismally is not drastically out of step with countries of similar incomes, not strange given its unusually generous spending on education.

A. dismal performance but it is expenditure on
B. having a dismal performance-being-budget
C. dismally performing- is not amount spent on

(1) Only C
(2) All A, B and C
(3) A and B
(4) Only A
(5) No correction required

17. There is a government survey, about 12.6 million Japanese aged 60 or older now opting working, up from 8.7 million in 2000 and two-thirds of Japan’s over-65s want to stay gainfully employed. A. In have an option and gain employment B. As revealed by-are opting-gains from employment C. According to opt to keep gainfully employed

(1) Only B
(2) All A, B and C
(3) A and B
(4) Only C
(5) No correction required

18. The hope is that the torrents of data which generate will contain some crucial nuggets that let neuroscientists get more understanding how exactly the brain does all it does.

A. This schemes closer to what it does
B. Which will able to-function
C. That this studies-abetter-work

(1) Only A
(2) All A, B and C
(3) A and B
(4) Other than those given as options
(5) None

Directions (19-23) : In these questions, there are four/five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and/or (E). Three or four of these sentences contribute to one main idea when these sentences are formed into a paragraph. One sentence does not contribute to that main idea. That sentence is your answer.

19. Which of the following does not contribute to the main idea of the given passage ?

A. The cost of production for luxury goods is not usually a prime concern and capital investment is generally modest, except for watches.
B. Some of the normal rules do not apply to luxury-goods makers, even though in many ways they are similar to other consumer-goods companies.
C. To view the world through the lens of luxury is to see it subtly offered.
D. A really prestigious item can be a ‘Veblen good’, named after an American economist born in themed-19th century who noticed that demand for some goods actually rises as they get more expensive because they confer yet more status.

(1) Only A(2)Only B
(3) A and B(4) B and C
(5) B and D

20. Which of the following does not contribute to the main idea of the given passage?

A. These present drivers of its economy, however, are under threat from technology.
B. Africa is a hopeful continent with an exuberance driven by minerals, hydrocarbon and commodities.
C. Without the ability to create knowledge through hands-on learning the quality of education, in the country is unlikely to improve.
D. The long-view trajectory of electric vehicles in Africa suggests a future where electrons will power more cars than carbon compounds.

(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) Only B
(4) Both B and C
(5) All those given as options contribute

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Jobs: 
Subject: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2016 (Held on: 01-01-2017) "Numerical Ability"


IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2016 (Held on: 01-01-2017) "Numerical Ability"


1.Raj while going by bus from home to airport (without any halt) takes 10 min less than time taken when the bus halts for some time. The average speed is 4 km/h more than the average speed of the bus when it halts. If the distance from home to airport is 60 km, what is the speed of the bus when it is travelled without any halt? (in km/h)

(1) 24
(2) 46
(3) 20
(4) 40
(5) 18

2.Every month, Mr. Duggabati spends 24% of his monthly income in paying rent and 30% on shopping of groceries. Out of the remaining, he invests in fixed deposit and respective ratio of 9 : 7. If in a year, he deposited a total of Rs.1,24,200/- in fixed deposit, how much did he pay as rent-in a year?

(1) Rs .1,24,000/-
(2) Rs. 1,10,400/-
(3) Rs. 1,17,600/-
(4) Rs. 1,24,560/-
(5) Rs.1,15,200/-

3.The total time taken by a boat to travel ‘x’ km downstream and `x-52 km upstream was 285 min. If the difference between speed of the boat downstream and upstream is 3 km/h and the respective ratio between speed of boat in still water and speed of water current was 9 : 1, what is the value of x ?

(1) 40.4
(2) 30
(3) 20.4
(4) 34.4
(5) Other than those given as options

Directions (4-8): Read the graph and answer the given questions.

The data given below are regarding percentage of fiction books sold by five bookstores in the months of June and December in the year 2002. All the bookstores sold either fiction or non-fiction books



Note : Total number of books sold = Fiction + Non-fiction

4.Number of fiction books sold by store B in December was 200 more than that sold by the same store in June. If the total number of books sold by the store in both the given months together was 2000, how many books (fiction + non-fiction), did the store sell in December?

(1) 2000
(2) 1600
(3) 1200
(4) 1800
(5) 1500

5.Total number of books sold by store C in June was 1500 and that in December was 2000. What is the total number of non-fiction books sold by the store in both the given months together?

(1)1200
(2) 1720
(3) 1800
(4) 1600
(5) 1900

6.Number of fiction books sold by store D in both the given months are equal. Total number of books sold by the same store in December was What percentage more than that in June?

(1) 16%
(2) 18%
(3) 10%
(4) 12.5%
(5) 8%

7.Total number of books sold by E in June was 1800 which was 25% less than that sold by the same store in December. What is the total number of fiction books sold by the same store together?

(1) 1442
(2) 1620
(3) 1572
(4) 1640
(5) 1548

8.Total number of books sold by store A in December are 60 more than that sold by the same store in June. If the number of fiction books sold by store A in both the given months were equal, what is the total number of books sold by store A in June ?

(1) 840
(2) 800
(3) 660
(4) 900
(5) 720

Directions (9-13) : Refer to the pie charts and answer the given questions.

The following data are regarding number of students(Boys + Girls) studying in standard Xth of various schools(A, B, C, D and E) in the year 2010Total number of students(Boys + Girls) = 3000





9.What is the difference between the total number of students (boys + girls) in schools A and B together and the total number of students (boys + girls) in schools D and E together ? What is the difference between the total number of students (boys + girls) in schools A and B together and the total number of students (boys + girls) in schools D and E together ?

(1) 640
(2) 600
(3) 620
(4) 680
(5) 660

10.Number of girls studying in school C are what percent of total number of students (boys + girls) studying in the same school ?



11.What is the average number of boys studying in schools A and B ?

(1) 280
(2) 288
(3) 272
(4) 248
(5) 278

12.Number of girls studying in school E are approximately what percent more than the number of boys studying in the same school?

(1)10%
(2) 30%
(3) 50%
(4) 42%
(5) 34%

13.the respective ratio between the number of boys and the number of girls studying in school D ?

(1) 12 : 7
(2) 16 : 9
(3) 16 : 7
(4) 18 : 7
(5) 14 : 9

Directions (14-18): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

The following data are regarding total number of male and female employees (MBAs and non-MBAs) working in three organizations—A, B and CIn organisation :
In organisation :

A: 30% of the total number of employees are females, of which 10% are MBA’s. In organization, 168 males are MBAs which are 20% of total number of males.
B: 40% of the total number of employees are females, of which 25% are MBAs. 10% of the total male employees in organization B are MBAs. The total number of female employees in organization B are equal to that in organization A.
C: Total number of female employees are twice of that in organization B. 20% of the total number of male employees and 20% of the total number of female employees are MBAs. Number of male employees who are not MBAs are 672 more than that of female employees who are not MBAs.

14.The respective ratio between the number of male MBA employees, who are science graduates, in organizations B and C is 1 : 3. Total number of male MBA employees who are tot science graduates in both the organization together is 262. What is the number of male MBA employees who are science graduates in organization B ?

(1) 24
(2) 22
(3) 25
(4) 26
(5) Other than those given as options

15.What is the difference between the number of Non-MBA employees in organizations .A and B?

(1) 220
(2) 360
(3) 340
(4) 240
(5) Other than those given as options

16.What is the average number of female employees working in organizations A, B and C ?

(1) 360
(2) 540
(3) 580
(4) 420
(5) 480

17.What percent of the total number of employees in organization C, are males ?

(1) 68%
(2) 70%
(3) 80%
(4) 75%
(5)50%

18.Total number of employees in organization C, are what percent more than – that in organization A ?

(1) 20%
(2) 50%
(3) 25%
(4) 75%
(5) 90%

Directions (19-23) : Study the table and answer the given questions.

Data related to rating of 5movies in two cities (X and Y)

Note: I. Few data are missing (indicated by—). You need to calculate the value based on given data, if required, to answer a given question.
II. Total sum of ratings obtained = Number of raters x Average rating obtained

19.For movie C, the respective ratio of total sum of ratings from city X and that from city Y is 16 : 21. What is the average rating obtained from movie C from city Y?

(1) 73.5
(2) 72.5
(3) 75.5
(4) 75
(5) 74

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IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2016 (Held on: 01-01-2017) (Computer Knowledge)


IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2016 (Held on: 01-01-2017)


 Subject : Computer Knowledge


1.The scrambling of code is known as:

(1) Encryption
(2) Firewalling
(3) Scrambling
(4) Deception
(5) Permuting

2.What is the full form of VolP?

(1) Voice of Internet Power
(2) Voice Over Internet Protocol
(3) Voice on Internet Protocol
(4) Very Optimized Internet Protocol
(5) Very Official InternetProtocol

3.Why do you log off from you computer when going out from your office?

