trainee5's blog

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - English Language" (Eastern Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - English Language" (Eastern Zone)

Directions (51-65) : Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Political ploys initially hailed as master-strokes often end up as flops. The Rs. 60,000 crore farm loan waiver announced in the budget writes off 100% of overdues of small and marginal farmers holding upto two hectares, and 25% of overdues of larger farmers. While India has enjoyed 8%-9% GDP growth for the past few years. the boom has bypassed many rural areas and farmer distress and suicides have made newspaper headlines. Various attempts to provide relief (employment guarantee scheme, public distribution system) have made little impact. thanks to huge leakages from the government’s lousy delivery systems. So, many economists think the loan waiver is a worthwhile alternative to provide relief.
However the poorest rural folk are landless labourers, who get neither farm loans nor waivers. Half of the small and marginal farmers get no loans from banks and depend entirely on moneylenders, and will not benefit. Besides, rural India is full of the family holdings rather than individual holdings and family holdings will typically be much larger than two hectares even for dirt poor farmers, who will, therefore, be denied the 100% waiver. It will thus fail in both economic and political objectives. IRDP loans to the rural poor in the 1980s demonstrated that crooked bank officials demand bribes amounting to one-third the intended benefits. Very few of the intended beneficiaries who merited relief received it. After the last farm loan waiver will Similarly slow down fresh loans to deserving farmers. While overdues to cooperatives may be higher. Economist Surjit Bhalla says less than 5% of farmer loans to banks are overdue i.e. overdues exist for only 2.25 million out of 90 million farmers. If so, then the 95% who have repaid loans will not benefit. They will be angry at being penalised for honesty.
The budget thus grossly overestimates the number of beneficiaries, It also underestimates the negative effects of the waiver encouraging willful default in the future and discouraging fresh bank lending for some years. Instead of trying to reach the needy, through a plethora of leaky schemes we should transfer cash directly to the needy using new technology like biometric smart cards, which are now being used in many countries, and mobile phones bank accounts. Then benefits can go directly to phone accounts operable only by those with biometric cards, ending the massive leakages of current schemes.
The political benefits of the loan waiver have also been exaggerated since if only a small fraction of farm families benefit, and many of these have to pay bribes to get the actual benefit, will the waiver really be a massive vote- winner? Members of joint families will feel aggrieved that, despite having less than one hectare per head, their family holding is too large to qualify for the 100% waiver. All finance ministers, of central or state governments, give away freebies in their last budgets, hoping to win electoral regards . Yet. four-fifth of all incumbent governments are voted out. This shows that beneficiaries of favours are not notably grateful , while those not so favoured may feel aggrieved, and vote for the opposition. That seems to be why election budgets constantly fail to win elections in India and the loan waiver will not change that pattern.

51. Why do economists feel that loan waivers will benefit farmers in distress?

(1) It will improve the standard of living of those farmers who can afford to repay their loans but are exempted.
(2) Other government relief measures have proved ineffective.
(3) Suicide rates of farmers have declined after the announcement of the waiver.
(4) Farmers will be motivated to increase the size of their family holdings not individual holdings.
(5) The government will be forced to reexamine and improve the public distribution system.

52. What message will the loan waiver send to farmers who have repaid loans?

(1) The Government will readily provide them with loans in the future.
(2) As opposed to money lenders banks are a safer and more reliable source of credit.
(3) Honesty is the best policy.
(4) It is beneficial to take loans from co-operatives since their rates of interest are lower.
(5) They will be angry at being penalised for honesty

53. What is the author’s suggestion to provide aid to farmers?

(1) Families should split their joint holding to take advantage of the loan waiver.
(2) The government should increase the reach of the employment guarantee scheme.
(3) Loans should be disbursed directly into bank accounts of the farmers using the latest technology.
(4) Government should ensure that loans waivers can be implemented over the number of years.
(5) Rural infrastructure can be improved using schemes which were successful abroad.

54. What was the outcome of IRDP loans to the rural poor?

(1) The percentage of bank loan sanctioned to family owned farms increased.
(2) The loans benefited dishonest moneylenders not landless labourers.
(3) Corrupt bank officials were the unintended beneficiaries of the loans.
(4) It resulted in the Government sanctioning thrice the amount for the current loan waiver.
(5) None of these.

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

55. What are the terms of the loan waiver?

(A) One-fourth of the overdue loans of landless labourers will be written off.
(B) The Rs. 60.000 crore loan waiver has been sanctioned for 2.25 million marginal farmers.
(C) Any farmer with between 26 percent to 100 per cent of their loan repayments overdue will be penalised.

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Both (B)and (C)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(5) None of these

56. What is the author’s view of the loan waiver?

(1) It will have an adverse psychological impact on those who cannot avail of the waiver.
(2) It is a justified measure in view of the high suicide rate among landless labourers.
(3) It makes sound economic and political sense in the existing scenario.
(4) It will ensure that the benefits of India’s high GDP are felt by the rural poor.
(5) None of these

57. Which of the following cannot be said about loan waiver?

(A) Small and marginal farmers will benefit the most.
(B) The loan waiver penalises deserving farmers.
(C) A large percentage i.e. ninety- five per cent of distressed farmers will benefit.

(1) Only (C)
(2) Both (A) and (C)
(3) Only (A)
(4) Both (B) and (C)
(5) None of these

58. Which of the following will definitely be an impact of loan waivers?

(A) Family holdings will be split into individual holdings not exceeding one hectare.
(B) The public distribution system will be revamped.
(C) Opposition will definitely win the election.

(1) None
(2) Only (A)
(3) Both (A) and (B)
(4) Only (C)
(5) All (A), (B) and ( C)

59. What impact will the loan waiver have on banks?

(1) Banks have to bear the entire brunt of the write off.
(2) Loss of trust in banks by big farmers.
(3) Corruption among bank staff will increase.
(4) Farmers will make it a habit to default on loans
(5) None of these

60. According to the author what is the government’s motive in sanctioning the loan waiver?

(1) To encourage farmers to opt for bank loans from moneylenders.
(2) To raise 90 million farmers out of indebtedness.
(3) To provide relief to those marginal farmers who have the means to but have not repaid their loans
(4) To ensure they will be reelected
(5) None of these

Directions (61-63) : Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

61. incumbent

(1) mandatory
(2) present
(3) incapable
(4) lazy
(5) officious

62. ploys

(1) surveys
(2) entreaties
(3) ruses
(4) sliders
(5) assurances

63. aggrieved

(1) vindicated
(2) intimidated
(3) offensive
(4) wronged
(5) disputed

Directions (64-65) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

64. plethora

(1) dearth
(2) missing
(3) superfluous
(4) sufficient
(5) least

65. merited

(1) ranked
(2) unqualified for
(3) lacked
(4) inept at
(5) unworthy of

Directions (66-70) : Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.

66. He behaved though it was his fault. but we knew he’ was not responsible for it.

(1) even though it was
(2) though it was not
(3) as if it was
(4) despite it was not
(5) No correction required

67. She never felt that it was not of her business to get involved in somebody else’s family matter.

(1) were not of her business
(2) was none of her business
(3) was of not her business 
(4) was not of her businesses
(5) No correction required

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Numerical Ability" (North Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Numerical Ability" (North Zone)

Directions (101-115) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

101. 436.56 – 625.43 + 312.55 = ?

(1) 126.68
(2) 125.86
(3) 134.68
(4) 128.86
(5) None of these

102. 4% of 250 × ?% of 140 = 84

(1) 9
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 10
(5) None of these

103. 4545 / 50 / 5 = ?

(1) 45.5
(2) 17.16
(3) 54.5
(4) 18.18
(5) None of these

104. 5 × ? = 2637 / 3

(1) 3395
(2) 167.8
(3) 5539
(4) 178.6
(5) None of these

105. 1.5 × (52 /2.5) = ?

(1) 30.3
(2) 31.2
(3) 34.1
(4) 35.2
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam




Directions (1l6-120): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

116. 15.003 × 14.998 + 125.010 = ?

(1) 400
(2) 320
(3) 290
(4) 270
(5) 350

117. 9525 / 80 / 8 = ?

(1) 23
(2) 15
(3) 7
(4) 19
(5) 10

118. 7777.009 – 596.999 – 89.989 = ?

(1) 6080
(2) 6800
(3) 7090
(4) 8200
(5) 7500

119. 805.0003 / 34.999 = ?

(1) 23
(2) 9
(3) 14
(4) 18
(5) 27

120. (13.5)2 = ?

(1) 170
(2) 200
(3) 150
(4) 215
(5) 180

Directions (121-125) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

121. 8 52  ?  1287  4504.5  11261.25  16891.875

(1) 464
(2) 286
(3) 196
(4) 324
(5) None of these

122. 3  42  504  ? 40320  241920  967680

(1) 5848
(2) 3344
(3) 4736
(4) 5040
(5) None of these

123. 403 400 394 382 358 310 ?

(1) 234
(2) 120
(3) 214
(4) 264
(5) None of these

124. 7  8  4  13  – 3  22 ?

(1) – 7
(2) – 10
(3) – 12
(4) – 14
(5) None of these

125. 250000 62500 12500 3125 625 ? 31.25

(1) 156.25
(2) 172.25
(3) 125
(4) 150
(5) None of these

126. Out of the fractions 1/2, 7/8, 3/4, 5/6 and 6/7 what is the difference between the largest and smallest fractions ?

(1) 7/13
(2) 3/8
(3) 4/7
(4)  1/6
(5) None of these

127. The compound interest accrued in 2 years on a principal of ` 15,800 is ` 7716.72. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a. ?

