(Papers) LIC : Apprentice Development Officer

Numerical Ability (Held on 13-06-2010)

Directions (26-35): What should come in place of the question mark (>) in the following questions?
26. 99 ÷ 9 + 0.5 = ?
1) 5.5 
2) 11 
3) 4.5
4) 22 
5) None of these

27. 8^2.8 × 64^3.6 ÷ 512^1.4 = 8?
1) 5.8 
2) 14.2 
3) 8.6
4) 9.2 
5) None of these

28. 24% of 550 − ? % lf 124 = 76.2
1) 45 
2) 30 
3) 50
4) 35 
5) None of these

29. 24.5 × 45.4 × 2.5 = ?
1) 2880.25 
2) 2780.75 
3) 2770.75
4) 2870.22 
5) None of these

30. 326 1/4 ÷ 9 = ?
1) 64.5 
2) 24.75 
3) 36.25
4) 72.5 
5) None of these

31. 2.5 × ? = 824.2
1) 333.86 
2) 329.68 
3) 337.46
4) 324.48 
5) None of these

32. 416 × 18 − 2288 = ?
1) 5202 
2) 5000 
3) 5205
4) 5002
5) None of these

33. 54% of 675 = ?
1) 307.5 
2) 346.5 
3) 370.5
4) 364.5
5) None of these

34. 888.88 + 684.48 + 726.66 = ?
1) 2230.02
2) 2030.02 
3) 2003.02
4) 2302.02
5) None of these

35. 3960 ÷ (48 × 2.5) = ?
1) 206.25 
2) 42 
3) 33
4) 260.25
5) None of these

36. A Car covers a distance of 720 Kms. in 12 hours. What is the average speed of the Car?
1) 60 kmph 
2) 40 kmph 
3) 55 kmph
4) 75 kmph
5) None of these

NEW! LIC ADO Exam Printed Study Material - Cover 100% Syllabus in 30 Days

(Papers) LIC : Apprentice Development Officer

Reasoning Ability (Held on 13-06-2010)

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRANSFER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None 
2) One 
3) Two
4) Three 
5) More than three

2. D is sister of F. M is brother of F. K is brother of D  and son of T. R is wife of T. How is F related to T?
1) Son 
2) Daughter 
3) Son or daughter
4) Data inadequate 
5) None of these

3. The positions of how many digits in the number 8359614 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?
1) None 
2) One 
3) Two
4) Three 
5) More than three

4. In a certain code 'STAGE' is written as '4@©59' and 'EARN' is written as 9©87'. How is 'NEST' written in that code?
1) 497@ 
2) 794@ 
3) @©79
4) 79@©
5) None of these

5. In a certain code TRILOGY is written as HQSMXFN. How is CREDITS written in that code?
1) DQBERSH
2) FSDCTUJ 
3) DQBETUJ
4) FSDCRSH 
5) None of these

Directions (6 - 10) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
H 3 $ E K 5 @ M % I 8 2 T A F 6 W I © N V ★ P 4 Q δ R D Z

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) FAW 
2) N©★ 
3) 4Pδ
4) M©I
5) SEH

7. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?
1) None 
2) One 
3) Two
4) Three 
5) More than three

8. Which of the following is the fifth to the left of the sixteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?
1) 2 
2) © 
3) 8
4) 6 
5) None of these

9. If all the symbols and numbers are dropped from the above arrangement which of the following will be the fourteenth from the right end?
1) T 
2) K 
3) N
4) P 
5) None of these

10. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?
1) None 
2) One 
3) Two
4) Three 
5) More than three

NEW! LIC ADO Exam Printed Study Material - Cover 100% Syllabus in 30 Days

(Admit Card) SBI PO (Pre.) Exam - 2019

Exam Name: SBI PO (Pre.) Exam

Year: 2019

(Selection Process) State Bank of India : Clerk

Selection Process :

The selection process will consist of on-line test (preliminary & main examination) and test of specified opted local language.

Phase-I: Preliminary Examination:

Preliminary Examination (online) consisting of Objective Tests for 100 marks will be conducted online. This test would be of 1 hour duration consisting of 3 Sections as follows:

• Each test will have a separate timing as mentioned above.
• There will be negative marks for wrong answers in the Objective tests.
• 1/4th of mark assigned for question will be deducted for each wrong answer.
• No minimum qualifying marks for individual subject as well as for aggregate (overall) are prescribed. 
• Adequate number of candidates in each category as decided by the Bank (approximately 10 times  the  numbers of vacancies. subject to availability) will be shortlisted for the Main Examination from the list of all candidates arranged in descending order of aggregate marks scored.

Phase – II: Main Examination:

The structure  of main examination (online objective type) would be as follows.:

Each test will have a separate timing as mentioned above.
The questions in objective tests, except for the test of General English, will be bilingual i.e., English & Hindi. There will be negative marks for wrong answers in the Objective tests.  1/4th of mark assigned for question will be deducted for each wrong answer.
Candidates are required to score a minimum percentage marks on aggregate (For SC/ST/OBC/PWD/XS candidates, 5% relaxation available thereon). Minimum qualifying marks on aggregate will be decided by the bank. No minimum qualifying marks for individual subject are prescribed. Merit list will be drawn State wise, category wise. Candidates qualified in the test (main examination) will be placed according to their aggregate marks  in descending order  in respective States and Categories.
NOTE: Other detailed information regarding the examination will be given in the 'Acquaint Yourself' booklet, which will be made available to the eligible candidates along with the call letter for the test.
Test of specified opted local language:
Those who qualify for selection and produce 10th or 12th standard mark sheet/ certificate evidencing having studied the specified opted local language will not be subjected to any Language test. In case of others (qualified for selection), specified opted local language test will be conducted after provisional selection but before joining. Candidates not found to be proficient in specified opted local language would be disqualified.
Provisional Selection (Subject to qualifying  specified opted local language).
The marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination (Phase-I) will not be added for the selection and only the aggregate marks obtained in Main Examination (Phase-II) will be considered for preparation of the final merit list. Provisional selection will be made on the basis of candidate’s performance in the test (main examination).

Final selection: will be subject to:-

i)    Verification of eligibility for the post and information furnished in the online application.
ii)   Qualifying in  test  of  specified opted  local  language, where applicable, as detailed above.
Results of the candidates who have provisionally qualified for selection will be made available on the Bank's website. 

Wait List:

A wait list of up to 50% of vacancies (State-category  wise) will be maintained. Candidates will be released from this waitlist on quarterly basis against non-joining and resignation out of the current batch only, subject to the candidates securing minimum qualifying marks as may be stipulated by the Bank for selection. This wait list will be valid for a period of one year from the date of declaration of final result.

Printed Study Material for SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary Cum Mains)

(Age Limit) State Bank of India : Clerk

Age Limit :

• Minimum Age - 20 years
• Maximum Age - 28 years

Not below 20 years and not above 28 years as on 01.04.2019, i.e candidates must have been born not earlier than 02.04.1991 and not later than 01.04.1999 (both days inclusive).

Relaxation of Upper age limit:

NOTE (i) Candidates seeking age relaxation are required to submit copies of necessary certificate(s) at the time of joining, if qualified. No change in the category of any candidate is permitted after registration of online application. No correspondence/ email/phone will be entertained in this regard

Printed Study Material for SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary Cum Mains)

Life Insurance Corporation

Recruitment For the Post of Assistant Administrative Officer, LIC India

:: Syllabus ::

On-line Test Syllabus:

On-line test will be of objective type, multiple choices of 120 minutes (2 hrs) duration comprising of the following:

(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-3

ENGLISH LANGUAGE :

Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Laxmi Vilas Bank

About :

The Lakshmi Vilas Bank Limited, a well-known and technology driven private sector bank, with over 9 decades of distinguished and dedicated service, is now embarking on a growth journey with strengths and new capabilities.

(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-2

REASONING ABILITY :

This is a test to see how well you can think. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions.

(Papers) SEBI : Sample Question Paper-1

ENGLISH LANGUAGE :

This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through questions on grammar & vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, sentence completion, comprehension of a pas- 
sage etc.

(Jobs) SBI : Posts of Specialist Cadre Officer Recruitment-2018

Post Detail :

State Bank of India invites Online application from Indian citizen for appointment to the following Specialist Cadre Officers posts.Candidates are requested to apply Online through the link given on Bank’s website 

• *Sector Credit Specialists – Sector wise Positions (Total 19): Engineering & EPC -2, Banks & NBFC- 1, Metal & Metal Products – 2, Chemicals/Pharmaceuticals/ Fertilisers/ Plastics – 3, Other Manufacturing – 5, Other Non-Manufacturing – 4, International Credit – 2.
• **Sector Risk Specialists – Sector wise Positions (Total 20): Power & Infrastructure – 3, Petroleum & Petrochemicals – 2, Engineering & EPC – 2,Banks & NBFC – 2, Metal & Metal Products – 2, Chemicals/ Pharmaceutical/ Fertilisers/ Plastics – 2, Other Manufacturing -3, Other Non-Manufacturing – 2, Large Accounts/ Key Group Analyst – 2.
• $ VI and HI category candidates will not be suitable in these positions, as it will require travel, interaction and giving presentation at various levels etc

Education Qualification: 

Analytics Translators :
B. Tech/ B. E. (Computer Sciences)/ MCA/MBA (Business Analytics)/ M. Stat. (ISI Kolkata)
Other Qualifcations (Preferred): Data Analytics Qualifcations

Sector Credit Specialists :
B. Tech/ B. E. (Computer Sciences)/ MCA/MBA (Business Analytics)/ M. Stat. (ISI Kolkata)
Other Qualifcations (Preferred): Data Analytics Qualifcations Charted Accountant / MBA (Finance))/ Master in Finance Control/ Master in Management Studies/ PGDM (Finance).

Portfolio Management Specialists :
Chartered Accountant / MBA (Finance)

Sector Risk Specialists :
Chartered Accountant / MBA (Finance) /ICWA/ CFA

Other Qualifcations (Preferred): Financial Risk Manager (FRM) Certifcation by Global Association of Risk Professional (GARP)

Age :

(As on 30-09-2018)

• Minimum-25 years
• Maximum- 35 years

Method of Selection :

The selection will be based on shortlisting and interview.
Interview: Mere fulflling minimum qualifcation and experience will not vest any right in candidate for being called for interview. The Shortlisting Committee constituted by the Bank will decide the shortlisting parameters and thereafter, adequate number of candidates, as decided by the Bank will be shortlisted and called for interview. The decision of the bank to call the candidates for the interview shall be fnal. No correspondence will be entertained in this regard.
Merit List: Merit list for selection will be prepared in descending order on the basis of scores obtained in interview only. In case more than one candidate score the cut-of marks (common marks at cut-of point), such candidates will be ranked according to their age in descending order, in the merit

Pay Scale:

How to Apply :   

Candidates should have valid email ID which should be kept active till the declaration of result. It will help him/her in getting call letter/ Interview advices etc. by email.

i. Candidates will be required to register themselves online through the link available on SBI official website  or given below link to pay the application fee using Internet Banking/ Debit Card/  Credit Card etc.
ii. Candidates should frst scan their latest photograph and signature. Online application will not be registered unless candidate uploads his/her photo and signature as specifed on the online registration page (under ‘How to Apply”). 
iii. Candidates should fll the application carefully. Once application is flled-in completely, candidate should submit the same. In the event of candidate not being able to fll the application in one go, he can save the information already entered. When the information/ application is saved, a provisional registration number and password is generated by the system and displayed on the screen. Candidate should note down the registration number and password. They can re-open the saved application using registration number and password and edit the particulars, if needed. This facility of editing the saved information will be available for three times only. Once the 
application is flled completely, candidate should submit the same and proceed for online payment of fee.
iv. After registering online, the candidates are advised to take a printout of the system generated online application forms
i. Application fees and Intimation Charges (Non-refundable) is 600/- (Six Hundred only) for General and OBC candidates and intimation charges of 100/- (One hundred only) for SC/ ST/PWD candidates. 
ii. Fee payment will have to be made online through payment gateway available thereat.
iii. After ensuring correctness of the particulars in the application form, candidates are required to pay the fees through payment gateway integrated with the application. No change/ edit in the application will be allowed thereafter.
iv. The payment can be made by using Debit Card/ Credit Card/ Internet Banking etc. by providing information as asked on the screen. Transaction charges for online payment, if any, will be borne by the candidates.
v. On successful completion of the transaction, e-receipt and application form, bearing the date of submission by the candidate, will be generated which should be printed and retained by the candidate.
vi. If the online payment of fee is not successfully completed in frst instance, please make fresh attempts to make online payment. vii. There is also a provision to reprint the e-Receipt and Application form containing fee details, at later stage. 
viii. Application Fee once paid will NOT be refunded on any account NOR can it be adjusted for any other examination or selection in future.