(1) Someone might steal your files and passwords etc.
(2) In order to save electricity
(3) Logging off is essential to increase performance.
(4) Logging off is mandatory you before go out
(5) Logging off is a good exercise to perform regularly.

4.Which of the following is not responsible for the performance of the computer?

(1) Number of keys in the keyboard.
(2) Name of the video/ graphics card
(3) Memory in the video/graphics card
(4) The clock speed of the processor.
(4) The clock speed of the processor.

5.Which of the following is used to access a file from the computer store?

(1) Insert
(2) Retrieve
(3) File
(4) Print
(5) Find

6.Hard drive is used to store ………………..

(1) volatile data
(2) non-volatile data
(3) permanent data
(4) temporary data
(5) intermediate data

7.Which of the following is the combination of numbers, alphabets along with username used to get access to .user account?

(1) Password
(2) Username
(3) Title name
(4) Host-id
(5) Screen name

8.Which of the following is the type of software that has self-replicating software that causes damage to files and system?

(1) Viruses
(2) Trojan horses
(3) Bots
(4) Worms
(5) Backdoors

9.……… is used for very large files or where a fast response time is not critical. The files to be transmitted are gathered over a period and then sent together as a batch.

(1) Batch processing
(2) Online processing
(3) File processing
(4) Data processing
(5) Text processing

10.Which of the following system is a function of dedicated PCs?

(1) Meant for a single user
(2) Meant for the single task
(3) Deal with single software
(4) Deal with only editing
(5) Deal for music purpose

11.What can possibly be the drawback of emails?

(1) emails requires being physically delivered to the user.
(2) emails infects computer.
(3) emails are very expensive to transmit.
(4) emails are slow to load.
(5)people don't check emails regularly.

12.Which of the following is a valid email address?

(1) [email protected]@ed
(2) name.web site @info. in
(3) [email protected]
(4) [email protected]
(5)[email protected]@info.com

13.Which of the follOwing character set supports Japanese and Chinese font?

(1) EBCDIC
(2) ASCII
(3) BC
(4) ECBI
(5) Unicode

14.What is the full form of RTF?

(1) Richer Text Formatting
(2) Rich Text Format
(3) Right Text Fishing
(4) Right Text Font
(5) Rich Text Font

15.Which of the following is the text alignment available in word processing software that adjusts the left margin while keeping the right margin in any way?

(1) Justify
(2) Left justify
(3) Right justify
(4) Centre
(5) Orientation

16.Which of the following is false about the clock of the system?

(1) It is the property of the toolbar.
(2) The system can periodically refresh the time by synchronising with a time source.
(3) System time is the current date and time of day.
(4) The system keeps time so that your applications have ready access to accurate time.
(5) The system bases system time on coordinated universal time (UTC).

17.Which of the following are properties of USB?

(1) Platform independent
(2) Platform dependent
(3) Source dependent
(4) Software dependent
(5) Software independent

18.An act of sending e-mails or creating web pages that are designed to collect an individual's online bank, credit card, or other login information?

(1) Phishing
(2) Spam
(3) Hacking
(4) Cracking
(5) Malware

19.Which of the following is the organized collection of large amount of interrelated data stored in a meaningful way used for manipulation and updating?

(1) Database
(2) File
(3) Folder
(4) Data-mining
(5) Data source

20.Which among the following cycle consists of an input, processing, output and storage as its constituents?

(1) Processing
(2) Output
(3) Input
(4) Storage
(5) Data

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IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015) "Numerical Ability"


IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015)


Subject: Numerical Ability

(Based on Memory)

161. In an examination, a student scores 6 marks for every correct answer and loses 4 marks for every wrong answer. If he attempted 80 questions and obtained 310 marks, how many questions did he attempted correctly?

(1) 59
(2) 67
(3) 63
(4) 65
(5) 61

162. The diameter of a wheel is 49 m. How many revolutions will it make to cover a distance of 3200 m?

(1) 17
(2) 27
(3) 24
(4) 22
(5) 18

163. The average run of a cricketer after 18 matches was 565. If he made 101 runs and 123 runs in 19th and 20th match respectively. What is his new average run after 20th match?

(1) 62.05
(2) 64.45
(3) 60.45
(4) 61.25
(5) 63.85

164. Two types of rice (type 1 and type 2) were mixed in the respective ratio of 1 : 3. The mixture was then sold at the rate of Rs. 75.60 per kg to gain a profit of 20%. If the price of type 1 rice is Rs. 75 per kg, what is the price of type 2 rice per kg?

(1) Rs. 55
(2) Rs. 53
(3) Rs. 59
(4) Rs. 57
(5) Rs. 62

165. Mr. Shah’s monthly income is Rs. 54550. In an entire year, he spends 32% of his annual salaries on groceries, he spend 12% on repairs and 10% he pays to his servant. If half of the remaining amount he invests in fixed deposits, what is the amount invested by him in fixed deposits?

(1) Rs. 150558
(2) Rs. 155240
(3) Rs. 152610
(4) Rs. 158789
(5) Rs. 154336

166. Two pipes A and B can fill tank in h when opened simultaneously. If B alone can takes 2 h less than A alone takes to fill the tank compleletely. How much does A alone take to fill the tank?

(1) 8 h
(2) 12 h
(3) 4 h
(4) 6 h
(5) 10 h

167. A man can now 10.2 km downstream in 18 min. If the speed of the stream in 3.5 km/h, how much time (in h) he would take to cover 121.5 km upstream?

168. The respective ratio of two numer is 16 : 21. If the first number is increased by 30% and the second number is decreased by 20%, what will be the respective ratio of the first and the second number?

(1) 32 : 21
(2) 26 : 21
(3) 25 : 21
(4) 20 : 21
(5) 22 : 21

169. A bag of fruits was distributed among 4 studens P, Q, R and S. P took 3/8th of the fruits. Q took 1/5th of the remaining fruits and the remaining fruits were equally distributed among R and S. What fraction of fruits did R get?

170. The present population of village P is 2.5 times the present population of village Q. If after a year the population of village Q is 16537 and has been increased at a rate of 15%. What is the present population of village P?

(1) 34740
(2) 38560
(3) 36820
(4) 35950
(5) 30350

Directions (171-175): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

171. 29 31 37 49 69 ?

(1) 108
(2) 99
(3) 94
(4) 103
(5) 88

172. 13 13 20 37.5 83 ?

(1) 233
(2) 216
(3) 234
(4) 235
(5) 239

173. 17 16 30 87 344 ?

(1) 1735
(2) 1760
(3) 1660
(4) 1685
(5) 1715

174. 8 9.4 12.2 17.8 29 ?

(1) 53.6
(2) 51.4
(3) 52.1
(4) 48.6
(5) 49.8

175. 26 12 11 15.5 30 ?

(1) 72
(2) 68
(3) 74
(4) 82
(5) 78

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IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015) "General Knowledge"


IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015)


Subject: General Knowledge

(Based on Memory)

121. India has recently signed a deal to build a $ 1 billion 900 MW hydro-power project on Arun river with

(1) Bhutan
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Myanmar
(4) Nepal
(5) China

122. Indian player ‘Anirban Lahiri’ is associated with the game of

(1) rifle shooting
(2) golf
(3) billiards
(4) wrestling
(5) chess

123. The abbreviation ATS stand for

(1) Anti Terrorism Sensor
(2) Anti Terrorist Set-up
(3) Anti Terrorist System
(4) Anti Terrorism Squad
(5) Anti Terrorism Scheme

124. China has recently announced that it has completed a major hydro-power darn in Tibet over the river Yartung Zangbo known in India as

(1) Indus river
(2) Brahmaputra rive
(3) Zanskar river
(4) Ranganadi rive
(5) Doyanq river

125. According to which of the following acts, a fixed deposit in a bank should not be paid in cash if it is Rs. 20000 and above?

(1) Wealth Tax Act
(2) RBI Act
(3) Income Tax Act
(4) Banking Regulation Act
(5) Negotiation Instruments Act

126. The Commonwealth Association for Public Administration and Management’s (CAP AM) International Innovation Awards for 2014 has recently been conferred upon the Indian State of

(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Gujarat
(4) Karnataka
(5) Maharashtra

127. In 2016, the Olympic Games shall be held in

(1) Beijing (China)
(2) Tokyo (Japan)
(3) Rio de Janeiro (Brazil)
(4) Seoul (South Korea)
(5) Bangkok (Thailand)

128. Banks borrow money from the RBI at which of the following rates?

(1) CRR
(2) Base Rate
(3) Repo Rate
(4) SLR
(5) Reverse Repo Rate

129. Which of the following is not an online travel safe?

(1) Goibibo.com
(2) Thomascook.in
(3) Zomato.com
(4) Arzoo.com
(5) Expedia.co.in

130. Under the PMJDY, the government is looking to open at least . . . . . . . .. basic bank accounts for unbanked tambles in the country.

(1) 7.5 crore
(2) 1.8 crore
(3) 5.7 crore
(4) 3 crore
(5) 4.5 crore

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IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015) "English Language"


IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015)


Subject: English Language

(Based on Memory)

Directions (81-85): Choose the best word that fits in the meaning of both the sentences to make them grammatically correct and coherent.

81.

I. Governments in these countries should create education systems since ……. good schools the bulk of people entering the world force will not have the skills they need.
II. We cannot process colour, details of rapid changes in our surroundings ….... the cone shaped cells packed around the centre of the retina.

(1) lack
(2) missing
(3) eficient
(4) without
(5) absence

82.

I. Japan is investing in strengthening bonds with ASEAN countries and Japanese countries recently won a $ 370 million contract to start ………. a new underground railway system in Jakarta.
II. The cost of space vehicles is high no doubt, but the costs of complying with legal and regulatory paperwork and rules is huge too.

(1) construction
(2) manufacture
(3) launch
(4) assembly
(5) building

83.

I. A troubled student and his PhD guide ........ a way for websites to reduce the incidence of spam which troubled internet users in the 2000s.
II. One of the biggest drawback of concrete is that it often develop cracks and scientists have now ………. self-healing concrete.

(1) create
(2) devised
(3) develop
(4) thought
(5) invent

84.

I. Politicians have promised to ....... the goal of eradicating extreme poverty many times but have failed because they cannot agree about what exactly counts as poverty and how exactly to measure it.
II. Reserve Bank hoped that a cut in its benchmark rate will ……. a reduction in inflation and improve confidence in the economy.

(1) achieve
(2) get
(3) end
(4) finish
(5) undertake

85.

I. According to some experts, subsidising crop insurance to a large extent may be bad for the environment since farmers may take .......... such as farming on food plains or sleep hills.
II. In the 1990s, Germany was known as the ‘sick man of Europe’ and had high unemployment but its success today is on account of the huge ........ it took in reforming the labour market

(1) danger
(2) chance
(3) possibility
(4) risks
(5) threats

Directions (86-90): Arrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. If you are transitioning from products to services or vice-versa, you have to know and understand these differences to effectively promote and sell.
B. For example, a product is tangible, which means the customer can touch and see the product before deciding to make a purchase and a service is intangible.
C. Understanding the different changes in product and service marketing can help you establish the right approach for this transition.
D. Unless you understand the basic difference of tangibility, it will be a challenge to promote and sell your product.
E. Companies that are marketing a product face different challenges compared to those that are promoting a service.

86. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

87. Which of the following should be the FIRST ‘sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

88. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

89. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

90. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

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IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015) "Computer Knowledge"


IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015)


Subject: Computer Knowledge

41. ...... refers to the unauthorized copying and distribution of software.

(1) Hacking
(2) Software piracy
(3) Software literacy
(4) Cracking
(5) Copyright

42. Which of the following is an operating system?

(1) Umlx
(2) Debugger
(3) Mozilla
(4) Google Chrome
(5) Intel 8085

43. A collection of programs that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called

(1) operating system
(2) computer
(3) office
(4) compiler
(5) interpreter

44. Which of the following statements is a false conceiving file names?

(1) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name
(2) The file name comes before the dot (.)
(3) File extension is another name for the type
(4) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name
(5) Files may share the same name or the same extension, but not both at the same time

45. Which is not a storage device?

(1) Printer
(2) CD
(3) Hard Disk
(4) Floppy Disk
(5) DVD

46. ........ tags, placed on animal’s body can be used to record and track in a database all of the animal’s movements.

(1) pas
(2) RFID
(3) PPS
(4) GPS
(5) Other than those given as options

47. Which of the following cables can transmit data at high speeds?

(1) Flat cables
(2) Coaxial cable
(3) Optic fibre cable
(4) Twisted pair cable
(5) UTP cable

48. The hardware device or software program that sends messages between networks is known as a

(1) bridge
(2) backbone
(3) router
(4) gateway
(5) Other than those given as options

49. If you are performing Windows 98 operating system to Windows XP you are performing a(n)

(1) push up
(2) China
(3) patch
(4) pull down
(5) update

50. . . . . . . . . . technology enables you to carry a powerful’ navigational aid in websites.

(1) Convergence
(2) Locator
(3) Sampling rate
(4) Synchronization
(5) Global Positioning System

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IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015) "Reasoning"


IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2015 (Held on: 20-12-2015)


Subject: Reasoning

(Based on Memory)

Directions (1-5): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the given questions.

1. If all the symbols are dropped from the arrangement, then which will be the eleventh element from the right end of the given arrangement?

(1) 9
(2) G
(3) D
(4) 5
(5) P

2. How many such symbols are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a letter and also immediately preceded by a number?

(1) More than three
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None
(5) One

3. Which of the following is sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the given arrangement?

(1) b
(2) *
(3) U
(4) Z
(5) 4

4. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the given arrangement?

UXT 3ZU 4PQ G5J ?

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

Directions (6-10): The questions is based on the five three-digit numbers given below.
476 538 289 814 753

6. Which of the following is the second digit of the three digit number obtained by subtracting the lowest number from the highest number?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6
(5) 7

7. If 1 is added to the first digit in each number and then the position of the first and the third digits are interchanged. Which of the following will be the third digit of the second highest number thus formed?

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 8
(5) 7

8. In which of these digits, the sum of all the three digits is an even number?

(1) 753
(2) 538
(3) 269
(4) 476
(5) 814

9. Which of the following is the sum of the second and third digits of the second lowest number? .

(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 91
(4) 11
(5) 13

10. If 1 is subtracted from third digit in the each number and the position of the first and third digits are interchanged. Which of the following will be the first digit of the third highest number thus formed?

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 8
(5) 9

Directions (11-15): In these questions, the symbols @, %, ©, $ and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller nor greater than Q’.

Assuming the given statements to be true, find which conclusion is definitely true.

11. Statements

H@K, K%M, M©P

Conclusions

I. H @ D II. K % D

(1) Either conclusion I or II is true
(2) Only conclusion I is true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Both conclusions I and II are true

12. Statements

R % H, H © T, T @ K

Conclusions

I. T © R - II. K % H

(1) Either conclusion I or II is true
(2) Only conclusion I is true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Both conclusions I and II are true

13. Statements

R © D, D $ M, M # J

Conclusions

I. J # D II. J % D

(1) Either conclusion I or II is true
(2) Only conclusion I is true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Both conclusions I and II are true

14. Statements

W # D, Z © B, B $ H

Conclusions

I. H # Z II. B % W

(1) Either conclusion I or II is true
(2) Only conclusion I is true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Both conclusions I and II are true

15. Statements

F $ N, N @ D, D % B

Conclusions

I. F @ D II. B @ N

(1) Either conclusion I or II is true
(2) Only conclusion I is true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Both conclusions I and II are true

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2014, Computer Knowledge"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. ......... refers to the unauthorised copying and distibution of software.

(1) Hacking
(2) Software piracy
(3) Software literacy
(4) Cracking
(5) Copyright

2. Which of the following is an operating system?

(1) Linux
(2) Debugger
(3) Mozilla
(4) Google Chrome
(5) Intel 8085

3. A collection of programs that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called

(1) operating system
(2) computer
(3) office
(4) compiler
(5) interpreter

4. Which of the following statements is a false conceiving file names?

(1) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name.
(2) The file name comes before the dot (.).
(3) File extension is another name for the type.
(4) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name.
(5) Files may share the same name or the same extension, but not both at the same time.

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5. Which is not a storage device?

(1) Printer
(2) CD
(3) Hard Disk
(4) Floppy Disk
(5) DVD

6. ......... tags, placed on animal’s body can be used to record and truck in a database all of the animal’s movements.

(1) POS
(2) RFID
(3) PPS
(4) GPS
(5) Other than those given as options

7. Which of the following cables can transmit data at high speeds?

(1) Flat cables
(2) Coaxial cable
(3) Optic fibre cable
(4) Twisted pair cable
(5) UTP cable

8. The hardware device or software program that sends messages between networks is known as a

(1) bridge
(2) backbone
(3) router
(4) gateway
(5) Other than those given as options

9. If you are performing Windows 98 operating system to Windows XP you are performing a(n)

(1) push up
(2) China
(3) patch
(4) pull down
(5) update

10. ......... technology enables you to carry a powerful navigational aid in websites.