(1) 22
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

128. What will come in place of both the question marks (?) in the following question?



129. Kabir got 101 marks in Hindi, 100 marks in Science, 96 marks in Sanskrit, 108 marks in Maths and 78 marks in English. If the maximum marks of each subject are equal and if Kabir scored 84 percent marks in all the subjects together, what are the maximum marks of each subject?

(1) 110
(2) 120
(3) 115
(4) 100
(5) None of these

130. The perimeter of a square is thrice the perimeter of a rectangle. If the perimeter of the square is 84 cms and the length of the rectangle is 8 cms, what is the difference between the breadth of the rectangle and the side of the square?

(1) 15 cms
(2) 19 cms
(3) 10 cms
(4) 8 cms
(5) None of these

131. The average weight of 21 girls was recorded as 58 kgs. If the teacher’s weight was added, the average increased by one. What was the teacher’s weight?

(1) 96 kgs
(2) 78 kgs
(3) 80 kgs
(4) 62 kgs
(5) None of these

132. Find the missing number if the average of all the eight numbers is 472.

623, 164, 529, 425 ______, 205, 301, 824

(1) 737
(2) 711
(3) 723
(4) 705
(5) None of these

133. Savita sold an item for ` 6,500 and incurred a loss of 20%. At what price should she have sold the item to have gained a profit of 20%?

(1) Rs. 10,375
(2) Rs. 9,750
(3) Rs. 8,125
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - General Awareness " (North Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - General Awareness " (North Zone)

151. KYC means

(1) Know your Company
(2) Know your Customer
(3) Know your Currency
(4) Know your Creditors
(5) None of these

152. India recently signed an agreement with which of the following countries to end a long pending Border Dispute?

(1) Pakistan
(2) China
(3) Bhutan
(4) Myanmar
(5) Bangladesh

153. The maximum amount of the total Revenue earned by the government of India comes from

(1) Income Tax
(2) Customs Duty
(3) Excise Duty
(4) Value Added Tax
(5) Corporate Tax

154. ‘Financial Inclusion’ is the latest powerful tool adopted by Reserve Bank of India, to fulfill the basic objective of

(1) uplifting of population lying Below Poverty Line
(2) Connecting every Indian to the Country’s Banking System
(3) Ensuring bank finance to all the landless agriculturists.
(4) Overall financial growth backed by inflation control.
(5) Inclusion of latest technology in Financial Sector of the Country.

155. Which Bank is the Banker to the Central Government?

(1) Central Bank of India
(2) Reserve Bank of India
(3) Punjab National Bank
(4) State Bank of India
(5) All of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

156. The higher rate of growth of economy certainly reduces the

(1) Gender inequalities
(2) Poverty
(3) Population of a country
(4) Flow of foreign direct investment
(5) None of these

157. Which of the following is one of the States in India where unemployed youths are paid Unemployment Allowance?

(1) West Bengal
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Uttar Pradesh
(4) Maharashtra
(5) Punjab

158. RBI’s policy stance to manage interest and liquidity are used for

(1) Moderate inflation and maintain economic growth
(2) Moderating competition among private and public sector banks
(3) Eradicate un-employment in public sector.
(4) Moderate currency supply in public hands
(5) Moderate deposits in public sector banks

159. The Prime Minister of India visited which of the following ‘Least Developed Countries’ in Indian sub-continent in May 2011 and agreed to provide US $ 2 billion as financial aid to it ?

(1) Afghanistan
(2) Nepal
(3) Pakistan
(4) Myanmar
(5) Sri Lanka

160. Who among the following is a famous Cricket  player of international repute?

(1) Novak Djokovic
(2) Ricky Ponting
(3) Bob Bryan’
(4) Andy Roddick
(5) Andy Murray

161. Who among the following is the Union Minister of Agriculture at present?

(1) Sri A. K.Antony
(2) Dr. Farooq Abdullah
(3) Sri Jaipal S Reddy
(4) Sri Sharad Pawar
(5) None of these

162. Which of the following is the over all Literacy Rate of India (Census 2011) (Approximately)?

(1) 68%
(2) 70%
(3) 74%
(4) 78%
(5) 82%

163. In India the interest rate on savings bank accounts in all nationalised commercial banks is fixed by

(1) Union Ministry of Finance
(2) Union Finance Commission
(3) Indian Banl:s Association
(4) Reserve Bank of India
(5) All the banks decide together

164. What is Repo Rate?

(1) It is a rate at which RBI sells government securities to banks
(2) It is a rate at which RBI allows small loans in the market
(3) It is a rate at which banks borrow rupees from Reserve Bank of India.
(4) It is a rate which is offered by Banks to their most valued customers or prime customers
(5) None of these

165. Sri N. Rangaswamy who took over as the Chief Minister of Puducherry after elections in 2011 belongs to which of the following political parties?

(1) CPM
(2) BJP
(3) BSP
(4) All India N. R. Congress
(5) SSP

166. NPA in banking terminology denotes

(1) New Para-banking Assets
(2) Net Profitable Assets
(3) Net Performing Assets
(4) Non-performing Assets
(5) New Pension Act

167. Space Agency of which of the following countries put GSAT-12, a Communication Satellite in the orbit recently?

(1) USA
(2) France
(3) China
(4) India
(5) Japan

168. When a customer draws a cheque on a bank

(1) it is a mandate on that bank to pay.
(2) it is a mandate on the Government of India to pay.
(3) it is a mandate on the State Government to pay
(4) it is a mandate on the RBI to pay
(5) it is a mandate on the Finance Ministry to pay.

169. A nationalised bank is also called by the following name

(1) Private Sector Bank
(2) Self Help Group
(3) Cooperative Bank
(4) Grameen Bank
(5) Public Sector Bank

170. ‘Nomination’ for a deposit account in the bank means

(1) Mandate given by the close relative/s of the depositor, to settle the death claim in case of death of the depositor.
(2) Mandate decided by the bank to settle the death claim of its depositor
(3) Mandate of the depositor in favour of one or more persons, to claim the amount on death of the depositor
(4) Mandate of the depositor in favour of a close relative who can claim the amount on death of the depositor.
(5) Court order instructing the banks to settle the death claim of its depositor.

171. The top military bosses of which of the following nations recently resigned en mass to pave way for a Democratic Government in the nation?

(1) Turkey
(2) Myanmar
(3) Pakistan
(4) Afghanistan
(5) None of these

172. In the following accounts operation by cheques is permitted

(1) Savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts.
(2) Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts.
(3) Savings bank accounts and floating loan accounts.
(4) Savings bank accounts and cash accounts.
(5) Savings bank accounts and current accounts.

173. India won the President’s Cup Volley Ball tournaments final 2011 by defeating

(1) Turkey
(2) Russia
(3) Tunisia
(4) Kazakhstan
(5) Ukrain

174. Which of the following awards is given for the excellence in field of Cinema ?

(1) Kalidas Samman
(2) S.S. Bhatnagar Award
(3) Golden Pen Award
(4) Pulitzer Prize
(5) Dada Saheb Phalke Award

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - English Language" (North Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - English Language" (North Zone)

Directions (51·65) : Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

‘We have always known that heedless self-interest was bad morals. We now know that it is bad economics,” said American President Franklin D. Roosevelt in 1937 in the midst of the Great Depression. And the world has learnt that enlightened self-interest is good economics all over again after the Great Recession of 2009. Americans are entering a period of social change as they are’ recalibrating their sense of what it means to be a citizen, not just through voting or volunteering but also through commerce. There is a new dimension to civic duty that is growing among Americans - the idea that they can serve not only by spending time in communities and classrooms but by spending more responsibly. In short, Americans are beginning to put their money where their ideals are.

In a recent poll most said they had consciously supported local or small neighbourhood businesses and 40 percent said that they had purchased a product because they liked the social or political values of the company that produced it. People were alarmed about ‘blood diamonds’ mined in war zones and used to finance conflict in Africa. They were also willing to pay $2000 more for a car that gets 35 miles per gallon than for one that gives less, though the former is more expensive but environment friendly. Of course consumers have done their own doing-well-by doing good calculation -a more expensive car that gives; better mileage will save them money in the long run and makes them feel good about protecting the environment. Moreover since 1995, the number of socially responsible investment (SRI) mutual funds, which generally avoid buying shares of companies that profit from tobacco, oil or child labour has grown from 55 to 260. SRI funds now manage approximately 11 percent of all the money invested in the US financial markets -an estimated $ 2.7 trillion. This is evidence of a changing mind-set in a nation whose most iconic economist Milton Friedman wrote in 1970 that a corporation’s only moral responsibility was to increase shareholder profits.

At first the corporate stance was defensive: companies were punished by consumers for unethical behavior such as discriminatory labour practices. The nexus of activist groups, consumers and government regulation could not merely tarnish a company but put it out of business. But corporate America quickly discerned that social responsibility attracts investment capital as well as customer loyalty, creating a virtuous circle. Some companies quickly embraced the new ethos that consumers boycotted products they considered unethical and others purchase products in part because their manufacturers were responsible. With global warming on the  minds of many consumers lots of companies are racing to ‘outgreen’ each other. The most progressive companies are talking about a triple bottom line-profit, planet and people – that focuses on how to run a business while trying to improve environmental and worker conditions.
This is a time when the only thing that has sunk lower than the American public’s opinion of Congress is its opinion of business. One burning question is how many of these Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiatives are just shrewd marketing to give companies a halo effect? After all only 8 per cent of the large American corporations go through the trouble of verifying their CSR reports, which many consumers don’t bother to read. And while social responsibility is one way for companies to get back their reputations consumers too need to make ethical choices.

51. Which of the following represents the change/s that has/have occurred in the American outlook?

(A) The perception that the government needs to invest resources in business rather than in education.
(B) Loss of faith in American corporations as they do not disburse their profits equitably among shareholders.
(C) Americans have cut down on their expenditure drastically to invest only in socially responsible mutual funds.

(1) None
(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) Only (A) and (C)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

52. Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage?

(A) The voter turnout during the 2009 American elections was high.
(B) African diamonds are highly valued by the American public.
(C) American firms have to spend vast amounts on advertising because activists cast aspersions on their images.

(1) None
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (B) and (C)
(4) Only (C)
(5) Only (A) and (C)

53. To what does the author attribute the consumers’ willingness to purchase environment friendly vehicles?

(1) Auto companies sell these types of vehicles at lower rates in order to boost sales in times of recession.
(2) The realisation that consumers’ greed caused the economic recession of 2009.
(3) To show their support for small entrepreneurs who are the manufacturers of such vehicles.
(4) They have to comply with government guidelines regarding reduction of carbon emissions.
(5) None of these

54. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

(1) It is beneficial to invest in American companies as they are socially responsible and profitable
(2) Large corporations should be penalised by the American government for their greed
(3) Ethical consumerism is profitable for organisations as well as society as a whole
(4) Companies should be required by law to account for their impact on the environment in their balance sheet
(5) Developing countries should learn how to combat child labour from America

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

55. Which of the following best describes the widespread view among Americans about big corporations?

(1) They have been lax in fulfilling their moral responsibility of increasing profits and benefitting shareholders
(2) They are being too severely penalised by activists and the government for their role in the economic crisis
(3) Their innovations have brought commercial success and benefited America tremendously
(4) They need to be held accountable for their ruthless business practices
(5) Their balance sheets are often fraudulent and deceive shareholders

56. What is the author trying to convey through the phrase ‘companies are racing to outgreen each other’ ?

(1) The competition among companies to boost their bottom line - profit, planet and people — is very stiff
(2) The conflict facing businesses of whether to benefit their shareholders or the environment
(3) Corporations are vying with each other to solicit investment
(4) Companies are striving to find the necessary funds to finance their environment friendly initiatives
(5) None of these

57. Which of the following factors has led to corporations adopting more socially responsible practices?

(1) The desire to be labelled as progressive by the government
(2) Guilt over causing the economic downturn
(3) High attrition rates as employees do not support the companies’ practices
(4) Recognition of the changing demands of customers
(5) Strict penalties imposed by governments against companies with unfair practices

58. What can be inferred from the statistics mentioned about SRI mutual funds in the passage?

(A) The percentage of child labourers has fallen since 1995.
(B) At present tobacco companies are making huge losses.
(C) The government needs to regulate SRI mutual funds as they handle vast amounts of funds,

(1) None
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) Only (C)
(5) Only (B) and (C)

59. What is the author’s view about companies, documentation of CSR initiatives?

(1) Since it is not certified by the government it cannot be considered authentic
(2) It is the ideal way to earn customer loyalty and set a good example for small businesses
(3) It is a waste of time as neither consumers nor companies bother to determine their validity
(4) It should be mandatorily incorporated in the statement of accounts of any firm
(5) None of these

60. Which of the following cannot be said about small businesses?

(A) During the recession their profits have been higher than those made by big corporates.
(B) They adopt fair labour practices and environment friendly methods of production.
(C) They have managed to acquire an investment of over 11 per cent of American capital.

(1) Only (A) and (C)
(2) Only (C)
(3) All (A), (B) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) None of these

Directions (61-63) : Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

61. IDEALS

(1) models
(2) visions
(3) perfection (4) paradigms
(5) values

62. EMBRACED

(1) clinched
(2) adopted
(3) seized
(4) hugged
(5) encompassed

63. ATTRACTS

(1) appeals
(2) encourages
(3) captives
(4) fascinates
(5) pleases

Directions (64 - 65): Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

64. ENLIGHTENED

(1) illiterate
(2) inept
(3) ignorant
(4) illogical
(5) immature

65. HEEDLESS

(1) prudent
(2) obedient
(3) observable
(4) noticeable
(5) wary

Directions (66-70) : In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested, Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer.

66. I. He has now become a ___to reckon with.
II. It is better not to use_____to prove one’s point.

(1) model
(2) force
(3) coercion
(4) name
(5) influence

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Reasoning" (North Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Reasoning" (North Zone)

1. How many digits in the number ‘5279143’ will be as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order from left to right within the number?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

2. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the fourth, the fifth and the seventh letters of the word COURTESY, using each letter only once in the word, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give ‘N’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘M’ as the answer.

(1) R
(2) O
(3) S
(4) N
(5) M

3. In a certain code ‘BEAMING’ is written as ‘BFCMHOJ’ and ‘CLEAR’ is written as ‘MDESB’. How is ‘TRAIL’ written in that code?

(1) USAMJ
(2) USAJM
(3) SUAMJ
(4) SUAJM
(5) None of these

4. In a certain code ‘TWICE’ is written as ’34$5d' and ‘WEARS’ is written as ‘4d29%’. How is ‘SEAT ‘written in that code?

(1) %2d3
(2) %d23
(3) %d43
(4) %$23
(5) None of these

5. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number ‘5391246’ in both forward and backward directions, each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

K, L, C, E, H, T and P are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. T is third to the right of H. L is fourth to the left of P. P is to the immediate right of H. C is fourth to the right of E. E is not an immediate neighbour of T.

6. Who is second to the left of L ?

(1) T
(2) H
(3) C
(4) K
(5) Data inadequate .

7. What is K’s position with respect to P?

(1) Fourth to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Fifth to the right
(4) Third to the right
(5) None of these

8. Who is fourth to the right of P?

(1) T
(2) L
(3) K
(4) C
(5) None of these

9. Who is second to the right of R?

(1) L
(2) C
(3) T
(4) E
(5) None of these

10. Who is to the immediate right of E?

(1) K
(2) H
(3) L
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Directions (11-15) : Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below:

B @ K I 9 D © 5 2 T $ M 4 E J # U R 1
A d K 5 W 6 % F Q 7 H P 8 Z

11. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

12. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the twentieth element from the right end of the above arrangement?

(1) 9
(2) 7
(3) $
(4) 5
(5) None of these

13. Which of the following should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the elements in the above arrangement?

K9D 2$M JUR ?

(1) dKW
(2) dK5
(3) d56
(4) dW6
(5) None of these

14. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by number and immediately followed by a symbol?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

15. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by a consonant?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

Directions (16-20) : In the following questions, the symbols «, $, d, © and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Computer Knowledge" (South Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Computer Knowledge" (South Zone)

201. Instructions or programs for con trolling the computer are called.

(1) Software
(2) Hardware
(3) Humanware
(4) Programmer
(5) Analysts

202. A ____typically identifies the type of file.

(1) folder
(2) path
(3) file extension
(4) filename
(5) None of these

203. A device that copies or reproduces text and images is called a/an

(l) CPU
(2) reader
(3) memory
(4) obtainer
(5) scanner

204. Which of the following should be used to move a paragraph from one place to another in a Word document?

(1) Copy and Paste
(2) Cut and Paste
(3) Delete and Retype
(4) Find and Replace
(5) None of these

205. An Excel spreadsheet has the extension -

(1) .doc
(2) .xls
(3) .ppt (4) .accts
(5) .exe

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

206. A thin plate or board that contains electronic components is called____

(1) Hard disk
(2) Scanner
(3) RAM
(4) ROM
(5) circuit board

207. The_____is the box that houses the most important parts of a computer system.

(1) software
(2) hardware
(3) input device
(4) system unit
(5) None of these

208. The device containing a circuit breaker that is used to separate the hardware from the power source and protect from voltage spikes is called a_____

(1) voltage breaker
(2) surge breaker
(3) surge protector
(4) voltage protector
(5) ALU

209. Which menu should be selected to perform Cut and Paste in Word? ‘

(1) Format Menu
(2) Tools Menu
(3) Edit Menu
(4) View Menu
(5) None of these

210. In a spreadsheet, the point at which a column and a row intersect is called a —

(1) col-row
(2) container
(3) box
(4) grid
(5) cell

211. An online backing storage system capable of storing larger quantities of data is—

(1) CPU
(2) Memory
(3) Secondary storage
(4) Mass storage
(5) Temporary storage

212. ROM stands for_____

(1) Read Only Memory
(2) Random Open Memory
(3) Read Open Memory
(4) Random Only Memory
(5) Ready Only Memory

213. Trackball is an example of a/an

(1) programming device
(2) pointing device
(3) output device
(4) software device
(5) printing device

214. A page break means_____

(1) breaking a page of the document into smaller parts
(2) starting the next part of the document on a new page
(3) breaking a page of the document into small sentences
(4) breaking a page of the document into small paragraphs
(5) None of these .

215. ______ of the worksheet appear vertically and are identified by letters at the top of the worksheet window.

(1) Rows
(2) Cells
(3) Columns
(4) Headings
(5) Range

216. Which of the following operations is not performed by computer?

(1) Inputting
(2) Processing
(3) Controlling
(4) Understanding
(5) Outputting

217. BIT stands for_____

(1) Built In Tasks
(2) Binary Digit
(3) Before Instructed Task
(4) Before Interpreting Task
(5) Before Initial Task

218. The keys on the keyboard which may be programmed to do special tasks are referred to as

(1) function keys
(2) arrow keys
(3) Page Up and Page Down keys
(4) Shift and Alt keys .
(5) None of these

219. What is the shortcut key for centering the text selected by the user in Word?

(1) CTRL + A
(2) CTRL + B
(3) CTRL + C
(4) CTRL + D
(5) CTRL + E

220. Excel is a_____

(1) word processing program
(2) game
(3) database application
(4) spreadsheet program
(5) presentation program

221. Which of the following statements is valid?

(1) 1 KB = 1024 bits
(2) 1 MB = 2048 bits
(3) 1 MB = 1000 kilobits
(4) 1 KB = 1000 bytes
(5) 1 MB = 1024 kilobytes

222. ALU is

(1) Access Logic Unit
(2) Array Logic Unit
(3) Application Logic Unit
(4) Artificial Logic Unit
(5) Arithmetic Logic Unit

223. A storage device that stores the same data on several different disks so if one gets damaged, another one will have the same data is referred to as_____

(1) RAID
(2) magnetic tape
(3) magnetic disk
(4) floppy disk
(5) None of these

224. Which of the following is not a term pertaining to WORD?

(1) Delete
(2) Edit
(3) Copy
(4) Slide show
(5) None of these

225. Excel documents are stored as files called____

(1) workforce
(2) worksheets
(3) worktables
(4) workgroups
(5) workbooks

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Reasoning" (Eastern Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Reasoning" (Eastern Zone)

1. How many meaningful English words can be formed, starting with S, with the second, the fourth, the fifth and the eighth letters of the word PERISHED, using each letter only once in each word? (To be counted from left)

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

2. The positions of how many digits in the number 837912 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order? (from left to right)

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

3. In a certain code ‘BUILT is written as ‘5#32@’ and ‘TRIBE’ is written as ‘@935©’, How is ‘RULE’ written in that code?

(1) 9#2©
(2) 95#©
(3) @#3©
(4) @2#©
(5) None of these

4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STREAMING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (in both forward and backward directions)

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

5. In a certain code ‘CLEAR’ Is written as ‘SBFMD’ and ‘BONDS’ is written as ‘TEOPC’. How is ‘STALE’ written In that code?

(1) BKZSR
(2) CUTFM
(3) SUBMF
(4) FMBUT
(5) None of these

Directions (6-10) : Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below

R @ 2 9 T V A Y 5 © # J I P 8 Q $ E 3 * H % 6 W 4 I d U Z

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group, Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) J P ©
(2) E Q*
(3) W 1 %
(4) 9 V @
(5) 1 # 6

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

7. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the nineteenth element from the right end?

(1) J
(2) V
(3) W
(4) 8
(5) None of these

8. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

9. If the positions of the last eighteen elements in the above arrangement are reversed, which of the following will be the seventeenth from the left end?

(1) H
(2) P
(3) W
(4) 6
(5) None of these

10. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is either immediately followed by a symbol or immediately preceded by a symbol?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four

Directions (11-15) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre not necessarily in the same order, F is fourth to the left of A and second to the right of C. B is second to the left of A, and A is to the Immediate right of G, E who is not an immediate neighbour of B is fourth to the left of D.

11. Which of the following is correct?

(1) F is third to the left of B
(2) H is third to the left of D
(3) C is third to the left of B
(4) E is third to the left of F
(5) All are correct

12. What is H’s position with respect to G ?

(1) Fifth to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Third to the right
(4) Fifth to the left
(5) Fourth to the left

13. Who is second to the right of E ?

(1) C
(2) H
(3) G
(4) A
(5) Data inadequate

14. Who is to the immediate right of F?

(1) D
(2) H
(3) B
(4) C
(5) None of these

15. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of A?

(1) EB
(2) GC
(3) EG
(4) ED
(5) None of these

Directions (16-20): In the following questions, the symbols ©, d, $, * and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

(i) ‘A d B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’
(ii) ‘A% B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.
(iii) ‘A © B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.
(iv) ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is greater than B’.
(v) ‘A * B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statementsto be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is are definitely true?

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer (4) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

16. Statements:

R $ J, J % M, M © K

Conclusions:

I. K © J
II. K *J

17. Statements:

D d R, M $ R, M © F

Conclusions:

I. F $ D
II. F $ R

18. Statements:

H © F, F $ R, R*K

Conclusions:

I. R * H
II. K $ F

19. Statements:

B % D, D* T, T d R

Conclusions:

I. B $ T
II. R $ D

20. Statements:

M % N, N * A, A $ B

Conclusions:

I. B * N
II. A $ M

Directions (21-25) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and-

Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question. while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

21. Village P is towards which direction of village R?

I. Village R is to the South- East of village T and T is to the North of village P.
II. Village Q is to the South of village P and to the South West of village R.

22. Who among A, B, C, D and E, each having a different height. Is the third tallest?

I. E is shorter than only B.
II. C is taller than only A.

23. How many sisters does K have?

I. M is sister of K.
II. K’s mother has three children.

24. In a row of thirty students facing North, what is R’s position from the left end?

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Reasoning" (West Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Reasoning" (West Zone)

1. In a certain code ROBUST is written as ‘593127’ and BONE is written as ‘3964’. How is SORE written in that: code?

(1) 2934
(2) 2594
(3) 2954
(4) 3954
(5) None of these

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SPORADIC (in both forward and backward direction) each of which has as many letters -
between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

3. In a certain code TOWN is written as ‘POSV and CARE is written as ‘BFBQ’. How is BELT written in that code?

(1) FUAK
(2) DSCM
(3) DSAK
(4) FUCM
(5) None of these

4. The positions of how many digits in the number 9671285 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in ascending
order from left to right?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

5. How many meaningful English words can be formed - not ending with E - with the second, the fourth, the sixth and the ninth letters of the word PROACTIVE ? (To be counted from left side)

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

Directions (6-10) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and--

Give answer (1)  if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and

Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

6. In a row of twenty students facing North, what is P’s position from the right end?

I. Q is fifth to the right of P and eighteenth from the left end of the row.
II. M is third to the left of P and eleventh from the right end of the row.

7. How many daughters does D have?

I. M and K are sisters of T.
II. T’s mother is wife of D

8. How is ‘come’ written in a code language?

I. ‘come and go’ is written as ‘je ta ma’ in that code language.
II. ‘go back and’ is written as ‘ta sa je’ in that code language

9. On which day of the week definitely was R’s birthday?

I. R celebrated his birthday after Monday but before Saturday.
II. R’s sister visited R on his birthday after Wednesday.

10. Among A, B, C, D and E, each securing different marks in an examination, whose position is last but one among them?

I. D has secured less marks than only C and E:
II. B has secured more marks than A.

11. Mohan walked 30 metres towards West, took a right turn and walked 20 metres. He then took a left turn and walked 40 metres and stopped.
Towards which direction was he from the starting point?

(1) West
(2) North
(3) South-West
(4) North-West
(5) Data inadequate

Directions (12-15) : Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below:

M 5 $ T @ 2 J © D F I 9 W P # E 3 8 I 6  NA T U 7  Z 4

12. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

13. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between tenth element from the left end and eighth element from the right end?

( l) E
(2) 3
(3) #
(4) E or #
(5) None of these

14. If the positions of the first sixteen elements in the above arrangement are reversed, which of the following will be the eighteenth from the right end’)

(l) J
(2) @
(3) 9
(4) F
(5) None of these

15. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is preceded by a number and not immediately followed by a symbol?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More man three

Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. S is third to the right of P. P is second to the right of’ V, R is second to the left of V and third to the right of Q. W is not an immediate neighbour of Z is second to the right of T.

16. Who is to the immediate right of R?

(1) S
(2) T
(3) Z
(4) V
(5) Date inadequate

17. Who is second to the right of Z ?

(1) P
(2) W
(3) Q
(4) T
(5) Data inadequate

18. What is T’s position with respect to Q?

(A) Fourth to the left
(B) Fourth to the right
(C) Fifth to the left
(D) Third to the right

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only(C)
(4) Only (D)
(5) Both (A) and (B)

19. If Sand Z interchange their positions, who will be second to the right of Q?

(1) Z
(2) S
(3) R
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

20. Which of the following is correct?

(1) R is second to the left of W
(2) S is third to the left of T
(3) P is fifth to the left of R
(4) P is fourth to the left of R
(5) All are correct

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Jobs) Dombivli Nagari Sahakari Bank Limited :(Posts of Assistant Manager Recruitment-2017)

(Jobs) Dombivli Nagari Sahakari Bank Limited :(Posts of Assistant Manager Recruitment-2017)

Post Detail :

Any eligible candidate, who aspires to join the Bank as Probationary Management Officer, is required to register for the Online Written Examination. Candidates who appear and are shortlisted in the examination, will subsequently be called for a Personal Interview and on being short-listed in Interview, will have to appear for Medical Fitness Test to be conducted and co- ordinated by DNS Bank.
DNS Bank intends to fill 20 positions at various locations pan Maharashtra, in phase manner. 

Cast No.of vacancies
Open 9
St 4
Obc 2
Nt 2
Sc 2
Bc 1
Total 20

 

Education Qualification:

MBA / MMS from a recognized University and must have acquired the first class (60% and above) throughout, startingfrom S.S.C. upto MBA/MMS (First class in every semester/trimester).
Computer Literacy: Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidate should have Certificate/Diploma in computer operations/Language/ should have studied Computer / Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/College/Institute.
Note:
a) All the educational qualifications mentioned should be from a recognized University / Institution and the result should have been declared on or before 01.12.2017. Proper document from Board / University for having 
declared the result on or before 01.12.2017 has to be submitted at the time of interview. The date of passing the examination which is reckoned for eligibility will be the date of passing appearing on the marksheet/ Provisional
certificate.
b) Candidate should have capacity to read, write and speak in Marathi.

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

REPCO Home Finance - Branch Staff (Clerical) Jobs 2017

REPCO Branch Staff (Clerical) Jobs 2017

Post Detail :

 Branch Head: To Head the Branch in all areas of branch work such as sourcing of business, operations, collections and ensuring profitability of branch.
 Branch Staff (Clerical): Overall branch operations including business sourcing and recovery. 

Education Qualification:

A) For Branch Head:
1. Age not exceeding 28 years as on 01-11-2017 (relaxation upto 40 years of age can be considered based on commensurate, relevant prior experience)
2. Any Graduation (10+2+3 format) from a UGC recognized university.Post graduation & professional qualification shall be given additional weightage.
3. Minimum 3 years experience (for age not exceeding 28 years) in Housing Finance/Retail Lending /marketing of financial products (Home Loan) /branch operations in HFCs/FIs. Exposure in housing finance is a must.
Experience of heading a branch will be preferred. For further age relaxation, commensurate additional experience would be required.
4. Extensive in-depth knowledge of local market with good networking capacity with builders / developers is a must. 

B) For Branch Staff (Clerical):
1. Age not exceeding 25 years as on 01-11-2017, (maximum relaxation for 5 years will be considered with commensurate relevant experience).
2. Any Graduate preferably B Com (necessarily preceded by SSLC (or equivalent) and HSC/ Diploma) with minimum 50% marks from a UGC recognized University. Graduates from Open University will not be considered. 

Key Competencies Required :

Good communication skill – verbal and written
• Negotiation skill
• Interpersonal skill, leadership qualities and team management
• Multitasking ability ( as the Company does not operate through separate
verticals for sourcing, operations and collections)
• Planning and organizing skill
• Target orientation
• Proficiency in MS-Word 

Pay Scale :

a) Branch Head:
CTC starting from Rs. 7.00 lakhs per annum (fixed + variable). However, experienced candidate would be compensated suitably as per market standard and Management discretion.
b) Clerical (on roll)
 CTC starting from Rs.3.50 lakhs per annum (approx) for Executive and CTC starting from Rs. 4.00 Lakhs per annum (approx) for AM (With three years prior experience) as per Company Policy. Higher salary can be considered based on prior experience/performance in the recruitment process at the discretion of the Management.
PROBATION for (a) and (b): 1 year (extendable based on performance)
c) Trainee (off roll)
Starting fixed stipend would be Rs. 9500 p.m. (variable based on location and previous experience) plus Meal allowance and performance incentive (variable,based on performance). The period of Training will be one year (extendable based on performance) and subject to the following conditions: 

How to Apply :

Eligible candidates are requested to attend a WALK-IN INTERVIEW with all original testimonials and last 3 months pay slip along with 1 set of photocopy of all documents, 2 colour passport size photos, 1 KYC document and 2 sets of duly filled in Bio-data as per enclosed format at the following venue on stipulated date & time: 

Important Dates: 

DATE: 09-12-2017 (Saturday)

TIME: 1pm - 4pm (Candidates must register between 10 am to 12 noon)
VENUE: Repco Home Finance Limited  Office No 203 second floor,  Satyabhaama sankul,  Near Modi Ganapati,  CTS No.529, Narayanpeth,  Pune-411030.

(Contact No.: 020-24431956) 

General: 

(Notification) Recruitment of Assistant at Reserve Bank of India - 2017

(Notification) Recruitment of Assistant at Reserve Bank of India - 2017

The Reserve Bank of India invites applications from eligible candidates for 623 posts of “Assistant” in various offices of the Bank. Selection for the post will be through a country-wide competitive examination in two phases i.e. Preliminary and Main examination followed by a Language Proficiency Test (LPT).

Post Details :

Office Vacancies* PWD # EXS #
SC ST OBC$ GEN Total VI HI OH EX-1 EX-2
Ahmedabad 0 7(4) 4 8 19 0 0 0 1 2
Bengaluru 6 2 4 13 25 0 0 0 1 3
Bhopal 1 12(5) 0 12 25 1 0 0 1 3
Bhubaneswar 5(2) 3 1 8 17 0 0 0 1 2
Chandigarh 4 1 1 7 13 0 0 0 1 1
Chennai 3 0 4 8 15 1 0 0 1 2
Guwahati 3 9 6 18 36 0 1 0 2 4
Hyderabad 4(1) 1 3 8 16 0 0 1 1 2
Jaipur 2 3(1) 2 6 13 0 0 0 1 1
Jammu 2 4(1) 6 11 23 0 0 0 1 2
Kanpur & Lucknow 9 1 12 22 44 1 0 0 2 4
Kolkata 9 0 2 12 23 0 0 1 1 2
Mumbai 26 31(7) 78 129 264 3 2 3 12 26
Nagpur 0 4 3 8 15 0 0 1 1 2
New Delhi 9 0 14 24 47 0 1 1 2 5
Patna 7(2) 1 0 7 15 0 0 1 1 2
Thiruvananthapuram & Kochi 2 0 4 7 13 0 1 0 1 1
Total 92 79 144 308 623 6 5 8 31 64

 

Educational Qualification :

i) At least a Bachelor’s Degree in any discipline with a minimum of 50% marks (pass class for SC/ST/PWD candidates) in the aggregate and the knowledge of word processing on PC. ii) A candidate belonging to Ex-servicemen category (except dependents of ex-servicemen) should either be a graduate from a recognized University or should have passed the matriculation or its equivalent examination of the Armed Forces and rendered at least 15 years of defence service. iii) Candidates applying for post in a particular recruiting office should be proficient in the language (i.e. know to read, write, speak and understand the language) of the state/ any of the states falling under the recruiting office.

Note: (1) The date of passing eligibility will be the date appearing on the mark sheet or provisional certificate issued by the University/ Institute. In case the result of a particular examination is posted on the website of the University/ Institute, a certificate issued by the appropriate authority of the University/ Institute indicating the date on which the result was posted on the website will be taken as the date of passing.

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Paper) IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 14-12-2014, General Knowledge"

IBPS Clerk Online CWE Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: General Knowledge

1. India has recently signed a deal to build a $ 100 billion 900 MW hydro-power project on Arun river with

(1) Bhutan
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Myanmar
(4) Nepal
(5) China

2. Indian player ‘Anirban Lahiri’ is associated with the game of

(1) rifle shooting
(2) golf
(3) billiards
(4) wrestling
(5) chess

3. The abbreviation ‘ATS’ stand for

(1) Anti Terrorism Sensor
(2) Anti Terrorist Set-up
(3) Anti Terrorist System
(4) Anti Terrorism Squad
(5) Anti Terrorism Scheme

4. China has recently announced that it has completed a major hydro-power dam in Tibet over the river Yartung Zangbo known in India as

(1) Indus river
(2) Brahmaputra river
(3) Zanskar river
(4) Ranganadi river
(5) Doyang river

5. According to which of the following acts, a fixed deposit in a bank should not be paid in cash if it is Rs. 20000 and above?

(1) Wealth Tax Act
(2) RBI Act
(3) Income Tax Act
(4) Banking Regulation Act
(5) Negotiation Instruments Act

Join Online Coaching For IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Jobs: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 4.12.2011 - English Language

(Download) IBPS : Clerk Exam Paper Held On 4.12.2011 - English Language

1-10. Read the following passage to answer the given question based on it. Some words/phrases are printed to bold to help you locate them white answering some of the questions.

A Russian Proverb advises us not to buy a house, but the neighbourhood. While till some years ago it was impossible to dictate who lived with you in the same quarters, today when you think of buying a home, you could actually create you won dream neighbourhood-thanks to the internet and the group buying model.

The group buying model has been applied in different industries, from cars to baby merchandise to pet care product. Now, the trend is catching on in the real estate sector, with many sites as well as broking firms offering group deals on real estate projects in India. The way it works is simple. Take xxx.com for example. This is an online and offline integrated platform which showcases property. It uses social medial networks to let buyers known about possible good deals, and leaving it to them to do some viral marketing. Once a large group of buyers is thus formed, xxx.com introduces it to the developer and helps negotiate a suitable discount. Since, the developer doesn’t have to pay for the marketing. It is willing enough to pay these companies a transaction fee which is a percentage of the total value of the deal. For the buyers, if offers the best rates at no fee, thus marketing it win-win proposition for all involved. The developers also benefit by getting substantial cash flow, given them a good amount of working capital. “In today’s real estate scenario, bulk buying could be the answer to the market slump and the long awaited cash flow,” says the Founder of xxx.com.

Sometimes, the discount size is not to be sneered at. Discounts on group buying vary from 5-30 per cent, the average divergence from market rate being 25-30 per cent. Customer ‘buy-in’ is the model. But is it a temporary fad? In a way, the online group buying set-up is  similar to the model developers share with speculators,who buy in bulk even before the project gets kick-started and het discounts of 30-40 per cent. The pay 50 per cent of the property value upfront. Group buying companies prove more beneficial for developers as they get away providing  lesser discounts than to speculators. Some sound a note of caution on the trend. Present conditions are conducive for this business model as group buying works well in a situation where stocks are moving slowly, markets are jittery and there is ample supply. It may not work in a seller’s market.

Another caution is — Very often the builders do not offer the best inventory to the group in terms of location and utility. The buyers have to use their astute judgement to avoid such traps.

Join Online Coaching For IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Jobs: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Reasoning" (South Zone)

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: Reasoning

1. The positions of how many digits in the number 523169 will remain unchanged if the digits within the number are written in ascending order? (from left to right)

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

2. In a certain code ‘BUILD’ is written as ‘5#31@’ and ‘LIKES’ is written as ‘13©*8’. How is ‘SKID’ written in that code?

(1) 8©*@
(2) 8@3©
(3) 8©3@
(4) 83©@
(5) None of these

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘DAREDEVIL’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (in both forward and backward directions)

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

4. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the third, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word STEADFAST, which of the following will be the second letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y as the answer.

(1) E
(2) A
(3) T
(4) X
(5) Y

5. In a certain code ’TASK’ is written as ‘BUJR’ and ‘BIND’ is written as ‘JCCM’. How is ‘SUIT written in that code?

(1) VTSH
(2) VSTH
(3) TRUJ
(4) TRJU
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

Directions (6-10): In the following questions, the symbols ,*,$,@ and © are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’.
‘A B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.
‘A © B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B’.
‘A * B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true,
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true,
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true,
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true,
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

6. Statements:

W $ F, F R, R * M

Conclusions:

I. R * W
II. R $ W

7. Statements’:

V T, T@N, N $ J

Conclusions:

I. J * T
II. N * V

8. Statements:

K © R, R M, M * F

Conclusions:

I. F @ R
II. K * M

9. Statements:

B @ J, J * H, H © N

Conclusions:

I. N @ J
II. N @ B

10. Statements:

T * K, K © M, M D

Conclusions:

I. D K
II. M @ T

Directions (11-15): Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below:

R 4 $ M E 7 T # A 2 J @ U K 9 P I % 1 8 Q W 3 d Z 5 * N 6 F © V G

11. Which of the following should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the elements in the above arrangement?

M$7 A#J KU P ?

(l) 1 % W
(2) 11 Q
(3) 1 I W
(4) 1 %Q
(5) None of these

12. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four

13. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not, immediately preceded by a letter?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

14. If the positions of twenty-five elements from the right end are reversed, which of the following will be the sixteenth element from the left end?

(1) Z
(2) P
(3) W
(4) Q
(5) None of these

15. Which of the following is the eighth to the left of the twenty- third element from the left end of the above arrangement?

(1) 9
(2) I
(3) $
(4) ©
(5) None of these

Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, Q, A, B, D, Rand F are sitting around a circular table [acing the centre. R is not second to the left of D and D is not an immediate neighbour of B, A is third to the right of F. B is second to the left of F. Q is not an immediate neighbour of B or F.

16. Who is second to the right of P ?

(1) R
(2) Q
(3) D
(4) A
(5) Data inadequate

17. Who is to the immediate left of F?

(1) R
(2) P
(3) D
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

18. Who is to the immediate right of D?

(1) Q
(2) A
(3) F
(4) P
(5) None of these

19. What is D’s position with respect to B ?

(1) Second to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the left
(4) Fourth to the right
(5) Third to the right

20. Who is to the immediate right of Q?

(1) D
(2) R
(3) A
(4) B
(5) None of these

Directions (21-25): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

21. Who among P, Q, R. S and T, each having a different age, is definitely the youngest?

I. R is younger than only T and P.
II. Q is younger than T but not the youngest.

22. Towards which direction was Q facing after he stopped walking?

I. Q walked 30 metres towards West, took a left turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a left turn and stopped after walking 30 metres,
II. Q walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 metres and he took a left turn and stopped after walking 30 metres.

23. How is ‘always’ written in a code language?

I. ‘rain is always good’ is written as ‘5 3 9 7 in that code language.
II. ‘he is always there’ is written as ‘3 6 8 5’ in that code language.

24. How is M related to D?

I. M has only one son and two daughters.
II. D’s brother is son of M’s wife:

25. On which date in April is definitely Pravm’s mother’s birthday?

I. Pravin correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is after fourteenth but before nineteenth of April.
II. Pravin’s sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is after sixteenth but before twenty-first of April.

Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Following are the conditions for selecting a Marketing Manager in an organisation:

The candidate must ______
(i) be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years old as on 01.12.2011.
(ii) be a graduate In any discipline with at least 55% aggregate marks.
(iii) have completed Post Graduate Degree/Diploma in Management with specialization in Marketing Management with at least 60% marks.
(iv) have post qualification work experience of at least 5 years as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organization.
In the case of a candidate who fulfills all the conditions except ______

(a) at (ii) above, but has secured at least 50% in graduation and at least 65% in Post Graduate Degree/Diploma in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management his/her case is to be referred to Head- Marketing.
(b) at (i) above, but is not more than 40 years old and has work experience of 8 years as Assistant Marketing Manager, his/her case is to be referred to Managing Director.
In each question below, details of one candidate are provided. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the conditions given above and the information provided in each question and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01-12-2011.

Mark answer (1) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
Mark answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer (3) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer (4) if the case is to be referred to Head-Marketing.
Mark answer (5) if the case is to be referred to Managing Director.

Now read the information provided in each question and mark your answer accordingly.

26. Mansi was born on 8th March 1982. She has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organization for the past six years after completing her Post Graduate Degree in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management with 70% marks. She has secured 53% marks in B.Com.

27. Manoj was born on 24th July 1980. He has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after completing his Post Graduate diploma in marketing management with 60% marks. He has secured 54% marks in graduation.

28. Rajat has secured 59% marks in graduation and has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after completing his Post Graduate Diploma in Management with specialization in Marketing Management. He was born on 15th February 198l.

29. Tarun was born on 2nd January 1978. He has secured 58% marks in B.Sc. and 65% marks in Post Graduate Degree in Marketing Management. He has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organization for the past six years after completing his post graduation.

30. Mohini has secured 60% marks in graduation. She has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past nine years after completing her Post Graduate degree in marketing management with 65% marks. She was born on 18th August 1972.

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F and G study in Standard IV, V and VI with at least two in any of these Standards. Each one of them has a favourite (likes) colour, viz. black, red, yellow, green, white, blue and pink not necessarily in the same order.

B likes yellow and does not study in Standard VI. The one who likes black studies in the same Standard as E, C likes blue and studies in the same Standard as G. D studies in Standard V only with the one who likes pink. G does not study either in Standard V or VI. F does not like black. G does not like either green or white. D does not like green. E does not like pink.

31. Who likes white?

(1) A
(2) G
(3) D
(4) F
(5) None of these

32. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(1) A- Black - V
(2) D - White - IV
(3) B - Red - IV
(4) C - Blue - IV
(5) All are correct

33. What is A’s favourite colour?

(1) Red
(2) Black
(3) White
(4) Black or White
(5) None of these

34. Which of the following students study in Standard IV?

(1) BC
(2) BG
(3) BCD
(4) BCG
(5) None of these

35. Who likes red?

(1) G
(2) D
(3) A
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to lake the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.

36. Statements:

All cards are sheets.
All files are cards.

Conclusions:

I. All cards are files.
II. All files are sheets.

37. Statements:

Some questions are answers.
All questions are issues.

Conclusions:

I. At least some answers are issues.
II. Some answers are definitely not questions.

38. Statements:

All roads are streets.
No road is a highway.

Conclusions:

I. No highway is street.
II. All streets are roads.

39. Statements:

No book is library. ,
Some books are diaries.

Conclusions:

I. Atleast some libraries are diaries.
II. No diary is library.

40. Statements :

No pin is a clip.
All pins are fans.

Conclusions:

I. All fans are pins.
II. No clip is fan.

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Jobs: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - English Language" (South Zone)

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: English Language

Directions (1-15): Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Though the U.S. prides itself on being a leader in the world community a recent report shows that it lags far behind other industrialised countries in meeting the needs of its youngest and most vulnerable citizens. The U.S. has a higher infant mortality rate a higher proportion of low birth weight babies, a smaller proportion of babies immunized against childhood diseases and a much higher rate of adolescent pregnancies. These findings described as a “quiet crisis” requiring immediate and far-reaching action appeared in a report prepared by a task force of educators. Doctors, politicians and business people. According to the report, a fourth of the nation’s 12 million infants and toddlers live in poverty. As many as half confront risk factors that could harm their ability to develop intellectually physically and socially. Child immolations are too low more children are born into poverty more are in substandard care while their parents work and more are being raised by single parents. When taken together these and other risk factors can lead to educational and health problems that are much harder and more costly to reverse.
The crisis begins in the womb with unplanned parenthood. Women with unplanned pregnancies are less likely to seek pre-natal care. In the U.S. 80% of teenage pregnancies and 56% of all pregnancies are unplanned. The problems continue after birth where unplanned pregnancies and unstable partnerships often go hand in hand since 1950, the number of single parent families has nearly tripled. More than 25 per cent of all births today are to unmarried mothers. As the number of single parent families grows and more women enter the work force infants and toddlers are increasingly in the care of people other than their parents.

Most disturbingly recent statistics show that American parents are increasingly neglecting or abusing their children. In only four years from 1987-1991 the number of children in foster care increased by over 50 per cent. Babies under the age of one are the fastest growing category of children entering foster care. This crisis affects children under the age of three most severely the report says. Yet it is this period-from Infancy through preschool years-that sets the stage for a child’s future.

1. The main focus of the passage is on the plight of

(1) orphaned children
(2) teenage mothers
(3) low birth weight babies
(4) unwed mother
(5) None of these

2. Children failing in which age group are most severely affected by the ‘quiet crisis’?

(1) Below 1 year
(2) Below 3 year
(3) Below 3 years
(4) Between 2 and 3 years
(5) None of these

3. Which of the following does not constitute the ‘quiet crisis’ in the U.S. as per the task force report?

(1) Lower proportion of new born babies with normal weight
(2) Higher incidence of adolescent girls becoming mothers
(3) Lower rate of babies surviving childhood diseases
(4) Larger proportion of babies who are deprived of immunization
(5) Increasing cases of teenage couples getting divorced

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Jobs: 
Subject: 

(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - General Awareness" (South Zone)

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: General Awareness

1. Which of the following organization/agencies is specifically set up to boost overall rural development in India?

(1) RBI
(2) SIDBI
(3) NABARD
(4) SEBI
(5) EXIM

2. Which of the following States has expressed its unhappiness over the agreement on sharing of Teesta water between India and Bangladesh? (Agreement was not signed because of the objection)

 (1) Jharkhand
(2) Assam
(3) Manipur
(4) Bihar
(5) West Bengal

3. Banks in India are regulated under——

(1) Companies Act, 1956
(2) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(3) Reserve Bank of India Act. 1934
(4) Special powers conferred on the RBI
(5) None of these

4. Which of the following countries is a major producer of Jute?

(1) Pakistan
(2) Afghanistan
(3) South Africa
(4) Bangladesh
(5) Sri Lanka

5. Compilation of data on industrial production in India is done by which of the following agencies / organizations?

(1) National Testing Lab
(2) Reserve Bank of India
(3) Census Commission of India
(4) Planning Commission of India
(5) Central Statistics Office

 

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

 

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Jobs: 

(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Numerical Ability" (South Zone)

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: Numerical Ability

Directions (101-115): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. 6.2 × 5.5 × 4.5 = ?

(1) 156.35
(2) 135.54
(3) 155.54
(4) 145.45
(5) None of these

2.



3.

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Jobs: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - General Awareness" (South Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - General Awareness" (South Zone)

151. For repayment of loan availed from Banks / NBFC we come across a term known as EMI. What does it stand for ?

(1) Equated Money Index
(2) Easy Money Installment
(3) Equated Monthly Installment
(4) Equal Monthly Installment
(5) Equal Minimum Installment

152. Dr. Manmohan Singh visited which of the following countries to hold bilateral talks on boundary dispute with it in September 2011 ?

(1) Nepal
(2) Pakistan
(3) Afghanistan
(4) China
(5) Bangladesh

153. Many a times we read in the news paper about CASA deposits of banks. CASA deposits are

(1) Demand deposits
(2) Term deposits
(3) Hybrid deposits
(4) Recurring deposits
(5) Special schemes of banks

154. India is providing economic help to which of the following Least Developed Countries by allowing access to its goods in India as Duty Free Market?

(1) Afghanistan
(2) Sudan
(3) Pakistan
(4) Greece
(5) Portugal

155. While investing in mutual funds we come across a term called NA V. What is the meaning of NAV?

(1) Net Annual Value
(2) Non Asset Value.
(3) Net Actual Value
(4) Net Asset Value
(5) Net Average Value

156. Who among the following is the leader of the Opposition in the present Lok Sabha ?

(1) Ms. Miera Kumar
(2) Mrs. Sushma Swaraj
(3) Sri L. K. Advani
(4) Sri Lalu Yadav
(5) None of these

157. Assume that Reserve Bank of India reduces the Bank Rate by 1 %, what will be its impact?

(1) Less liquidity in the market
(2) More liquidity in the market
(3) No change in the liquidity in the market
(4) Mobilisation of more deposits by commercial banks
(5) None of these

158. Which of the following States was recently in the grip of a severe earthquake and landslide?

(1) Uttarakhand
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Sikkim
(4) Punjab
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

159. Despite good number of ATMs many people still visit the bank branches. Which of the following reason can be attributed to this issue?

(A) lt does not accept deposits.
(B) It has a limited cash disbursement capacity.
(C) Lack of human interface.

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (8)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) Only (A) and (C)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

160. Which of the following countries is a major producer of oil and petroleum products?

(1) Brazil
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Sri Lanka
(4) South Africa
(5) Iran

161. The market in which long term securities such as stocks are bought and sold is commonly known as—

(1) Bullion Market
(2) Commodities Exchange
(3) Forex Market
(4) Capital Market
(5) Money Market

162. US lifts curbs on ISRO was the news in various newspapers. ISRO is an organisation engaged in—

(1) Space Research
(2) research on Nuclear Reactors
(3) study of climatic changes
(4) finding ways to enhance agricultural output in desert areas
(5) field of Oceanography

163. Federal Reserve is a financial organisation of which of the following country?

(1) USA
(2) Britain
(3) Germany
(4) Greece
(5) Japan

164. Qatar and some other countries are supplying LNG to India. What does the letter ‘N’ denotes in the term LNG used here?

(1) Neutral
(2) Nitrogen
(3) Natural
(4) Naptha
(5) Nitric

165. Whose signature is found on a 50 rupee currency note in India?

(1) President of India
(2) Governor, RBI
(3) Finance Minister
(4) Prime Minister of India
(5) Secretary, Ministry of Finance

166. Wages of the workers engaged in Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Act are now based on-

(1) Wholesale Price Index
(2) Prime lending rate of banks
(3) Repo Rate stipulated by the RBI
(4) Consumer Price Index
(5) Index of the Multi Commodity Exchange

167. What is the minimum prescribed age for the adult suffrage?

(1) 15 years
(2) 16 years
(3) 18 years
(4) 20 years
(5) 21 years

168. Who among the following is the President of Indonesia at present and was in news recently?

(1) Mr. Najib Tun Razak
(2) Mr. Susilo Bambang Yudhoyono
(3) Mr. Sukarno
(4) Mr. Yingluck Shinawatra
(5) None of these

169. Which ofthe following centres is the largest mobiliser of bank deposits in our country?

(1) Delhi
(2) Kolkata
(3) Chennai
(4) Ahmedabad
(5) Mumbai

170. As per recent figures Infant Mortality Rate in India has come down by few points. Which organisation / agency compiles this data?

(1) Planning Commission of India
(2) Ministry of Rural Development
(3) Ministry of Social Welfare
(4) National Advisory Council
(5) Census Commission of India

171. Which of the following institutions is involved mainly in granting Housing Loans ?

(1) RBI
(2) SBI
(3) IBA
(4) ICICI
(5) HDFC

172. Ms. Dilma Rousseff is the first woman President of—

(1) Argentina
(2) Brazil
(3) Uganda
(4) Peru
(5) New Zealand

173. Initial repayment holiday given to a borrower for repayment of loan is called as -

(1) Subvention
(2) Moratorium
(3) Reschedulement
(4) Amortization
(5) EMI

174. Which of the following terms is associated with the game of Cricket?

(1) Bully
(2) Grand Slam
(3) Smash
(4) No ball
(5) Knock-out

175. Which of the following terms is not related to banking?

(1) Repayment
(2) Loan
(3) NPA
(4) Pasting
(5) Deposit

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Numerical Ability" (South Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - Numerical Ability" (South Zone)

Directions (101-115) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

101. 5 × ? = 9584 / 4


(1) 497.2
(2) 11980
(3) 7667.2
(4) 479.2

102. 1255.5 / (18 × 15.5) = ?

(1) 5.5
(2) 6.5
(3) 2.5
(4) 3.5
(5) None of these

103. 62% of 350 – ?% of 140 = 154

(1) 55
(2) 25
(3) 47
(4) 38
(5) None of these

104. 14.5 × 17.3 × 10.8 = ?

(1) 2709. 18
(2) 2079.08
(3) 2907.28
(4) 2790.80
(5) None of these

105. 333.33 + 33.33 + 3.3 = ?

(1) 369.69
(2) 369.96
(3) 396.96
(4) 396.69
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

110. 5555 / 55 / 5 = ?

(1) 505
(2) 550
(3) 22.2
(4) 20.2
(5) None of these

111. 8052 – 9883 + 6048 = ? × 25

(1) 168.68
(2) 186.68
(3) 186.86
(4) 168.86
(5) None of these

Directions (1l6-120): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note:You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

116. (10.999)3 = ?

(1) 1680
(2) 900
(3) 1000
(4) 1550
(5) 1330

117. 58.0003 / 86.999 = ?

(1) 0.05
(2) 0.2
(3) 1
(4) 0.6
(5) 2

118. 124.999 + 99.999 + 40.0001 = ?

(1) 320
(2) 265
(3) 280
(4) 415
(5) 305

119. 40440 / 444 / 4 = ?

(1) 41
(2) 12
(3) 23
(4) 32
(5) 17

120. 45.003 × 44.998 + 10.010 = ?

(1) 1900
(2) 2035
(3) 2300
(4) 1805
(5) 2000

Directions (121-125) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

121. 3 ? 6 18 72 360 2160

(1) 4.5
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5.5
(5) None of these

122. 1520 760 380 190 95 47.5 ?

(1) 23.75
(2) 22.25
(3) 24.75
(4) 21.25
(5) None of these

123. 4 7 11 18 29 ? 76

(1) 64
(2) 38
(3) 52
(4) 47
(5) None of these

124. 343 216 ? 64 27 8 1

(1) 144
(2) 100
(3) 125
(4) 136
(5) None of these

125. 2 13 67 ? 817 1639 1645

(1) 271
(2) 205
(3) 262
(4) 218
(5) None of these

126. Find the average of the following set scores :

539, 741, 326, 461, 654, 952, 128, 543

(1) 487
(2) 523
(3) 608
(4) 572
(5) None of these

127. The area of a square is twice the area of a rectangle. If the area of the square is 324 sq. cm. and the length of the rectangle is 13.5 cm., what is the difference between the breadth of the rectangle and the side of the square?

(1) 8 cm.
(2) 10 cm.
(3) 12 cm.
(4) 6 cm.
(5) None of these

128. A truck covers a certain distance in 14 hours at the speed of 62 km./hr. What is the average speed of a car which travels a distance of 280 kms. more than the truck in the same time?

(1) 89 kmph
(2) 77 kmph
(3) 82 kmph
(4) 76 kmph
(5) None of these

129. The average of four consecutive even numbers A, B, C and D respectively is 25. What is the product of A and C ?

(1) 528
(2) 616
(3) 624
(4) 572
(5) None of these

130. Subodh got 72 marks in Hindi, 68 marks in Science, 62 marks in Sanskrit, 74 marks in Maths and 64 marks in English. The maximum marks of each subject are 80. How much overall percentage of marks did Subodh get?

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - English Language" (South Zone)

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 2nd Sitting - English Language" (South Zone)

Directions (51 - 65): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

We should recognise the indebtedness of the country to its farm families who toil to safeguard national food security. Loan waiver is the price we have to pay for the neglect of rural lndia over the past several decades. There has been a gradual decline in investment in key sectors related to agriculture such as infrastructure marketing, post harvest technology etc. The four crore farmers whose debt is to be relieved will be eligible for institutional credit for their cultivation expenses during Kharif200B. The challenge is to prevent them from getting into the debt trap again. For this purpose the Central and various State governments should set up an Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium, comprising scientists, panchayat raj officials and others relevant to assisting farmers to improve the profitability and productivity of their farms in an environmentally sustainable manner. The smaller the farm the greater is the need for marketable surplus to reduce indebtedness.
The Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium should aim to get all the four crore farmers all the benefits of the government schemes such as the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana, Irrigation Benefit Programme and others. If this is done every farm family released from the debt trap should be able to produce at least an additional half tonne per hectare of food grains. This should help increase food production by about 20 million tonnes by 2008-10. At a time when global and national food stocks are dwindling and prices are rising, this will be a timely gain for our national food security. We need to ensure that the outcome of the debt waiver is enhanced farmers’ income and production. The prevailing gap between potential and actual yields in the crops of rainfed areas such as pulses and oilseeds is over 200 per cent even with the necessary technologies on the shelf. We are now importing without duty large quantities of pulses and oilseeds. If helped, farmers can produce these at a lower cost.

Opportunities for assured and remunerative marketing are essential if loan waiver is not to become a recurring event leading to the destruction of the credit system. This is why the Minimum Support Price is necessary for all not just for a few crops which is the case at present. This is the single most effective step to make loan waivers history. There is another urgent step which needs to be taken. The loan waiver does not cover those who borrow from moneylenders. It will not be possible for the government to scrutinise the veracity of such private deals but steps can be taken such as giving them Smart Cards which will entitle them to essential inputs like seeds and fertilisers. The gram sabha can be entrusted with the task of identifying these farmers so that there is transparency in the process and elimination of the chances for falsification and corruption. Fear of occasional misuse should not come in the way of enabling millions of poor farmers who have borrowed from informal sources if we are to achieve the goal of four percent growth in agriculture.

51. What is the likely impact of ensuring farmers benefit from government schemes?

(A) They can use the credit from these schemes to repay money lenders.
(B) The government can control the price rise.
(C) Increased agricultural production.

(1) Both (A) and (B)
(2) All (A), (B) and (C)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Both (B) and (C)
(5) None of these

52. Why does the author feel that rural India has been overlooked in the past?

(A) Institutional credit was only made available for Kharif crops.
(B) Drop in investment in central areas related to agriculture.
(C) Records of those eligible for loan waivers have not been maintained over time.

(1) Only (B)
(2) Both (A) and (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(5) None of these

53. How can small farmers avoid debt?

(1) They need’ to acquire additional land holdings
(2) They need to take advantage of both government schemes as well as credit from moneylenders.
(3) They have to ensure a sufficient amount of their farm produce is sold.
(4) The Government should provide periodic loan waivers.
(5) None of these

54. What is the objective of the Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium?

(1) It is a support group for the families of indebted farmers.
(2) It has to devise new government schemes for farmers.
(3) It has to track farmers eligible for government schemes.
(4) It has to evaluate government schemes and weed out the inefficient ones.
(5) It will assist farmers to improve profitability and productivity

55. What does the author mean by the phrase “indebtedness of the country to its farm families”?

(1) If farmers are in debt it impacts the entire country
(2) Citizens should be grateful to farmers and their families for the hardships borne by them to cultivate crops and safeguard national food security
(3) India’s food production has fallen causing it to be in debt since it has to import food.
(4) The number of farmers’ descendants taking up agriculture has fallen .
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS Clerk Exam

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

57. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

(1) The Minimum Support Price for agricultural products is yet to be implemented.
(2) Loan waiver is a permanent solution to indebtedness of farmers.
(3) Current agricultural growth is below four percent.
(4) India’s food production has increased in 2008.
(5) Moneylenders benefit from loan waivers.

58. Why does the loan waiver not cover credit taken from money lenders?

(A) It is difficult to verify these contracts between farmers and moneylenders.
(B) It will increase the deficit in the budget.
(C) There is a risk that the funds may be misappropriated.

(1) Both (A) and (C)
(2) All (A), (B) and
(C) (3) Only (B)
(4) Both (A) and (B)
(5) None of these

59. Why is there a vast gap in actual and potential yields of crops in rainfed areas?

(1) The government prefers to import these crops at a lower rate.
(2) No technological advances have been made to improve the growth of crops in these areas.
(3) There is no Minimum Support Price available for these crops.
(4) Farmers are forced to sell these crops at a low rate.
(5) None of these

60. How does the government in tend to ensure transparency in the Smart card issuance process?

(1) Screening private players involved in the scheme.
(2) Granting access to those farmers who register with their local moneylenders.
(3) Providing cards which cannot be forged. (4) Regularly rotating members of the gram sabha so there is no corruption.
(5) The gram sabha can be entrusted with the task of identifying farmers.

Directions (61-63) : Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

61. Assured

(1) insured
(2) definite
(3) doubted
(4) confident
(5) reliance

62. Relieved

(1) exempted
(2) backed
(3) supported
(4) calmed
(5) substituted

63. Gap

(1) hole
(2) break
(3) pause
(4) difference
(5) interruption

Directions (64-65) : Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

64. Timely

(1) young
(2) lately
(3) overdue
(4) aged
(5) slowly

65. Elimination

(1) authority
(2) forgiveness
(3) attack
(4) protection
(5) provision

Directions (66-70): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (5) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

66. Usually (1)/ we are required (2)/ to supply a title (3)/ to the paragraph. (4)/ All correct (5).
67. The movement (1)/ he was asked to recite (2)/ a rhyme, (3)/ he started to do so in his clear (4)/ voice. All correct (5).
68. The maintenance (1)/ expences (2)/ on such accounts(3)/ include recovery (4)f charges. All correct (5).
69. Under the new exploration licencing (1)/ policy, (2)/ companies win exploration blocks in a competitive (3)/ bidding process. (4)/ All correct (5).
70. He was eagrosed (1)/ in his job (2)/ to the detriment (3)/ of his health.(4)/ All correct (5).

Directions (71-75): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and
(5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer.

71. I. It is when he _____ a new method, he faced opposition.
II. The suspect was ____ for the crime.


(1) suggested
(2) sentenced
(3) tried
(4) found
(5) evolved

72. I. The human ____ has its own healing powers.
II. The elected _____ is responsible for major


policy changes.

(1) being
(2) body
(3) representative
(4) segment
(5) mind

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Cut-Off) SBI Clerk Exam

(Cut-Off) SBI Clerk Exam

State

SC ST OBC Gen
Andhra Pradesh/Telegana 131 113 143 148
Kerala 110 91 124 124
Madhya Pradesh 131 105 139 147
Bihar 126 106 146 155
Delhi/ Haryana 129 138 136 153
Rajasthan 123 108 140 155
Tamil Nadu 119 105 119 119
Gujarat 131 87 134 137
Karnataka 89 77 98 98
Maharastra 120 70 111 132
Odisha 125 103 148 151
Uttar Pradesh 122 107 146 155
Uttarakhand 101 97 142 150
IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Jobs: 

(Syllabus) IBPS Specialist Officers

(Syllabus) IBPS Specialist Officers Exam

The structure of the Online CWE will be as follows:

For the post of Law Officer and Rajbhasha Adhikari

Sr. No.

Name of Tests

No. of Questions

General: 

(Exam Pattern) IBPS Specialist Officers

(Exam Pattern) IBPS Specialist Officers

The structure of the Online CWE will be as follows:

For the post of Law Officer and Rajbhasha Adhikari

Sr. No.

Name of Tests

No. of Questions

SBI Clerk Exam Syllabus

State Bank of India (Clerical)

Clerical Exam Syllabus

Phase-I: Preliminary Examination:

Preliminary Examination (online) consisting of Objective Tests for 100 marks will be conducted online. This test would be of 1 hour duration consisting of 3 Sections as follows:

Jobs: 
Bank/Organisation: 

Pages



Subscribe to RSS - trainee5's blog