Important Date :

• Online Registration of Application : 30.10.2018 
• Last Date to Apply Online & Payment of Fee    22-11-2018

Click Here To Download Official Notification

Click Here To Apply Online

Study Kit for Bank Specialist Officer Exam

(Result) State Bank of India (Probationary Officers) SBI-PO :Prelims Exam Result-2018

Phase - II (Mains Examination) will be held on 04/08/2018. Candidates are advised to visit Bank's website www.sbi.co.in or https://bank.sbi/careers to download Call-Letter for Mains Exam from 20-07-2018 onwards.

(Download) State Bank of India : SBI CLERK Exam Admit Card-2018

Exam Name: SBI Clerk Exam-2018

Bank Name: State Bank of India (SBI)

Year: 2018

Commencement of Call letter Download : 06 - 06 - 2018

Closure of Call letter Download : 30 - 06 - 2018

Click Here To Download Admit Card

Printed Study Material for SBI Clerk Exam (Preliminary Cum Mains)

(Jobs) Indian Bank : Specialist Officers Post Recruitment-2018

INDIAN BANK, a leading Public Sector Bank, with headquarters in Chennai invites Applications for the following posts:

Post Detail:

Study Kit for Bank Specialist Officer Exam

Education Qualification:

Age Limit:

Minimum age : 25 years

Maximum age : 45 years

Application Fee :

Rs. 100/- for SC/ST/PWD candidates.
Rs. 600 /- for all others

Pay Scale :

How to Apply :

Applications have to be submitted online from 10/04/2018 to 02/05/2018. No other mode of application will be accepted other than online applications. Pre-Requisites for Applying Online
Before applying online, candidates should—
i. Scan their photograph and signature ensuring that both the photograph (4.5cm × 3.5cm) and signature adhere to the required specifications as given in Annexure to this Advertisement. Signature in CAPITAL LETTERS will NOT be accepted.
ii. Have a valid personal email ID, which should be kept active till the completion of the Recruitment Process. Bank will send call letters for the Examination and other communication only to the registered e-mail ID. Under no circumstances, a candidate should share e-mail ID with any other person. In case a candidate does not have a valid personal e-mail ID, he/she should create his/her new e-mail ID before applying on-line and must maintain that email account.

Method of Selection :

Applications will be shortlisted based on eligibility criteria detailed in this advertisement. The selection process will comprise of interview of the shortlisted candidates. If the number of applications received is large, then Bank may at its discretion conduct a Preliminary Screening Test which will be of qualifying in nature.
TEST STRUCTURE
The structure of Preliminary Screening Test will be as follows:

important Date :

Starting Date – 10-04-2018

Last Date – 04-05-2018

Click Here for Apply Online

Click Here for official Notification

Click Here for Official Website

Study Kit for Bank Specialist Officer Exam

(Job) IBBI : Recruitment of Officer Grade A (Assistant Manager)-2018

1.Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI), is a statutory body established in accordance with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. 

(Job) IDBI Bank : Executive Post Recruitment-2018

IDBI Bank Ltd., a company within the meaning of the Companies Act, 2013, having   majority  shareholding  by  Government  of  India,  is  a  leading  provider  of complete range of retail  and corporate banking services to its clients.

SBI-PO (PROBATIONARY EXAM) