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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Current Affairs

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Institute of Banking Personnel Selection
Common Written Examination :2011 (Current Affairs)

Nilekani Panel Submits Report on Cash Transfer Scheme

UIDAI Chairman Nandan Nilekani submitted the report of the committee headed by him regarding direct transfer of subsidy to the beneficiaries, to the Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee. The interim report of the task force on direct transfer of subsidies on Kerosene, LPG and Fertilisers suggested creation of a Core Subsidy Management System (CSMS) for maintaining information on entitlements and subsidies for all beneficiaries. The CSMS, as indicated in the report, will provide increased transparency in the movement of goods, level of stocks, prediction and aggregation of demand and identification of beneficiaries.

Nilekani Panel on Cash Transfer Scheme

Highlights of Recommendations Nade in Interim Report Submitted by the Panel

LPG:

  • Phase I: Cap consumption of subsidised cylinders (Policy decision of government and not a specific task force recommendation).
  • Phase II: Consumers buy LPG at market price, with direct transfer of subsidy to their bank account.
  • Phase III: Identify and target segmented customers for subsidy.

Fertiliser:

  • Phase I: Information visibility up to the retailer level. Phase II: Direct transfer of subsidy to the retailer.
  • Phase III: Farmers buy fertilisers at market price, with direct transfer of subsidy to their bank account.

Kerosene:

Phase I: Cash transfer through state governments.

Phase II: Cash transfer to accounts of beneficiaries.

Report recommends creation of centralised software for the product and service transfer. The poors have been recommended to get the share of subsidies directly through bank branches, Automated Teller Machines (ATMs), business correspondents, the internet or mobile banking channels. Pilot projects for such direct cash transfers have been recommended to begin in seven places— Tamil Nadu, Assam, Maharashtra, Haryana, Delhi Rajasthan and Orissa—from October 2011.

Country’s Exports Register 45.7% Growth in Q 1 Of 2011-12:

Country’s exports in June 2011 rose for the third month in a row by growing 46.4 per cent to $ 29.2 billion, driven by high-end products such as engineering goods. Imports increased 42.4 per cent to $ 36.2 billion. About one-third of this import bill was accounted for by petroleum, oil and lubricant. This resulted trade deficit at $ 7.7 billion.

During the first quarter of 2011-12 (i.e. April- June 2011), exports rose 45×7% to $ 79 billion. With imports growing 36×2% to $ 110.6 billion, the trade deficit stood at $ 7.7 billion.

Export sector’s good performance was well supported by various industries like engineering, oil, electronics, drugs, chemicals and readymade garments. The main components in the import bill on the other hand were oil, gold and silver, machinery, electronics and pearls/ precious stones. Oil import bill has been a major head in country’s total import bill. During the first quarter of 2011-12, oil imports rose 18 per cent to $ 30.5 billion and it is projected to be around $ 120-130 billion during the entire financial year 2011-12. Machinery imports valued at $ 9 billion showing 49 per cent growth. With 71 per cent growth electronics imports went to $ 7.6 billion.

It may be recalled that during last year 2010-11, merchandise exports had grown 37.55% to $ 246 billion compared with 2009-10 while imports were up 21.6 per cent at $ 350 billion, resulting trade deficit at $ 104 billion.

The government has set a target of $ 500 billion worth of exports by 2014 and doubling of India’s share of global exports by 2020.

RBI Asks Government To Improve Expenditure Quality:

RBI in its quarterly review of Monetary and Credit Policy 2011-12 pointed out the risk of high fiscal deficit pushing up inflation and consequently it suggested central government to improve the quality of expenditure to contain demand in the economy.

Trade Figures (Ap11)
Exports–The Break-up Imports–The Break-up
Sector Value ($ b) (% growth) Sector Value ($ b) (% growth)
Engineering 23 94 Oil 30.5 18
Oil 14 60 Pearls, gems 7.5 10
Gems &jewellery 9.25 19 Gold & silver 17.7 200
Readymade garments 3.6 34 Machinery 9 49
Manmade yarn & fabrics 1.2 30 Electronics 7.6 71
Cotton yarn & fabrics 1.5 9.1 Chemicals 4.5 19
Electronics 2.8 69 Coal 3.7 27
Drugs & pharma 3.08 25 Iron & steel 2.7 -10
Chemicals 2.9 52 Transport equipment 2.5 34
Plastics & linoleum 1.5 50 Ores & scrap 3.4 37
Leather 1.1 26 Vegetable Oil 2 55
Mica, coal & ores 2.7 270 Resins & plastics 1.8 0
Marine products 0.6 27 Fertilisers 1.28 -28

As per RBI’s viewpoint, the large fiscal deficit has been a key source of demand pressures, therefore, fiscal consolidation is critical to maintain inflationary pressure in the economy. The government can support RBI’s efforts to achieve low and stable inflation by re-allocating resources to finance supply bottle-necks in food and infrastructure.

Outstanding Liabilities and Gross Fiscal Deficit

(as % of GDP)

Year Outstanding Liabilities

Gross Fiscal Deficit

2009-10 53.7 5.4
2010-11 49.9 4.7
2011-12 (BE) 48.5 4.6

Despite the hike in administered prices of fuel products, RBI still finds an element of suppressed inflation in the economy. As per RBI’s estimates, about 1 per cent of gross domestic product is still to be financed and becomes a major portion of this subsidy Bill. This subsidy Bill will result in inflationary pressure which, according to RBI is a major concern on the part of the government.

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Numerical Ability

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Numerical Ability

1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?
1. 25
2. 26
3. 27
4. 30 5. 26
Answer: (3)

2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same rational number. The required rational number is:
1. 1/8
2. 4/9
3. 2/8
4. 3/8
5. 3/8
Answer: (5)

3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as remainders respectively.
1. 36
2. 37
3. 42
4. 29
5. 47
Answer: (2)

4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayesh’s age in years?
1. 29
2. 30
3. 24
4. 25
5. 28
Answer: (3)

5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 5. Their total value is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paise coins is:
1. Rs. 28
2. Rs. 36
3. Rs. 49
4. Rs. 72
5. Rs. 50
Answer: (1)

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Mental Ability

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Mental Ability

Verbal

1. If Step IV reads ‘to restrict the use of air conditioners”, which of the following will definitely be the input?
(1)use to of the air conditioners restrict
(2)restrict the to of air conditioners use
(3)the air conditioners of restrict use to
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security reasons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every batch. Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch.
Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by
Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on…

2. If pass-code for the third batch is ‘night succeed day and hard work-to for’, what will be the pass-code for the sixth batch?
(1)work hard to for succeed night and day
(2)hard work for and succeed night to day
(3)work hard for to succeed night and day
(4)hard work for to succeed night and day
(5) None of these

3. If ‘visit in zoo should the time day’ is the pass-code for the fifth batch, zoo we the should visit day time in’ will be the pass-code for which of following batches?
(1) II
(2) IV
(3) I
(4) III
(5) VI

4. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code ‘to fast rush avoid not do very run’. What would have been the pass-code for him had he visited the museum in the second bitch?
(1)rush do not avoid to run very fast
(2)rush not do-avoid to run very
(3)avoid rush not do to run very fast
(4) Date inadequate
(5) None of these

5. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code ‘length the day equal of an night are’. However, he could not visit the museum in the second batch as he was a little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new pass-code issued to him?
(1)and of are night the length equal day
(2)and are of night the length equal day
(3)and of are night the equal day length
(4 )an d of are th e night len gth day equal
(5) None of these

 

6. If ass-code for the second batch is ‘to confidence hard you leads work and success’, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?(1)leads success to you hard confidence and work
(2)leads success you to hard confidence and work
(3)leads success to you hard confidence work and
(4)leads to success you hard confidence and work
(5) None of these

 

7. If the pass-code issued for the last (sixth) batch is ‘and pencil by all boys used are pen’, what will be the passcode for the first batch?
(1)pencil and pen are used by all boys
(2)pen and pencil used are by all boys
(3)pen and pencil are used by all boys
(4)Pencil and pen are used all by boys
(5) None of these

 

8. If the pass-code for the sixth batch is ‘not go the way to of out do’, what will be the pass-code for the third batch?(1)Of do to out go not way the
(2)of to do out not go way the
(3)of to go out do not way the
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

 

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word rearrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement:
Input: Over you pat me crow easy to.
Steps: (I) pat over you crow easy to me
Steps: (II) crow pat over you to me easy
Steps: (III) over crow pal to me easy you
Steps: (IV) to over crow pat easy you me and so on.
As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate step for the given input in the following questions:

9. If Step II of an input is ‘ge su but he for game free’, what would be step VI?
(1)a for but fine he game su
(2)for free ge game su he but
(3)free ge for but game su he
(4)he ge su but game free for
(5) None of these

10. If step IV of an input is ‘blue navy kit lime se get‘, which of the following would definitely be the input?
(1)navy get lime out kit se blue
(2)lime navy get kit se blue out
(3)lime blue navy kit get out se
(4)kit blue navy se get out lime
(5) None of these

11. Input: but calm free are so not eat. Which of the following will be the 3rd step for this input?
(1)so free but calm eat are not
(2)but calm are free not so eat
(3)are but calm free not eat so
(4)but so free eat are not calm
(5) None of these

 

12. If step V of an input is ‘put down col in as mach sa’ , what would be the 8th step?(1)down in put much sa as col
(2)in put down cot much sa as
(3)much in put down sa as col
(4)col put down as much sa in
(5) None of these

 

13. Input: rim bye eat klin fe to low Which of the following steps would be ‘fe low rim to bye klin eat’?
(1) VIth
(2) vth
(3) IVth
(4) IIIrd
(5) None of these

Directions: A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:

Input: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
Step I: Put for he watch hand pocket them.
Step II: Put he for watch pocket hand them.
Step III: Put hand pocket watch for he them.
Step IV: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
And so on goes the machine. Study the logic and answer the questions that follow:

14. If Step III of a given input be ‘fly sky birds my su fur say’, what is the seventh step of the input?
(1)fly sky birds my su fur say
(2)fly birds sky my fur su say
(3)fly fur su my birds sky say
(4)fly su fur my sky birds say
(5) None of these

15. If Step VII of an input is ‘slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi’, what is step V of that input?
(1)slow dig hak pat dhurwa ran vi
(2)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(3)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(4)slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi
(5) None of these

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - English Language

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - English Language


Direction: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested. One of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out appropriate word in each case.

The Reserve Bank has taken a bold (46) in the development of money, the government securities and the foreign exchange markets in (47) of their critical role in overall growth and development of the economy and (48) in the transmission mechanism of monetary policy. The approach has been one of simultaneous movements on several fronts, graduated and callibrated, with an (49) on institutional and infrastructural development and  improvements in market microstructure. The pace of reforms was contingent (50) putting in place appropriate systems and procedures, technologies and market practices. Initiatives taken by the Reserve Bank have brought about a (51) transformation of various segments of the financial market. These developments by improving the depth and liquidity in domestic financial markets have (52) to better price discovery of interest rates and exchange rates, which, in turn, hae led to greater (53) in resource allocation in the economy. The increase in size and depth of financial market has (54) the way for (55) use of indirect instruments.

1. (1) interest
(2) participation
(3) step
(4) role
(5) None of these

2. (1) point
(2) tune
(3) view
(4) pursuit
(5) None of these

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Computer Knowledge

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(Paper) IBPS: Common Written Examination (CWE) :2011 - Computer Knowledge

1. Buffer is device/storage area–
1. Where data are temporarily stored
2. Where data is permanently stored
3. Where data error occurs
4. All of the above 5. None of these

2. A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number of nodes is called–
1. Car Topology
2. Bus Topology
3. Truck Topology
4. All of the above
5. None of these

3. An error in a computer program is referred as–
1. Bug
2. Bit
3. Virus
4. All of the above
5. None of these

4. Circuits that provide a communication path between two or more devices of a digital computer system is–
1. Car
2. Bus
3. Truck
4. All of the above
5. None of these

5. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred as–
1. Byte
2. Octal
3. Bubble
4. All of the above
5. None of these

6. Cache memory is a–
1. Small buffer storage
2. Permanent storage
3. Main memory
4. All of the above
5. None of these

7. The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number system is referred as–
1. Number system
2. Base
3. Power
4. All of the above
5. None of these

8. Cache memory is–
1. Smaller and faster than main storage
2. Bigger and slower than main storage
3. Smaller but slower than main memory
4. Bigger and faster than main memory
5. None of these

9. Cache memory–
1. Is a Static RAM
2. Increases the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate
3. Both 1. and 2. are true .
4. Both 1. and 2. are false
5. None of these

 

10. Following is false for BASIC–1. Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
2. High-level interactive programming language
3. Works in time sharing environment
4. Low level object oriented language
5. None of these

 

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::REASONING ABILITY::

1. A school bus driver starts from the school, drives 2 km towards North, takes a left turn and drives for 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives for 8 km before taking a left turn again and driving for 5 km. The driver finally takes a leftturn and drives 1 km before stopping. How far and towards which direction should the driver drive to reach the school again?

(a) 3 km towards North
(b) 7 km towards East
(c) 6 km towards South
(d) 6 km towards West
(e) 5 km towards North

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 2-3) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:

A, B, C, D, E and F live on different floors in the same building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it , number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6. A lives on an even numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which D and F live. F lives on a floor above D’s floor. D does not live on floor number 2. B does not live on an odd numbered floor. C does not live on any of the floors below F’s floor. E does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below the floor on which B lives.

2. Who amongst the following live on the floors exactly between D and F ?

(a) E, B
(b) C, B
(c) E, C
(d) A, E
(e) B, A

3. On which of the following floors does B live?

(a) 6th
(b) 4th
(c) 2nd
(d) 5th
(e) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 4-5) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a five letter English word (which may or may not be a meaningful English word), there are two letters between L and P. S is not placed immediately next to L. There is only one letter between S and A. S is towards the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to E.

4. Which of the following is correct with respect to the word thus formed?

(a) E is at one of the extreme ends of the word.
(b) P is not placed immediately next to A.
(c) There are two letters between A and E in the word thus formed.
(d) P is placed second to the right of E.
(e) None is correct

5. Which of the following words will be formed based on the given conditions?

(a) SPAEL
(b) PEALS
(c) LEAPS
(d) SEPAL
(e) LAPSE

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : In each question below are two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. Give answer (e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow. (Qs. 6-7) : Statements : All gliders are parachutes. No parachute is an airplane. All airplanes are helicopters.

6. Conclusions : I. No glider is an airplane.
II.All gliders being helicopters is a possibility.

7. Conclusions : I. No helicopter is a glider.
II. All parachutes being helicopters is a possibility.

8. Statements : Some mails are chats.
All updates are chats.
Conclusions : I. All mails being updates is a possibility.
II. No update is a mail.

(Qs. 9-10) : Statement : No stone is metal. Some metals are papers. All papers are glass.

9. Conclusions : I. All stones being glass is a possibility.
II. No stone is a paper.

10. Conclusions : I. No glass is a metal.
II. Atleast some glass is metal.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digits numbers.) Input : sine 88 71 cos theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 Step I : cos sine 71 theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 88 Step II : delta cos sine theta 14 56 gamma 26 88 71 Step III : gamma delta cos sine theta 14 26 88 71 56 Step IV : sine gamma delta cos theta 14 88 71 56 26 Step V : theta sine gamma delta cos 88 71 56 26 14 and Step V is the last Step of the arrangement of the above input as the intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input, Input for the questions: Input : for 52 all 96 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46 (All the numbers given in the arrangement are two digit numbers)

11. Which word/number would be at the 6th position from the left in Step V ?

(a) 25
(b) stop
(c) jam
(d) all
(e) road

12. Which of the following would be the Step III ?

(a) hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46
(b) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut 38 stop 96 46 73 52
(c) hut for bus all jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 25
(d) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52
(e) None of these

13. Which word/number would be at 8th position from the right in Step IV?

(a) 15
(b) road
(c) hut
(d) jam
(e) stop

14. Which of the following would be Step VII ?

(a) stop road jam hut for bus all 15 96 73 5246 38 25
(b) road jam hut for bus all stop 15 25 38 46 52 73 96
(c) stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 52 46 38 25 15
(d) jam hut for bus all 25 road stop 15 96 73 52 46 38
(e) There will be no such step as the arrangement gets established at Step VI

15. Which step number would be the following output ? bus all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73

(a) There will be no such step
(b) III
(c) II
(d) V
(e) VI

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Representatives from eight different Banks viz.. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them is from a different Bank viz. UCO Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Bank of Maharashtra, Canara Bank, Syndicate Bank, Punjab National Bank, Bank of India and Dena Bank. F sits second to right of the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of India is an immediate neighbour of the representative from Canara Bank. Two people sit between the representative of Bank of India and B, C and E are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of Maharashtra sits second to right of D. D is neither the representative of Canara Bank nor Bank of India. G and the representative from UCO Bank are immediate neighbours of each other. B is not the representative of UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce. H sits third to left of the representative from Dena Bank.  epresentative from Punjab National Bank sits second to left of the representative from Syndicate Bank.

16. Who amongst the following sit exactly between B and the representative from Bank of India?

(a) A and the representative from UCO Bank
(b) F and G
(c) H and the representative from Bank of Maharashtra
(d) H and G
(e) Representatives from Syndicate Bank and Oriental Bank of Commerce

17. Who amongst the following is the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce?

(a) A
(b) C
(c) H
(d) G
(e) D

18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) H - UCO Bank
(b) A - Canara Bank
(c) D - Bank of Maharashtra
(d) E -Syndicate Bank
(e) F - Punjab National Bank

19. Who amongst the following sits second to left of B ?

(a) C
(b) H
(c) The representative from Canara Bank
(d) The representative from Punjab National Bank
(e) G

20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

(a) B is the representative from Bank of Maharashtra.
(b) C sits second to right of H.
(c) The representative from Dena Bank sits to the immediate left of the representative from UCO Bank.
(d) A sits second to right of the representative from Bank of India.
(e) The representatives from Bank of Maharashtra and Syndicate Bank are immediate neighbours of each other.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

21. How many daughters does W have?

I. B and D are sisters of M.
II. M's father T is husband of W.
Ill. Out of the three children which T has, only one is a boy.

(a) Only I and III
(b) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(c) Only II & III are sufficient to answer the question
(d) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
(e) Only I and II

22. Who among A, B, C, D, E and F each having a different height, is the tallest?

I. B is taller than A but shorter than E.
II. Only two of them are shorter than C.
III. D is taller than only F.

(a) Only I and II
(b) Only I and III
(c) Only II and III
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) All I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question

23. How is 'go' written in a code language?

I. 'now or never again' is written as 'tom ka na sa' in that code language.
II. 'you come again now' is written as 'ja ka ta sa' in that code language.
III. 'again go now or never' is written as 'na ho ka sa tom' in that code language.

(a) Only I and III
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and II
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) None of these

24. Towards which direction is village J from village W ?

I. Village R is to the west of Village W and to the north of Village T.
II. Village Z is to the east of Village J and to the south of Village T.
III. Village M is to the northeast of Village J and north of Village Z.

(a) Only III
(b) Only II and III
(c) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(d) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
(e) None of these

25. On which day of the week starting from Monday did Suresh visit Chennai ?

l. Suresh took leave on Wednesday.
II. Suresh visited Chennai the day after his mother's visit to his house
III. Suresh's mother visited Suresh's house neither on Monday nor on Thursday

(a) Only II and III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only I and III
(d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(e) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.

1. Women’s rights around the world are an important indicator to understand global well-being. A major global women’s rights treaty was ratified by the majority of the world’s nations a few decades ago. ...... These ranges from the cultural, political to the economic. For example, women often work more than men, yet are paid less; gender discrimination affects girls and women throughout their lifetime; and women and girls are often the ones that suffer the most poverty. Many may think that women’s rights are only an issue in countries where  eligion is law. Or even worse, some may think this is no longer an issue at all. But reading the report about the United Nation’s Women’s Treaty and how an increasing number of countries are lodging reservations will show otherwise. Gender equality furthers the cause of child survival and development for all of society, so the importance of women’s rights and gender equality should not be underestimated.

(a) This treaty tackled and solved a number of issues related to women.
(b) Why is it then, that moment still face a number of problems on the domestic front?
(c) Thus, the woman today is ten times more empowered as compared to a woman say about a decade ago.
(d) Women’s activists across nations have implored the respective governments to take this seriously.
(e) Yet, despite many successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in all areas of life.

2. Research has shown that air pollutants from fossil fuel use make clouds reflect more of the sun’s rays back into space. This leads to an effect known as global dimming whereby less heat and energy reaches the earth. ............ However, it is believed that global dimming caused the droughts in certain parts of the world where millions died, because the northern hemisphere oceans were not warm enough to allow rain formation. Global dimming is also hiding the true power of global warming. By cleaning up global dimming-causing pollutants without talking greenhouse gas emissions, rapid warming has been observed, and various human health and ecological disasters have resulted, as witnessed during the European heat wave in 2003, which saw thousands of people die.

(a) This though, does not bring any relief in the problems associated with climate change.
(b) This phenomenon thus is part of the climate change problem.
(c) Scientists thus believe that this phenomenon goes hand in hand with global warming
(d) At first, it sounds like an ironic savior to climate change problems
(e) The answer to all our problems with respect to climate change is definitely here

3. Poverty is the state for the majority of the world’s people and nations. Why is this? .......... Have they been lazy, made poor decisions, and been solely responsible for their own plight? What about their governments? Have they pursued policies that actually harm successful development? Such causes of poverty and inequality are no doubt real. But deeper and more global causes of poverty are often less discussed. Behind the increasing interconnectedness promised by globalization are global decisions, policies, and practices. These are typically influenced, driven, or formulated by the rich and powerful. These can be leaders of rich countries or other global actors such as multinational corporations, institutions, and influential people. In the face of such enormous external influence, the governments of poor nations and their people are often powerless. As a result, in the global context, a few get wealthy while the majority struggles.

(a) Is it enough to blame poor people for their own predicament?
(b) What is the government doing about it?
(c) Are the wealthy ones in the nation even aware of this?
(d) The government has already taken measures to eradicate the same.
(e) The huge gap between the rich and the poor in the nation is now narrowing

4. Analysts and industry pundits forecast that notebook market, which has been growing faster than the desktop market for the past three years, is expected to overtake the desktop market by the year 2011-12. A fall in prices, large deals from governments and institutions, and demand from consumers and sectors such as education are expected to help the notebook numbers. According to research agencies, the year 2010-11 saw notebook volumes rise, and for the first time a million plus notebooks were sold in India in a single quarter. The market has grown nearly four times for notebooks. The demand is driven by all sectors and a very buoyant consumer market, which prefers mobile computers. Entry-level notebook prices have dropped below the Rs. 25,000 mark; this has helped break the ice with new customers. This drop in notebook prices has been helped by the drop in the prices of the building blocks that make a notebook. It’s simple. With notebook volumes growing, the prices of the components are also bound to come down. .........

(a) All this has resulted in a noticeable change in a number of large government tenders for notebooks; which were traditionally for desktops.
(b) Because of this the government still prefers desktops to notebooks and has passed tenders for the same.
(c) Thereby making them more expensive.
(d) Thus the forecast for the coming year states that desktops will be the preferred technology choice only for consumers who cannot afford the exorbitantly priced notebook.
(e) Thus notebooks will become obsolete after a decade or so.

5. Next to China, India is the most populated country in the world. ...... Particularly, rush to technical and higher education has increased as the scope for arts and science has become lesser and lesser due to lack of reforms and up gradation in the course structure and materials according to the developments of the world. Also, qualification in higher education gives added advantage to facesuccessfully competition in the job market.

(a) Keeping this in mind, the government has provided concessions in the admission fees for the arts and science streams in the country.
(b) Naturally there is too much rush and competition in every field.
(c) Despite this the rush to higher education is lesser.
(d) This population increase, though, has not kept pace with the knowledge expansion around the world.
(e) In the next decade it will become the most populous.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Rearrange the following seven sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) in the proper sequence to from a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(1) To elaborate briefly on these characteristics and dimensions that the author is talking about – NRMs are general tests intended to be used to classify students by percentile for measuring either aptitude or proficiency for admissions into or placement within a program.
(2) Contrastingly, the CRM, such as a locally produced achievement test, measures absolute performance that is compared only with the learning objective, hence a perfect score is theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the pre-specified material, or conversely, all students may fail the test.
(3) In most of these books, the authors classify a measurement strategy as either norm-referenced (NRM) or criterionreferenced (CRM).
(4) Another author points out how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is the relative performance of the students compared with that of all the others resulting in, ideally, a bell curve distribution.
(5) Numerous books on constructing and using language tests have been written by various authors.
(6) CRMs, on the other hand, are more specific, achievement or diagnostic tests intended to be used for motivating students by measuring to what percent they have achieved mastery of the thought or learned material.
(7) One of the authors clearly delineates the differences of these two types by focusing on the categories of “test characteristics” and “logistical dimensions.”

6. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 7
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

7. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

8. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
(e) 5

9. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 6

10. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 7
(d) 4
(e) 5

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick up two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. The ability of a woman to do well does not .......... on whether it is a man’s world or not, because everyone has his/her own opportunities.

(1) trust
(2) depend
(3) reckon
(4) live
(5) rest
(6) believe

(a) (4) and (5)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (1) and (6)
(d) (2) and (5)
(e) (3) and (4)

12. Drugs worth ` 3 lakhs were ......... from the apartment by the police.

(1) manufactured
(2) ruptured
(3) seized
(4) confiscated
(5) bought
(6) compared

(a) (1) and (4)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (3) and (5)
(d) (5) and (6)
(e) (3) and (4)

13. An organization .......... to the mission of road safety has prepared an action plan for reducing accidents and related injuries and fatalities.

(1) specified
(2) inaugurated
(3) committed
(4) kicked off
(5) succumbed
(6) dedicated

(a) (3) and (6)
(b) (1) and (5)
(c) (3) and (5)
(d) (4) and (6)
(e) (1) and (3)

14. A man reportedly .......... two passports with the same photograph, but under different names was arrested by the commissioner’s Task Force.

(1) possessing
(2) examining
(3) surrendering
(4) mastering
(5) holding
(6) fixating

(a) (2) and (3)
(b) (3) and (6)
(c) (1) and (5)
(d) (1) and (4)
(e) (4) and (5)

15. The Hollywood star and the Bollywood heroine are being ......... as the next big onscreen couple.

(1) labeled
(2) explained
(3) worshiped
(4) touted
(5) exclaimed
(6) shouted

(a) (2) and (4)
(b) (1) and (3)
(c) (2) and (6)
(d) (1) and (4)
(e) (3) and (4)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Below is given a single word with options to its meaning in different contexts. You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the word when the context is changed. Select the correct alterative from (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) which represents all those synonyms.

16. MASK

(1) Cover
(2) Hide
(3) Conceal
(4) Disguise

(a) Only (1)
(b) Both (2) and (4)
(c) Only (2), (3) and (4)
(d) Only (1), (2) and (3)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

17. REGULAR

(1) Present
(2) Common
(3) Indiscriminate
(4) Uniform

(a) Only (4)
(b) Both (2) and (4)
(c) Both (1) and (3)
(d) Only (2), (3) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

18. LABOUR

(1) Expedite
(2) To move faster
(3) Controlled
(4) Toil

(a) Only (4)
(b) Both (1) and (3)
(c) Both (2), (3) and (4)
(d) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

19. MEAN

(1) Imply
(2) Understand
(3) Average
(4) Characterized by malice

(a) Only (3)
(b) Both (1) and (4)
(c) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(d) Only (1), (2) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

20. ALONE

(1) Exclusively
(2) Morose
(3) Solitary
(4) Human being

(a) Only (1)
(b) Both (1) and (3)
(c) Both (2) and (3)
(d) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(e) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-35): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. As the country embarks on planning (121) the 12th Plan (2012- 17) period, a key question mark (122) hangs over the process is on the energy requirements. Growth is energy hungry, and the aspirations of growing at 9- 0% will (123) huge demands on the energy  resources of the country. In this energy Jigsaw, renewable energy will (124) like never before in the 12th Plan and the (125). By the rule of the thumb, India will (126) about 100 gigawatts (Gw)-100,000 megawatts-of capacity addition in the next five years. Encouraging trends on energy efficiency and sustained (127) by some parts of the government the Bureau of Energy Efficiency in particular needs to be complimented for this-have led to substantially lesser energy intensity of economic growth. However, even the tendered demand numbers are (128) to be below 80Gw. As against this need the coal supply from domestic sources is unlikely to support more than 25 Gw equivalent capacity. Imported coal can add some more, but at a much (129) cost. Gas-based electricity generation is unlikely to contribute anything substantial in view of the unprecedented gas supply challenges. Nuclear will be  (130) in the foreseeable future. Between imported coal, gas, large hydro and nuclear, no more than 15-20Gw equivalent can be (131) to be added in the five-year time block. (132) (133) this, capacity addition in the renewable energy based power generation has touched about 3Gw a year. In the coming five years, the overall capacity addition in the electricity grid (134) renewable energy is likely to range between 20Gw and 25Gw. Additionally, over and above the grid-based capacity, off-grid electricity applications are reaching remote places and (135) lives where grid-based electricity supply has miserably failed.

21. (a) On
(b) Against
(c) For
(d) Onwards
(e) At

22. (a) Where
(b) That
(c) Inside
(d) Always
(e) Who

23. (a) Replace
(b) Forward
(c) Subject
(d) Place
(e) Demand

24. (a) Light
(b) Pass
(c) Publish
(d) Feature
(e) Find

25. (a) Earlier
(b) Likewise
(c) Publicity
(d) Next
(e) After

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::GENERAL AWARENESS::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::GENERAL AWARENESS::

1. Which of the following countries recently conferred its. Highest State Honour on Late Mrs. Indira Gandhi for her contribution in its 'Liberation war'?

(a) South Sudan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Bhutan
(d) Slovakin
(e) Croatia

2. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Banks cannot accept demand and time deposite from public.
(b) Banks can accept only demand deposits from public.
(c) Banks can accept only time deposits from public.
(d) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public.
(e) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government.

3. Interest payable on saving bank accounts is

(a) not regulated by RBI.
(b) regulated by State Governments
(c) regulated by Central Government
(d) regulated by RBI
(e) regulated by Finance minister.

4. Which of the following is the correct statement?

(a) State bank of India is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(b) A nationalized bank is the sole authority to Issue and manage currency in India
(c) A cooperative bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(d) RBI is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
(e) None of these

5. The Home Minister of India was recently on a visit to Bangladesh where both the countries signed a Coordinated Border Management Plan (CBMP). What are major points of this agreement?

(A) The plan will help in resolving long pending border dispute between both the nations.
(B) The head count of the people living in enclaves on the border will be completed within next six month's time
(C) India assured that no BSF Jawan will open fire on the people crossing the borders unless there is an attack on them.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) and (C)
(e) Both (A) and (C)

6. Which of the following is/are commodity/ies on which subsidy is given to farmers/ poor in India?

(A) Fertiliser
(B) Kerosene
(C) LPG

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Only (A) & (C)
(e) All (A), (B) & (C)

7. The President of India was recently on a visit to South Korea and Mongolia. During her visit some agreements were signed by both the countries. Which of the following was a common area on which India signed agreements with South Korea and Mongolia both?

(a) Peaceful use of Nuclear energy
(b) Export of edible oil to South Korea and Mongolia
(c) Providing technical help to become self sufficient in production of food grains
(d) Willingness of both the countries to support India's bid to have permanent seat in UN Security Council
(e) To hold Olympic games in 2022 In New Delhi jointly with South Korea and Mongolia

8. Iran recently threatened that it will stop supply of oil to India if the payment Issue is NOT sorted out quickly. What is the problem in payment to Iran?

(A) The oil supplied by Iran is of substandard quality. Hence India suspended the supply and stopped the payment.
(B) Indian banks have stopped transfer of money to Iran as UN has imposed sanctions on Iran.
(C) India is bound to purchase oil only from OPEC members. Iran has abandoned the membership of OPEC, which has created a problem in payments.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) and (C)
(e) None of these

9. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of

(a) Both Savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
(b) Savings bank accounts and current accounts
(c) Both Savings bank accounts and loan accounts
(d) Both Savings bank accounts and cash accounts only
(e) Both Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts

10. Yingluck Shinawatra has won recently held elections to become first woman Prime Minister of

(a) Myanmar.
(b) South Korea
(c) North Korea
(d) Thailand
(e) China

11. Which of the following is correct statement?

(a) Normally no interest is paid on current deposit accounts
(b) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts
(c) The rate of interest on current account and savings account are the same
(d) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank
(e) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits.

12. The Lokayukta of which of the following States had submitted a report on illegal mining of Iron are in the State?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Orissa
(e) None of these

13. The usual deposit accounts of banks are

(a) Current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
(b) Current accounts, Post office savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(c) Loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(d) Current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(e) Current bill accounts and term deposit accounts

14. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are

(a) repayable after an agreed period.
(b) repayable on demand
(c) not repayable
(d) repayable after death of depositors
(e) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank's choice.

15. The countries these days are most worried about the currency war. They are arguing about whose actions harmed the world economy the most. What are the views of the rich countries, particularly USA, In this regard?

(A) They feel that it was China who was unwilling to allow the Yuan to rise.
(B) They feel that it was India who had snatched jobs in most of the European countries and USA. This made the situation more grim.
(C) Some countries feel that it wan Japan who allowed swapping of its currency with other nations and created a grim situation in world market.

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) All (A), (B) & (C)
(e) None of these

16. Which of the following is NOT a Millennium Goal set by the UNO?

(a) Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
(b) Reduce child mortality
(c) Ensure environmental sustainability
(d) Combat terrorism and bring people in main stream of society
(e) Achieve universal primary education

17. Financial inclusion means provision of

(a) financial services namely payments, remittances, savings, loans and Insurance at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(b) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(c) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(d) food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
(e) education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.

18. Which of the following Statements containing results of India's recent Census is NOT correct?

(a) Kerala has about 94% literacy, the highest in India.
(b) The Sex Ratio in India is 940
(c) Male literacy is lower than female literacy in seven most developed states
(d) Uttar Pradesh is the most populous State in India
(e) The population of India has increased by 181 million during the decade 2001-2011

19. Which of the following is known as cross selling by Banks?

(A) Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder
(B) Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor
(C) Issuance of Cash against Cheque presented by a third party

(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Both (A) and (C)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

20. Angela Merkel was recently in India to receive Jawaharlal Nehru Award for international Understanding for the year 2009. What has been her contribution in the international politics which made her the 'Best Choice' for the award?

(A) She played a major role in restarting negotiations between Russia and USA on 'START'.
(B) She initiated 'Health Care Reforms' in Germany and solved problems related to future energy development.'
(C) She played a crucial role in negotiation of the Treaty of Lisbon' and Berlin declaration.

(a) Only (B) and (C)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Only (A) and (C)
(e) None of these

21. Japan won the women's Football World Cup 2011 by defeating

(a) England
(b) Germany
(c) Argentina
(d) USA
(e) China

22. Which of the following states became the first state in the country to launch RBI's e-payment system for commercial tax payers?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Gujarat
(d) Maharashtra
(e) Karnataka

23. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid. It is called

(a) payment of the cheque
(b) drawing of the cheque
(c) cancelling of the cheque
(d) dishonour of the cheque
(e) taking of the cheque.

24. Mortgage is a

(a) security on movable property for a loan given by a bank.
(b) security on immovable property for a loan given by a bank.
(c) concession on immovable property for a loan given by a bank.
(d) facility on immovable property for a loan given by a bank.
(e) security on immovable property for a deposit received by a bank.

25. The world's highest 'Rail Bridge' is being constructed in the State of Jammu & Kashmir. This bridge will be on which of the following rivers?

(a) Jhelum
(b) Chenab
(c) Indus
(d) Ravi
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

IBPS logo

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. 11449 x √6241 - (54)2 =√?+(74)2

(a) 384
(b) 3721
(c) 381
(d) 3638
(e) None of these

2. (3√8 + √8) x (8√8 + 7√8) - 98 = ?

(a) 2√8
(b) 8√8
(c) 382
(d) 386
(e) None of these

3. 3463 x 295 – 18611 = ? + 5883

(a) 997091
(b) 997071
(c) 997090
(d) 999070
(e) None of these

4.

(a) 1/3
(b) 0.75
(c) 3/2
(d) 1/2
(e) None of these

5. (23.1)2 + (48.6)2 – (39.8)2 = ? + 1147.69

(a) (13.6)2
(b) 12.8
(c) 163.84 (d) 12.8
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

6. 3 4663 + 349= ?¸ 21.003

(a) 7600
(b) 7650
(c) 7860
(d) 7560
(e) 7680

7. 39.897% of 4331 + 58.779% of 5003 = ?

(a) 4300
(b) 4500
(c) 4700
(d) 4900
(e) 5100

8. 59.88 ¸ 12.21 ´ 6.35 = ?

(a) 10
(b) 50
(c) 30
(d) 70
(e) 90

9. 43931.03 ¸ 2111.02 ´ 401.04 = ?

(a) 8800
(b) 7600
(c) 7400
(d) 9000
(e) 8300

10. 6354 ´34.993 = ?

(a) 3000
(b) 2800
(c) 2500
(d) 3300
(e) 2600

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11–15) : In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

11. 9050 5675 3478 2147 1418 1077 950

(a) 3478
(b) 1418
(c) 5675
(d) 2147
(e) 1077

12. 7 12 40 222 1742 17390 208608

(a) 7
(b) 12
(c) 40
(d) 1742
(e) 208608

13. 6 91 584 2935 11756 35277 70558

(a) 91
(b) 70558
(c) 584
(d) 2935
(e) 35277

14. 1 4 25 256 3125 46656 823543

(a) 3125
(b) 823543
(c) 46656
(d) 25
(e) 256

15. 8424 4212 2106 1051 526.5 263.25 131.625

(a) 131.625
(b) 1051
(c) 4212
(d) 8424
(e) 263.25

16. Six-eleventh of a number is equal to twenty-two percent of second number. Second number is equal to the one-fourth of third number. The value of the third number is 2400. What is the 45% of first number?

(a) 109.8
(b) 111.7
(c) 117.6
(d) 123.4
(e) None of these

17. An HR Company employes 4800 people, out of which 45 percent are males and 60 percent of the males are either 25 years or older. How many males are employed in that HR Company who are younger than 25 years ?

(a) 2640
(b) 2160
(c) 1296
(d) 864
(e) None of these

18. The average marks in English subject of a class of 24 students is 56. If the marks of three students were misread as 44, 45 and 61 of the actual marks 48, 59 and 67 respectively, then what would be the correct average?

(a) 56.5
(b) 59
(c) 57.5
(d) 58
(e) None of these

19. In a test, a candidate secured 468 marks out of maximum marks 'A'. If the maximum marks 'A' were converted to 700 marks, he would have secured 336 marks. What were the maximum marks of the test?

(a) 775
(b) 875
(c) 975
(d) 1075
(e) None of these

20. The simple interest accrued on an amount of ` 22,500 at the end of four years is ` 10,800. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate at the end of two years ?

(a) 16,908
(b) 5,724
(c) 28,224
(d) 8,586
(e) None of these

21. Rubina could get equal number of ` 55, ` 85 and ` 105 tickets for a movie. She spents ` 2940 for all the tickets. How many of each did she buy?

(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

22. Ramola's monthly income is three times Ravina's monthly income. Ravina's monthly income is fifteen percent more than Ruchira's monthly income. Ruchira's monthly income is ` 32,000. What is Ramola's annual income ?

(a) 1,10,400
(b) 13,24,800
(c) 36,800
(d) 52,200
(e) None of these

23. In an Entrance Examination Ritu scored 56 percent marks, Smita scored 92 percent marks and Rina scored 634 marks. The maximum marks of the examination are 875. What are the average marks scored by all the three girls together?

(a) 1929
(b) 815
(c) 690
(d) 643
(e) None of these

24. The respective ratio between the present age of Manisha and Deepali is 5 : X. Manisha is 9 years younger than Parineeta. Parineeta's age after 9 years will be 33 years. The difference between Deepali's and Manisha's age is same as the present age of Parineeta. What will come in place of X?

(a) 23
(b) 39
(c) 15
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

25. Seema bought 20 pens, 8 packets of wax colours, 6 calculators and 7 pencil boxes. The price of one pen is ` 7, one packet of wax colour is ` 22, one calculator is ` 175 and one pencil box is ` 14 more than the combined price of one pen and one packet of wax colours. How much amount did Seema pay to the shopkeeper?

(a) 1,491
(b) 1,725
(c) 1,667
(d) 1,527
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011" ::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2011 "Held on: 18-09-2011"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

1. To change selected text to all capital letters, click the change case button, then click

(a) Uppercase
(b) Upper all
(c) Capslock
(d) Lock Upper
(e) Large Size

2. A person who uses his or her expertise to gain access to other people’s computers to get information illegally or do damage is a

(a) hacker
(b) analyst
(c) instant messenger
(d) programmer
(e) spammer

3. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be

(a) distributed
(b) free
(c) centralized
(d) open source
(e) None of these

4. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym

(a) CD
(b) DVD
(c) ROM
(d) RW
(e) ROS

5. The most common type of storage devices are

(a) persistent
(b) optical
(c) magnetic
(d) flash
(e) steel

6. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as

(a) an ASCII code
(b) a magnetic tape
(c) a bar code
(d) an OCR scanner
(e) None of these

7. A Web site’s main page is called its

(a) Homepage
(b) Browser page
(c) Search Page
(d) Bookmark
(e) None of these

8. Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of

(a) control
(b) output
(c) processing
(d) feedback
(e) input

9. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is

(a) dragging
(b) dropping
(c) right-clicking
(d) shift-clicking
(e) None of these

10. Computers use the ________ number system to store data and perform calculations.

(a) binary
(b) octal
(c) decimal
(d) hexadecimal
(e) None of these

11. ________ ‘are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.

(a) Phishing trips
(b) Computer viruses
(c) Spyware scams
(d) Viruses
(e) Phishing scams

12. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends?

(a) It is not unethical, because it is legal.
(b) It is unethical because the files are being given for free.
(c) Sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyright laws.
(d) It is not unethical because the files are being given for free.
(e) It is not unethical - anyone can access a computer

13. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?

(a) CTRL+A
(b) ALT+ F5
(c) SHIFT+A
(d) CTRL+K
(e) CTRL+H

14. To instruct Word to fit the width of a column to the contents of a table automatically, click the___button and then point to AutoFit Contents.

(a) Fit to Form
(b) Format
(c) Autosize
(d) Contents
(e) AutoFit

15. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is

(a) multiprogramming
(b) multitasking
(c) time-sharing
(d) multiprocessing
(e) None of these

16. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is

(a) memory-only
(b) write-only
(c) once-only
(d) run-only
(e) read-only

17. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called?

(a) RAM
(b) Floppy
(d) CD-ROM
(e) ROM

18. The default view in Excel is_____view.

(a) Work
(b) Auto
(c) Normal
(d) Roman
(e) None of these

19. What displays the contents of the active cell in Excel?

(a) Namebox
(b) Row Headings
(c) Formulabar
(d) Taskpane
(e) None of these

20. In Word you can force a page break

(a) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key
(b) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl + Enter
(c) by using the Insert/Section Break
(d) by changing the font size of your document
(e) None of these

21. Grouping and processing all of a firm’s transactions at one time is called

(a) a database management system
(b) batch processing
(c) a real-time system
(d) an on-line system
(e) None of these

22. Help menu is available at which button?

(a) End
(b) Start
(c) Turnoff
(d) Restart
(e) Reboot

23. You can keep your personal files/folders in

(a) My folder
(b) My Documents
(c) My Files
(d) My Text
(e) None of these

24. A central computer that holds collections programs for many PCs, workstations computers is a(n)

(a) supercomputer
(b) minicomputer
(c) laptop
(d) server
(e) None of these

25. When you save to this, your data will remain when the computer is turned off.

(a) RAM
(b) motherboard
(c) secondary storage device
(d) primary storage
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::REASONING ABILITY::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-4) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digits numbers)

Input : tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 bam
Step I : 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 bam alt
Step II : 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt bam
Step III : 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt bam high
Step IV : 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt bam high jar
Step V : 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt bam high jar rise
Step VI : 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt bam high jar rise tall
Step VII : 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt bam high jar rise tall wise
Step VII : is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input : 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two digits numbers)

1. Which step number is the following output ? 32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink

(a) Step V
(b) Step VI
(c) Step IV
(d) Step III
(e) There is no such step

2. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V ?

(a) 14
(b) 92
(c) feet
(d) best
(e) why

3. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between 'feet' and '32' as they appear in the last step of the output ?

(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) Seven

4. Which of the following represents the position of 'why' in the fourth step ?

(a) Eighth from the left
(b) Fifth from the right
(c) Sixth from the left
(d) Fifth from the left
(e) Seventh from the left

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 5-11) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
• B sits second to left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.
• D's daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H's husband.
• Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's other. Only one person sits between H's mother and E.
• Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

5. What is position of A with respect to his mother-in-law ?

(a) Immediate left
(b) Third to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Second to the right
(e) Fourth to the left

6. Who amongst the following is D's daughter ?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) E
(d) G
(e) H

7. What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild ?

(a) Immediate right
(b) Third to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Second to the left
(e) Fourth to the left

8. How many people sit between G and her uncle ?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) More than four

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(a) F
(b) C
(c) E
(d) H
(e) G

10. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement ?

(a) C is the cousin of E
(b) H and H's husband are immediate neighbours of each other
(c) No female is an immediate neighbour of C
(d) H sits third to left of her daughter
(e) B is the mother of H

11. Who sits to the immediate left of C ?

(a) F's grandmother
(b) G's son
(c) D's mother-in-law
(d) A
(e) G

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 12-18) : In each group of questions below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (a) if only conclusion I follows;
Give answer (b) if only conclusion II follows;
Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows;
Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows;
Give answer (e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

12. Statements : Some exams are tests. No exam is a question.
Conclusions : I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.

13. Statements : All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions : I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.

14. Statements : All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions : I. No energy is heat.
II. Some forces being heat is a possibility.

15. Statements : No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions : I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.

16. Statements : No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions : I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plastics.

17. Statements : Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics. No graphic is a picture.
Conclusions : I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.

18. Statements : All vacancies are jobs. Some jobs are occupations.
Conclusions : I. All vacancies are occupations.
II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19-21) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions :

Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only. A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

19. Which of the following could possibly be C's score ?

(a) 70
(b) 94
(c) 86
(d) 61
(e) 81

20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information ?

(a) D's score was definitely less than 60
(b) F scored the maximum marks
(c) Only two people scored more than C
(d) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks
(e) None is true

21. The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F's marks. Which of the following can be D's score ?

(a) 94
(b) 60
(c) 89
(d) 78
(e) 81

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 22-29) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions :

Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO bank, Syndicate bank, Canara bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)

• C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
• Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbour of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
• The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person  from Bank of Maharashtra.
• Q faces the person from Dena bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
• B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate bank.

22. Which of the following is true regarding A ?

(a) The person from UCO bank faces A
(b) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A
(c) A faces the person who sits second to right of R
(d) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(e) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line

23. Who is seated between R and the person from PNB ?

(a) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(b) P
(c) Q
(d) The person from Syndicate bank
(e) S

24. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?

(a) D and the person from PNB.
(b) The person from Indian bank and UCO bank.
(c) The person from Dena bank and P.
(d) The persons from Syndicate bank and D.
(e) C, Q

25. Who amongst the following faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra ?

(a) The person from Indian bank
(b) P
(c) R
(d) The person from Syndicate bank
(e) The person from Canara bank

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012" ::Quantitative Aptitude::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::Quantitative Aptitude::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 51-55) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. 4003 × 77 – 21015 = ? × 116

(a) 2477
(b) 2478
(c) 2467
(d) 2476
(e) None of these

(a) 143
(b) 72 7
(c) 134
(d) 70 7
(e) None of these

3. (4444 ÷ 40) + (645 ÷ 25) + (3991÷ 26) = ?

(a) 280.4
(b) 290.4
(c) 295.4
(d) 285.4
(e) None of these

(a) 37
(b) 33
(c) 34
(d) 28
(e) None of these

(a) 303.75
(b) 305.75
(c) 303
(d) 305
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 56-60) : What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note : You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

6. 8787 ÷ 343 × 50 = ?

(a) 250
(b) 140
(c) 180
(d) 100
(e) 280

7. 3 54821 × (303 ÷ 8) = (?)2

(a) 48
(b) 38
(c) 28
(d) 18
(e) 58

8.5/8 of 4011.33 +7/10 of 3411.22 = ?

(a) 4810
(b) 4980
(c) 4890
(d) 4930
(e) 4850

9. 23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?

(a) 6460
(b) 6420
(c) 6320
(d) 6630
(e) 6360

10. 335.01 × 244.99 ÷ 55 = ?

(a) 1490
(b) 1550
(c) 1420
(d) 1590
(e) 1400

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

11. 5531 5506 5425 5304 5135 4910 4621

(a) 5531
(b) 5425
(c) 4621
(d) 5135
(e) 5506

12. 6 7 9 13 26 37 69

(a) 7
(b) 26
(c) 69
(d) 37
(e) 9

13. 1 3 10 36 152 760 4632

(a) 3
(b) 36
(c) 4632
(d) 760
(e) 152

14. 7 4 5 9 20 51 160.5

(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 20
(e) 51

15. 157.5 45 15 6 3 2 1

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) 157.5
(e) 45

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Study the following graph and table carefully and answer the questions given below :

16. Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on both the days ?

(a) Vehicle A
(b) Vehicle C
(c) Vehicle F
(d) Vehicle B
(e) None of these

17. What was the difference between the speed of vehicle A on day 1 and the speed of vehicle C on the same day ?

(a) 7 km/hr.
(b) 12 km/hr.
(c) 11 km/hr.
(d) 8 km/hr.
(e) None of these

18. What was the speed of vehicle C on day 2 in terms of meters per second ?

(a) 15.3
(b) 12.8
(c) 11.5
(d) 13.8
(e) None of these

19. The distance travelled by vehicle F on day 2 was approximately what percent of the distance travelled by it on day 1 ?

(a) 80
(b) 65
(c) 85
(d) 95
(e) 90

20. What is the respective ratio between the speeds of vehicle D and vehicle E on day 2 ?

(a) 15:13
(b) 17:13
(c) 13:11
(d) 17:14
(e) None of these

21. An article was purchased for ` 78,350/-. Its price was marked up by 30%. It was sold at a discount of 20% on the marked up price. What was the profit percent on the cost price ?

(a) 4
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 3
(e) 6

22. When X is subtracted from the numbers 9,15 and 27, the remainders are in continued proportion. What is the value of X ?

(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) None of these

23. What is the difference between the simple and compound interest on ? ` 7,300/- at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. in 2 years ?

(a) ` 29.37/-
(b) ` 26.28/-
(c) ` 31.41/-
(d) ` 23.22/-
(e) ` 21.34/-

24. Sum of three consecutive numbers is 2262. What is 41 % of the highest number ?

(a) 301.51
(b) 303.14
(c) 308.73
(d) 306.35
(e) 309.55

25. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘THERAPY’ be arranged so that the vowels never come together ?

(a) 720
(b) 1440
(c) 5040
(d) 3600
(e) 4800

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012" ::General Awareness::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::General Awareness::


1. A money deposited at a bank that cannot be withdrawn for a preset fixed period of time is known as a __________ .

(a) Term deposit
(b) Checking Account
(c) Savings Bank Deposit
(d) No Frills Account
(e) Current Deposit

2. A worldwide financial messaging network which exchanges messages between banks and financial institutions is known as __________ .

(a) CHAPS
(b) SWIFT
(c) NEFT
(d) SFMS
(e) CHIPS

3. Which of the following Ministries along with Planning Commission of India has decided to set up a Corpus Fund of ` 500 crore, so that Tribals in Naxal-hit areas can be provided proper means of livelihood ?

(a) Ministry of Rural Development
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(e) Ministry of Finance

4. Which of the following was the issue over which India decided to vote against Sri Lanka in the meeting of one of the UN governed bodies/agencies ?

(a) Violations of human rights in Sri Lanka
(b) Allowing China to establish a military base in Indian ocean
(c) Issue of subsidy on agricultural products in the meeting of the WTO
(d) Allowing part of Sri Lanka to become an independent country governed by LTTE
(e) Sri Lanka's claim to become a permanent member of UN Security Council

5. The term 'Smart Money" refers to __________ .

(a) Foreign Currency
(b) Internet Banking
(c) US Dollars
(d) Travelers' cheques
(e) Credit Cards

6. Which one of the following is not a 'Money Market Instrument' ?

(a) Treasury Bills
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Certificate of Deposit
(d) Equity Shares
(e) None of these

7. Which one of the following is a retail banking product ?

(a) Home Loans
(b) Working capital finance
(c) Corporate term loans
(d) Infrastructure financing
(e) Export Credit

8. Which of the following Statements is TRUE about political situation in Mali, where a military coup burst out recently ?

(a) General elections were due there in March/April 2012 but did not take place
(b) The country was under the control of US army since last 18 months
(c) Army of the country was not happy as Amadou Toure was made President without elections for the next five years
(d) Coup broke out in Mali when Amadou Toure. the Military Chief got seriously injured in a bomb blast
(e) NATO and its associates had planned a coup there

9. In the summit of which of the following organizations/group of Nations it was decided that all members should enforce Budget Discipline ?

(a) G-8
(b) OPEC
(c) European Union
(d) SAARC
(e) G-20

10. As per newspaper reports, India is planning to use 'SEU' as fuel in its 700 MW nuclear reactors being developed in new plants. What is full form of 'SEU' as used here ?

(a) Safe Electrical Units
(b) Small Electrical Unite
(c) Slightly Enriched Uranium
(d) Sufficiently Enriched Units
(e) Safely Enriched Uranium

11. Technological Advancement in the recent times has given a new dimension to banks, mainly to which one of the following aspects ?

(a) New Age Financial Derivatives
(b) Service Delivery Mechanism
(c) Any Banking
(d) Any Type Banking
(e) Multilevel Marketing

12. When there is a difference between all receipts and expenditure of the Govt. of India, both capital and revenue, it is called __________ .

(a) Revenue Deficit
(b) Budgetary Deficit
(c) Zero Budgeting
(d) Trade Gap
(e) Balance of payment problem

13. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Reserve Bank of India ?

(a) Fiscal Policy Functions
(b) Exchange Control Functions
(c) Issuance, Exchange and destruction of currency notes
(d) Monetary Authority Functions
(e) Supervisory and Control Functions

14. Which of the following is NOT required for opening a bank account ?

(a) Identity Proof
(b) Address Proof
(c) Recent Photographs
(d) Domicile Certificate
(e) None of these

15. The Golden Jubilee of Afro-Asian Rural Development organization was organized in which of the following places in March 2012 ?

(a) Dhaka
(b) Tokyo
(c) Cairo
(d) Kuala Lampur
(e) New Delhi

16. What is the maximum deposit amount insured by DICGC ?

(a) ` 2,00,000 per depositor per bank
(b) ` 2,00,000 per depositor across all banks
(c) ` 1,00,000 per depositor per bank
(d) ` 1,00,000 per depositor across all banks
(e) None of these

17. The present Foreign Trade policy of India will continue till-

(a) December 2012
(b) March 2013
(c) March 2014
(d) June 2013
(e) December 2014

18. With reference to a cheque which of the following is the “drawee bank” ?

(a) The bank that collects the cheque
(b) The payee's bank
(c) The endorsee's bank
(d) The endorser's bank
(e) The bank upon which the cheque is drawn

19. In which of the following fund transfer mechanisms, can funds be moved from one bank to another and where the transaction is settled instantly without being bunched with any other transaction ?

(a) RTGS
(b) NEFT
(c) TT
(d) EFT
(e) MT

20. What was the reason owing to which Enrica Lexie, an Italian ship was detained by the Port Authorities in Kerala and was brought to Cochin port for inspection and search ?

(a) It was carrying objectionable material
(b) It was involved in sea piracy
(c) It was detained as the crew killed two Indian fishermen
(d) The ship started sailing without making payments of iron ore it loaded
(e) It was detained as it was dumping nuclear waste in deep sea

21. Which of the following agencies/organizations recently gave 'go-ahead' verdict to India's one of the most controversial project of inter linking rivers? (some of the rivers are international rivers)

(a) UN Food and Agriculture Organisation
(b) World Meteorological Organisation
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) Central Water Commission
(e) Supreme Court of India

22. Who among the following was the Captain of the Australian Team which played 4 Test matches against India in January 2012 and won all of them ?

(a) Ricky Ponting
(b) Michael Clarke
(c) Nathan Lyon
(d) Stuart Clark
(e) Andrew Symonds

23. The committee on review of National Small Saving Fund (NSSF) was headed by __________ .

(a) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(b) Mr. U. K. Sinha
(c) Dr. Y. V. Reddy
(d) Mrs.Shyamala Gopinath
(e) Dr. Usha Thorat

24. Banking Ombudsman Scheme is applicable to the business of __________ .

(a) All scheduled commercial banks excluding RRBs
(b) All scheduled commercial banks including RRBs
(c) Only Public Sector Banks
(d) All Banking Companies
(e) All scheduled banks except private banks

25. The 5th Asian tndoor Athletics Championship was organized in February 2012 in __________ .

(a) Bangladesh
(b) India
(c) Qatar
(d) China
(e) South Korea

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012" ::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::


1. __________ allows users to upload files to an online site so they can be viewed and edited from another location.

(a) General-purpose applications
(b) Microsoft Outlook
(c) Web-hosted technology
(d) Office Live
(e) None of these

2. What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins so that the text is centered vertically on the printed page ?

(a) Vertical justifying
(b) Vertical adjusting
(c) Dual centering
(d) Horizontal centering
(e) Vertical centering

3. Which of these is not a means of personal communication on the Internet ?

(a) chat
(b) instant messaging
(c) instanotes
(d) electronic mail
(e) None of these

4. What is the overall term for creating, editing, formatting, storing, retrieving, and printing a text document ?

(a) Word processing
(b) Spreadsheet design
(c) Web design
(d) Database management
(e) Presentation generation

5. Fourth-generation mobile technology provides enhanced capabilities allowing the transfer of both __________ data, including full-motion video, high-speed Internet access, and video conferencing.

(a) video data and information
(b) voice and nonvoice
(c) music and video
(d) video and audio
(e) None of these

6. __________ is a form of denial of service attack in which a hostile client repeatedly sends SYN packets to every port on the server using fake IP addresses.

(a) Cyborgaming crime
(b) Memory shaving
(c) Syn flooding
(d) Software piracy
(e) None of these

7. Which of these is a point-and-draw device ?

(a) mouse
(b) scanner
(c) printer
(d) CD-ROM
(e) Keyboard

8. The letter and number of the intersecting column and row is the __________.

(a) cell location
(b) cell position
(c) cell address
(d) cell coordinates
(e) cell contents

9. A set of rules for telling the computer what operations to perform is called a __________.

(a) procedural language
(b) structures
(c) natural language
(d) command language
(e) programming language

10. A detailed written description of the programming cycle and the program, along with the test results and a printout of the program is called __________.

(a) documentation
(b) output
(c) reporting
(d) spec sheets
(e) Directory

11. Forms that are used to organize business data into rows and columns are called __________.

(a) transaction sheets
(b) registers
(c) business forms
(d) sheet-spreads
(e) spreadsheets

12. In Power Point, the Header and Footer button can be found on the Insert tab in what group ?

(a) Illustrations group
(b) Object group
(c) Text group
(d) Tables group
(e) None of these

13. A(n)_________is a set of programs designed to manage the resources of a computer, including starting the computer, managing programs, managing memory, and coordinating tasks between input and output devices.

(a) application suite
(b) compiler
(c) input/output system
(d) interface
(e) operating system (OS)

14. A typical slide in a slide presentation would not include __________.

(a) photo images charts, and graphs
(b) graphs and clip art
(c) clip art and audio clips
(d) full-motion video
(e) content templates

15. The PC productivity tool that manipulates data organized in rows and columns is called a __________.

(a) spreadsheet
(b) word processing document
(c) presentation mechanism
(d) database record manager
(e) EDI creator

16. In the absence of parentheses, the order of operation is __________.

(a) Exponentiation, addition or subtraction, multiplication or division
(b) Addition or subtraction, multiplication or division, exponentiation
(c) Multiplication or division, exponentiation, addition or subtraction
(d) Exponentiation, multiplication or division, addition or subtraction
(e) Addition or subtraction, exponentiation, Multiplication or division

17. To find the Paste Special option, you use the Clipboard group on the _____ tab of PowerPoint.

(a) Design
(b) Slide Show
(c) Page Layout
(d) Insert
(e) Home

18. An _____ program is one that is ready to run and does not need to be altered in any way.

(a) interpreter
(b) high-level
(c) compiler
(d) COBOL
(e) executable

19. Usually downloaded into folders that hold temporary Internet files, _____ are written to your computer's hard disk by some of the Web sites you visit.

(a) anonymous files
(b) behaviour files
(c) banner ads
(d) large files
(e) cookies

20. What is the easiest way to change the phrase, revenues, profits, gross margin, to read revenues, profits, and gross margin ?

(a) Use the insert mode, position the cursor before the g gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(b) Use the insert mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(c) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(d) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(e) None of these

21. A program, either talk or music, that is made available in digital format tor automatic download over the Internet is called a __________.

(a) wiki
(b) broadcast
(c) vodcast
(d) blog
(e) podcast

22. Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the presentation as a thumbnail and is useful for rearranging slides ?

(a) Slide Sorter
(b) Slide Show
(c) Slide Master
(d) Notes Page
(e) Slide Design

23. Different components on the motherboard of a PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called ?

(a) Conductors
(b) Buses
(c) Connectors
(d) Consecutives
(e) None of these

24. What is the name given to those applications that combine text, sound, graphics, motion video, and/ or animation ?

(a) motionware
(b) anigraphics
(c) videoscapes
(d) multimedia
(e) maxomedia

25. A USB communication device that supports data encryption for secure wireless communication for notebook users is called a __________.

(a) USB wireless network adapter
(b) wireless switch
(c) wireless hub
(d) router
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate  them while answering some of the questions.

When times are hard, doomsayers are aplenty. The problem is that if you listen to them too carefully, you tend to overlook the most obvious signs of change. 2011 was a bad year. Can 2012 be any worse? Doomsday forecasts are the easiest to make these days. So let's try a contrarian's forecast instead. Let's start with the global economy. We have seen a steady flow of good news from the US. The employment situation seems to be improving rapidly and consumer sentiment, reflected in retail expenditures on discretionary items like electronics and clothes, has picked up. If these trends sustain, the US might post better growth numbers for 2012 than the 1.5-1.8 percent being forecast currently. Japan is likely to pull out of a recession in 2012 as postearthquake reconstruction efforts gather momentum and the fiscal stimulus announced in 2011 begins to pay off. The consensus estimate for growth in Japan is a respectable 2 per cent for 2012. The "hard-landing" scenario for China remains and will remain a myth. Growth might decelerate further from the 9 per cent that it expected to clock in 2011 but is unlikely to drop below 8-8.5 percent in 2012. Europe is certainly in a spot of trouble. It is perhaps already in recession and for 2012 it is likely to post mildly negative growth. The risk of implosion has dwindled over the last few months - peripheral economies like Greece, Italy and Spain have new governments in place and have made progress towards genuine economic reform. Even with some of these positive factors in place, we have to accept the fact that global growth in 2012 will be tepid. But there is a flipside to this. Softer growth means lower demand for commodities and this is likely to drive a correction in commodity prices. Lower commodity inflation will enable emerging market central banks to reverse their monetary stance. China, for instance, has already reversed its stance and has pared its reserve ratio twice. The RBI also seems poised for a reversal in its rate cycle as headline inflation seems well on its way to its target of 7 per cent for March 2012. That said, oil might be an exception to the general trend in commodities. Rising geopolitical tensions, particularly the continuing face-off between Iran and the US, might lead to a spurt in prices. It might make sense for our oil companies to hedge this risk instead of buying oil in the spot market. As inflation fears abate and emerging market central banks begin to cut rates, two things could happen Lower commodity inflation would mean lower interest rates and better credit availability. This could set a floor to growth and slowly reverse the business cycle within these economies. Second, as the fear of untamed, runaway inflation in these economies abates, the global investor's comfort levels with their markets will increase. Which of the emerging markets will outperform and who will get left behind? In an environment in which global growth is likely to be weak, economies like India that have a powerful domestic consumption dynamic should lead; those dependent on exports should, prima facie, fall behind. Specifically for India, a fall in the exchange rate could not have come at a better time. It will help Indian exporters gain market share even it global trade remains depressed. More importantly, it could lead to massive import substitution that favours domestic producers. Let's now focus on India and start with a caveat. It is important not to confuse a short-run cyclical dip with a permanent de-rating of its long-term structural potential. The arithmetic is simple. Our growth rate can be in the range of 7-10 per cent depending on policy action.  Ten per cent if we get everything right, 7 per cent if we get it all wrong. Which policies and reforms are critical to taking us to our 10 per cent potential ? In judging this, let's again be careful. Lets not go by the laundry list of reforms that FIIs like to wave: increase in foreign equity limits in foreign shareholding, greater voting rights tor institutional shareholders in banks, FDI in retail, etc. These can have an impact only at the margin. We need not bend over backwards to appease the FIIs through these reforms - they will invest in our markets when momentum picks up and will be the first to exit when the momentum flags, reforms or not. The reforms that we need are the ones that can actually raise out. Sustainable long-term growth rate. These have to come in areas like better targeting of subsidies, making projects in infrastructure viable so that they draw capital, raising the productivity of agriculture, improving healthcare and education, bringing the parallel economy under the tax net, implementing fundamental reforms in taxation like GST and the direct tax code and finally easing the myriad rules andregulations that make doing business in India such a nightmare. A number of these things do not require new legislation and can be done through executive order.

1. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage ?

(a) China's economic growth may decline in the year 2012 as compared to the year 2011
(b) The European economy is not doing very well
(c) Greece is on the verge of bringing about economic reforms
(d) In the year 2012, Japan may post a positive growth and thus pull out of recession
(e) All are true

2. Which of the following will possibly be a result of softer growth estimated for the year 2012 ?

(A) Prices of oil will not increase.
(B) Credit availability would be lesser.
(C) Commodity inflation would be lesser.

(a) Only (B)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (A) and (C)
(d) Only (C)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

3 Which of the following can be said about the present status of the US economy ?

(a) There is not much improvement in the economic scenario of the country from the year 2011
(b) The growth in the economy of the country, in the year 2012, would definitely be lesser than 1.8 percent
(c) The expenditure on clothes and electronic commodities, by consumers, is lesser than that in the year 2011
(d) There is a chance that in 2012 the economy would do better than what has been forecast
(e) The pace of change in the employment scenario of the country is very slow.

4. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?

(a) The Economic Disorder
(b) Indian Economy Versus The European Economy
(c) Global Trade
(d) The Current Economic Scenario
(e) Characteristics of The Indian Economy

5. According to the author, which of the following would characterize Indian growth scenario in 2012 ?

(A) Domestic producers will take a hit because of depressed global trade scenario.
(B) On account of its high domestic consumption, India will lead.
(C) Indian exporters will have a hard time in gaining market share.

(a) Only (B)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (B) and (C)
(d) Only (A)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

6. Why does the author not recommend taking up the reforms suggested by FII's ?

(a) These will bring about only minor growth
(b) The reforms suggested will have no effect on the economy ol our country, whereas will benefit the FII's significantly
(c) The previous such recommendations had backfired
(d) These reforms will be the sole reason for our country's economic downfall
(e) The reforms suggested by them are not to be trusted as they will not bring about any positive growth in India

7. Which of the following is TRUE as per the scenario presented in the passage?

(a) The highest growth rate that India can expect is 7 percent
(b) The fall in the exchange rate will prove beneficial to India
(c) Increased FDI in retail as suggested by Flls would benefit India tremendously
(d) The reforms suggested by the author require new legislation in India
(e) None is true

8. According to the author, which ot the following reform/s is/ are needed to ensure long term growth in India?

(A) Improving healthcare and educational facilities.
(B) Bringing about reforms in taxation.
(C) Improving agricultural productivity.

(a) Only (B)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (B) and (C)
(d) Only (A)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9-12) : Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. DRAW

(a) entice
(b) push
(c) decoy
(d) attract
(e) persuade

10. CLOCK

(a) watch
(b) achieve
(c) time
(d) second
(e) regulate

11. ABATE

(a) rise
(b) gear
(c) hurl
(d) lessen
(e) retreat

12. EMERGING

(a) raising
(b) developing
(c) noticeable
(d) conspicuous
(e) uproaring

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13-15) : Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. MYRIAD

(a) trivial
(b) difficult
(c) few
(d) effortless
(e) countless

14. TEPID

(a) moderate
(b) high
(c) warm
(d) irregular
(e) little

15. MYTH

(a) reality
(b) belief
(c) contrast
(d) idealism
(e) falsehood

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) If China is the world's factory, India has become the world's outsourcing centre - keeping in line with this image.
(B) But India's future depends crucially on its ability to compete fully in the Creative Economy - not just in tech and software, but across design and entrepreneurship; arts, culture and entertainment; and the knowledge-based professions of medicine, finance and law.
(C) While its creative assets outstrip those of other emerging competitors, India must address several challenges to increase its international competitiveness as the world is in the midst of a sweeping transformation.
(D) This transformation is evident in the fact that the world is moving from an industrial economy to a Creative Economy that generates wealth by harnessing intellectual labour, intangible goods and human creative capabilities.
(E) Its software industry is the world's second-largest, its tech outsourcing accounts for more than hall of the $ 300 billion global industry, according to a technology expert.
(F) If the meeting of world leaders at Davos is any indication, India is rapidly becoming an economic'rock star'.

16. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

17. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

18. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
(e) E

19. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) F
(b) B
(c) C
(d) A
(e) E

20. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25) : The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words denoted by A, B, C, D, E & F as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

21. ___________ before the clock struck 8 on Saturday night, India Gate was swamped with people wearing black teeshirts and holding candles.

(A) Minutes
(B) Time
(C) Later
(D) Quickly
(E) Since
(F) Seconds

(a) (B) and (E)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (A) and(F)
(d) (B) and (D)
(e) (C) and (E)

22. The Stales should take steps to the process of teachers" appointments as the Centre has already sanctioned six lakh posts.

(A) fasten
(B) move
(C) hasten
(D) speed
(E) early
(F) quicken

(a) (D) and (F)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (C) and (F)
(d) (D) and (E)
(e) (B) and (D)

23. A senior citizen's son threatened her every day and physically harmed her, forcing her to transfer her properly to him.

(A) superficially
(B) mistakenly
(C) allegedly
(D) miserably
(E) doubtfully
(F) purportedly

(a) (C) and (F)
(b) (A) and (E)
(c) (C) and (E)
(d) (D) and (F)
(e) (A) and (C)

24. Medical teachers said that the management had continued o remain to their cause leading to the stretching of their strike.

(A) unmoved
(B) lethargic
(C) unconcerned
(D) apathetic
(E) indifferent (F) bored

(a) (B) and (C)
(b) (C) and (F)
(c) (A) and (E)
(d) (A) and (D)
(e) (D) and (E)

25. The parents had approached the high court to the government order after their children, who passed UKG, were denied admission by a school.

(A) void
(B) quash
(C) annual
(D) stay
(E) lift
(F) post

(a) (A) and (D)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (C) and (E)
(d) (E) and (F)
(e) (C) and (D)

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "Computer Knowledge"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  Computer Knowledge


181. Macros stored in the global macro sheet can be used

(1) in the current document only
(2) in any document
(3) can be used only with other macros of  the global macro sheet
(4) not consistent behaviour
(5) None of the above

182. About pasting from the clip board

(1) a part of the clip board contents can be pasted
(2) whole of the contents of clip board can be pasted
(3) sometimes (1) and sometimes (2)
(4) (1) and (2)
(5) None of the above

183. One of the following statements is not true for BUFFERS command

(1) Increasing numbers of BUFFERS can speed program execution, but only to a certain extent
(2) The more buffers that exist the more sectors can be stored in memory; hence fewer accesses of disk are necessary
(3) The BUFFERS command is used to establish the number of disk buffers set up by MS-DOS during booting
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

184. EPROM can be used for

(1) erasing the contents of ROM
(2) reconstructing the contents of ROM
(3) erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
(4) duplicating the ROM
(5) None of the above

185. Attributes can be defined for

(1) entity
(2) switch board
(3) macro
(4) pages
(5) None of the above

186. Where will we find the referential integrity command ?

(1) Tools
(2) View
(3) Format
(4) Table
(5) None of these

187. Anything that is typed in a worksheet appears

(1) in the formula bar only
(2) in the active cell only
(3) in both active cell and formula bar
(4) in the formula bar first and when we press ENTER it appears in active cell
(5) None of the above

188. Which bar is usually located below the Title Bar that provides categorised options ?

(1) Menu Bar (2) Status Bar
(3) Toolbar (4) Scroll Bar
(5) None of the above

189. A pixel is

(1) a computer program that draws picture
(2) a picture stored in the secondary memory
(3) the smallest resolvable part of a picture
(4) a virus
(5) None of the above

190. How many types of cell references are available in Excel ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 10
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "General Awareness"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  General Awareness


141. Which of the following is a receipt listed in India and traded in rupees declaring ownership of shares of a foreign company?

(1) Indian Depository Receipt (IDR)
(2) European Depository Receipt (EDR)
(3) Global Depository Receipt (GDR)
(4) American Depository Receipt (ADR)
(5) Luxemburg Depository Receipt (LDR)

142. A bank without any branch network that offers its services remotely through online banking, telephone/mobile banking and interbank ATM network alliances is known as

(1) Universal Banking
(2) Indirect Bank
(3) Door Step Bank
(4) A Direct Bank
(5) Unit Banking

143. Which of the following Indian Universities is Asia’s largest residential university?

(1) Allahabad University
(2) Utkal University
(3) Banaras Hindu University
(4) Anna University
(5) Jawaharlal Nehru University

144. In October, 2013, which country has confirmed plans to create a secure mail service to protect its citizens and businesses against foreign espionage?

(1) Mexico
(2) Brazil
(3) Sweden
(4) Germany
(5) None of these

145. The campaign name ‘Heal India’ aims to create awareness about which of the following diseases?

(1) Mental illness
(2) AIDS
(3) Leprosy
(4) Alzheimer
(5) None of these

146. The target set by the UIDAI for issuance of Aadhaar cards upto 2014 is

(1) 50 crore cards
(2) 55 crore cards
(3) 45 crore cards
(4) 40 crore cards
(5) 60 crore cards

147. Which of the following nations has signed a comprehensive free trade agreement with European Union?

(1) Japan
(2) China
(3) Russia
(4) Canada
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013" ::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information given in three Statements I, II and III. You have to study the question along with the statements and decide the information given in which of the statement(s) is necessary to answer the question.

1. In how many days 10 women can finish the work?

I. 10 men finish the work in 6 days.
II. 10 women and 10 men finish the work in 24/7 days.
III. If 10 men work 3 days and after that 10 women are deployed to work for men, the rest work is finished in 4 days.

(a) I and II
(b) Any two of three
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
(e) None of these

2. What is the present age of Sabir?

I. The present age of Sabir is half of his father's age.
II. After five years the ratio of ages of Sabir and his father is 6 : 11.
III. Sabir is younger to his brother by five years.

(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) All of these
(e) Cannot be determined

3. What is two digit number?

I. The difference between the number and the number formed by interchanging the digit is 27.
II. The difference between two digits is 3.
III. The digit at unit's place is less than that at ten place by 3.

(a) I and II
(b) I and either II or III
(c) I and III
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

4. What is the rate of interest Percent per annum?

I. An amount doubles itself in 5 yr on simple interest;
II. Difference between the compound interest and the simple interest earned on a certain amount in two years is ` 400.
III. Simple interest earned per annum is ` 2000.

(a) Only I
(b) II and III
(c) Any two of three
(d) I or II and III
(e) Only I or II and III

5. What is the cost of flooring the rectangular hall?

I. Length and the breadth of the hall are in the ratio of 3 : 2
II. Length of the hall is 48 m and cost of flooring is ` 850 per sq m.
III. Perimeter of the hall is 160 m and cost of flooring is ` 850 per sq m.

(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) Only III
(d) I and either II or III
(e) Any two of the three

6. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and the denominator is increased by 25%, the fraction obtained is 3/5. What was the original fraction?

(a) 5/7
(b) 4/7
(c) 3/8
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

7. If the positions of the digits of a two-digit number are interchanged, the number obtained is smaller than the original number by 27. If the digits of the number are in the ratio of 1 : 2, what is the original number?

(a) 36
(b) 63
(c) 48
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

8. One of the angles of a quadrilateral is thrice the smaller angle of a parallelogram. The respective ratio between the adjacent angles of the parallelogram is 4:5. Remaining three angles of the quadrilateral are in ratio 4 : 11: 9 respectively. What is the sum of the largest and the smallest angles of the quadrilateral?

(a) 255°
(b) 260°
(c) 265°
(d) 270°
(e) None of these

9. An aeroplane flies with an average speed of 756 km/h. A helicopter takes 48 h to cover twice the distance covered by aeroplane in 9 h. How much distance will the helicopter cover in 18 h? (Assuming that flights are non-stop and moving with uniform speed.)

(a) 5010 km
(b) 4875 km
(c) 5760 km
(d) 5103 km
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 10-14) : Study the following table carefully and answer the question given below.

Number of People taking Fresh Loans from Different Banks over the Year and the Percentage of Defaulters Amongst them each Year

10. Approximately how many people taking a loan from Bank S in the year 2006 were defaulters?

(a) 6490
(b) 6210
(c) 5020
(d) 6550
(e) 5580

11. Approximately what was the difference between the number of defaulters of Bank Q in the year 2004 and 2005?

(a) 175
(b) 125
(c) 190
(d) 205
(e) 140

12. In which of the following years was the number of defaulters of Bank R, the maximum among the given years?

(a) 2005
(b) 2006
(c) 2007
(d) 2010
(e) None of these

13. In which of the following years was the difference in number of people taking loan from Bank P from the previous year the highest?

(a) 2008
(b) 2006
(c) 2007
(d) 2005
(e) None of these

14. Approximately what was the total number of defaulters of Bank T in the years 2007 and 2008 together?

(a) 14110
(b) 13620
(c) 13250
(d) 14670
(e) 15330

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 15-19) : In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

15. 29, 37, 21, 43 ,13, 53, 5

(a) 37
(b) 53
(c) 13
(d) 21
(e) 43

16. 600, 125, 30, 13, 7.2, 6.44, 6.288

(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 12
(e) None of these

17. 80, 42, 24, 13.5, 8.75, 6.375, 5.1875

(a) 8.75
(b) 13.5
(c) 24
(d) 6.375
(e) 42

18. 10, 8, 13, 35, 135, 671, 4007

(a) 8
(b) 671
(c) 135
(d) 13
(e) 35

19. 150, 290, 560, 1120, 2140, 4230, 8400

(a) 2140
(b) 560
(c) 1120
(d) 4230
(e) 290

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-24) : These questions are based on the following data. The distribution of appeared and qualified aspirants in competitive examination from different States.

20. What is the ratio of the number of appeared aspirants from States C and E together to that of the appeared aspirants from States A and F together?

(a) 17:33
(b) 11:13
(c) 13:27
(d) 17:27
(e) None of these

21. In which state the percentage of qualified aspirants to appeared aspirants is the least?

(a) C
(b) F
(c) D
(d) E
(e) G

22. What is the difference in the number of qualified aspirants in states D and G?

(a) 690
(b) 670
(c) 780
(d) 720
(e) None of these

23. What is the percentage of qualified aspirants with respect to appeared aspirants from states B and C taken together? (Rounded off to two decimal places.)

(a) 23.11
(b) 24.21
(c) 21.24
(d) 23
(e) None of these

24. What is the ratio between number of candidates qualified from States B and D together and the number of candidates appeared from States 'C' respectively?

(a) 8:37
(b) 11:12
(c) 37 : 40
(d) 7 : 37
(e) None of the above

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013" ::GENERAL AWARENESS::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013"

::GENERAL AWARENESS::

1. Which of the following is a receipt listed in India and traded in rupees declaring ownership of shares of a foreign company?

(a) Indian Depository Receipt (IDR)
(b) European Depository Receipt (EDR)
(c) Global Depository Receipt (GDR)
(d) American Depository Receipt (ADR)
(e) Luxemburg Depository Receipt (LDR)

2. A bank without any branch network that offers its services remotely through online banking, telephone/mobile banking and interbank ATM network alliances is known as

(a) Universal Banking
(b) Indirect Bank
(c) Door Step Bank
(d) A Direct Bank
(e) Unit Banking

3. Which of the following Indian Universities is Asia's largest residential university?

(a) Allahabad University
(b) Utkal University
(c) Banaras Hindu University
(d) Anna University
(e) Jawaharlal Nehru University

4. In October, 2013, which country has confirmed plans to create a secure mail service to protect its citizens and businesses against foreign espionage?

(a) Mexico
(b) Brazil
(c) Sweden
(d) Germany
(e) None of these

5. The campaign name 'Heal India' aims to create awareness about which of the following diseases?

(a) Mental illness
(b) AIDS
(c) Leprosy
(d) Alzheimer
(e) None of these

6. The target set by the UIDAI for issuance of Aadhaar cards upto 2014 is

(a) 50 crore cards
(b) 55 crore cards
(c) 45 crore cards
(d) 40 crore cards
(e) 60 crore cards

7. Which of the following nations has signed a com-prehensive free trade agreement with European Union?

(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) Canada
(e) None of these

8. According to the provisions of the income Tax Act, 1961 a resident individual is categorised as a 'very senior citizen' when he is

(a) 80 yr of age or older
(b) 75 yr of age or older
(c) 90 yr of age or older
(d) 85 yr of age or older
(e) 65 yr of age or older

9. Who among the following has recently been conferred with the first Yash Chopra Memorial Award?

(a) Other than those given as options
(b) Madhuri Dixit Nene
(c) Ramesh Sippy
(d) Lata Mangeshkar
(e) AR Rahman

10. Which of the following is an investment advisory discipline?

(a) Corporate Industrial Finance
(b) Offshare Banking
(c) Wholesale Banking
(d) Wealth Management
(e) Trade Finance

11. The Aadhar-enabled Payment System (AEPS) is a bank-led model that facilitates banking facilities through banking correspondents across banks. However, Aadhaar- enabled basic types of banking transactions do 'not' include

(a) Aadhaar to Aadhaar funds transfer
(b) Small overdraft facility
(c) Cash withdrawal
(d) Balance enquiry
(e) Cash deposit

12. A type of fraud wherein criminals use an innocent person's details to open or use an account to carry out financial transactions is known as

(a) identity theft
(b) hacking
(c) money laundering
(d) espionage
(e) phishing

13. Deepak Lathore is related to which of the following sports?

(a) Hockey
(b) Cricket
(b) Badminton
(d) Football
(c) Weightlifting

14. Who among the following is the author of the book "The Lowland"?

(a) Jhumpa Lahiri
(b) Amitav Ghosh
(c) Salman Rushdie
(d) Hamid Ansari
(e) Chetan Bhagat

15. Which of the following Indian actresses has recently (October, 2013 been honoured at the British House of Commons for her contribution to the global entertainment industry?

(a) Shabana Azmi
(b) Kareena Kapoor
(c) Nandita Das
(d) Aishwarya Rai Bachchan
(e) Vidya Balan

16. Who among the following is the current Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India?

(a) KG Balakrishnan
(b) Ranjit Sinha
(c) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(d) VS Sampath
(e) SY Quraishi

17. The part of a company's earnings or profits which are paid out to shareholders is known as

(a) capital gains
(b) taxes
(c) interest on borrowings
(d) dividends
(e) penal interest

18. NABARD is responsible for regulating and supervising the functions of

(a) Investment and Industrial Finance Banks
(b) Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks
(c) Corporate Finance and Overseas Banking Units
(d) Private Sector and Multinational Banks
(e) Reserve Bank of India

19. The government of India has announced a 'funding for lending' scheme. Who are the beneficiaries for this scheme?

(a) Commercial Banks
(b) Regional Rural Banks
(c) Micro-finance Institutions
(d) Finance Departments of the State Governments
(e) None of the above

20. The arrangement under which banks sell insurance products acting as the agents of the respective companies is called the

(a) Insurance joint venture
(b) Bancassurance Model
(c) Hybrid Insurance Model
(d) Insurance Broking
(e) Integrated Model

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013" ::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::


1. Macros stored in the global macro sheet can be used

(a) in the current document only
(b) in any document
(c) can be used only with other macros of the global macro sheet
(d) not consistent behaviour
(e) None of the above

2. About pasting from the clip board

(a) a part of the clip board contents can be pasted
(b) whole of the contents of clip board can be pasted
(c) sometimes (a) and sometimes (b)
(d) (a) and (b)
(e) None ol the above

3. One of the following statements is not true for BUFFERS command

(a) increasing numbers of BUFFERS can speed program execution, but only to a certain extent
(b) the more buffers that exist the more sectors can be stored In memory; hence fewer accesses of disk are necessary
(c) The BUFFERS command is used to establish the number of disk buffers set up by MS-DOS during booting
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

4. EPROM can be used for

(a) erasing the contents of ROM
(b) reconstructing the contents of ROM
(c) erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
(d) duplicating the ROM
(e) None of the above

5. Attributes can be defined for

(a) entity
(b) switch board
(c) macro
(d) pages
(e) None of the above

6. Where will we find the referential integrity command ?

(a) Tools
(b) View
(b) Format
(d) Table
(e) None of these

7. Anything that is typed in a worksheet appears

(a) in the formula bar only
(b) in tho active cell only
(c) in both active cell and formula bar
(d) in tho formula bar first and when we press ENTER it appears in active cell
(e) None of the above

8. Which bar is usually located below the Title Bar that provides categorised options?

(a) Menu Bar
(c) Status Bar
(b) Toolbar
(d) Scroll Bar
(e) None of the above

9. A pixel is

(a) a computer program that draws picture
(b) a picture stored in the secondary memory
(c) the smallest resolvable part of a picture
(d) a virus
(e) None of the above

10. How many types of cell references are available in Excel?

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 10
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "Computer Knowledge" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest?

(1) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database
(2) Database, file, record, field, character
(3) Character, record, field, database, file
(4) Character, file, record, field, database
(5) Character, field, record, file, database

2. Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the web are called

(1) Web browsers
(2) Information engines
(3) Data engines
(4) Search engines
(5) None of these

3. What is the term for unsolicited e-mail?

(1) Flamming
(2) Usenet
(3) Spam
(4) Backbone
(5) News Group

4. Processor speed is measured in

(1) bytes
(2) gigabytes
(3) gigahertz
(4) megabytes
(5) kilobytes

5. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?

(1) Ctrl + H
(2) Alt + S
(3) Shift + E
(4) Ctrl+A
(5) Ctrl + K

6. The buying or selling of goods over the internet is termed as

(1) e-selling
(2) e-buying
(3) e-business
(4) e-commerce
(5) e-transaction

7. What are the programs that block access to selected websites known as?

(1) Channels
(2) Filters
(3) Browsers
(4) Telnet
(5) Drivers

8. Which of the following is not a valid version of MS-Office?

(1) Office 2000
(2) Office XP
(3) Office 2003
(4) Office 2007
(5) Office Vista

9. Which of the following is used to write Web pages?

(1) URL
(2) HTML
(3) Telnet
(4) HTTP
(5) FTP

10. A computer chip is also called a

(1) register
(2) switch
(3) server
(4) modem
(5) microprocessor

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "General Awareness" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: General Awareness

1. Which of the following is the boundary line between India and Pakistan?’

(1) 17th Parallel
(2) Radcliffeline
(3) Other than those given as options
(4) Hindenburg Line
(5) McMahon Line

2. Banks generally insist account holders to nominate persons to whom the money lying in their accounts should go in the event of

(1) death of account holder
(2) illness of account holder
(3) account holder migrates
(4) account holder turns bankrupt
(5) Other than those given as options

3. Credit Risk refers to the risk that

(1) borrower may opt to get necessary permit/licences
(2) wrong strategy is adopted
(3) a borrower will default on any type of debt
(4) loan processing may be faulty
(5) interest rate in the markets may increase

4. Which of the following is the currency of Cambodia?

(1) Cambodian Dollar
(2) Ringgit
(3) Peso
(4) Riel
(5) Other than those given as options

5. Which of the following is a source of collecting money from the public for a company for the first time?

(1) Rights issue
(2) Bonus shares
(3) Follow on offering
(4) Initial public offer
(5) Secondary offering

6. Which of the following concepts of banking involves booking of web-enabled touch point for basic banking services?

(1) Extension Conters
(2) Retail Banking
(3) Kiosk Banking
(4) Satellite Banking
(5) Mobile Banking

7. Face value of a Government security is the amount that is to be paid to an investor at the maturity date of the security. The face value is not the same as the

(1) Par value
(2) Market Price
(3) Redemption value
(4) Repayment amount
(5) Principal value

8. As per the 2011 Census report, India’s population below the age of 35 years is

(1) between 30 & 35%
(2) between 40 & 50%
(3) between 35 & 40%
(4) more than 65%
(5) between 50 & 65%

9. The facility to help insurance policy holders buy and keep policies in electronic form rather than as a paper document is called

(1) Insurance Warehousing
(2) Insurance Cache
(3) Insurance Stockpile
(4) Insurance Depository
(5) Insurance Repository

10. Based on the recovery of the dues, banks are required to classify non-performing assets (NPAs) in the books of the bank under the categories

(1) Substandard, Doubtful and Bad Debts
(2) Standard, Doubtful and Written-Off Assets
(3) Standard, Substandard and Doubtful Assets
(4) Standard, Doubtful and Loss Assets
(5) Substandard, Doubtful and Loss Assets

11. A mutual fund scheme in which the investors commit their money for a particular period is known as

(1) Long-End Scheme
(2) Closed-End Scheme
(3) Long-Term Fund
(4) Open-End Scheme
(5) Back-End Scheme

12. In the Asian Games who among the following won the silver Medal for India in Squash?

(1) Geetika Jakhar
(2) Yogeshwar Dutt
(3) Vinesh Phogat
(4) Saurav Ghosal
(5) Other than those given as options

13. Plant Genome Saviour Community Awards are given by Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmer’s Right Authority (PPV & FRA) for

(1) getting the highest yield of crops
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) engagement in the conservation of genetic resources of economic plants and their wild relatives
(4) ensuring soil conservation and preventing use of chemicals
(5) using traditional seeds and fertilizers to protect the soil

14. CP is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note. In the abbreviation CP, letter ‘P’ stands for

(1) Paper
(2) Portfolio
(3) Payment
(4) Promissory
(5) Position

15. Vishal Sikka is the CEO of

(1) Tata Group of Companies
(2) Cognizant
(3) Oracle
(4) Infosys
(5) Other than those given as options

16. The process that has to be undertaken by banks and other financial institutions to prevent them from being used by criminal elements for money laundering is

(1) Credit Monitoring Process
(2) Credit Rating Process
(3) KYC Process
(4) Due diligence Process
(5) Credit Appraisal Process

17. CVV is an anti-fraud security feature that helps verify that the customer is in posession of her card. The abbreviation of CVV stands for

(1) Card Virtual Valuation
(2) Confidential Virtual Verification
(3) Card Verification Value
(4) Core Virtual Value
(5) Coded Vulnerability Value

18. Which of the foIIowing is the capital of Argentina?

(1) Addis Ababa
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Buenos Aires
(4) Seoul
(5) Phnom Penh

19. With introduction of ATMs, telebanking and internet banking, banking hours is not a constraint for transacting banking business, which is known as

(1) Universal Banking
(2) Worldwide Banking
(3) Anywhere Banking
(4) Global Banking
(5) Other than those given as option

20. Which of the following institutions is a Credit Information Company?

(1) ARCIL
(2) CRISIL
(3) CIBIL
(4) ICRA
(5) CARE

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "English" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: English Language


Directions (Q. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given. Certain words have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Today, emerging markets account for more than half of world GDP on the basis of purchasing power, according to the International Monetary Fund (IMF). In the 1990s, it was about a third. In the late 1990s, 30% of countries in the developing world managed to increase their output per person faster than America did, thus achieving what is calIed “catch-up growth”. That catching up was somewhat lackadaisical: the gap closed at just 1.5% a year. Some ofthis was due to slower growth in America; most was not. The most impressive growth was in four ofthe biggest emerging economies: Brazil, Russia, India and China (BRICs). These economies have grown in different ways and for different reasons. The remarkable growth of emerging markets in general and BRICs in particular transformed the global economy in many ways, some wrenching.

Commodity prices particularly soared and the cost of manufacture and labour sank. A growing and vastly more accessible pool of labour in emerging economies played a part in both wage stagnation and rising income inequality in rich ones. Global poverty rates tumbled. Gaping economic imbalances fuelled an era of financial vulnerability and laid the groundwork for global crisis. The shift towards the emerging economies will continue. But its most tumultuous phase seems to have more or less reached its end. Growth rates have dropped. The nature of their growth is in the process of changing, too and its new mode will have fewer direct effects on the rest of the world. The likelihood of growth in other emerging economies having an effect in the near future comparable to that of BRICs in the recent past is low. The emerging giants will grow larger, and their ranks will swell but their tread will no longer shake the Earth as once it did.

After the 1990s there followed ‘convergence with a vengeance’. China’s pivot towards liberalisationand global markets came at a propitious time in terms of politics, business and technology. Rich economies were feeling relaxed about globalisation and current account deficits. America, booming and confident, was not troubled by the growth of Chinese industry or by off-shoring jobs to India. And the technology etc necessary to assemble and maintain complex supply chains were coming into their own, allowing firms to spread their operations between countries and across oceans. The tumbling costs of shipping and communication sparked globalisation’s “second unbundling” (the first was the simple ability to provide consumers in one place with goods from another). As longer supply chains infiltrated and connected places with large and fast-growing working-age populations, enormous quantities of cheap new labourbecame accessible. Advanced economies added about 160m non-farm jobs between 1980 and 2010. In 2007 China’s economy expanded by an eye-popping 14.2%. India managed 10.1 % growth, Russia 8.5% and Brazil 6.1 %. The IMF now reckons there will be slowdown in growth. China will grow by just 7.8% in 2013, India by 5.6% and Russia and Brazil by 2.5%.

Other countries have impressive growth potential. The “Next 11” (N11) includes Bangladesh, Indonesia, Mexico, Nigeria and Turkey. But there are various reasons to think that this N11 cannot have an impact on the same scale as that of the BRICs. The first is that these economies are smaller. The N11 has a population of just over 1.3 billion -less than half that of the BRICs. The second is that the Nil is richer now than the BRICs were back in the day. The third reason that the performance of the BRICs cannot be repeated is the very success of that performance. The world economy is much larger than it used to be - twice as big in real terms as it was in 1992, according to IMF figures. But whether or not the world can build on a remarkable era of growth will depend in large part on whether the new giants tread a path towards greater global co-operation - or stumble, fall and, in times of tumult and in the worst case, fight.

1. According to the passage, which of the following is a reason for the author’s prediction regarding N11 countries?

(1) N11 countries are poorer, have less resources than BRIC countries and do not have much scope to grow.
(2) The size of these countries is too great to fuel a high rate of growth as expected by BRICs countries.
(3) The world economy is so large that the magnitude of growth from these countries will have to be huge to equal the growth of BRICs.
(4) These economies are agricultural and have not opened up their economies yet so their scope of growth is greater than that of BRlCs.
(5) Other than those given as options

2. What is the author’s view of globalisation’s “second unbundling”?

(1) It-proved beneficial since it created a large number of jobs and tremendous growth in cross-border trade.
(2) It disturbed the fragile balance of power among BRIC nations and caused internal strife.
(3) It caused untold damage to America’s economy since it restricted the spread of American farms off-shore.
(4) It proved most beneficial for the agricultural sector, creating huge employment opportunities.
(5) Citizens in advanced countries became much better off than those in emerging economies.

3. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word TUMBLING given in bold as used in the passage.

(1) jumbling
(2) confusing
(3) reducing
(4) dilapidated
(5) hurrying

4. What do the comparative statistics of 2007 and 2013 for BRICs countries published by, the IMF as cited in the passage indicate?

(1) BRIC economies will contribute less to global growth.
(2) As the population of these countries grows, its growth rate is filling.
(3) The financial practices followed by these countries will continue to pay rich dividends.
(4) These countries are creating global financial imbalances to the detriment of smaller developing economies like Africa.
(5) IMF forecasts of growth rate for these countries have not been fulfilled.

5. What effect did rising economies of BRICs have on the global economy?

(1) It helped stabilise the global economy and insulate it from the fallout of the global fmancial crisis.
(2) Labour became more highly skilled and wages were alarmingly increased, reducing the off-shoring of jobs to developing countries.
(3) Though worldwide poverty rates tumbled, the gap between the rich and the poor in rich economies increased.
(4) The cost of living and level of inflation in these countries were mantained at low levels.
(5) All the given options are effects of the rise in BRIC economies.

6. What does the phrase “Their ranks will swell but their tread will no longer shake the Earth as it once did” convey in the context of the passage?

(1) While many countries will try and achieve the same rate of growth as BRICs they will not succeed.
(2) The growth of BRIC countries has changed the world’s economy in ways that any further growth will not have such a disruptive effect on the world economy.
(3) Developing countries have strengthened their fiscal systems in such a way that they will not be shaken to such a great extent again
(4) Poverty may increase as the gap between the rich and the poor increase but it will never reach the same leves as prior to the crisis.
(5) Citizens in advanced countries became much better off than those in emerging economies.

7. Which of the following best describes ‘catch-up growth’?

(1) Emerging economies tried but failed to catch up with America, which always grew at a higher growth rate.
(2) The size of emerging economies and their purchasing power has caught up with and now exceeds the rich countries together.
(3) The growth of the American economy determines the growth of emerging economies.
(4) From the later half of 1990s onwards emerging economies outdid America in terms of output per person.
(5) None of the given statements describes ‘catch up growth.’

8. Which of the following can be said about ‘convergence with a vengeance?

(A) After the 1990s advanced economies like America were open to the idea of free trade and globalisation.
(B) There were huge technology advances which were conducive to allowing businesses to spread their area of operations.
(C) Rich economies felt threatened by the competition from China.

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only(C)
(4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) Only (B) and (C)

9. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word EXPANDED given in bold as used in the passage.

(1) widened
(2) pressured
(3) delayed
(4) shrunk
(5) frightened

10. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?

(A) To urge emerging economies to deal with growth, which can be disruptive, maturely and without conflict
(B) To point out that while the period of growth of BRICs was disruptive this disruption has almost come to a close.
(C) To criticise advanced economies for their handling of growth and promoting competition and conflict in certain regions

(1) Only (A) and (B)
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only(C)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(5) Only (B) and (C)

Directions (Q. 11-15): Which of the phrases given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, markeS), ie (No correction required), as the answer.

111. Top managers are often stymied by the difficult of managing conflict.

(1) difficulties of managing
(2) difficulty for managing
(3) difficulty for management
(4) difficult of management
(5) No correction required

12. Reaching collective decisions based on individual preferences is an imperfect science.

(1) based for
(2) based
(3) in (4) based in
(5) No correction required

13. Hollywood bare escaped being totally sidelined by the rise of television.

(1) bare escapism
(2) barely escapism
(3) bare escapes
(4) barely escaped
(5) No correction required

14. Taking good decisions and implement those quickly are the hallmarks of high-performing organisations.

(1) implementation quickly
(2) implementing quick
(3) implementing these quickly
(4) quick implementing those
(5) No correction required

15. Innovation have always been the top corporat agenda.

(1) has always
(2) had being
(3) has always been
(4) always been
(5) No correctin required

Directions (Q. 16-20): Rearrange the six sentences denoted by A, B, C, D, E and F to make ~ meaningful seven- sentence paragraph together with the first senftmce marked as no. 1 and then answer the given questions,

(1) So how is global competition changing companies?

(A) For example, a group with a Europe-wide pay freeze may have to be flexible enough to authorise salary increases to specialists and managers in developing’ countries, who are still able to jump ship for a better offer.
(B) Second, the emerging-market companies as well as established multinationals are rivals, - there is no way these can be Ignored.
(C) First, businesses are having to respond faster than before to pay changes.
(D) A case in point today is Africa, where rapid growth in key countries, notably Nigeria, has persuaded many business people that the continent’s time may finally have arrived.
(E) The sight of well-paid expatriate foreign managers inspires the local Indian executives to ask for more and employers have to respond.
(F) So such countries where people move easily - like India - are seeing executive pay rising rapidly.

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "Reasoning" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. 1-5): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered, I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and choose the most appropriate option.

1. How many persons are standing between Land K in a straight line of 19 persons? (Note: All are standing in a straight line, facing north).

I. Y stands on the extreme left end of the line. Only five persons stand between Y and K. Only six persons stand between K and R. Only four persons stand between Rand L.
II. J stands exactly in the middle of the line. Only two persons stand between I and J. Only five persons stand between I and L. I stands to the left of L. K stands third to the left of J.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. Among six persons A, B, C, D, E and F standing around a circle, some ofthem are facing the centre while others are facing outside (ie opposite to the centre.). What is the position of A with respect to E?

(Note: Facing the same direction means, if one is facing the centre then the other is also facing the centre and vice versa. Facing the opposite directions means, if one is facing the centre then the other is facing outside and vice versa).

I. C stands second to the right of E. E faces outside. C is an immediate neighbour of both D and B. F stands second to the left ofD. D faces the same direction as E.
II. Only two persons stand between B and E. Both B and E face outside. E is an immediate neighbour of both D and F. B is an immediate neighbour of both C and A. A is not an immediate neighbour of D.

(1) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3. How is X related to N?

I. X is mother of J. T is married to Z. N is daughter of T. Z is brother of J.
II. X is married to Y. Y is father of J. J is married to L. J is uncle of N.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer tlie question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

4. Among mobiles R, S, T, U, V and W, which is the costliest?

I. T is costlier than only two mobiles. S is costlier than R but not the costliest. V is costlier than only W.
II. R is cheaper than only two mobiles.V is costlier than W but cheaper than T. T is cheaper than R. S is cheaper than U.

(1) Thedata:insatanentiI alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

5. In a six-storey building (consisting of floors number I to 6, wherein the topmost floor is number 6 and the ground floor is number I) each of the six friends, namely M, N, O, P, Q and R, lives on a different floor (not necessarily in the same order). Who amongst them lives on the lowermost floor?

I. M lives on floor number five. Only two persons live between M and N. Q lives immediately above P.
II. P lives on floor number three. Only two persons live between P and O. N lives immediately above R. N lives on an even-numbered floor.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Directions (Q. 6-10): In this question are given four statements followed by five conclusions, one ofwhich definitely does not logically follow (or is not a possibility of occurrence) from the given statements. That concusion is your answer.
(Note: You have to take the four given statements to be true even it they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which ofthe given conclusions logically does not follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.)

6. Statements:

No toy is a doll.
All guns are toys.
All houses are dolls.
All dolls are baskets.

Conclusions:

(1) All baskets are toys.
(2) No gun is a house.
(3) All gun’s being baskets is a possibility.
(4) All houses are baskets.
(5) No doll is a gun.

7. Statements:

Some logics are reasons.
All reasons are arguments.
All arguments are fights.
No fight is a discussion.

Conclusions:

(1) All discussions being logic is a possibility.
(2) No discussion is an argument.
(3) All logics being discussion is a possibility.
(4) All reasons are fights.
(5) No reason is a discussion.

8. Statements:

All references are mails.
All mentions are references.
All comments are mentions.
No mail is a declaration.

Conclusions:

(1) No reference is a declaration.
(2) All comments are mails.
(3) No mention is a declaration.
(4) All declarations being comments is a possibility.
(5) At least some mails are mentions.

9. Statements:

Some moments are flashes.
All moments are seconds.
All flashes are instances.
No instance is an hour.

Conclusions:

(1) All hours being seconds is a possibility.
(2) No second isa flash.
(3) No hour is a flash.
(4) At least some moments are instances.
(5) At least some seconds are jnstances.

10. Statements:

All circles are spheres.
All spheres are rectangles.
No rectangle is a pyramid.
No pyramid is a triangle.

(1) At least some circles are pyramids.
(2) All triangles being circles is a possibility.
(3) All rectangles being triangles is a possibility.
(4) At least some rectangles are circles.
(5) No pyramid is a sphere.

11. Statements:

No hotel is a motel.
All motels are apartments.
All apartments are inns.
No inn is a guesthouse.

(1) All hotels being inns is a possibillity.
(2) No motel is a guesthouse.
(3) All hotels being apartments is a possibility.
(4) No motel is an inn.
(5) No guesthouse is an apartment.

Directions (Q. 12): Read the following statements carefully and answer the given question.
Cocoa and chocolate products have been used as medicine in many cultures for centuries. Chocolate is made from plants, which means it contains many of the health benefits of leafy vegetables.

Which of the following statements weakens the above argument?

(A) Dark chocolate contains a large number of antioxidants which slow down the ageing process.
(B) A small study revealed that regular intake of chocolate increases insulin sensivity, thus lowering the chances of diabetes.
(C) Green leafy vegetables have substances which protectskin from UV rays.
(D) Chocolates have three types of fats, one of which increases the cholesterol level.
(E) Cocoa increases blood flow to the retina, thus giving a boost to vision.

(1) Only D
(2) Only A and E
(3) Only C
(4) None of the given statements
(5) Both C and D

Directions (Q. 13-18): Study the following information and answer the questions.
Seven friends, namely L, M, N, O, P, Q and R, like different animated movies, namely Finding Nemo, Rio, Frozen, Up, Lion King, Shrek and Cars, but not necessarily in the same order. Each friend also has a presentation on topics of different subjects, namely Civics, History, English, Geography, Chemistry, Physics and Biology but not necessarily in the same order.
Q has a presentation on Civics and likes neither Frozen nor Up. The one who likes Finding Nemo has a presentation on History. L likes Rio and has a presentation neither on Geography nor on Chemistry. The one who likes Cars has a presentation on Biology. M has a presentation on Physics and does not like Up. The one who likes Up does not have a presentation on Chemistry. O likes Lion King. R does not have a presentation on History and does not like Up. P does not like Up.

13. On which of the following subjects does P have a presentation?

(1) Chemistry
(2) English
(3) Biology
(4) Other than those given as options
(5) Geography

14. Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) R - Cars
(2) Q - Shrek
(3) N - Up
(4) M - Frozen
(5) P - Rio

15. Which of the following combinations is definitely correct?

(1) N - Chemistry
(2) R - History
(3) L - English
(4) All the given combinations are definitely correct
(5) P - Geography

16. Which orthe following combinations of movie and subject is definitely correct with respect to N?

(1) Up-Chemistry
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Shrek - Geography
(4) Up - Geography
(5) Finding Nemo - History

17. Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement, Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) Biology - Cars
(2) Chemistry - Lion King
(3) Civics - Shrek
(4) English - Frozen
(4) Geography - Up

18. Which of the following movies does Q like?

(1) Shrek
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Finding Nemo
(4) Lion King
(5) Cars

Directions (Q. 19): The given information is followed by two statements, Read them carefully and answer the given questions.

Many parents have written a plea to the administration department of school X discontinue the rule of wearing ties to school.

(A) The school has kept different coloured ties for different academic scorers as part of their uniform. Thus the low-scoring children of school feel discriminated.
(B) Thesports uniform of the school does not have a tie; it is to be worn only on Wednesdays.

(1) Statement A weakens but Statement B strengthens the argument
(2) Both Statement A and Statement B weaken the argument
(3) Statement B weakens but Statement A strengthens theargument
(4) Both Statement A and Statement B strengthen the argument
(5) Statement A strengthens the argument and Statement B is a neutral.statement.

Directions (Q. 20-25): In the given questions, assuming the given statementsto be true. Find which of the given four conclusions mimbered I, II, III and IV is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

20. Staterilent:

Conclusions:

I. S > H
II. W > H
III. R < W
IV. M > T

(1) Only I, II and III are true.
(2) Only II is true.
(3) Only I and II are true.
(4) Only I and either II or IV are true.
(5) All I, II, III and IV are true.

21. Statements:

Conclusions:

I. Y < N
II. M > N
III. N = Y
IV. M > A

(1) Only either II or III is true.
(2) Only IV and either I or III are true.
(3) Only IV is true. (4) Only II is true.
(5) Only III is true.

22. Statements:

Conclusions:

I. M < J
II. J > L
III. D > L
IV. E < M

(1) Only II is true.
(2) Only I and III are true.
(3) None is true
(4) Only II and IV are true.
(5) Only I and II are true.

23. Statements:

Conclusions:

I. Y > P
II. T < F
III. O > T
IV. P < U

(1) Only I is true.
(2) Only II is true.
(3) Only III is true .
(4) None is true.
(5) Only I and IV are true.

24.

(1) Only I and II are true.
(2) Only IV is true.
(3) None is true.
(4) Only II and IV are true.
(5) Only II and III are true.

25.

(1) None is true
(2) Only IV is true
(3) Only either I or III is true
(4) Only II and I are true
(5) Only I is true

Directions (Q. 26-32): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four comers of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four comers face the centre of the table while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. Each ofthem likes a different subject, viz Mathematics, Hindi, English, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, History and Geography. (None of the information given is necessarily in the same order.)
· C sits third to the left of the one who likes Geography. The one who likes Geography faces outside. Only two persons sit between C and H.
· The one who likes Mathematics sits on the immediate right ofH. The one who likes Chemistry sits second to the right of G. G is neither an immediate neighbour of H nor ofC. G does not like Geography.
· Only one person sits between A and the one who likes Chemistry.
· D sits on the immediate left ofthe one who likes Physics. G does not like Physics.
· E likes History. E is not an immediate neighbour of A. The one who likes Hindi is an immediate neighbour of E.
· The one who likes Biology is an immediate neighbour of F.

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014"

::REASONING ABILITY::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1–5): Every question below has a three statement, followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to consider every given statement as true, even if it does not conform to the well known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions can be logically derived.

1. Statements

I. Some toys are pens.
II. Some pens are papers.
III. Some papers are black.

Conclusions

I. Some toys are black.
II. No pen is black.
III. No toy is black.
IV. Some pens are black.

(a) None follows
(b) Either II or IV
(c) Either I or III and either II or IV
(d) Either I or IV
(e) All of the above

2. Statements

I. Some books are copies.
II. All copies are green.
III. Some green are yellow.

Conclusions

I. All copies are yellow.
II. Some yellow are green.
III. Some copies are yellow.
IV. All green are copies.

(a) Only II
(b) Either III or IV only
(c) Either II or IV only
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

3. Statements

I. All jugs are glasses.
II. All glasses are cups.
III. All jugs are pens.

Conclusions

I. All pens are jugs.
II. Some glasses are pens.
III. Some cups are pens.
IV. All pens are cups.

(a) All follow
(b) Only II
(c) Only II and III
(d) Only III and IV
(e) None of these

4. Statements

I. All ACs are DCs.
II. Some DCs are ECs.
III. All ECs are YYs.

Conclusions

I. Some ACs are ECs.
II. Some YYs are DCs.
III. No ACs is ECs.
IV. All DCs are ACs.

(a) I and III
(b) Only II
(c) I and II
(d) II and either I or III
(e) None of these

5. Statements

I. Some newspapers are radios.
II. Some radios are televisions.
III. No television is a magazine.

Conclusions

I. No newspaper is a magazine.
II. No radio is a magazine.
III. Some radios are not magazine.
IV. Some newspapers are televisions.

(a) Only I follows
(b) Only III follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both I and II follow
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

Ten students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are sitting in a row facing west.

(i) B and F are not sitting on either of the edges.
(ii) G is sitting to the left of D and H is sitting to the right of J.
(iii) There are four persons between E and A.
(iv) I is to the right of B and F is to the left of D.
(v) J is in between A and D and G is in between E and F.
(vi) There are two persons between H and C.

6. Who is sitting at the seventh place counting from left?

(a) H
(b) C
(c) J
(d) Either H or C
(e) None of these

7. Who among the following is definitely sitting at one of the ends?

(a) C
(b) H
(c) E
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

8. Who are immediate neighbours of I?

(a) BC
(b) BH
(c) AH
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

9. Who is sitting second left of D?

(a) G
(b) F
(c) E
(d) J
(e) None of these

10. If G and A interchange their positions, then who become the immediate neighbours of E?

(a) G and F
(b) Only F
(c) Only A
(d) J and H
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11 - 15): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:-

Twelve people Abhishek, Binit, Chand, Dhiraj, Eshita, Fatima, Garima, Hena, Ishan, Jatin, Kamal and Lalit are sitting around a rectangular table. The following information is known- The table has 12 chairs numbered from 1 to 12. 6 seats on one side of the table and 6 on the opposite side. The chairs are arranged in such a way that chair number 1 is just opposite to 12, 6 is opposite to 7 and so on- Abhishek is sitting opposite to Kamal who is the only person sitting between Chand and Jatin. Eshita is sitting opposite to
Ishan who is the only person sitting between Binit and Lalit. Fatima, sitting at chair number 1, is diagonally opposite to Chand who is sitting opposite to Dhiraj.

11. If Garima is sitting opposite to Fatima then who is sitting opposite to Hena?

(a) Lalit
(b) Binit
(c) Ishan
(d) Uniquely not determined.
(e) None of these

12. If Lalit is sitting opposite to Hena, then who is sitting opposite to Garima?

(a) Eshita or Fatima
(b) Jatin or Fatima
(c) Jatin or Eshita
(d) None of these
(e) All of the above

13. How many persons are sitting between Binit and Dhiraj, if they are on the same side of the table?

(a) 2 or 3
(b) 1 or 2
(c) 1 or 3
(d) None of these
(e) All of the above

14. Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Lalit is sitting at seat number 12
(b) Lalit is sitting at seat number 10
(c) Kamal is sitting at seat number 8
(d) Kamal is sitting at seat number 9
(e) None of these

15. Which one of the following is not correct?

(a) Lalit can be opposite to Jatin.
(b) Jatin can be opposite to Hena.
(c) Lalit is adjacent to Chand.
(d) There are three person sitting between A and F.
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 - 20): This group of questions is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question.

A circular field, with inner radius of 10 meters and outer radius of 20 meters, was divided into five successive stages for ploughing. The ploughing of each stage was handed over to a different farmer.
(i) Farmers are referred to by the following symbols: F1, F2, F3, F4 and F5.
(ii) The points between different stages of project are referred to by the following symbols: P1, P2, P3, P4, and P5, not necessarily in the order.
(iii) Farmer F5 was given the work of ploughing stage starting at point P4.
(iv) The stage from point P5 to point P3 was not the first stage.
(v) Farmer F4 was given the work of the fourth stage.
(vi) Stage 3 finished at point P1, and the work of which was not given to farmer F1.
(vii) Farmer F3 was given work of stage ending at point P5.

16. Which was the finish point for farmer F2?

(a) P1
(b) P2
(c) P3
(d) P4
(e) P5

17. Which stage was ploughed by farmer F5?

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
(e) Fifth

18. Which were the starting and finish points of stage 2?

(a) P2 and P5
(b) P5 and P3
(c) P3 and P1
(d) P5 and P4
(e) P3 and P2

19. For which farmer was P2 a finishing point?

(a) F1
(b) F2
(c) F3
(d) F4
(e) F5

20. Which was the starting point for farmer F3?

(a) P2
(b) P3
(c) P4
(d) P1
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21–25) : In the following question * ,Å , $ , £ and @ are used according to following meaning.

‘P*Q’ means, ‘P is neither equal nor smaller than Q’
‘PÅQ’ means, ‘P is not smaller than Q’
‘P$Q’ means, ‘P is neither greater nor smaller than Q’
‘P£Q’ means, ‘P is neither greater nor equal to Q’
‘P@Q’ means, ‘P is not greater than Q’
Now according to the folllowing statement if they are true, judge their Conclusions I, II and III follow definiately true.

21. Statements

E @ F , O Å F , P @ E , P $ R

Conclusions

I. O $ P
II. E Å R
III. P £ O

(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Either I or II is true
(d) Only III is true
(e) None of these

22. Statements

A * B , B @ C , A $ D , D £ E

Conclusions

I. E * B
II. C $ A
III. D @ E

(a) Only I is true
(b) I and II are true
(c) Only III is true
(d) No one is true
(e) None of these

23. Statements

I Å H , H $ T , S £ T , S @ R

Conclusions

I. I * T
II. I $ T
III. S * H

(a) All are true
(b) Either I or II is true
(c) Only I is true
(d) Only II is true
(e) None of these

24. Statements

S @ T , Q $ N , T £ N , Q * O

Conclusions

I. S $ N
II. N Å O
III. N * O

(a) None is true
(b) Either I or III is true
(c) Only I is true
(d) Only II is true
(e) None of these

25. Statements

H Å J , J * K , L $ K , K @ M

Conclusions

I. K £ M
II. L $ J
III. H Å L

(a) I and III are true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Only III is true
(d) None is true
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014" ::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::


1. Three containers A, B and C are having mixtures of milk and water in the ratio 1 : 5, 3 : 5 and 5 : 7, respectively. If the capacities of the containers are in the ratio 5 : 4 : 5, then find the ratio of the milk to the water if the mixtures of all the three containers are mixed together.

(a) 51 : 115
(b) 52 : 115
(c) 53 : 115
(d) 54 : 115
(e) None of these

2. Groundnut oil is now being sold at ` 27 per kg. During last month its cost was ` 24 per kg. Find by how much % a family should reduce its consumption, so as to keep the expenditure same.

(a) 100/9 %
(b) 122/11 %
(c) 119/10 %
(d) 91/10 %
(e) None of these

3. An ice-cream company makes a popular brand of ice-cream in rectangular shaped bar 6 cm long, 5 cm wide and 2 cm thick. To cut the cost, the company has decided to reduce the volume of the bar by 20%, the thickness remaining the same, but the length and width will be decreased by the same percentage amount. The new length L will satisfy :

(a) 5.5 < L < 6
(b) 5 < L < 5.5
(c) 4.5 < L < 5
(d) 4 < L < 4.5
(e) None of these

4. A sum of  ` 725 is lent in the beginning of a year at a certain rate of interest. After 8 months, a sum of  ` 362.50 more is lent but at the rate twice the former. At the end of the year, ` 33.50 is earned as interest from both the loans. What was the original rate of interest?

(a) 3.6%
(b) 4.5%
(c) 5%
(d) 3.46%
(e) None of these

5. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a sum for 2 years at 10% per annum, when the interest is compounded annually is ` 16. If the interest were compounded half-yearly, the difference in two interests would be:

(a) ` 24.81
(b) ` 26.90
(c) ` 31.61
(d) ` 32.40
(e) None of these

6. A person lent out a certain sum on simple interest and the same sum on compound interest at certain rate of interest per annum. He noticed that the ratio between the difference of compound interest and simple interest of 3 years and that of 2 years is 25 : 8. The rate of interest per annum is:

(a) 10%
(b) 11%
(c) 12%
(d) 25/2 %
(e) None of these

7. A contract is to be completed in 46 days and 117 men were set to work, each working 8 hours a day. After 33 days, 4/7 of the work is completed. How many additional men may be employed so that the work may be completed in time, each man now working 9 hours a day ?

(a) 80
(b) 81
(c) 82
(d) 83
(e) None of these

8. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 30 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened. Find when the second pipe B must be turned off so the cistern may just be full in 10 minutes.

(a) 80/3 min
(b) 25 min
(c) 122/ 3 min
(d) 128/3 min
(e) None of these

9. A train leaves station X at 5 a.m. and reaches station Y at 9 a.m. Another train leaves station Y at 7 a.m. and reaches station X at 10: 30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other ?

(a) 7 : 36 am
(b) 7 : 56 am
(c) 8 : 36 am
(d) 8 : 56 am
(e) None of these

10. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes to cover a certain distance, while it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio between the speed of the boat and speed of water current respectively?

(a) 2 : 1
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 8 : 3
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Study the pie charts given below and answer the following questions.

11. What is the cost of Gear Box?

(a) ` 9000
(b) ` 6000
(c) ` 3000
(d) `15,000
(e) None of these

12. What percentage of total cost is contributed by the brake?

(a) 5.5%
(b) 6.6%
(c) 6%
(d) 5.4%
(e) None of these

13. If the price of tyres goes up by 25%, by what amount should be the sale price be increased to maintain the amount of profit?

(a) ` 750
(b) ` 2250
(c) ` 3750
(d) ` 375
(e) None of these

14. If transmission cost increases by 20%, by what amount is the profit reduced (total price of car remains same)?

(a) ` 3000
(b) ` 4000
(c) ` 6000
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

15. What % of sale price is contributed by clutch?

(a) 6%
(b) 2%
(c) 3%
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 - 20) : Read the following information and answer the questions that follow.

In a huge Jewellery shop, the electric gadgets being used are 17 tubelights of 40 W each, 14 fans of 80 W each, 16 bulbs of 60 W each, 11 bulbs of 100 W each, 11 AC’s of 2100 W each, 9 laptops of 200 W each and 10 TV’s of 120 W each. In a day, tube lights and TV’s are used for 8 h but 60 W bulbs are used for 7 h and 100 W bulbs are used for 9 h whereas laptops and AC's are used for 5 h and 9 h respectively. However, fans are used for 11 h. (Note: 1000 W = 1 unit, 1 month = 30 days).

16. What is the total electric energy consumed (in units) by60 W bulbs in the whole month?

(a) 432
(b) 576
(c) 67.2
(d) 201.6
(e) None of these

17. Electricity consumed by all fans is what per cent of energy consumed by all the laptops?

(a) 132.2%
(b) 136.88%
(c) 122.68
(d) 169.62%
(e) None of these

18. Out of the following, which type of gadgets consume more electricity in the shop?

(a) Fans
(b) Tubelights
(c) Laptops
(d) TV’s
(e) None of these

19. If one electric unit costs ` 2.70 and power (used by AC's) unit costs ` 3.70, then what money is paid to the electricit department for one month?

(a) ` 27368
(b) ` 28683
(c) ` 78600
(d) ` 2900
(e) None of these

20. What is the ratio of consumption of electricity in units by 60W and 100 W bulbs in a month?

(a) 5 : 6
(b) 4 : 5
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 2 : 3
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs.21–25): In each of the following questions two equations are given. You have to solve them and give answer accordingly.

(a) If x > y
(b) If x < y
(c) If x = y
(d) If x > y
(e) If x < y

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 201 "Held on: 1-11-2014" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 201 "Held on: 1-11-2014"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::


DIRECTION (Qs. 1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Governments have traditionally equated economic progress with steel mills and cement factories. While urban centers thrive and city dwellers get rich, hundreds of millions of farmers remain mired in poverty. However, fears of food shortages, a rethinking of antipoverty priorities and the crushing recession in 2008 arecausing a dramatic shift in world economic policy in favour of greater support for agriculture. The last time when the world’s farmers felt such love was in the 1970s. At that time, as food prices spiked, there was real concern that the world was facing a crisis in which the planet was simply unable to produce enough grain and meat for an expanding population. Governments across the developing world and international aid organisations plowed investment into agriculture in the early 1970s, while technological breakthroughs, like high-yield strains of important food crops, boosted production. The result was the Green Revolution and food production exploded. But the Green Revolution became a victim of its own success.
Food prices plunged by some 60% by the late 1980s from their peak in the mid- 1970s. Policymakers and aid workers turned their attention to the poor’s other pressing needs, such as health care and education. Farming got starved of resources and investment. By 2004, aid directed at agriculture sank to 3.5% and “Agriculture lost its glitter.” Also, as consumers in highgrowth giants such as China and India became wealthier, they began eating more meat, so grain once used for human consumption got diverted to beef up livestock. By early 2008, panicked buying by importing countries and restrictions slapped on grain exports by some big producers helped drive prices upto heights not seen for three decades. Making matters worse, land and resources got reallocated to produce cash crops such as biofuels and the result was that voluminous reserves of grain evaporated. Protestsbroke out across the emerging world and fierce food riots toppled governments. This spurred global leaders into action. This made them aware that food security is one of the fundamental issues in the world that has to be dealt with in order to maintain administrative and political stability. This also spurred the U.S. which traditionally provisioned food aid from American grain surpluses to help needy nations, to move towards investing in farm sectors around the globe to boost productivity. This move helped countries become more productive for themselves and be in a better position to feed their own people. Africa, which missed out on the first Green Revolution due to poor policy and limited resources, also witnessed a ‘change’. Swayed by the success of East Asia, the primary povertyfighting method favoured by many policymakers in Africa was to get farmers off their farms and into modern jobs in factories and urban centers. But that strategy proved to be highly insufficient. Income levels in the countryside badly trailed those in cities while the FAO estimated that the number of poor going hungry in 2009 reached an all time high at more than one billion. In India on the other hand, with only 40% of its farmland irrigated, entire economic boom currently underway is held hostage by the unpredictable monsoon. With much of India’s farming areas suffering from drought this year, the government will have a tough time meeting its economic growth targets. In a report, Goldman Sachs predicted that if this year too receives weak rains, it could cause agriculture to contract by 2% this fiscal year, making the government’s 7% GDP-growth target look “a bit rich”. Another green revolution is the need of the hour and to make it a reality, the global community still has much backbreaking farm work to do.

1. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage

(a) Criticising developed countries for not bolstering economic growth in poor nations
(b) Analysing the disadvantages of the Green Revolution
(c) Persuading experts that a strong economy depends on industrialization and not agriculture
(d) Making a case for the international society to engineer a second Green Revolution
(e) Rationalising the faulty agriculture policies of emerging countries

2. Which of the following is an adverse impact of the Green Revolution ?

(a) Unchecked crop yields resulted in large tracts of land becoming barren
(b) Withdrawal of fiscal impetus from agriculture to other sectors
(c) Farmers began soliciting government subsidies for their produce
(d) Farmers rioted as food prices fell so low that they could not make ends meet
(e) None of these

3. What is the author trying to convey through the phrase “making the government’s 7% GDP growth target look “a bit rich”?

(a) India is unlikely to achieve the targeted growth rate
(b) Allocation of funds to agriculture has raised India’s chances of having a high GDP
(c) Agricultural growth has artificially inflated India’s GDP and such growth is not real
(d) India is likely to rave one of the highest GDP growth rates
(e) A large portion of India’s GDP is contributed by agriculture

4. Which of the following factors was/were responsible for the neglect of the farming sector after the green revolution?

(A) Steel and cement sectors generated more revenue for the government as compared to agriculture.
(B) Large scale protests against favouring agriculture at the cost of other important sectors such as education and healthcare.
(C) Attention of policy makers and aid organizations was diverted from agriculture to other sectors.

(a) None
(b) Only (C)
(c) Only (B) & (C)
(d) Only (A) & (B)
(e) All (A), (B) & (C)

5. What prompted leaders throughout the world to take action to boost the agriculture sector in 2008?

(a) Coercive tactics by the U.S. which restricted food aid to poor nations
(b) The realization of the link between food security and political stability
(c) Awareness that performance in agriculture is necessary in order to achieve the targeted GDP
(d) Reports that high-growth countries like China and India were boosting their agriculture sectors to capture the international markets
(e) Their desire to influence developing nations to slow down their industrial development.

6. What motivated the U.S. to focus on investing in agriculture across the globe ?

(a) To make developing countries become more reliant on U.S. aid
(b) To ensure grain surpluses so that the U.S. had no need to import food
(c) To make those countries more self sufficient to whom it previously provided food
(d) To establish itself in the market before the highgrowth giants such as India and China could establish themselves
(e) None of these

7. What impact did the economic recession of 2008 have on agriculture ?

(a) Governments equated economic stability with industrial development and shifted away from agriculture
(b) Lack of implementation of several innovative agriculture programmes owing to shortage of funds
(c) It prompted increased investment and interest in agriculture
(d) The GDP as targeted by India was never achieved because of losses in agriculture
(e) None of these

8. What encouraged African policymakers to focus on urban jobs ?

(a) Misapprehension that it would alleviate poverty as it did in other countries
(b) Rural development outstripped urban development in many parts of Africa
(c) Breaking out of protests in the country and the fear that the government would topple
(d) Blind imitation of western models of development
(e) None of these

9. Which of the following had contributed to exorbitant food prices in 2008 ?

(A) Hoarding of food stocks by local wholesalers which inadvertently created a food shortage.
(B) Export of foodgrains was reduced by large producers.
(C) Diverting resources from cultivation of foodgrains to that of more profitable crops.

(a) None
(b) Only (C)
(c) Only (B)
(d) All (A), (B) & (C)
(e) Only (B) & (C)

10. Which of the following is true about the state of agriculture in India at present ?

(A) Of all the sectors, agriculture needs the highest allocation of funds.
(B) Contribution of agriculture to India’s GDP this year would depend greatly upon the monsoon rains.
(C) As India is one of the high-growth countries, it has surplus food reserves to export to other nations.

(a) Only (A) and (C)
(b) Only (C)
(c) Only (B)
(d) Only (B) and (C)
(e) None of these

DIRECTION (Qs. 11- 13 ): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar it meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. STARVED

(a) Deprived
(b) Disadvantaged
(c) Hungry
(d) Fasting
(e) Emaciated

12. SLAPPED

(a) Beaten
(b) Imposed
(c) Withdrawn
(d) Avoided
(e) Persuaded

13. PLOWED

(a) Cultivated
(b) Bulldozed
(c) Recovered
(d) Instilled
(e) Withdrew

DIRECTION (Qs. 14 and 15): Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. PRESSING

(a) Unpopular
(b) Undemanding
(c) Unobtrusive
(d) Unsuitable
(e) Unimportant

15. EVAPORATED

(a) Absorbed
(b) Accelerated
(c) Grew
(d) Plunged
(e) Mismanaged

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose
the most logical order of the sentences from amongst the given choices so as to form a coherent paragraph.

16. P : In the past, the customised tailoring units were localised to the township or city and catered exclusively to domestic demand.

Q : Traditionally, Indians preferred custom-made clothing and the concept of ready-to-wear is a relatively recent one.
R : Consumer awareness of styling issues and the convenience afforded by ready-to-wear helped RMG industry make small inroads into the domestic market in the 1980s.
S : The customised tailoring outfits have always been a major source of clothing for domestic market.

(a) Q R S P
(b) Q S P R
(c) R S Q P
(d) S Q P R
(e) None of these

17. P : Such a system will help to identify and groom executives for positions of strategists.

Q : Evaluation of performance is more often than not done for the purpose of reward or punishment for past performance.
R : They must become an integral part of the executive system’ .
S : Even where the evaluation system is for one’s promotion to assume higher responsibilities, it rarely includes terms that are a key for playing the role of strategist effectively, e.g., the skills of playing the role of change agent and creative problem solving.

(a) S Q P R
(b) S R Q P
(c) R S Q P
(d) Q S R P
(e) None of these

18. P : Participation involves more than the formal sharing of decisions.

Q : Through anticipation individuals or organisations consider trends and make plans, shielding institutions from trauma of learning by shock.
R : Innovative learning involves both anticipation and participation.
S : It is an attitude characterised by the cooperation, dialogue and empathy.

(a) Q R S P
(b) P Q R S
(c) R Q P S
(d) S P Q R
(e) None of these

19. P : Almost a century ago, when the father of the modem automobile industry, Henry Ford, sold the first Model T car, he decided that only the best would do for his customers.

Q : Today, it is committed to delivering the’ finest quality with over six million vehicles a year in over 200 countries across the world.
R : And for over 90 years, this philosophy has endured in the Ford Motor company.
S : Thus a vehicle is ready for the customers only, if it passes the Ford ‘Zero Defect Programme’.

(a) P Q R S
(b) P R Q S
(c) R S P Q
(d) P R S Q
(e) None of these

20. P: Finish specialists recommended a chewing gum containing xylitol-a natural sweetener present in birch, maple, corn and straw-to be used several times a day by young children.

Q : Chewing gum is a new solution that “may work for parents whose children suffer from chronic ear infections.
R : An experiment was conducted involving three hundred and six children between two and six years.
S : After Finish studies showed that xylitol is effective in preventing cavities, a team of researchers decided to investigate its effects on a very similar type of bacteria which causes ear infections.

(a) Q R S P
(b) P Q R S
(c) R Q P S
(d) Q P S R
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS PO (Probationary Officer) Exam Study Materials

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014" ::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::


1. In computer, what are the .xls, .doc. are

(a) File names
(b) Extensions
(c) Viruses
(d) Binary files
(e) None of these

2. What is the shortcut key to insert new document?

(a) ctrl+a
(b) ctrl+n
(c) ctrl+s
(d) ctrl+d
(e) None of these

3. What is the full form of LAN?

(a) Local Area Network
(b) Land Area Network
(c) Long Area Network
(d) Line Area Network
(e) None of these

4. Hard copy is a term used to describe...?

(a) Printed output
(b) Writing on a hard board
(b) Storing information on the hard disk
(c) All of the above
(d) None of these

5. The operating system is also called the ______ between the user and the computer.

(a) interrelate
(b) interface
(c) interference
(d) intermediate
(e) None of these

6. If a computer is constantly rebooting itself, what is most commonly the problem?

(a) Insufficient Power-Supply Unit
(b) Bad Sectors on Hard Drive
(c) Processor Overheating
(d) Defective/Bad Memory
(d) None of these

7. Networks are monitored by security personnel and supervised by __________ who set(s) up accounts and passwords for authorized network users.

(a) IT managers
(b) the government
(c) network administrators
(d) password administrators
(e) None of these

8. What is a benefit of networking your computer with other computers?

(a) Increase in the computer’s speed
(b) Sharing of cables to cut down on expenses and clutter
(c) You have another computer if yours has a breakdown
(d) Increase in the speed of the network
(e) Sharing of resources to cut down on the amount of equipment needed

9. In a synchronous modem, the digital-to-analog converter transmits signal to the___________.

(a) equalizer
(b) modulator
(c) demodulator
(d) terminal
(e) None of these

10. The term “host” with respect to the internet, means __________.

(a) A computer that is a stand along computer
(b) A computer that is connected to the Internet
(c) A computer reserved for use by the host
(d) A large collection of computers
(e) Hyperlink

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS PO (Probationary Officer) Exam Study Materials

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014" ::GENERAL AWARENESS::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014"

::GENERAL AWARENESS::


1. To combat the menace of money laundering, which of the following financial institutions has introduced the 'Know Your Customer' Scheme?

(a) IDBI
(b) RBI
(c) NABARD
(d) SIDBI
(e) None of these

2. Which of the following sectors contributes maximum in deciding the growth in income of the states in India?

(a) Energy
(b) Tourism
(c) Service
(d) Transport
(e) Agriculture

3. Which of the following is the state where the number of people living below poverty line is maximum?

(a) Bihar
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
(e) Odisha

4. Who is the person closely associated with operation flood programmes and was honoured by Padma Vibhushan recently?

(a) Dr. V. Kurien
(b) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(c) Dr. Amartya Sen
(d) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(e) None of these

5. What is the full form of MTSS?

(a) Money Transfer Service Scheme
(b) Money Transparency Service Scheme
(c) Market Transfer Service Scheme
(d) Market Tax Service Scheme
(e) None of these

6. What is the full form of EFT?

(a) Electric funds transfer
(b) Electronic finance transaction
(c) Electronics Fund Transfer
(d) Emergency fund transfer
(e) None of these

7. RuPay is an Indian domestic card scheme conceived and launched by

(a) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
(b) Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
(c) National Minorities Development & Finance Corporation (NDMC)
(d) National Handicapped Finance and Development Corporation (NHFDC)
(e) None of these

8. Which of the following is refered as Fastest mode of transaction?

(a) Transfer funds into different bank's accounts using NEFT(National Electronic Funds Transfer).
(b) Transfer funds into other bank accounts using RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement).
(c) Transfer funds into various accounts using IMPS (Immediate Payment Service).
(d) Transfer funds into different account of the same bank
(e) None of these

9. What is the full for of CBS?

(a) Customer Bond Solution
(b) Core banking System
(c) Core Banking Solution
(d) Customer Bond system
(e) None of these

10. What do you mean by Customer relationship management (CRM)?

I. It is a system for managing a company's interactions with current and future customers.
II. It is a system for managing a company's interactions with current and past customers.
III. It often involves using technology to organize, automate, and synchronize sales, marketing, customer service, and technical support.

(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both II and III
(d) Both I and III
(e) None of these

11. How RBI measured to liquidate the market?

(a) By Reverse Repo rate
(b) By Repo rate
(c) By Cash Reserve Ratio
(d) By Statutory liquidity ratio
(e) None of these

12. The Bank should comply and intimate the compliance of Award to Ombudsman?

(a) Within Two Months
(b) Within 3 months
(c) Within one month
(d) Within one year
(e) None of these

13. Cheque truncation can be done by?

(a) Using MICR data
(b) Sending cheque by speed post
(c) Using image processing
(d) Both (a) & (b)
(e) None of the above

14. Which of the following is not insured by the DICGC (Deposit Insurance and Credit Gurantee Corporation)?

(a) All Indian commercial Banks
(b) Foreign Banks branches functioning in India
(c) Local Area Banks
(d) Cooperative Banks
(e) Primary cooperative societies

15. Who is the current Secretary General of UNO?

(a) Ban Ki-moon
(b) Kofi Annan
(c) U Thant
(d) Trygve Halvdan Lie
(e) None of these

16. What is the new name given to the Cadbury's India?

(a) Ferrero Rocher Ltd
(b) Dante Confections
(c) Tootsie Roll Industries
(d) Mondelez India Foods Ltd
(e) None of these

17. Which day would be celebrated as Safe Motherhood Day as announced by Health Ministry of India?

(a) 7th March
(b) 8th March
(c) 9th March
(d) 10 March
(e) None of these

18. Which Hollywood personality got awarded at IIFA 2014?

(a) John Travolta
(b) Arnold Sch
(c) Vin Diesel
(d) Kevin Spacey
(e) None of these

19. Which author had received Padmabhushan award 2014?

(a) Shobha Dey
(b) Ruskin Bond
(c) Ravinder Singh
(d) Chetan Bhagat
(e) None of these

20. What is the full form of IBSA ?

(a) Indonesia, Brazil, South Africa
(b) Italy, Brazil, Sudan
(c) India, Brazil, South Africa
(d) India, Belgium, Saudi Arabia
(e) None of these

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IBPS PO (Probationary Officer) Exam Study Materials

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