(1) Convergence
(2) Locator
(3) Sampling rate
(4) Synchronisation
(5) Global Positioning System

11. Which of the following is not true about RAM?

(1) RAM is the same as hard disk storage.
(2) RAM is a temporary storage area.
(3) RAM is volatile.
(4) RAM stands for Random Access Memory
(5) Information stored in RAM is gone when you turn the computer off.

12. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT

(1) spyware
(2) spam
(3) hackers
(4) identity theft
(5) viruses

13. Which of the following commands in Office 2007, can be used to go to first cell in the current row?

(1) Tab
(2) Shift + Tab
(3) Esc + Home
(4) Shift + Home
(5) Home

14. Software such as Viruses, Worms and Trojan Horses that has a malicious content, is known as

(1) malicious software (malware)
(2) adware
(3) scareware
(4) spyware
(5) firewall

15. Chip is a common nickname for a(n)

(1) transistor
(2) resistor
(3) integrated circuit
(4) semi-conductor
(5) other than those given as options

16. What is extension of Microsoft Word document?

(1) doc
(2) ppt
(3) dcc
(4) bd
(5) hml

17. Which of the following enables to determine how often a user visited a website?

(1) Hackers
(2) Spammers
(3) Phish
(4) Identity thefts
(5) Cookies

18. To move to the bottom of a document while working on MS Word, which command is used?

(1) Home key
(2) End key
(3) Ctrl + Page Down
(4) Insert key
(5) Ctrl key + End key

19. What is a person called who uses a computer to cause harm to people or destroy critical systems?

(1) Cyber Terrorist
(2) Black-hat Hacker
(3) Cyber Cracker
(4) Hacktivist
(5) Other than those given as options

20. ........ can interpret voice data into words that can be understood by the computer.

(1) Speech input hardware
(2) Speech recognition software
(3) Word recognition software
(4) Talking software
(5) Other than those given as options

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2014, Numerical Ability"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Numerical Ability

1. 161. In an examination, a student scores 6 marks for every correct answer and loses 4 marks for every wrong answer. If he attempted 80 questions and obtained 310 marks, how many questions did he attempted correctly?

(1) 59
(2) 67
(3) 63
(4) 65
(5) 61

2. The diameter of a wheel is 49 m. How many revolutions will it make to cover a distance of 3200 m?

(1) 17
(2) 27
(3) 24
(4) 22
(5) 18

3. The average run of a cricketer after 18 matches was 56.5. If he made 101 runs and 123 runs in 19th and 20th match respectively. What is his new average run after 20th match?
 

(1) 62.05
(2) 64.45
(3) 60.75
(4) 61.25
(5) 63.85

4. Two types of rice (type 1 and type 2) were mixed in the respective ratio of 1 : 3. The mixture was then sold @ 75.60 per kg to gain a profit of 20%. If the price of type 1 rise is Rs. 75 per kg, what is the price of type 2 price per kg?

(1) Rs. 55
(2) Rs. 53
(3) Rs. 59
(4) Rs. 57
(5) Rs. 62

5. Mr. Shah’s monthly income is Rs. 54550. In an entire year, he spends 32% of his annual salaries on groceries, he spend 12% on repairs and 10% he pays to his servant. If half of the remaining amount he invests in fixed deposits, what is the amount invested by him in fixed deposits?

(1) Rs. 150558
(2) Rs. 155240
(3) Rs. 152610
(4) Rs. 158789
(5) Rs. 154336

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6. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in hours when opened simultaneously. If B alone can takes 2 hours less than A alone takes to fill the tank completely. How much does A alone take to fill the tank?

(1) 8 h
(2) 12 h
(3) 4 h
(4) 6 h
(5) 10 h

7. A man can row 10.2 km downstream in 18 minutes. If the speed of the stream is 3.5 km/h, how much time he would take to cover 121.5 km upstream? (in hours)

8. The respective ratio of two numbers is 16 : 21. If the first number is increased by 30% and the second number is decreased by 20%, what will be the respective ratio of the first and the second number?

(1) 32 : 21
(2) 26 : 21
(3) 25 : 21
(4) 20 : 21
(5) 22 : 21

9. A bag of fruits was distributed among 4 students P, Q, R and S. P took 3/8th of the fruits. Q took 1/5th of the remaining fruits and the remaining fruits were equally distributed among R and S. What fraction of fruits did R get?

10. The present population of village P is 2.5 time the present population of village Q. If after a year the population of village Q is 16537 and has been increased at a rate of 15%. What is the present population of village P?
 

(1) 34740
(2) 38560
(3) 36820
(4) 35950
(5) 30350

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

11. 29 31 37 49 69 ?
 

(1) 108
(2) 99
(3) 94
(4) 103
(5) 88

12. 13 13 20 37.5 83 ?

(1) 233
(2) 216
(3) 234
(4) 235
(5) 239

13. 17 16 30 87 344 ?

(1) 1735
(2) 1760
(3) 1660
(4) 1685
(5) 1715

14. 8 94 12.2 17.8 29 ?

(1) 53.6
(2) 51.4
(3) 52.1
(4) 48.6
(5) 49.8

15. 26 12 11 15.5 30 ?

(1) 72
(2) 68
(3) 74
(4) 82
(5) 78

16. Arunika brought some articles and sold half of them at Rs. 22103 thereby making a profit of 15%/ At what price should sell the rest of them so as to earn a total profit of 25%?

(1) Rs. 25947
(2) Rs. 23528
(3) Rs. 27130
(4) Rs. 24682
(5) Rs. 26240

17. The height of a triangle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose diagonal is m and the base of the same triangle is equal to the side of the square whose area is 784 m2. What is the area of the triangle? (in m2)

(1) 504
(2) 558
(3) 478
(4) 522
(5) 496

18. Arunavo invested total sum of Rs. 16000 in two schemes (A and B) for two years. Scheme A offers compound interest (compounded annually) at the rate of 10% per annum and scheme B offers simple interest at the rate of 12% per annum. If the total interest earned by him from both the schemes after two years is Rs. 3504. How much money (principle) did he invest in scheme B?

(1) Rs. 4800
(2) Rs. 4200
(3) Rs. 4600
(4) Rs. 4400
(5) Rs. 5200

19. Ravi is older than Simar by 4 years. Four years from now, the respective ratio between Ravi’s age and Simar’s age will be 9:8. What will be the Ravi’s age 15 years ago? (in years)

(1) 19
(2) 36
(3) 17
(4) 25
(5) 21

20. A started a business by investing Rs. 33600. After three month B joined him by investing Rs. 23100. After 3 months of B’s investment, C joined them by investing Rs. 18900. If the total annual profit earned by them is Rs. 26450, what is C’s share of profit?

(1) Rs. 4630
(2) Rs. 4080
(3) Rs. 4260
(4) Rs. 4420
(5) Rs. 4140

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2014,English Language"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5): Choose the best word that fits in the meaning of the sentences to make grammatical coherent.

1.

I. Governments in     `these countries should create education systems since ......... good schools the bulk of people entering the world force will not have the skills they need.
II. We cannot process colour, details of rapid changes in our surroundings ......... the cone shaped cells packed around the centre of the retina.

(1) lack
(2) missing
(3) eficient
(4) without
(5) absence

2.

I. Japan is investing in strengthening bonds with ASEAN countries and Japanese countries recently won a $ 370 million contract to start .......... a new underground railway system in Jakarta.

II. The cost of ......... space vehicles is high no doubt, but the costs of complying with legal and regulatory paperwork and rules is huge too.

(1) construction
(2) manufacture
(3) launch
(4) assembly
(5) building

3.

I. A troubled student and his PhD guide ........... a way for websites to reduce the incidence of spam which troubled internet users in the 2000s.
II. One of the biggest drawback of concrete is that it often develop cracks and scientists have now .......... self-healing concrete.

(1) create
(2) devised
(3) develop
(4) thought
(5) invent

4.

I. Politicians have promised to ........ the goal of eradicating extreme poverty many times but have failed because they cannot agree about what exactly counts as poverty and how exactly to measure it.
II. Reserve Bank hoped that a cut in its benchmark rate will .......... a reduction in inflation and improve confidence in the economy.

(1) achieve
(2) get
(3) end
(4) finish
(5) undertake

5.

I. According to some exports, subsidising crop insurance to a large extent may be bad for the environment since farmers may take .......... such as farming on food plains or sleep hills.
II. In the 1990s, Germany was known as the ‘sick man of Europe’ and had high unemployment but its success today is on account of the huge ........ it took in reforming the labour market.

(1) danger
(2) chance
(3) possibility
(4) risks
(5) threats

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Subject: 
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(Jobs) Indian Bank : Specialist Officers Post Recruitment-2018

(Jobs) Indian Bank : Specialist Officers Post Recruitment-2018

INDIAN BANK, a leading Public Sector Bank, with headquarters in Chennai invites Applications for the following posts:

Post Detail:

Positions in Information Technology Department / Digital Banking Department

Post Code

Post

Role / Domain

Scale

Vacancy

1

Assistant General Manager

System Administrator - AIX, HP-UX, Linux, Windows

V

1

2

Chief Manager

DBA - Oracle, MySQL, SQL-Server, DB2

IV

2

3

Manager

II

2

4

Chief Manager

System Administrator - AIX, HP-UX, Linux, Windows

IV

1

5

Manager

II

2

6

Senior Manager

Middleware Administrator - Weblogic, Websphere, JBOSS, Tomcat, Apache, IIS.

III

2

7

Chief Manager

 

Application Architect

IV

1

8

Manager

II

1

9

Chief Manager

 

Big Data, Analytics, CRM

IV

1

10

Senior Manager

III

1

11

Chief Manager

 

IT Security Specialist

IV

1

12

Manager

II

2

13

Chief Manager

 

Software Testing Specialist

IV

1

14

Manager

II

2

15

Chief Manager

 

Network Specialist

IV

1

16

Senior Manager

III

1

17

Manager

Virtualisation specialist for VMware, Microsoft hypervisor, RHEL(Red Hat Enterprise Linux)

II

2

18

Senior Manager

Project architect

III

1

19

Senior Manager

Data Centre Management

III

1

20

Manager

Network administrator

II

2

21

Chief Manager

 

Cyber security specialist

IV

1

22

Senior Manager

III

2

Total

31

Positions in Information Systems Security Cell

 

Post Code

 

Post

 

Role / Domain

 

Scale

 

Vacancy

 

23

 

Senior Manager

 

Senior Information Security Manager

 

III

 

1

 

24

 

Manager

 

Information Security Administrators

 

II

 

3

25

Manager

Cyber Forensic Analyst

II

1

 

26

 

Manager

Certified Ethical Hacker & Penetration Tester

 

II

 

1

 

27

 

Assistant Manager

 

Application Security Tester

 

I

 

1

 

Total

 

7

Positions in Treasury Department

Post Code

Post

Role / Domain

Scale

Vacancy

28

Senior Manager

Regulatory Compliance

III

1

29

Senior Manager

Research Analyst

III

1

30

Senior Manager

Fixed Income Dealer

III

2

31

Manager

Equity Dealer

II

1

32

Senior Manager

Forex Derivative Dealer

III

1

33

Senior Manager

Forex Global Markets Dealer

III

1

34

Manager

Forex Dealer

II

1

 

35

 

Senior Manager

Relationship Manager - Trade

Finance and Forex

 

III

 

3

 

36

 

Senior Manager

Business Research Analyst - Trade

Finance and Forex

 

III

 

1

37

Senior Manager

Credit Analyst - Corporates

III

1

Total

13

Positions in Risk Management Department

Post Code

Post

Role / Domain

Scale

Vacancy

38

Senior Manager

 

Risk Management

III

2

39

Manager

II

4

Total

6

Position in Security Department

Post Code

Post

Role / Domain

Scale

Vacancy

40

Manager

Security Officer

II

25

Positions in Credit

Post Code

Post

Role / Domain

Scale

Vacancy

41

Senior Manager

 

Credit

III

20

42

Manager

II

30

Total

50

Positions in Planning and Development Department

Post Code

Post

Role / Domain

Scale

Vacancy

43

Manager

 

Statistician

II

1

44

Assistant Manager

I

1

Total

2

Positions in Premises and Expenditure Department

Post Code

Post

Role / Domain

Scale

Vacancy

45

Manager

Electrical

II

2

46

Manager

 

Civil

II

2

47

Assistant Manager

I

6

48

Assistant Manager

Architect

I

1

Total

11

Study Kit for Bank Specialist Officer Exam


Education Qualification:

Positions in Information Technology Department / Digital Banking Department

Educational Qualification (For Post Code 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21 and 22) : a) 4 year Engineering/ Technology Degree in Computer Science/ Computer Applications/ Information Technology/ Electronics/ Electronics & Telecommunications/ Electronics & Communication/ Electronics & Instrumentation OR b) Post Graduate Degree in Electronics/ Electronics & Tele Communication/ Electronics & Communication/ Electronics & Instrumentation/ Computer Science/ Information Technology/ Computer Applications OR Graduate having passed DOEACC ‘B’ level

POST CODE

POST/DOMAIN

DOMAIN

SCALE

VACANCY

AGE

ADDITIONAL QUALIFICATION

EXPERIENCE

 

1

Assistant General Manager

System

Administrator

- AIX, HP-UX, Linux, Windows

 

    V

    1

 

30-

45

Professional level certification in System Administration

 

10 years

Experience in maintenance and Administration of

Operating Systems, Databases, Backup Management and Data Centre Management

 

2

 

Chief Manager

 

 

 

DBA - Oracle, MySQL, SQL- Server, DB2

 

 

 

IV

 

2

27-

40

Professional level certification in Database Administration.

 

 

7 years

 

Experience in maintenance and administration of databases like Oracle/DB2/MySql/ SQL Server.

It is desirable to have

experience in TCS- BANCS/EXIM Bills

 

 

3

 

 

Manager

 

 

II

 

 

2

 

23-

35

Associate level

certification in Database Administration.

 

3 years

 

 

 

4

 

 

 

Chief Manager

 

 

 

System

Administrator

- AIX, HP-UX, Linux, Windows

 

 

 

IV

 

 

 

1

 

 

27-

40

Professional

level certification in System Administration

 

 

7 years

 

 

 

 

Experience in maintenance and Administration of operating Systems

 

 

5

 

 

Manager

 

 

II

 

 

2

 

23-

35

Associate level

certification in System Administration

 

3 years

 

 

 

 

6

 

 

 

Senior

Manager

Middleware

Administrator

- Weblogic, Websphere, JBOSS, Tomcat, Apache, IIS.

 

 

 

 

III

 

 

 

 

2

 

 

 

25-

38

 

 

 

Certification in Middleware Solution

 

 

 

5 years

 

 

 

Experience in maintenance and Administration of Middleware

 

7

 

Chief Manager

 

 

Application

Architect

 

IV

 

1

27-

40

Certification in Software Development & Programming

7 years

 

Experience in application design, code review and documentation

 

8

 

Manager

 

II

 

1

23-

35

3 years

 

9

 

Chief Manager

 

 

 

Big Data, Analytics, CRM

 

IV

 

1

27-

40

 

 

Certification in Big Data/ Analytics/ CRM solution

7 years

Experience in Analyzing

data, uncover information, derive insights and implement data-driven strategies and data models in Big Data/ Analytic/ CRM technology.

 

 

10

 

 

Senior

Manager

 

 

III

 

 

1

 

 

25-

38

 

 

5 years

11

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chief Manager

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

IT Security

Specialist

IV

1

 

27-

40

Certified Information Security Manager/ Certified Information Systems Security Professional

7 years

Experience in

implementing security improvements by auditing and assessing current situation; evaluating trends; anticipating requirements and making relevant configuration/strategy changes to keep the organization secure.

 

12

 

Manager

 

II

 

2

 

23-

35

Checkpoint Certified Security Expert

/CISCO Certified Security Professional

 

3 years

Experience in

implementing security improvements by assessing current situation; evaluating trends; anticipating requirements and making changes to keep the organization secure.

 

 

 

13

 

 

 

Chief Manager

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Software Testing Specialist

 

 

 

IV

 

 

 

1

 

 

27-

40

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Certification in software testing.

 

 

7 years

Experience in Software

Testing

It is desirable to have experience in software testing in banking applications with domain knowledge / experience in Net Banking & Mobile Banking application testing.

 

 

 

 

 

14

 

 

 

 

 

Manager

 

 

 

 

 

II

 

 

 

 

 

2

 

 

 

 

23-

35

 

 

 

 

3 years

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

15

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chief Manager

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Network

Specialist

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

IV

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

1

 

 

 

 

 

 

27-

40

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert (Switching and Routing)

 

 

 

 

 

 

7 years

Experience in Routing and

switching. Design and implementation of WAN networks. Experience

(a) in routing using Border Gateway Protocol(BGP). (b) Drawing up specifications for procurement of Network devices including routers, switches, firewalls

 

16

 

Senior

Manager

 

 

 

III

 

 

 

1

 

 

 

25-

38

 

 

5 years

Experience in Routing and

switching. Design and implementation of WAN networks.

Experience in implementation of Network Admission Control(NAC)

 

 

 

17

 

 

 

Manager

Virtualisation

specialist for VMware, Microsoft hypervisor, RHEL

 

 

 

II

 

 

 

2

 

 

 

23-

35

 

Associate level Certification Virtualization Technology.

 

 

 

3 years

 

 

Experience in Administration of systems in Virtualized environment

 

 

 

18

 

 

Senior

Manager

 

 

Project architect

 

 

 

III

 

 

 

1

 

 

25-

38

 

 

 

NIL

 

 

5 years

Experience in

conceptualizing, designing and implementation of High value organization level IT projects.

 

 

 

19

 

 

Senior

Manager

 

 

Data Centre

Management

 

 

 

III

 

 

 

1

 

 

25-

38

It is desirable

to have certification in Data Centre Management

 

 

5 years

 

 

Experience in Managing

Data Centre Operations

 

 

 

20

 

 

 

Manager

 

 

Network administrator

 

 

 

II

 

 

 

2

 

 

23-

35

Cisco Certified

Network Professional (Routing and Switching).

 

 

3 years

 

Experience in Network Troubleshooting, Network Protocols, Routers, Network Administration.

 

 

21

 

 

Chief Manager

 

 

 

 

 

Cyber security specialist

 

 

IV

 

 

1

 

27-

40

 

 

 

Certification in Cyber Security from a recognized institution.

 

7 years

Experience Managing

Cyber Security Operation

Centre

It is desirable to have experience in ethical hacking, Proficiency in Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM) tools, Security Analytics and incident handling

 

 

 

 

22

 

 

 

Senior

Manager

 

 

 

 

III

 

 

 

 

2

 

 

 

25-

38

 

 

 

5 years

Positions in Information Systems Security Cell

Educational Qualification (For Post Code 23,24,25,26,27) : B.E/B.Tech Degree or Post Graduate in Computer Science/Computer

Technology/Computer Science & Eng/Computer Eng/Computer Science& Tech/IT/Electronics & Communication

POST CODE

POST

ROLE/DOMAIN

SCALE

VACANCY

AGE

ADDITIONAL QUALIFICATION

EXPERIENCE

 

 

23

 

Senior

Manager

Senior

Information Security Manager

 

 

III

 

 

1

 

25-

38

 

CISA/CISSP/CISM Certifications are desirable

 

 

5 years

Experience in BFSI

sector in handling various information security related roles like Firewall Management, IPS Management, SIEM administration, Antivirus Management

 

 

 

24

 

 

 

Manager

 

Information Security Administrators

 

 

 

II

 

 

 

3

 

 

23-

35

 

CISA/CISSP/CISM Certifications are desirable

 

 

 

3 years

 

 

 

 

 

25

 

 

 

 

 

Manager

 

 

 

 

 

Cyber Forensic

Analyst

 

 

 

 

 

II

 

 

 

 

 

1

 

 

 

 

 

23-

35

 

Certified Cyber

Forensic

Professional (CCFP) / Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator (CHFI) holders are desirable

Minimum 3 years experience in

1. Conducting forensic process on a variety of digital media

2. Creating detailed notes on processes undertaken and developing forensic reports in support of counter intelligence or criminal investigations and other types of inquiries

 

 

26

 

 

Manager

 

 

Certified

Ethical Hacker

& Penetration

Tester

 

 

II

 

 

1

 

 

23-

35

 

 

Should possess Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH) Certification Desirable to have CISA / CISM / CISSP certification

Minimum 3 years experience in

BFSI sector or in any other industry in handling various Ethical Hacking and Penetration testing related work includign identifying security risk and development plan, application security testing related roles, conducting VAPT for web

app under OWASP Top 10, well versed using tools like Nessus, NMAP, Metasploit, Burpsuite, Acenetix, Checkmarx and Penetration tools like KALI LINUX

27

Assistant

Manager

Application

Security Tester

I

1

20-

30

Desirable to have

CISA/CISM/CISP

certification and knowledge of SDLC Cycle, Web development experience in application of standard software development principles

NIL

Positions in Treasury Department

Educational Qualification (For Post Code 28,29,30,31,32,33,34,35 and 36) : Full time - 2 years - MBA (Finance) / Post Graduate Diploma in Banking/Trade Finance/International Business from a recognised Institute/University approved by Govt. of India.

POST CODE

POST

DOMAIN

SCALE

VACANCY

AGE

DESIRABLE QUALIFCATION

EXPERIENCE

 

 

 

 

 

 

28

 

 

 

 

 

Senior

Manager

 

 

 

 

 

Regulatory

Compliance

 

 

 

 

 

 

III

 

 

 

 

 

 

1

 

 

 

 

 

27-

38

 

 

 

It is desirable to have certificate in compliance related courses

Minimum 5 years experience in Trade

Finance in Banks/Financial Institutions like Exim Bank/ECGC/FEDAI, Large Corporates handling Import/Export business and Export houses. It is desirable to have exposure in compliance desk,  Regulatory guidelines by RBI/Govt of India/  NRI products and related compliance, policies relating to ODI/FDI/EDPMS/IDPMS, RBI/External/Internal audits

 

 

 

29

 

 

Senior

Manager

 

 

Research

Analyst

 

 

 

III

 

 

 

1

 

 

27-

38

 

 

 

NIL

Minimum 5 years experience of Handling a research desk independently

It is desirable to have Experience in

Treasury function of Bank and knowledge in Technical and Fundamental analysis.

 

 

 

30

 

 

Senior

Manager

 

Fixed Income Dealer

 

 

 

III

 

 

 

2

 

 

27-

38

 

 

 

It is desirable to have Diploma in Treasury & Risk Management and certification

from NISM etc

Minimum 5 years experience of Trading in

Fixed Income Markets in Banks / Mutual

Fund / Investment Banking.

It is desirable to have Experience in

Treasury function of Bank.

 

 

 

31

 

 

 

Manager

 

 

Equity

Dealer

 

 

 

II

 

 

 

1

 

 

25-

35

Minimum 3 years experience of Trading in

Equity Markets in Banks / Mutual Fund / Investment Banking.

It is desirable to have Experience in

Treasury function of Bank.

 

32

 

Senior

Manager

Forex

Derivative

Dealer

 

III

 

1

 

27-

38

 

Minimum 5 years experience of Trading in Forex Markets in Banks / Corporate / Export Houses / PSU.

It is desirable to have Experience in

Treasury function of Bank.

 

 

33

 

Senior

Manager

Forex

Global Markets Dealer

 

 

III

 

 

1

 

27-

38

 

 

 

It is desirable to have Diploma in Treasury & Risk Management

 

 

 

34

 

 

 

Manager

 

 

Forex

Dealer

 

 

 

II

 

 

 

1

 

 

25-

35

Minimum 3 years experience of Trading in

Forex Markets in Banks / Corporate / Export Houses / PSU.

It is desirable to have Experience in

Treasury function of Bank.

 

35

 

Senior

Manager

 

Relationship Manager - Trade Finance and Forex

 

III

 

3

 

27-

38

 

It is desirable to have certificate in CDCS

Minimum 5 years in Trade Finance.

It is desirable to have exposure in Banks/Financial Institutions like Exim Bank/ECGC/FEDAI and Large Corporates handling Import/Export business/Export houses

Experience of working in Imports/Exports/Remittances/LCs/BGs etc., In-depth knowledge of best practices in managing trade finance

, Corporate Client relationship, operational risk analysis skills, UCP 600, URR 525, URDG, Incoterms, currency hedging instruments and Exchange Control Rules and Regulations, freight forwarding,

marine insurance and Customs and excise as related to trade finance

 

36

 

Senior

Manager

 

Business Research Analyst - Trade Finance and Forex

 

III

 

1

 

27-

38

 

NIL

Minimum 5 years in Trade finance and

Forex.

It is desirable to have exposure in front office, letters of credit, collections, payments, documents checking, guarantees, standby letters of credit and

back to back letters of credit, UCP 600, URR

525,  ISBP, Incoterms, international payments, acceptances, discounting of bills, purchase/sale of foreign exchange and application of fees, dealing with bank guarantees – performance and bid bonds, payment guarantees, shipping company indemnities etc.

Position in Treasury Department

POST CODE

 

POST

 

DOMAIN

 

SCALE

 

VACANCY

 

AGE

PROFESSIONAL QUALIFCATION

 

EXPERIENCE

37

Senior

Manager

Credit Analyst - Corporates

III

1

25-

38

CA / ICWA / CFA

Minimum 5 years experience of

Handling a credit desk in Banks / Corporate / PSU/ Rating agencies It is desirable to have hands on

experience in assessing investment proposals / Fixed Income and Structured Instruments.

Positions in Risk Management Department

POST CODE

POST

ROLE / DOMAIN

SCALE

VACANCY

AGE

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION

EXPERIENCE

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

38

 

 

 

 

 

 

Senior

Manager

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Risk

Management

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

III

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2

 

 

 

 

 

 

27-

38

1. Bachelors degree in any

discipline from a University/Institution /Board recognized by Govt of India and

2. Two years full time regular

MBA/PG Diploma in Banking

/Finance/MSc in Statistics from any University

/Institution recognized by

Govt. of India OR Certificate in Risk Management from any of the following institutes

IIBF - Certificate Examination in Risk in Financial Services NIBM-Certification course in Integrated Risk Management GARP - Level I - Foundations of Financial Risk and Level II - Risk & Regulation

GARP - Financial Risk

Manager (FRM)

CFA Institute - Chartered

Financial Analyst (CFA)

 

 

 

 

 

 

Minimum

5 years

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Experience in banking. It is desirable to have worked in Risk Management Department of Corporate / Head Office of Public Sector Banks/Private Sector Banks

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

39

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Manager

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

II

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

25-

35

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Minimum

3 years

Position in Security Department

POST CODE

 

POST

ROLE / DOMAIN

 

SCALE

 

VACANCY

 

AGE

 

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION

 

EXPERIENCE

 

 

 

 

40

 

 

 

 

Manager

 

 

 

Security

Officer

 

 

 

 

II

 

 

 

 

25

 

 

 

25-

35

 

 

 

Graduate in any discipline

from any University recognized by Govt of India

Minimum 5 years as  a

Commissioned Officer in the Indian Army/Navy/Air Force OR a Police Officer in the rank of Inspector and above OR An Officer of identical rank in Paramilitary Forces.

Positions in Credit

POST CODE

 

POST

ROLE / DOMAIN

 

SCALE

 

VACANCY

 

AGE

 

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION

 

EXPERIENCE

 

 

 

 

41

 

 

 

Senior

Manager

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Credit

 

 

 

 

III

 

 

 

 

20

 

 

 

25-

38

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

ICWA/CA/2yrs Full time MBA (Specialization in Banking and Finance). Desirable to have certification in Credit program from NIBM, IIBF, Moody's, IIBM, NISM, KPMH etc.

 

 

 

5 years experience

In Processing /

Appraisal of

Corporate Credit

/ Credit Syndication at Corporate /

Head Office level of Public Sector Banks / Private Sector Banks / Financial Institutions

It is desirable to have Experience

in Export / Import Credit, Trade Finance

 

 

 

 

 

 

42

 

 

 

 

 

 

Manager

 

 

 

 

 

 

II

 

 

 

 

 

 

30

 

 

 

 

 

 

23-

35

 

 

 

 

 

 

3 years experience

Positions in Planning and Development Department

POST CODE

 

POST

ROLE / DOMAIN

 

SCALE

 

VACANCY

 

AGE

 

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION

 

EXPERIENCE

 

 

43

 

 

Manager

 

 

 

 

Statistician

 

 

II

 

 

1

 

25-

35

 

Full time PG Degree in Statistics

/Applied Statistics/ Econometrics from University / Institute recognised by Govt of India

Minimum 3 years of experience in the field of statistics

 

44

 

Assistant

Manager

 

I

 

1

 

22-

30

 

NIL

Positions in Premises and Expenditure Department

POST CODE

 

POST

ROLE / DOMAIN

 

SCALE

 

VACANCY

 

AGE

 

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION

 

EXPERIENCE

 

 

45

 

 

Manager

 

 

Electrical

 

 

II

 

 

2

 

23-

35

 

B.E/B.Tech in Electrical from University /Institute recognised by Govt of India

Minimum 3 years of

experience in Electrical Engineering work/ Design works

 

 

46

 

 

Manager

 

 

 

 

Civil

 

 

II

 

 

2

 

23-

35

 

 

B.E/B.Tech  in Civil engineering from University /Institute recognised by Govt of India

Minimum 3 years of

experience in Civil Engineering Construction/ Design works

 

47

Assistant

Manager

 

I

 

6

20-

30

 

NIL

 

 

 

 

 

 

48

 

 

 

 

 

Assistant

Manager

 

 

 

 

 

 

Architect

 

 

 

 

 

 

I

 

 

 

 

 

 

1

 

 

 

 

 

20-

30

i)Bachelor degree in Architecture

from a University recognized by

Govt. of India

ii)Must have valid registration of council of Architecture

iii)Must have knowledge of Auto

CAD & shall be conversant with Govt. guidelines pertaining to procurement of works, goods & services

 

 

 

 

 

 

NIL

Age Limit:

Minimum age : 25 years

Maximum age : 45 years

Application Fee :

Rs. 100/- for SC/ST/PWD candidates.
Rs. 600 /- for all others

Pay Scale :

Scale I -

23700

980/7

30560/

1145/2

32850

1310/7

42020

Scale II -

31705

1145/1

32850

1310/10

45950

 

 

Scale III -

42020

1310/5

48570

1460/2

51490

 

 

Scale IV -

50030

1460/4

55870

1650/2

59170

 

 

Scale V -

59170

1650/2

62470

1800/2

66070

 

 

 

How to Apply :

Applications have to be submitted online from 10/04/2018 to 02/05/2018. No other mode of application will be accepted other than online applications. Pre-Requisites for Applying Online
Before applying online, candidates should—
i. Scan their photograph and signature ensuring that both the photograph (4.5cm × 3.5cm) and signature adhere to the required specifications as given in Annexure to this Advertisement. Signature in CAPITAL LETTERS will NOT be accepted.
ii. Have a valid personal email ID, which should be kept active till the completion of the Recruitment Process. Bank will send call letters for the Examination and other communication only to the registered e-mail ID. Under no circumstances, a candidate should share e-mail ID with any other person. In case a candidate does not have a valid personal e-mail ID, he/she should create his/her new e-mail ID before applying on-line and must maintain that email account.

Method of Selection :

Applications will be shortlisted based on eligibility criteria detailed in this advertisement. The selection process will comprise of interview of the shortlisted candidates. If the number of applications received is large, then Bank may at its discretion conduct a Preliminary Screening Test which will be of qualifying in nature.
TEST STRUCTURE
The structure of Preliminary Screening Test will be as follows:

S.No.

Name of Tests

No. of Questions

Max Marks

Duration

1

Professional Knowledge

60

60

60 Minutes

important Date :

Starting Date – 10-04-2018

Last Date – 04-05-2018

 

Click Here for Apply Online

Click Here for official Notification

Click Here for Official Website

Study Kit for Bank Specialist Officer Exam

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2014, Reasoning"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the given questions.

W 2 X T 3 * Z b U 4 O P 9 $ Q G D 5 # W E J 6 & 8 K @ 7 +

1. If all the symbols are dropped from the arrangement, then which will be the eleventh element from the right end of the given arrangement?

(1) 9
(2) G
(3) D
(4) 5
(5) P

2. How many such symbols are there in the given arrangment each of which is immediately followed by a letter and also immediately preceded by a number?

(1) More than three
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None
(5) One

3. Which of the following is sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the given arrangement?

(1) b
(2) *
(3) U
(4) Z
(5) 4

4. What should come in place of the question mark(?) in the following series based on the given arrangement?

WXT 3ZU 4PQ G5J ?

(1) W2b
(2) 6%8
(3) 6%+
(4) WXZ
(5) &8+

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) TW3
(2) @%7
(3) G9D
(4) b3U
(5) $9Q

 

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, English Language"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: English Language

Directions (1-5): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these. only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer.

1. I. Future generations will be left with a __ of pollution and destruction.

II. They each received a __ of $ 10000.

(1) legacy
(2) sum
(3) fortune
(4) amount
(5) inheritable

2. I. He was ––––– in bringing about an end to the Conflict.

II. Mr. Hart Prasad Chaurasia is an exponent of __ music.

(1) instrument
(2) instrumental
(3) keen
(4) instructor
(5) popular

3. I. Many __ men remarry and have second families.

II. When he was depressed. he felt utterly __ from reality.

(1) divided
(2) separate
(3) disturbed
(4) divorced
(5) destined

4. I. Most of our employees get __ abroad at some stage.

II. The aircraft and its crew were __ missing.

(1) announced
(2) arrested
(3) sent
(4) posted
(5) stationed

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5. I. He admired his __ in the mirror.

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, Reasoning"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: Reasoning

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Seven persons – A, B, C, D, E, F and G - are standing in a straight line facing north at equal distances but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is a different professional viz. Actor. Reporter, Doctor, Engineer, Lawyer. Teacher and Painter but not necessarily in the same order.

G is standing at the fifth position to the left of C. Reporter is standing at the third position to the right of G. F is standing at the fifth position to the right of A. E is standing second to the left of B. Engineer is standing the second position to the left of D. Three persons are sitting between Engineer and Painter. Doctor is to the immediate left of Engineer. Lawyer is to the immediate right of teacher.

1. How many persons are there to the left of Reporter?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

2. Which o f the following pairs of persons are sitting at the extreme ends?

(1) A and Actor
(2) Engineer and C
(3) Doctor and F
(4) F and Lawyer
(5) Teacher and Doctor

3. Who among the following is Sitting exactly in the middle of the row?

(1) Doctor
(2) F
(3) Lawyer
(4) B (5) Teacher

4. Who among the following is sitting second to the right of Teacher?

(1) Painter
(2) B
(3) A
(4) Actor
(5) Lawyer

5. Who among the following are the immediate neighbours of Painter?

(1) Actor and Teacher
(2) B and Lawyer
(3) B and Engineer
(4) Reporter and C
(5) Doctor and Lawyer

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, Computer Knowledge"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. The advantage of a LAN is

(1) Sharing peripherals
(2) Backing up your data
(3) Saving all your data
(4) Accessing the Web
(5) Automatic printing of data

2. Of the 5 words listed below which one is the odd one out?

(1) Applications
(2) Peripherals
(3) Programs
(4) Software
(5) Operating System

3. What type of device is a computer printer?

(1) Input
(2) Input / Output
(3) Software
(4) Storage
(5) Output

4. What is the biggest number you can get with 8 bits?

(1) 256
(2) 128
(3) 1000
(4) 255
(5) 1024

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, General Awareness"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: General Awareness

1. Derivatives Contract which gives the buyer/holder of the contract the right (but not the obligation) to buy/sell the underlying asset at a predetermined price within or at end of a specified period is known as

(1) Futures Contract
(2) Option Contract
(3) Index Futures contract
(4) Mini Derivative Contract
(5) None of these

2. The first Yash Chopra Memorial Award has been given to

(1) A. R. Rahman
(2) Lata Mangeshkar
(3) Amitabh Bachchan
(4) Rishi Kapoor
(5) Gulzar

3. CASA ratio of bank indicate the

(1) Bank’s deposits
(2) Bank’s Non Performing Assets
(3) Bank’s liabilities
(4) Bank’s base rate
(5) Bank’s total assets

4. The process by which LIC holder can transfer all rights, title and interest under a policy contract to any third person is known as

(1) Subrogation
(2) Escrow
(3) Mortgage
(4) Assignment
(5) Nomination

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2013, Numerical Ability"

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: Numerical Ability

1. The ratio of monthly salaries of two persons. A and B is 8:7. If the salary of A is increased by 20% and that of B by 11% the new ratio becomes 96: 77. What is A’s salary?

(1) Rs.800
(2) Rs.700
(3) Rs.750
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

2. Simple interest on a certain sum at 7 p.c. p.a for four years is Rs. 3584. What will be the compound interest on the same principal at 4 p.c. p.a. in two years?

(1) Rs. 1054.48
(2) Rs. 1044.48
(3) Rs. 1044.84
(4) Rs. 1064.84
(5) None of these

3. The cost of pure milk is Rs. 16 per litre. On adding water the mixture is sold at Rs. 15/litre. In this way the milkman earns 25% profit. What is the ratio of milk and water in the mixture?

(1) 25 : 7
(2) 7 : 25
(3) 15 : 1
(4) 1 : 15
(5) None of these

4. Four persons - M. N, O and P-distributed a sum of Rs. 44352 among themselves. M got th of total amount. N got th part of the remaining amount. Thereafter, the remaining amount was divided between O and P in teh ratio 3 : 2. The amount received by P is

(1) Rs. 1648
(2) Rs. 1848
(3) Rs. 1884
(4) Rs. 1684
(5) Rs.1448

5. Three persons A. B and C start a business with Rs. 12800. Rs. 16800 and Rs. 9600 respectively. At the end of the year. B received Rs. 13125 as share in total profit. What is the share of Mr. C in the profit?

(1) Rs.7850
(2) Rs.7550
(3) Rs.7500
(4) Rs.8500
(5) None of these

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6. One-third of a diagonal of a square is units. What is the measure or the side or the square?

(1) 6 units
(2) 3 units
(3) 18 units
(4) 9 units
(5) None of these

7. 56 men can do a job in 14 days. How many additional men are required to do the same job in 8 days?

(1) 42
(2) 24
(3) 52
(4) 25
(5) None of these

8. A shopkeeper has goods of worth Rs. 6000. He sold hall’ or the goods at a gain of 12%. At what profit percent should he sell the remaining half of the stock so that he gets 18% profit on the whole?

(1) 25%
(2) 24%
(3) 18%
(4) 21%
(5) None of these

9. A 210 metre long train crosses a man running at 9 kmph in opposite direction in 6 seconds. Find the speed or the train.

(1) 98 kmph
(2) 97 kmph
(3) 107 kmph
(4) 117 kmph
(5) None of these

10. Average score of a cricketer in 13 matches is 42 runs. If the average score in the first five matches be 54 runs what is the average score in the last eight matches?

(1) 36.5
(2) 34.5
(3) 35.4
(4) 38.5
(5) None of these

11. The perimeter- of a rectangle whose length is 6 metre more than its breadth is 84 metre. What is the area of the triangle whose base is equal to the diagonal of the rectangle and height is equal to the length of the rectangle?

(1) 360 sq. metre
(2) 360 sq. metre
(3) 380 metre
(4) 400 sq. metre
(5) None of these

12. Due to decrease of 10% in the price of tea per kg. a consumer buys 250gm of tea more than before for Rs. 270. What is the Original price of tea ?

(1) Rs. 130/kg
(2) Rs. 120/kg
(3) Rs. 115/kg
(4) Rs. 140/kg
(5) None of these

Directions (93-107): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

13.(34.5 × 14 × 42) ÷ 2.8 = ?

(1) 7445
(2) 7425
(3) 7245
(4) 7435
(5) None of these

14. -676.76 + 1237.87 + 897.34 - ? = 1294.25

(1) 168.2
(2) 164.2
(3) 154.2
(4) 164.8
(5) None of these

15. 3/8 of {4624 ÷ (564 - 428)} = ?

(1) 11.75
(2) 12.57
(3) 21.75
(4) 12.75
(5) None of these

16.

 

(1) 18
(2) 17
(3) 28
(4) 19
(5) None of these

17. (216) 4 ÷ (36) 4 x 6 5 = (6)?

(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 7
(4) 10
(5) 11

18. 456 ÷ 24 × 38 - 958 + 364 = ?

(1) 228
(2) 124
(3) 128
(4) 138
(5) 145

19.

 

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(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 15-12-2012, Reasoning Ability"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Reasoning Ability

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence from a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) Walk
(2) Cry
(3) Play
(4) Study
(5) Alive

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘VIRTUAL’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

3. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘ILP’ using all the letters only once in each word ?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

4. If each alternate letter in the word ‘FLIPPER’ starting with F is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each of the remaining letters Is. changed to the previous letters in the English alphabetical series. then how many letters will appear more than once in the new arrangement?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four

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(Job) IBBI : Recruitment of Officer Grade A (Assistant Manager)-2018

(Job) IBBI : Recruitment of Officer Grade A (Assistant Manager)-2018

1.Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI), is a statutory body established in accordance with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. 

General: 

(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 15-12-2012, English Language"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE-II Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: English Language

Directions (1-5): In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.

1. The stunt that I recently attempted was a piece of cake.

(1) The stunt that I recently attempted was enjoyable to watch
(2) The stunt that I recently attempted was very challenging
(3) The stunt that I recently attempted was celebrated by all
(4) The stunt that I recently attempted turned out to be a failure
(5) The stunt that I recently attempted was a Simple task

2. The boy broke the window and took to his heels.

(1) The boy broke the window and fell on his heels
(2) The boy broke the window and ran away
(3) The boy broke the window with his heels
(4) The boy ran into the window
(5) The boy broke the window and robbed a pair of heels

3. I pledged myself to serve the king faithfully.

(1) I made a mistake by promising to serve the king faithfully
(2) I made a fool of myself in order to serve the king
(3) I boasted about serving the king faithfully
(4) I was forcibly made to serve the king
(5) I made a solemn and formal promise to serve the king faithfully

4. There is a crying need for improvements to our public transport system.

(1) There is an obvious need for improvements to our public transport system
(2) Tht1e is a well documented need for improvements to our public transport system.
(3) There is a minor need for improvements to our public transport system.
(4) There is a serious need for improvements to our public transport system.
(5) There is no urgency for improvements to our public transport system.

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5. In an old bookshop I happened to light upon a volume that belonged to my grandfather.

(1) In an old bookshop I happened to discard a volume that belonged to my grandfather.
(2) In an old bookshop I happened to purchase a volume that belonged to my grand-father.
(3) In an old books hop I happened to look for a volume that belonged to my grandfather.
(4) In an old bookshop I happened to discover by chance a volume that belonged to my grandfather
(5) In an old books hop I happened to reveal  a volume that belonged to my grandfather.

Directions (6-10): Pick out the most effective word/phrases from the given alternatives marked (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) given below each sentence to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningful and grammatically Correct.

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