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(Jobs) Punjab National Bank (PNB): PNB 535 SPECIALIST OFFICERS (SO) Recruitment 2020



(Jobs) Punjab National Bank (PNB): PNB 535 SPECIALIST OFFICERS (SO) Recruitment 2020



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  • Application Begin : 29/09/2020
  • Last Date for Apply Online : 06/10/2020
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(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 4.12.2011 - English Language



(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 4.12.2011 - English Language



1-10. Read the following passage to answer the given question based on it. Some words/phrases are printed to bold to help you locate them white answering some of the questions.

A Russian Proverb advises us not to buy a house, but the neighbourhood. While till some years ago it was impossible to dictate who lived with you in the same quarters, today when you think of buying a home, you could actually create you won dream neighbourhood-thanks to the internet and the group buying model.

The group buying model has been applied in different industries, from cars to baby merchandise to pet care product. Now, the trend is catching on in the real estate sector, with many sites as well as broking firms offering group deals on real estate projects in India. The way it works is simple. Take xxx.com for example. This is an online and offline integrated platform which showcases property. It uses social medial networks to let buyers known about possible good deals, and leaving it to them to do some viral marketing. Once a large group of buyers is thus formed, xxx.com introduces it to the developer and helps negotiate a suitable discount. Since, the developer doesn’t have to pay for the marketing. It is willing enough to pay these companies a transaction fee which is a percentage of the total value of the deal. For the buyers, if offers the best rates at no fee, thus marketing it win-win proposition for all involved. The developers also benefit by getting substantial cash flow, given them a good amount of working capital. “In today’s real estate scenario, bulk buying could be the answer to the market slump and the long awaited cash flow,” says the Founder of xxx.com.

Sometimes, the discount size is not to be sneered at. Discounts on group buying vary from 5-30 per cent, the average divergence from market rate being 25-30 per cent. Customer ‘buy-in’ is the model. But is it a temporary fad? In a way, the online group buying set-up is  similar to the model developers share with speculators,who buy in bulk even before the project gets kick-started and het discounts of 30-40 per cent. The pay 50 per cent of the property value upfront. Group buying companies prove more beneficial for developers as they get away providing  lesser discounts than to speculators. Some sound a note of caution on the trend. Present conditions are conducive for this business model as group buying works well in a situation where stocks are moving slowly, markets are jittery and there is ample supply. It may not work in a seller’s market.

Another caution is — Very often the builders do not offer the best inventory to the group in terms of location and utility. The buyers have to use their astute judgement to avoid such traps.

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(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 4.12.2011 - Reasoning



(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 4.12.2011 - Reasoning



1. In a certain code ‘BUILT’ is written as ‘5#32@’ and ‘TRIBE’ is written as ‘@9345©’. How is ‘RULE’ written in that code?

(1) 9#2©
(2) 92#©
(3) @#2©
(4) @2#©
(5) None of these

2. How many meaningful English can be formed, starting was S, with the second, the fourth, the fifth and the eight letters of theword PERISHED, using each letter only once in each word? (To be counted from left)

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

3. The positions of howmany digits in the numbers 837912 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order? (from left to right)

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

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(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Computer Knowledge" (South Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Computer Knowledge" (South Zone)

201. Instructions or programs for con trolling the computer are called.

(1) Software
(2) Hardware
(3) Humanware
(4) Programmer
(5) Analysts

202. A ____typically identifies the type of file.

(1) folder
(2) path
(3) file extension
(4) filename
(5) None of these

203. A device that copies or reproduces text and images is called a/an

(l) CPU
(2) reader
(3) memory
(4) obtainer
(5) scanner

204. Which of the following should be used to move a paragraph from one place to another in a Word document?

(1) Copy and Paste
(2) Cut and Paste
(3) Delete and Retype
(4) Find and Replace
(5) None of these

205. An Excel spreadsheet has the extension -

(1) .doc
(2) .xls
(3) .ppt (4) .accts
(5) .exe

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206. A thin plate or board that contains electronic components is called____

(1) Hard disk
(2) Scanner
(3) RAM
(4) ROM
(5) circuit board

207. The_____is the box that houses the most important parts of a computer system.

(1) software
(2) hardware
(3) input device
(4) system unit
(5) None of these

208. The device containing a circuit breaker that is used to separate the hardware from the power source and protect from voltage spikes is called a_____

(1) voltage breaker
(2) surge breaker
(3) surge protector
(4) voltage protector
(5) ALU

209. Which menu should be selected to perform Cut and Paste in Word? ‘

(1) Format Menu
(2) Tools Menu
(3) Edit Menu
(4) View Menu
(5) None of these

210. In a spreadsheet, the point at which a column and a row intersect is called a —

(1) col-row
(2) container
(3) box
(4) grid
(5) cell

211. An online backing storage system capable of storing larger quantities of data is—

(1) CPU
(2) Memory
(3) Secondary storage
(4) Mass storage
(5) Temporary storage

212. ROM stands for_____

(1) Read Only Memory
(2) Random Open Memory
(3) Read Open Memory
(4) Random Only Memory
(5) Ready Only Memory

213. Trackball is an example of a/an

(1) programming device
(2) pointing device
(3) output device
(4) software device
(5) printing device

214. A page break means_____

(1) breaking a page of the document into smaller parts
(2) starting the next part of the document on a new page
(3) breaking a page of the document into small sentences
(4) breaking a page of the document into small paragraphs
(5) None of these .

215. ______ of the worksheet appear vertically and are identified by letters at the top of the worksheet window.

(1) Rows
(2) Cells
(3) Columns
(4) Headings
(5) Range

216. Which of the following operations is not performed by computer?

(1) Inputting
(2) Processing
(3) Controlling
(4) Understanding
(5) Outputting

217. BIT stands for_____

(1) Built In Tasks
(2) Binary Digit
(3) Before Instructed Task
(4) Before Interpreting Task
(5) Before Initial Task

218. The keys on the keyboard which may be programmed to do special tasks are referred to as

(1) function keys
(2) arrow keys
(3) Page Up and Page Down keys
(4) Shift and Alt keys .
(5) None of these

219. What is the shortcut key for centering the text selected by the user in Word?

(1) CTRL + A
(2) CTRL + B
(3) CTRL + C
(4) CTRL + D
(5) CTRL + E

220. Excel is a_____

(1) word processing program
(2) game
(3) database application
(4) spreadsheet program
(5) presentation program

221. Which of the following statements is valid?

(1) 1 KB = 1024 bits
(2) 1 MB = 2048 bits
(3) 1 MB = 1000 kilobits
(4) 1 KB = 1000 bytes
(5) 1 MB = 1024 kilobytes

222. ALU is

(1) Access Logic Unit
(2) Array Logic Unit
(3) Application Logic Unit
(4) Artificial Logic Unit
(5) Arithmetic Logic Unit

223. A storage device that stores the same data on several different disks so if one gets damaged, another one will have the same data is referred to as_____

(1) RAID
(2) magnetic tape
(3) magnetic disk
(4) floppy disk
(5) None of these

224. Which of the following is not a term pertaining to WORD?

(1) Delete
(2) Edit
(3) Copy
(4) Slide show
(5) None of these

225. Excel documents are stored as files called____

(1) workforce
(2) worksheets
(3) worktables
(4) workgroups
(5) workbooks

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(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Reasoning" (North Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Reasoning" (North Zone)

1. How many digits in the number ‘5279143’ will be as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order from left to right within the number?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

2. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the fourth, the fifth and the seventh letters of the word COURTESY, using each letter only once in the word, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give ‘N’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘M’ as the answer.

(1) R
(2) O
(3) S
(4) N
(5) M

3. In a certain code ‘BEAMING’ is written as ‘BFCMHOJ’ and ‘CLEAR’ is written as ‘MDESB’. How is ‘TRAIL’ written in that code?

(1) USAMJ
(2) USAJM
(3) SUAMJ
(4) SUAJM
(5) None of these

4. In a certain code ‘TWICE’ is written as ’34$5d' and ‘WEARS’ is written as ‘4d29%’. How is ‘SEAT ‘written in that code?

(1) %2d3
(2) %d23
(3) %d43
(4) %$23
(5) None of these

5. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number ‘5391246’ in both forward and backward directions, each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

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Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

K, L, C, E, H, T and P are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. T is third to the right of H. L is fourth to the left of P. P is to the immediate right of H. C is fourth to the right of E. E is not an immediate neighbour of T.

6. Who is second to the left of L ?

(1) T
(2) H
(3) C
(4) K
(5) Data inadequate .

7. What is K’s position with respect to P?

(1) Fourth to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Fifth to the right
(4) Third to the right
(5) None of these

8. Who is fourth to the right of P?

(1) T
(2) L
(3) K
(4) C
(5) None of these

9. Who is second to the right of R?

(1) L
(2) C
(3) T
(4) E
(5) None of these

10. Who is to the immediate right of E?

(1) K
(2) H
(3) L
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Directions (11-15) : Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below:

B @ K I 9 D © 5 2 T $ M 4 E J # U R 1
A d K 5 W 6 % F Q 7 H P 8 Z

11. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

12. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the twentieth element from the right end of the above arrangement?

(1) 9
(2) 7
(3) $
(4) 5
(5) None of these

13. Which of the following should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the elements in the above arrangement?

K9D 2$M JUR ?

(1) dKW
(2) dK5
(3) d56
(4) dW6
(5) None of these

14. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by number and immediately followed by a symbol?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

15. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by a consonant?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

Directions (16-20) : In the following questions, the symbols «, $, d, © and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

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(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 4.12.2011 - Numerical Ability



(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 4.12.2011 - Numerical Ability



1-10.What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. 5 × ? = 8042 ÷ 4

(1) 396.1
(2) 6433.6
(3) 10052.5
(4) 402.1
(5) None of these

2. 206 × 71 – 12080 = ?

(1) 2546
(2) 2654
(3) 2564
(4) 2645
(5) None of these

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(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 4.12.2011 - General Awareness



(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 4.12.2011 - General Awareness



1. India has agreed to provide financial help to which of the following countries so that it can also implement its 10th Five Year’s Plan (2008-13) successfully?

(1) Afghanistan
(2) Myanmar
(3) Pakistan
(4) Nepal
(5) Bhutan

2. Which of the following States is a major producer of Sugar in India?

(1) Goa
(2) Punjab
(3) Jammu & Kashmir
(4) Himachal Pradesh
(5) Maharashtra

3. A bank receives a counterfelt note of Rs. 100/- from the customer, which customer wants it back. Which of the following action should be taken by the Bank?

(1) Will return to customer
(2) Will impound and no return
(3) Will ask for exchange of note
(4) Will replace with genuine note
(5) Will check all the notes in possession with the customer which are not being deposited also

4. Which of the following is not a mode of foreign capital inflow in India?

(1) FDI
(2) NRI deposits
(3) FII
(4) No frills accounts
(5) None of these

5. Exporters and importers in India are required to know ‘FEMA’ rules. What does the letter ‘M’ denote in the term ‘FEEMA’?

(1) Money
(2) Material
(3) Mega
(4) Management
(5) Micro

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(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 4.12.2011 - Computer Knowledge



(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 4.12.2011 - Computer Knowledge



1. The operation of combining two cells into a single cell in Excel is referred to as____

(1) Join Cells
(2) Merge Cells
(3) Merge Table
(4) Join Table
(5) None of these

2. Which of the following can be used to store a large number of files in a small amount of storage space?

(1) File adjustment
(2) File copying
(3) File reading
(4) File compatibility
(5) File compression

3. In a computermost processing takes place in ____

(1) Memory
(2) RAM
(3) Motherboard
(4) CPU
(5) None of these

4. Data is organized in a worksheet as ________

(1) charts and diagrams
(2) rows and columns
(3) tables and boxes
(4) graphs
(5) None of these

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(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 11.12.2011 - English Language



(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 11.12.2011 - English Language



1-5. In each of these questions, two sentences (i) and (ii) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one first at both the places in the context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer.

1.

I. Boats take more time going against the ________ of the river.
II. She keeps herself abreast of ________ events.
(1) flow
(2) latest
(3) water
(4) all
(5) current

2.

I. While trying to open the door, the ______ broke.
II. It is not difficult to ________ tricky situations.
(1) handle
(2) knob
(3) bracket
(4) overcome
(5) win

3.

I. This course teaches you not to _______ to temptations.
II. We hope to increase our ________ of rice this year.
(1) succumb
(2) produce
(3) yield
(4) share
(5) submit

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(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 11.12.2011 - General Awareness



(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 11.12.2011 - General Awareness



1. Which of the following is NOT a function of a commercial bank?
(1) Providing project finance
(2) Settlement of payments of behalf of the customers
(3) Deciding policy rates like CRR, SLR, & Repo Rates
(4) Issuing credit/debit/ATM cards
(5) Providing services such as locker facilities, remittances

2. The Election Commission of India is giving training to the electoral officers of which of the following countries in its neighbourhood?
(1) Nepal
(2) Pakistan
(3) China
(4) Bangladesh
(5) Bhutan

3. What is money laundering?
(1) Conversion of assets into cash
(2) Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained
(3) Conversion of cash into gold
(4) Conversion of gold into cash
(5) Conversion of gold with foreign currency

4. As per news reports in various newspapers and journals, 'IAEA' Governors approved the safety plan, so that it can be implemented by all the countries, willing to adopt it. IAEA is an agency/organization working in the area of _________
(1) Nuclear Energy
(2) World Trade
(3) International Banking
(4) Defence
(5) Social Welfare

5. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of debit card?
(1) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery
(2) No interest earning for banks
(3) Works like a normal withdrawal slip
(4) 45 days credit is given to the card holder
(5) All of the above

6. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is given for excellence in the field of _________
(1) Literature
(2) Music
(3) Spots
(4) Science & Technology
(5) Social service

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(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 11.12.2011 - Reasoning



(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 11.12.2011 - Reasoning



1. In a certain code ‘TERMINAL’ is written as ‘NSFUMBOJ’ and ‘TOWERS’ is written as ‘XPUTSF’. How is ‘MATE’ written in that code?
(1) FUBN
(2) UFNB
(3) BNFU
(4) BNDS
(5) None of these

2. The positions of how many digits in the number 5314647 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

3. What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following letter series?
AC EG IK MO ?
(1) PR
(2) QS
(3) QR
(4) PS

4. 'ERID' is related to 'DIRE' in the same way as 'RIPE' is related to ________ ?
(1) EPIR
(2) PERI
(3) EPRI
(4) PEIR
(5) IPRE

5. How many meaningful English words can be made with the third, the fifths, the seventh and the ninth letters of the word 'DOWNGRADED', using each letter only once in each word?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

 

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(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 11.12.2011 - Numerical Ability



(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 11.12.2011 - Numerical Ability



What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. 10.8 × 5.5 × 8.4 = ?
(1) 458.69
(2) 489.96
(3) 498.96
(4) 485.69
(5) None of these

2. 45 ÷ 5 – 0.5 = ?
(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 9.5
(4) 8.5
(5) None of these

3. 3.5 × (60 ÷ 2.5) = ?
(1) 62
(2) 96
(3) 74
(4) 88
(5) None of these

4. (4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4)5 × (4 × 4 × 4)8 ÷ (4)3 = (64)?
(1) 17
(2) 10
(3) 16
(4) 11
(5) None of these

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(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 11.12.2011 - Computer Knowledge



(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 11.12.2011 - Computer Knowledge



1. The smallest unit of information a computer can understand and process is known as a _____
(1) digit
(2) byte
(3) megabyte
(4) kilobyte
(5) bit
2. Compatibility, with regard to computers, refers to _________
(1) the software doing the right job for the user
(2) it being versatile enough to handle the job
(3) the software being able to run on the computer
(4) software running with only other previously installed software
(5) software permanently available in the computer

3. A _________ use pressure as a use r presses it with a stylus to sent signals.
(1) touchpad
(2) TrackPoint
(3) graphics tablet
(4) trackpad
(5) keyboard

4. The justification that aligns text on both margins of a document in Word is ________
(1) Justify
(2) Bold
(3) Center
(4) Right
(5) Balanced

5. A partially completed workbook that contains formulas and formatting, but no data is called a _____
(1) prototype
(2) template
(3) model
(4) function
(5) None of these

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(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - English Language" (North Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - English Language" (North Zone)

Directions (51·65) : Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

‘We have always known that heedless self-interest was bad morals. We now know that it is bad economics,” said American President Franklin D. Roosevelt in 1937 in the midst of the Great Depression. And the world has learnt that enlightened self-interest is good economics all over again after the Great Recession of 2009. Americans are entering a period of social change as they are’ recalibrating their sense of what it means to be a citizen, not just through voting or volunteering but also through commerce. There is a new dimension to civic duty that is growing among Americans - the idea that they can serve not only by spending time in communities and classrooms but by spending more responsibly. In short, Americans are beginning to put their money where their ideals are.

In a recent poll most said they had consciously supported local or small neighbourhood businesses and 40 percent said that they had purchased a product because they liked the social or political values of the company that produced it. People were alarmed about ‘blood diamonds’ mined in war zones and used to finance conflict in Africa. They were also willing to pay $2000 more for a car that gets 35 miles per gallon than for one that gives less, though the former is more expensive but environment friendly. Of course consumers have done their own doing-well-by doing good calculation -a more expensive car that gives; better mileage will save them money in the long run and makes them feel good about protecting the environment. Moreover since 1995, the number of socially responsible investment (SRI) mutual funds, which generally avoid buying shares of companies that profit from tobacco, oil or child labour has grown from 55 to 260. SRI funds now manage approximately 11 percent of all the money invested in the US financial markets -an estimated $ 2.7 trillion. This is evidence of a changing mind-set in a nation whose most iconic economist Milton Friedman wrote in 1970 that a corporation’s only moral responsibility was to increase shareholder profits.

At first the corporate stance was defensive: companies were punished by consumers for unethical behavior such as discriminatory labour practices. The nexus of activist groups, consumers and government regulation could not merely tarnish a company but put it out of business. But corporate America quickly discerned that social responsibility attracts investment capital as well as customer loyalty, creating a virtuous circle. Some companies quickly embraced the new ethos that consumers boycotted products they considered unethical and others purchase products in part because their manufacturers were responsible. With global warming on the  minds of many consumers lots of companies are racing to ‘outgreen’ each other. The most progressive companies are talking about a triple bottom line-profit, planet and people – that focuses on how to run a business while trying to improve environmental and worker conditions.
This is a time when the only thing that has sunk lower than the American public’s opinion of Congress is its opinion of business. One burning question is how many of these Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiatives are just shrewd marketing to give companies a halo effect? After all only 8 per cent of the large American corporations go through the trouble of verifying their CSR reports, which many consumers don’t bother to read. And while social responsibility is one way for companies to get back their reputations consumers too need to make ethical choices.

51. Which of the following represents the change/s that has/have occurred in the American outlook?

(A) The perception that the government needs to invest resources in business rather than in education.
(B) Loss of faith in American corporations as they do not disburse their profits equitably among shareholders.
(C) Americans have cut down on their expenditure drastically to invest only in socially responsible mutual funds.

(1) None
(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) Only (A) and (C)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

52. Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage?

(A) The voter turnout during the 2009 American elections was high.
(B) African diamonds are highly valued by the American public.
(C) American firms have to spend vast amounts on advertising because activists cast aspersions on their images.

(1) None
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (B) and (C)
(4) Only (C)
(5) Only (A) and (C)

53. To what does the author attribute the consumers’ willingness to purchase environment friendly vehicles?

(1) Auto companies sell these types of vehicles at lower rates in order to boost sales in times of recession.
(2) The realisation that consumers’ greed caused the economic recession of 2009.
(3) To show their support for small entrepreneurs who are the manufacturers of such vehicles.
(4) They have to comply with government guidelines regarding reduction of carbon emissions.
(5) None of these

54. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

(1) It is beneficial to invest in American companies as they are socially responsible and profitable
(2) Large corporations should be penalised by the American government for their greed
(3) Ethical consumerism is profitable for organisations as well as society as a whole
(4) Companies should be required by law to account for their impact on the environment in their balance sheet
(5) Developing countries should learn how to combat child labour from America

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55. Which of the following best describes the widespread view among Americans about big corporations?

(1) They have been lax in fulfilling their moral responsibility of increasing profits and benefitting shareholders
(2) They are being too severely penalised by activists and the government for their role in the economic crisis
(3) Their innovations have brought commercial success and benefited America tremendously
(4) They need to be held accountable for their ruthless business practices
(5) Their balance sheets are often fraudulent and deceive shareholders

56. What is the author trying to convey through the phrase ‘companies are racing to outgreen each other’ ?

(1) The competition among companies to boost their bottom line - profit, planet and people — is very stiff
(2) The conflict facing businesses of whether to benefit their shareholders or the environment
(3) Corporations are vying with each other to solicit investment
(4) Companies are striving to find the necessary funds to finance their environment friendly initiatives
(5) None of these

57. Which of the following factors has led to corporations adopting more socially responsible practices?

(1) The desire to be labelled as progressive by the government
(2) Guilt over causing the economic downturn
(3) High attrition rates as employees do not support the companies’ practices
(4) Recognition of the changing demands of customers
(5) Strict penalties imposed by governments against companies with unfair practices

58. What can be inferred from the statistics mentioned about SRI mutual funds in the passage?

(A) The percentage of child labourers has fallen since 1995.
(B) At present tobacco companies are making huge losses.
(C) The government needs to regulate SRI mutual funds as they handle vast amounts of funds,

(1) None
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) Only (C)
(5) Only (B) and (C)

59. What is the author’s view about companies, documentation of CSR initiatives?

(1) Since it is not certified by the government it cannot be considered authentic
(2) It is the ideal way to earn customer loyalty and set a good example for small businesses
(3) It is a waste of time as neither consumers nor companies bother to determine their validity
(4) It should be mandatorily incorporated in the statement of accounts of any firm
(5) None of these

60. Which of the following cannot be said about small businesses?

(A) During the recession their profits have been higher than those made by big corporates.
(B) They adopt fair labour practices and environment friendly methods of production.
(C) They have managed to acquire an investment of over 11 per cent of American capital.

(1) Only (A) and (C)
(2) Only (C)
(3) All (A), (B) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) None of these

Directions (61-63) : Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

61. IDEALS

(1) models
(2) visions
(3) perfection (4) paradigms
(5) values

62. EMBRACED

(1) clinched
(2) adopted
(3) seized
(4) hugged
(5) encompassed

63. ATTRACTS

(1) appeals
(2) encourages
(3) captives
(4) fascinates
(5) pleases

Directions (64 - 65): Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

64. ENLIGHTENED

(1) illiterate
(2) inept
(3) ignorant
(4) illogical
(5) immature

65. HEEDLESS

(1) prudent
(2) obedient
(3) observable
(4) noticeable
(5) wary

Directions (66-70) : In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested, Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer.

66. I. He has now become a ___to reckon with.
II. It is better not to use_____to prove one’s point.

(1) model
(2) force
(3) coercion
(4) name
(5) influence

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - General Awareness " (North Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - General Awareness " (North Zone)

151. KYC means

(1) Know your Company
(2) Know your Customer
(3) Know your Currency
(4) Know your Creditors
(5) None of these

152. India recently signed an agreement with which of the following countries to end a long pending Border Dispute?

(1) Pakistan
(2) China
(3) Bhutan
(4) Myanmar
(5) Bangladesh

153. The maximum amount of the total Revenue earned by the government of India comes from

(1) Income Tax
(2) Customs Duty
(3) Excise Duty
(4) Value Added Tax
(5) Corporate Tax

154. ‘Financial Inclusion’ is the latest powerful tool adopted by Reserve Bank of India, to fulfill the basic objective of

(1) uplifting of population lying Below Poverty Line
(2) Connecting every Indian to the Country’s Banking System
(3) Ensuring bank finance to all the landless agriculturists.
(4) Overall financial growth backed by inflation control.
(5) Inclusion of latest technology in Financial Sector of the Country.

155. Which Bank is the Banker to the Central Government?

(1) Central Bank of India
(2) Reserve Bank of India
(3) Punjab National Bank
(4) State Bank of India
(5) All of these

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156. The higher rate of growth of economy certainly reduces the

(1) Gender inequalities
(2) Poverty
(3) Population of a country
(4) Flow of foreign direct investment
(5) None of these

157. Which of the following is one of the States in India where unemployed youths are paid Unemployment Allowance?

(1) West Bengal
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Uttar Pradesh
(4) Maharashtra
(5) Punjab

158. RBI’s policy stance to manage interest and liquidity are used for

(1) Moderate inflation and maintain economic growth
(2) Moderating competition among private and public sector banks
(3) Eradicate un-employment in public sector.
(4) Moderate currency supply in public hands
(5) Moderate deposits in public sector banks

159. The Prime Minister of India visited which of the following ‘Least Developed Countries’ in Indian sub-continent in May 2011 and agreed to provide US $ 2 billion as financial aid to it ?

(1) Afghanistan
(2) Nepal
(3) Pakistan
(4) Myanmar
(5) Sri Lanka

160. Who among the following is a famous Cricket  player of international repute?

(1) Novak Djokovic
(2) Ricky Ponting
(3) Bob Bryan’
(4) Andy Roddick
(5) Andy Murray

161. Who among the following is the Union Minister of Agriculture at present?

(1) Sri A. K.Antony
(2) Dr. Farooq Abdullah
(3) Sri Jaipal S Reddy
(4) Sri Sharad Pawar
(5) None of these

162. Which of the following is the over all Literacy Rate of India (Census 2011) (Approximately)?

(1) 68%
(2) 70%
(3) 74%
(4) 78%
(5) 82%

163. In India the interest rate on savings bank accounts in all nationalised commercial banks is fixed by

(1) Union Ministry of Finance
(2) Union Finance Commission
(3) Indian Banl:s Association
(4) Reserve Bank of India
(5) All the banks decide together

164. What is Repo Rate?

(1) It is a rate at which RBI sells government securities to banks
(2) It is a rate at which RBI allows small loans in the market
(3) It is a rate at which banks borrow rupees from Reserve Bank of India.
(4) It is a rate which is offered by Banks to their most valued customers or prime customers
(5) None of these

165. Sri N. Rangaswamy who took over as the Chief Minister of Puducherry after elections in 2011 belongs to which of the following political parties?

(1) CPM
(2) BJP
(3) BSP
(4) All India N. R. Congress
(5) SSP

166. NPA in banking terminology denotes

(1) New Para-banking Assets
(2) Net Profitable Assets
(3) Net Performing Assets
(4) Non-performing Assets
(5) New Pension Act

167. Space Agency of which of the following countries put GSAT-12, a Communication Satellite in the orbit recently?

(1) USA
(2) France
(3) China
(4) India
(5) Japan

168. When a customer draws a cheque on a bank

(1) it is a mandate on that bank to pay.
(2) it is a mandate on the Government of India to pay.
(3) it is a mandate on the State Government to pay
(4) it is a mandate on the RBI to pay
(5) it is a mandate on the Finance Ministry to pay.

169. A nationalised bank is also called by the following name

(1) Private Sector Bank
(2) Self Help Group
(3) Cooperative Bank
(4) Grameen Bank
(5) Public Sector Bank

170. ‘Nomination’ for a deposit account in the bank means

(1) Mandate given by the close relative/s of the depositor, to settle the death claim in case of death of the depositor.
(2) Mandate decided by the bank to settle the death claim of its depositor
(3) Mandate of the depositor in favour of one or more persons, to claim the amount on death of the depositor
(4) Mandate of the depositor in favour of a close relative who can claim the amount on death of the depositor.
(5) Court order instructing the banks to settle the death claim of its depositor.

171. The top military bosses of which of the following nations recently resigned en mass to pave way for a Democratic Government in the nation?

(1) Turkey
(2) Myanmar
(3) Pakistan
(4) Afghanistan
(5) None of these

172. In the following accounts operation by cheques is permitted

(1) Savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts.
(2) Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts.
(3) Savings bank accounts and floating loan accounts.
(4) Savings bank accounts and cash accounts.
(5) Savings bank accounts and current accounts.

173. India won the President’s Cup Volley Ball tournaments final 2011 by defeating

(1) Turkey
(2) Russia
(3) Tunisia
(4) Kazakhstan
(5) Ukrain

174. Which of the following awards is given for the excellence in field of Cinema ?

(1) Kalidas Samman
(2) S.S. Bhatnagar Award
(3) Golden Pen Award
(4) Pulitzer Prize
(5) Dada Saheb Phalke Award

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Numerical Ability" (North Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Numerical Ability" (North Zone)

Directions (101-115) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

101. 436.56 – 625.43 + 312.55 = ?

(1) 126.68
(2) 125.86
(3) 134.68
(4) 128.86
(5) None of these

102. 4% of 250 × ?% of 140 = 84

(1) 9
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 10
(5) None of these

103. 4545 / 50 / 5 = ?

(1) 45.5
(2) 17.16
(3) 54.5
(4) 18.18
(5) None of these

104. 5 × ? = 2637 / 3

(1) 3395
(2) 167.8
(3) 5539
(4) 178.6
(5) None of these

105. 1.5 × (52 /2.5) = ?

(1) 30.3
(2) 31.2
(3) 34.1
(4) 35.2
(5) None of these

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Directions (1l6-120): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

116. 15.003 × 14.998 + 125.010 = ?

(1) 400
(2) 320
(3) 290
(4) 270
(5) 350

117. 9525 / 80 / 8 = ?

(1) 23
(2) 15
(3) 7
(4) 19
(5) 10

118. 7777.009 – 596.999 – 89.989 = ?

(1) 6080
(2) 6800
(3) 7090
(4) 8200
(5) 7500

119. 805.0003 / 34.999 = ?

(1) 23
(2) 9
(3) 14
(4) 18
(5) 27

120. (13.5)2 = ?

(1) 170
(2) 200
(3) 150
(4) 215
(5) 180

Directions (121-125) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

121. 8 52  ?  1287  4504.5  11261.25  16891.875

(1) 464
(2) 286
(3) 196
(4) 324
(5) None of these

122. 3  42  504  ? 40320  241920  967680

(1) 5848
(2) 3344
(3) 4736
(4) 5040
(5) None of these

123. 403 400 394 382 358 310 ?

(1) 234
(2) 120
(3) 214
(4) 264
(5) None of these

124. 7  8  4  13  – 3  22 ?

(1) – 7
(2) – 10
(3) – 12
(4) – 14
(5) None of these

125. 250000 62500 12500 3125 625 ? 31.25

(1) 156.25
(2) 172.25
(3) 125
(4) 150
(5) None of these

126. Out of the fractions 1/2, 7/8, 3/4, 5/6 and 6/7 what is the difference between the largest and smallest fractions ?

(1) 7/13
(2) 3/8
(3) 4/7
(4)  1/6
(5) None of these

127. The compound interest accrued in 2 years on a principal of ` 15,800 is ` 7716.72. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a. ?

(1) 22
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

128. What will come in place of both the question marks (?) in the following question?



129. Kabir got 101 marks in Hindi, 100 marks in Science, 96 marks in Sanskrit, 108 marks in Maths and 78 marks in English. If the maximum marks of each subject are equal and if Kabir scored 84 percent marks in all the subjects together, what are the maximum marks of each subject?

(1) 110
(2) 120
(3) 115
(4) 100
(5) None of these

130. The perimeter of a square is thrice the perimeter of a rectangle. If the perimeter of the square is 84 cms and the length of the rectangle is 8 cms, what is the difference between the breadth of the rectangle and the side of the square?

(1) 15 cms
(2) 19 cms
(3) 10 cms
(4) 8 cms
(5) None of these

131. The average weight of 21 girls was recorded as 58 kgs. If the teacher’s weight was added, the average increased by one. What was the teacher’s weight?

(1) 96 kgs
(2) 78 kgs
(3) 80 kgs
(4) 62 kgs
(5) None of these

132. Find the missing number if the average of all the eight numbers is 472.

623, 164, 529, 425 ______, 205, 301, 824

(1) 737
(2) 711
(3) 723
(4) 705
(5) None of these

133. Savita sold an item for ` 6,500 and incurred a loss of 20%. At what price should she have sold the item to have gained a profit of 20%?

(1) Rs. 10,375
(2) Rs. 9,750
(3) Rs. 8,125
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Reasoning" (Eastern Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Reasoning" (Eastern Zone)

1. How many meaningful English words can be formed, starting with S, with the second, the fourth, the fifth and the eighth letters of the word PERISHED, using each letter only once in each word? (To be counted from left)

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

2. The positions of how many digits in the number 837912 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order? (from left to right)

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

3. In a certain code ‘BUILT is written as ‘5#32@’ and ‘TRIBE’ is written as ‘@935©’, How is ‘RULE’ written in that code?

(1) 9#2©
(2) 95#©
(3) @#3©
(4) @2#©
(5) None of these

4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STREAMING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (in both forward and backward directions)

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

5. In a certain code ‘CLEAR’ Is written as ‘SBFMD’ and ‘BONDS’ is written as ‘TEOPC’. How is ‘STALE’ written In that code?

(1) BKZSR
(2) CUTFM
(3) SUBMF
(4) FMBUT
(5) None of these

Directions (6-10) : Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below

R @ 2 9 T V A Y 5 © # J I P 8 Q $ E 3 * H % 6 W 4 I d U Z

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group, Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) J P ©
(2) E Q*
(3) W 1 %
(4) 9 V @
(5) 1 # 6

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7. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the nineteenth element from the right end?

(1) J
(2) V
(3) W
(4) 8
(5) None of these

8. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

9. If the positions of the last eighteen elements in the above arrangement are reversed, which of the following will be the seventeenth from the left end?

(1) H
(2) P
(3) W
(4) 6
(5) None of these

10. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is either immediately followed by a symbol or immediately preceded by a symbol?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four

Directions (11-15) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre not necessarily in the same order, F is fourth to the left of A and second to the right of C. B is second to the left of A, and A is to the Immediate right of G, E who is not an immediate neighbour of B is fourth to the left of D.

11. Which of the following is correct?

(1) F is third to the left of B
(2) H is third to the left of D
(3) C is third to the left of B
(4) E is third to the left of F
(5) All are correct

12. What is H’s position with respect to G ?

(1) Fifth to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Third to the right
(4) Fifth to the left
(5) Fourth to the left

13. Who is second to the right of E ?

(1) C
(2) H
(3) G
(4) A
(5) Data inadequate

14. Who is to the immediate right of F?

(1) D
(2) H
(3) B
(4) C
(5) None of these

15. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of A?

(1) EB
(2) GC
(3) EG
(4) ED
(5) None of these

Directions (16-20): In the following questions, the symbols ©, d, $, * and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

(i) ‘A d B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’
(ii) ‘A% B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.
(iii) ‘A © B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.
(iv) ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is greater than B’.
(v) ‘A * B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statementsto be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is are definitely true?

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer (4) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

16. Statements:

R $ J, J % M, M © K

Conclusions:

I. K © J
II. K *J

17. Statements:

D d R, M $ R, M © F

Conclusions:

I. F $ D
II. F $ R

18. Statements:

H © F, F $ R, R*K

Conclusions:

I. R * H
II. K $ F

19. Statements:

B % D, D* T, T d R

Conclusions:

I. B $ T
II. R $ D

20. Statements:

M % N, N * A, A $ B

Conclusions:

I. B * N
II. A $ M

Directions (21-25) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and-

Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question. while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

21. Village P is towards which direction of village R?

I. Village R is to the South- East of village T and T is to the North of village P.
II. Village Q is to the South of village P and to the South West of village R.

22. Who among A, B, C, D and E, each having a different height. Is the third tallest?

I. E is shorter than only B.
II. C is taller than only A.

23. How many sisters does K have?

I. M is sister of K.
II. K’s mother has three children.

24. In a row of thirty students facing North, what is R’s position from the left end?

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - General Awareness" (Eastern Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - General Awareness" (Eastern Zone)

151. India has agreed to provide financial help to which of the following countries so that it can also implement its 10th Five Year’s Plan (2008 - 13) successfully?

(1) Afghanistan
(2) Myanmar
(3) Pakistan
(4) Nepal
(5) Bhutan

152. Which of the following States is a major producer of Sugar in India?

(1) Goa
(2) Punjab
(3) Jammu & Kashmir
(4) Himachal Pradesh
(5) Maharashtra

153. A bank branch receives a counterfeit note of Rs. 100 from the customer. which customer wants it back. Which of the following action should be taken by the Bank?

(1) Will return to customer
(2) Will impound and not return
(3) Will ask for exchange of note
(4) Will replace with genuine note
(5) Will check all the notes in possession with the customer which are not being deposited also

154. Which of the following is Dot a mode of foreign capital inflow in India?

(1) FDI
(2) NRI deposits
(3) FII
(4) No frills accounts
(5) None of these

155. Exporters and importers in India are required to know ‘FEMA’ rules. What does the letter ‘M’ denote in the term ‘FEMA’?

(1) Money
(2) Material
(3) Mega
(4) Management
(5) Micro

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

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IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Numerical Ability" (Eastern Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Numerical Ability" (Eastern Zone)

Directions (101-115): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

101. 5 × ? = 8042 / 4

(1) 296.1
(2) 5433.6
(3) 10052.5
(4) 402.1
(5) None of these

102. 206 × 71 – 12082 = ?

(1) 2546
(2) 2654
(3) 2564
(4) 2645
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

106. 14% of 905 + ? = 287

(1) 148.7
(2) 160.3
(3) 163.1
(4) 162.5
(5) None of these

107. 2073.5 ¸ (22 × 14.5) = ?

(1) 7.5
(2) 6.5
(3) 4.5
(4) 3.5
(5) None of these

108. 6824 + 7864 = ? × 40

(1) 376.4
(2) 359.2
(3) 363.4
(4) 367.2
(5) None of these

109. 10000 / 100 / 10 = ?

(1) 1
(2) 0.1
(3) 1000
(4) 100
(5) None of these

110. (49)2 × (7)8 ¸ (343)3 = (7)?

(1) 3
(2) 11
(3) 7
(4) 9
(5) None of these

111. 7825 – 9236 + 5234 = ? × 25

(1) 152.92
(2) 152.29
(3) 125.29
(4) 125.92
(5) None of these

112. 58% of 450 – ?% of 250 = 181

(1) 34
(2) 30
(3) 32
(4) 48
(5) None of these

113. 17.7% of 286 = ?

(1) 52.262
(2) 48.266
(3) 54.626
(4) 50.622
(5) None of these

114. 13.5 × 16.3 × 12.8 = ?

(1) 2861.46
(2) 2168.46
(3) 2816.64
(4) 2186.64
(5) None of these

115. 525.25 + 52.52 + 5.2 = ?

(1) 678.79
(2) 428.97
(3) 588.97
(4) 582.79
(5) None of these

Directions (116-120) : What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

116. (12.999)3 = ?

(1) 1800
(2) 2100
(3) 2000
(4) 2500
(5) 2200

117. 50550 / 50 / 5 = ?

(1) 350
(2) 150
(3) 300
(4) 250
(5) 200

118. 49.0003 / 74.999 = ?

(1) 0.05
(2) 0.2
(3) 1
(4) 0.7
(5) 2

119. 23.003 × 22.998 + 100.010 = ?

(1) 630
(2) 550
(3) 700
(4) 720
(5) 510

120. 125.009 + 69.999 + 104.989 = ?

(1) 420
(2) 300
(3) 285
(4) 415
(5) 325

Directions (121-125) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

121. 2 14 84 420 1680 5042 ?

(1) 8940
(2) 8680
(3) 10080
(4) 5030
(5) None of these

122. 3 5 8 13 21 34 ?

(1) 62
(2) 57
(3) 55
(4) 74
(5) None of these

123. 1 2 6 21 ? 445 2676

(1) 88
(2) 77
(3) 52
(4) 64
(5) None of these

124. 27 125 ? 729 1331 2197 3375

(1) 612
(2) 347
(3) 216
(4) 343
(5) None of these

125. 10400 2600 650 ? 40.625 10.15625 2.5390625

(1) 175.5
(2) 162.5
(3) 154.75
(4) 156.25
(5) None of these

126. The average of four consecutive odd numbers A, B, C and D respectivley is 24. What is the product of B and D ?

(1) 384
(2) 475
(3) 621
(4) 625
(5) None of these

127. Samir walks 150 metre everyday. How many kilometres will he walk in 3 weeks?

(1) 2.15
(2) 4.92
(3) 4.18
(4) 3.15
(5) None of these

128. The area of a square is thrice the area of a rectangle. If the area of the square is 225 sq.cms and the length of the rectangle is 15 cms, what is the difference between the breadth of the rectangle and the side of the square?

(1) 8 cms
(2) 10 cms
(3) 12 cms
(4) 16 cms
(5) None of these

129. Find the average of the following set of scores -

125, 236, 334, 486, 564, 625, 702, 800

(1) 448
(2) 482
(3) 624
(4) 542
(5) None of the

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Computer Knowledge" (Eastern Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Computer Knowledge" (Eastern Zone)

201. The operation of combining two cells into a single cell in Excel is referred to as______

(1) Join Cells
(2) Merge Cells
(3) Merge Table
(4) Join Table
(5) None of these

202. Which of the following can be used to store a large number of files in a small amount of storage space?

(1) file adjustment
(2) file copying
(3) file reading
(4) file compatibility
(5) file compression

203. In a computer most processing takes place in______

(1) Memory
(2) RAM
(3) Motherboard
(4) CPU
(5) None of these

204. Data is organized in a worksheet as_____

(1) charts and diagrams
(2) rows and columns
(3) tables and boxes
(4) graphs
(5) None of these

205. Which of the following is an example of a binary number?

(1) 6AH1
(2) 100101
(3) 005
(4) ABCD
(5) 23456

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206. Spell Check will find errors in which of the following?

(1) Today is a rainy day
(2) Today is a rainy a day
(3) is a rainy
(4) Rainy today a day
(5) None of these

207. Which of the following is not a storage medium?

(1) hard disk
(2) flash drive
(3) DVD
(4) CD
(5) keyboard

208. In Excel. when the contents and attributes of a cell or range of cells have to be erased using the menu, the user must __

(1) Select the cells, choose Edit, and select Clear, then All
(2) Select the cells, and click delete on the keyboard
(3) Select the cells. choose Tools, and select Clear. then Formats
(4) Select the cells, choose Tools, and select Formula Audit, then Delete
(5) None of these

209. The computer abbreviation KB usually means____

(1) Key Block
(2) Kernel Boot
(3) Kilo Byte
(4) Kit Bit
(5) None of these

210. If an Excel Worksheet is to be linked for use in a PowerPoint presentation, the following should be clicked_____

(1) Edit, Paste Special
(2) Edit, Paste
(3) Edit, Copy
(4) Pile, Copy
(5) None or these

211. RAM stands for __

(1) Random Access Memory
(2) Ready Application Module
(3) Read Access Memory
(4) Remote Access Machine
(5) None of these

212. Which of the following is hardware and not software?

(1) Excel
(2) Printer driver
(3) Operating System
(4) Power Point
(5) Control Unit

213. In Word, which menu would the usesr select to print a document ?

(l) Tools
(2) Pile
(3) View
(4) Window
(5) None of these

214. Which of the following is not true about computer files?

(1) They are collections of data saved to a storage medium.
(2) Every me has a filename.
(3) A me extension is established by the user  to indicate the date it was created
(4) Usually files contain data.
(5) None of these

215. The common name for a modulator-demodulator is

(1) modem
(2) joiner
(3) networker
(4) connector
(5) demod

216. What do you see when you click the right mouse button?

(1) The same effect as the left click
(2) A special menu
(3) No effect
(4) A mouse cannot be right clicked
(5) Computer goes to sleep mode

217. In order to choose the font for a sentence in a WORD document______

(1) select Font in the Format menu
(2) select Font in the Edit menu
(3) select Font in the Tools menu
(4) select Font in the Insert menu
(5) None of these

218. The ALU performs _____ operations.

(1) logarithm-based
(2) ASCII
(3) algorithm-based
(4) arithmetic
(5) None of these

219. Excel is a program that is used to prepare a __

(1) Database
(2) Text Document
(3) Spreadsheet
(4) Slide Presentation
(5) None of these

220. _____consists of volatile chips that temporarily store data or instructions.

(1) CPU
(2) ROM
(3) RMA
(4) RAM
(5) None of these

221. How many kilobytes make a megabyte?

(1) 128
(2) 1024
(3) 256
(4) 512
(5) 64

222. In order to delete a sentence from a document you would use __

(1) highlight and copy
(2) cut and paste
(3) copy and paste
(4) highlight and delete
(5) select and paste

223. Editing a document that has been created means_____

(1) saving it
(2) printing it
(3) scanning it
(4) correcting it
(5) None of these

224. In a computer, how many bits does a nibble signify ?

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 32
(5) 64

225. Which ofthe following is not true about a compiler?

(1) Translates instruction of a high level language into machine language
(2) Translates entire source program into machine language program
(3) It Is involved in program’s execution
(4) Is a translating program
(5) Is useful to run programs

226. Keyboards, scanners, and microphones are examples of ______

(1) software programs
(2) input devices
(3) output devices
(4) utilities
(5) None of these

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 04-12-2011, 1st Sitting - Reasoning" (Eastern Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 04-12-2011, 1st Sitting - Reasoning" (Eastern Zone)

1. In a certain code GRANT is written as UOBSH and PRIDE is written as FEJSQ. How is SOLD written in that code?

(1) EPMT
(2) TPME
(3) EMPT
(4) CKNR
(5) ETPM

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) 19
(2) 17
(3) 13
(4) 27
(5) 37

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the second, the fourth, the sixth and the seventh letters of the word STUMBLE using each letter only once in each word?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

4. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following letter series based on the English alphabetical order?
BE GJ LO QT ?

(1) UX
(2) VY
(3) SV
(4) RU
(5) WZ

5. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GOVERNMENT each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabet?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

Directions (6-10): In the following questions, the symbols d %, $, # and @ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

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6. Statements :

F @ N, N R. H @ R

Conclusions:

I. H d N
II. F # R

7. Statements :

M # T, T @ K. K $ N

Conclusions:

I. M # N
II. K d M

8. Statements :

T%H, H$W

Conclusions:

I. W # T
II. W % T

9. Statements :

N d K. K # D, D % M

Conclusions:

I. M d K
II. D d N

10. Statements:

J $ B, B % R. R d F

Conclusions:

I. F # B
II. R @ J

Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are Sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C. is third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

11. Who is to the immediate right of C?

(1) D
(2) G
(3) E
(4) B
(5) Data inadequate

12. Who is the only one person sitting between A and G?

(1) B
(2) D
(3) C
(4) E
(5) F

13. Who is to the immediate left of D?

(1) B
(2) C
(3) A
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

14. Who is second to the left of C?

(1) B
(2) G
(3) F
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

15. What is E’s position with respect to D?

(1) To the immediate right
(2) To the immediate left
(3) Third to the right
(4) Second to the right
(5) Third to the left

Directions (16-20): In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding system and the conditions given below and mark the number of that combination as ;your answer. If none of the carbonations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.

(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as ‘*’.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

16. ERWHKA

(1) 2@©6#1
(2) 1@©6#2
(3) 1@©6#1
(4) 2@©6#2
(5) None of these

17. MPEKDU

(1) $42#5
(2) $42#5$
(3) d42#5
(4) d425#$
(5) None of these

18. TMEIUF

(1) 7$2%d9
(2) 7$2%d7
(3) 9$2%d7
(4) 9$2%d9
(5) None of these

Directions (21-25): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and—

Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

21. In a row of girls facing North, what is D’s position from the left end?

I. D is twentieth from the right end.
II. There are ten girls between B and D.

22. Town M is towards which direction of Town K?

I. Town K is towards North- West of Town D.
II. Town M is towards South-East of Town D.

23. How many daughters does P have?

I. K and M are sisters of T.
II. T’s father is husband of P’s mother.

24. On which day of the week from Monday to Sunday did Arun leave for London?

I. Arun did not leave for London during the weekend.
II. Arun’s brother left for London on Friday two days after Arun left for London.

25. How is ‘new’ written in a code language?

I. ‘new good clothes’ is written as ‘5 3 9’ in that code language.
II. ‘good clothes are costly’ is written as ‘ 9 6 7 3’ in that code language.

Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement, (All numbers are two-digit numbers.) Input : good for everything 19 37 26 all 65

Step I : all good for everything 19 37 26 65
Step II : all 65 good for everything 1937 26
Step III : all 65 everything good for 19 37 26
Step IV : all 65 everything 37 good for 19 26
Step V : all 65 everything 37 for good 19 26
Step VI : all 65 everything 37 for 26 good 19

and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement as the desired arrangement is reached. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. (All numbers are two-digit numbers.)

26. Input: won 13 now 25 72 please go 47

How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Three
(5) None of these

27. Step III of an input is :

car 81 desk 15 42 39 tall more

Which of the following will be Step VI?

(1) car 81 desk 42 39 15 tall more
(2) car 81 desk 42 15 39 tall more
(3) car 81 desk 42 more 39 15 tall
(4) There will be no such step.
(5) None of these

28. Step II of an input is :

bell 53 town hall near 27 43 12

How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Three
(5) None of these

29. Step II of an input is :

box 93 25 year end 41 32 value

Which of the following is def tmtely the input?

(1) 25 year end box 93 41 32 value
(2) 25 year end 93 41 32 value box
(3) 9325 box year end 41 32 value
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

30. Input:

paper dry 37 23 height call 62 51

Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

(1) V
(2) IV
(3) VI
(4) III
(5) None of these

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, Q, R. S, T, V and W are travelling in three buses A, B and C with at least two of them in any of these buses.

Each of them has a favourite (likes) cuisine viz. Punjabi, Rajasthani, Bengali, Maharashtrian, Gujarati. Kashmirt and Udipi not necessarily in the same order.

Q is travelling in bus B with T. T’s favourtte cuisine is Udtpi. Those who travel in bus A do not like Punjabi and Maharashtrian cuisines. The one who likes Rajasthani cuisine travels only with W in bus C. The one whose favourite cuisine is Gujarati does not travel in the same bus with either T or W. P does not travel in bus B. P likes Kashmiri cuisine. S and V are travelling in the same bus. V does not like Bengali cuisine. The one whose favourite cuisine is Maharashtrian does not travel in Bus B.

31. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(1) A-V-Gujarati
(2) B-S-Bengali
(3) C-W-Punjabi
(4) B-Q-Gujarati
(5) All are incorrect

32. Whose favourite cuisine is Rajasthani?

(1) Q
(2) S
(3) V
(4) R
(5) Data inadequate

33. What is S’s favourite cuisine?

(1) Maharashtrian
(2) Bengali
(3) Rajasthani
(4) Kashmiri
(5) Data inadequate

34. What is Q’s favourite cuisine?

(1) Kashmiri
(2) Maharashtrian
(3) Punjabi
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

35. In which bus are three of them travelling?

(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) A or B only
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Directions (36-40) : In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow.

36. Statements :

No holiday is vacations.
Some vacations are trips,

Conclusions:

I. No trip is a holiday,
II. Some holidays are definitely not trips.

37. Statements :

Some kites are birds,
No kite is an aeroplane.

Conclusions:

I. All aeroplanes are birds.
II. Some birds are definitely not kites.

38. Statements :

All metals are plastics.
All plastics are fibres.

Conclusions:

I. Atleast some fibres are metals.
II. Some metals are not fibres.

39. Statements :

All roads are streets.
No street is a highway.

Conclusions:

I. No highway is a road.
II. All streets are roads.

40. Statements :

Some animals are plants.
All plants are rocks.

Conclusions:

I. All plants are animals.
II. Atleast some rocks are animals.

Directions (41-50) : In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?


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IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Notification) Recruitment of IBPS Clerk 2021-22


(Notification) Recruitment of IBPS Clerk 2021-22


Post Detail : 

Post Name

Gen.

EWS

OBC

SC

ST

Total

Bank Wise Details

Uttar Pradesh

61

12

41

19

03

136

Click Here

Uttarakhand

12

01

01

04

0

18

Click Here

Delhi

30

06

17

10

04

67

Click Here

Bihar

36

08

09

23

0

76

Click Here

Jharkhand

28

04

05

05

13

55

Click Here

Madhya Pradesh

33

07

09

12

14

75

Click Here

Chattisgarh

05

0

0

0

02

07

Click Here

Haryana

18

02

09

06

0

35

Click Here

Rajasthan

23

04

09

07

05

48

Click Here

Maharashtra

151

32

89

34

28

334

Click Here

West Bengal

49

16

28

28

04

125

Click Here

Himachal Pradesh

18

03

09

09

01

40

Click Here

Andhra Pradesh

07

0

01

01

01

10

Click Here

Arunachal Pradesh

01

-

-

-

-

01

Click Here

Assam

07

01

0

01

07

16

Click Here

Chandigarh

04

0

01

01

0

06

Click Here

Dadar & Nagar / Daman & Diu

03

0

0

0

01

04

Click Here

Goa

11

01

02

0

03

17

Click Here

Gujarat

53

10

31

05

20

119

Click Here

Jammu Kashmir

03

01

01

01

0

05

Click Here

Karnataka

15

02

06

04

02

29

Click Here

Kerala

17

02

10

03

02

32

Click Here

Lakshyadeep

01

0

0

01

01

02

Click Here

Manipur

01

0

01

0

0

02

Click Here

Megalaya

01

0

0

0

0

01

Click Here

Mizoram

01

0

0

0

0

01

Click Here

Nagaland

03

0

0

0

02

05

Click Here

Odisha

21

03

07

02

10

43

Click Here

Puducheery

03

0

0

0

0

03

Click Here

Punjab

58

12

28

38

0

136

Click Here

Sikkim

0

0

01

0

0

01

Click Here

Tamil Nadu

48

07

13

09

0

77

Click Here

Telangana

10

01

05

03

01

20

Click Here

Tripura

06

01

0

04

0

11

Click Here

Total No of Post : 1557

Educational Qualifications:

A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a University recognised by the Govt. Of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.

The candidate must possess valid Mark-sheet / Degree Certificate that he/ she is a graduate on the day he / she registers and indicate the percentage of marks obtained in Graduation while registering online. Computer Literacy: Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidates should have Certificate/Diploma/Degree in computer operations/Language/ should have studied Computer / Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/College/Institute. 

Proficiency in the Official Language of the State/UT (candidates should know how to read/ write and speak the Official Language of the State/UT) for which vacancies a candidate wishes to apply is preferable. Ex-Servicemen who do not possess the above civil examination qualifications should be matriculate Ex-Servicemen who have obtained the Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or Air Force after having completed not less than 15 years of service in the Armed Forces of the Union as on 23.09.2020. Such certificates should be dated on or before 23.09.2020.  

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:

Candidates, intending to apply for CRP Clerks-VIII should ensure that they fulfil the minimum eligibility criteria specified by IBPS in this advertisement:

Nationality / Citizenship:

A candidate must be either -
(i) a Citizen of India or
(ii) a subject of Nepal or
(iii) a subject of Bhutan or
(iv) a Tibetan Refugee who came over to India before 1st January 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India
or
(v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) &
(v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. 

Age Limit :

Age (As on 01.09.2019):

  • Minimum: 20 years
  • Maximum: 28 years

i.e. A candidate must have been born not earlier than 02.09.1992 and not later than 01.09.1920 (both dates inclusive)

Sr. No.

Category

Age relaxation

1

Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe

5 years

2

Other Backward Classes (Non-Creamy Layer)

3 years

3

Persons With Disabilities

10 years

4

Ex-Servicemen / Disabled Ex-Servicemen

actual period of service rendered in the defence forces + 3 years (8 years for Disabled Ex- Servicemen belonging to SC/ST) subject to a maximum age limit of 50 years

5

Widows, divorced women and women legally separated from their husbands who have not remarried

9 years

6

Persons affected by 1984 riots

5 years

7

Regular employees of the Union Carbide Factory,Bhopal retrenched from service (Applicable to Madhya Pradesh state only)

5 years

Fees :

Application Fees/ Intimation Charges Payable from 02.09.2020 to 23.09.2020 (Online payment), both dates inclusive, shall be as follows

- Rs. 175/- for SC/ST/PWD/EXSM candidates.
- Rs. 850 /- for all others

SELECTION PROCESS:

PRE-EXAMINATION TRAINING

Note- Due to COVID-19 pandemic, for the safety of the candidates, PET during this period may not be held.

Pre-Examination Training may be arranged by the Nodal Banks/ Participating Organisations to a limited number of candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribes/ Minority Communities/ Ex-Servicemen/ Persons With Benchmark Disabilities at certain centres viz. Agartala, Agra, Ahmedabad, Amritsar, Aurangabad (Maharashtra), Balasore, Behrampur (Ganjam), Bengaluru, Bhopal, Bhubaneshwar, Chandigarh, Chennai, Coimbatore, Dehradun, Dhanbad, Gorakhpur, Gulbarga, Guwahati, Hubli, Hyderabad, Indore, Jabalpur, Jaipur, Jammu, Jodhpur, Karnal, Kavaratti, Kochi, Kolkata, Lucknow, Ludhiana, Madurai, Mangalore, Mumbai, Muzaffarpur, Mysore, Nagpur, New Delhi, Panaji (Goa), Patiala, Patna, Port Blair, Prayagraj (Allahabad), Pune, Raipur, Rajkot, Ranchi, Sambalpur, Shimla, Shillong, Siliguri, Thiruchirapalli, Thiruvananthapuram, Tirupati, Vadodara, Varanasi, Vijaywada and Vishakhapatnam. 

All eligible candidates who opt for and wish to avail of Pre-Examination Training should fill in the relevant column in the ON-LINE APPLICATION. While training will be imparted free of cost, all other expenses regarding travelling, boarding, lodging etc. will have to be borne by the candidate for attending the pre-examination training programme at the designated Centres. Depending on the response and administrative feasibility the right to cancel any of the PreExamination Training Centres and/ or add some other Centres and/or make alternate arrangements is reserved. By merely attending the Pre-Examination Training no candidate acquires any right to be selected in any of the Participating Organisations mentioned 

Printed Study Kit for IBPS Clerk Exam

IBPS Clerk Exam Papers

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(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 04-12-2011, 1st Sitting - English Language" (Eastern Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 04-12-2011, 1st Sitting - English Language" (Eastern Zone)

Directions (51-55) : In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3)’ (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context or each sentence. Number of that word is the answer.

51. I. Our office decided to organize a party for the_______couple.
II. She _____ him in conversation to while away some time.

(1) new
(2) engaged
(3) pledged
(4) held
(5) encountered

52. I. It is required that you fill out these two______to register for the job.
II. This subject has many practical_____ in day to day life.

(1) forms
(2) applications
(3) relevance
(4) statements
(5) views

53. I. The next______of this case is after two months.
II. After the accident her____ has been affected.

(1) dates
(2) balance
(3) evidence
(4) health
(5) hearing

54. I. As a last_______ we had to accept these terms and condilions.
II. This place has become a good tourist________ now.

(1) resort
(2) step
(3) attraction
(4) spot
(5) means

55. I. The organization decided on an hourly minimum______of Rs.35.
II. Will he_____ a war on these fronts to improve things?

(1) pay
(2) declare
(3) pose
(4) wage
(5) campaign

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(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 04-12-2011, 2nd Sitting - General Awareness" (Eastern Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 04-12-2011, 2nd Sitting - General Awareness" (Eastern Zone)

151. Which of the following Awards is given for excellence in the field of Literature?

(1) Dada Saheb Phalke Award
(2) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(3) Padma Bhushan
(4) Nirja Bhanot Award
(5) Pulitzer Prize

152. Ms. Hina Rabbani Khar of Pakistan and Mr. Yang Jiechi of China held a meeting recently in Beijing. Both of them are holding which of the following positions in their respective countries?

(1) Prime Ministers
(2) Commerce Ministers
(3) Foreign Secretaries
(4) Foreign Ministers
(5) None of these

153. International Cricket Matches are NOT played in-

(1) Mohali Stadium
(2) Wankhede Stadium
(3) Eden Gardens
(4) Green Park Stadium
(5) Mughal Garden

154. Which term is used in Physics?

(1) Credit
(2) Absolute Zero
(3) Rabies (4) Thyroxin
(5) Liquidity

155. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Chess?

(1) Checkmate
(2) Hoops
(3) Stroke
(4) Heave
(5) Deuce

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(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 04-12-2011, 1st Sitting - Numerical Ability" (Eastern Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 04-12-2011, 1st Sitting - Numerical Ability" (Eastern Zone)

Directions (101-115): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

101. 16% of 450 / ?% of 250 = 4.8

(1) 12
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 10
(5) None of these

102. 19.5% of 524 = ?

(1) 102.18
(2) 122.81
(3) 120.18
(4) 112.81
(5) None of these

108. 8059 – 7263 = ? × 40

(1) 19.9
(2) 18.7
(3) 15.9
(4) 17.7
(5) None of these

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(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 04-12-2011, 1st Sitting - Computer Knowledge" (Eastern Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 04-12-2011, 1st Sitting - Computer Knowledge" (Eastern Zone)

201. Assembly language is-

(1) Machine Language
(2) High-level programming language
(3) A low-level programming language
(4) Language for assembling computers
(5) None-of these

202. Which of the following is not one of the syntax rules?

(1) The order in which you list the function’s arguments
(2) The precedence of the arguments
(3) Whether or not the function has arguments
(4) Properly spelling the function’s name
(5) None of these

203. The binary system is a number system to the base-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 10
(5) 16

204. Which of the following is not an example of hardware?

(1) Scanner
(2) Printer
(3) Monitor
(4) Mouse
(5) Interpreter

205. Which contents are lost when the computer turns off ?

(1) storage
(2) input
(3) output
(4) memory
(5) None of these

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Paper I - 2014 "English"



RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Paper I - 2014

ENGLISH



1. Write an argumentative essay of about 500 words, on any one of the following :—

(a) Euthanasia, a debatable phenomenon in India.
(b) Media is one of the strongest pillars of democracy.
(c) Role of R.B.I. in controlling the inflation.
(d) Stand of the NDA Government in dealing with corruption.
(e) Uses and misuses of Anti-Dowry Act.
(f) Commonwealth Games-2014 and India.

2. (a) Make a précis of the following passage in your own words, reducing it to about 230 words and give it a suitable title. Use the précis sheet specially provided for this purpose :—

Against the background of a stable recovery of world economy, the 6th BRICS leaders meeting from July, 15th to 16th at Fortaleza, Brazil, with the theme of Sustainable Solutions for Inclusive Growth, is definitely among the most important international events in the second half of this year. It is also an important event for ChinaIndia relations since the President of China has had his first ever meeting with the new Indian Prime Minister on the sidelines of the summit. The BRICS has become an important force to cope with the
international financial crisis, in driving global economic growth and in promoting democratization of international relations.

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Computer Knowledge

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Computer Knowledge

1. Buffer is device/storage area–
1. Where data are temporarily stored
2. Where data is permanently stored
3. Where data error occurs
4. All of the above 5. None of these

2. A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number of nodes is called–
1. Car Topology
2. Bus Topology
3. Truck Topology
4. All of the above
5. None of these

3. An error in a computer program is referred as–
1. Bug
2. Bit
3. Virus
4. All of the above
5. None of these

4. Circuits that provide a communication path between two or more devices of a digital computer system is–
1. Car
2. Bus
3. Truck
4. All of the above
5. None of these

5. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred as–
1. Byte
2. Octal
3. Bubble
4. All of the above
5. None of these

6. Cache memory is a–
1. Small buffer storage
2. Permanent storage
3. Main memory
4. All of the above
5. None of these

7. The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number system is referred as–
1. Number system
2. Base
3. Power
4. All of the above
5. None of these

8. Cache memory is–
1. Smaller and faster than main storage
2. Bigger and slower than main storage
3. Smaller but slower than main memory
4. Bigger and faster than main memory
5. None of these

9. Cache memory–
1. Is a Static RAM
2. Increases the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate
3. Both 1. and 2. are true .
4. Both 1. and 2. are false
5. None of these

 

10. Following is false for BASIC–1. Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
2. High-level interactive programming language
3. Works in time sharing environment
4. Low level object oriented language
5. None of these

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11. A unit for measuring data transmission speed that describes the capacity of a carrier is referred as–
1. Baud
2. Bit
3. Bond
4. All of the above
5. Batch

12. A process of trying out a new product by independent users before it is finally manufactured/developed–
1. Alpha test
2. Beta Test
3. Gamma test
4. All of the above
5. None of these

13. A selection, choice, or condition involving two possibilities is referred as–
1. Unary
2. Binary
3. Octal
4. All of the above
5. None of these

14. Base band System is–
1. A networking system
2. Where the channel support a single digital signal
3. Both 1. and 2. are true
4. All of the above
5. None is true

15. One of the early coding systems, based on the idea of converting each digit of a decimal number into its binary equivalent rather than converting the entire decimal value into a pure binary form is–
1. ASCII code
2. BCD
3. ASCII-8
4. All of the above
5. None of these

16. In Batch processing–
1. Several computer programs runs one after another without human interaction to run each program individually
2. Several computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
3. Selected computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
4. All of the above
5. None is true

17. BISYNC is–
1. Binary synchronous
2. A process of transmitting data
3. A half-duplex, character oriented, synchronous data communication transmission method
4. All of the above 5. None of these

18. A device that is used to transmit data from one location to another is referred as–
1. Storage
2. Memory
3. Carrier
4. All of the above
5. None of these

19. Programs developed by an outside supplier and provided to the user in a machine readable form is known as–
1. Canned programs
2. Beta program
3. Alpha program
4. All of the above
5. None of these

20. A binary numbers are represented by–
1. Digits 0 and 1
2. Digits 0, 1, ..., 8
3. Digits AB, C,...
4. All of the above
5. None of these

21. BIOS is responsible for
1. Handling the particulars of input/output operations
2. Output operations
3. Input operations
4. All of the above
5. None of these

22. BIOS is an abbreviation for–
1. Binary Input/Binary Output
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above 5. None of these

23. BISYNC is an abbreviation for–
1. Binary Input/Binary Output
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above 5. None of these

24. The overall design, construction, organiz-ation and interconnecting of the various components of a computer system is referred as–
1. Computer Architecture
2. Computer Flowchart
3. Computer Algorithm
4. All of the above
5. None of these

25. A number system with a base of two is referred as–
1. Unary number system
2. Binary number system
3. Octal number system
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Answers:

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - English Language

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - English Language


Direction: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested. One of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out appropriate word in each case.

The Reserve Bank has taken a bold (46) in the development of money, the government securities and the foreign exchange markets in (47) of their critical role in overall growth and development of the economy and (48) in the transmission mechanism of monetary policy. The approach has been one of simultaneous movements on several fronts, graduated and callibrated, with an (49) on institutional and infrastructural development and  improvements in market microstructure. The pace of reforms was contingent (50) putting in place appropriate systems and procedures, technologies and market practices. Initiatives taken by the Reserve Bank have brought about a (51) transformation of various segments of the financial market. These developments by improving the depth and liquidity in domestic financial markets have (52) to better price discovery of interest rates and exchange rates, which, in turn, hae led to greater (53) in resource allocation in the economy. The increase in size and depth of financial market has (54) the way for (55) use of indirect instruments.

1. (1) interest
(2) participation
(3) step
(4) role
(5) None of these

2. (1) point
(2) tune
(3) view
(4) pursuit
(5) None of these

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Mental Ability

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Mental Ability

Verbal

1. If Step IV reads ‘to restrict the use of air conditioners”, which of the following will definitely be the input?
(1)use to of the air conditioners restrict
(2)restrict the to of air conditioners use
(3)the air conditioners of restrict use to
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security reasons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every batch. Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch.
Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by
Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on…

2. If pass-code for the third batch is ‘night succeed day and hard work-to for’, what will be the pass-code for the sixth batch?
(1)work hard to for succeed night and day
(2)hard work for and succeed night to day
(3)work hard for to succeed night and day
(4)hard work for to succeed night and day
(5) None of these

3. If ‘visit in zoo should the time day’ is the pass-code for the fifth batch, zoo we the should visit day time in’ will be the pass-code for which of following batches?
(1) II
(2) IV
(3) I
(4) III
(5) VI

4. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code ‘to fast rush avoid not do very run’. What would have been the pass-code for him had he visited the museum in the second bitch?
(1)rush do not avoid to run very fast
(2)rush not do-avoid to run very
(3)avoid rush not do to run very fast
(4) Date inadequate
(5) None of these

5. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code ‘length the day equal of an night are’. However, he could not visit the museum in the second batch as he was a little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new pass-code issued to him?
(1)and of are night the length equal day
(2)and are of night the length equal day
(3)and of are night the equal day length
(4 )an d of are th e night len gth day equal
(5) None of these

 

6. If ass-code for the second batch is ‘to confidence hard you leads work and success’, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?(1)leads success to you hard confidence and work
(2)leads success you to hard confidence and work
(3)leads success to you hard confidence work and
(4)leads to success you hard confidence and work
(5) None of these

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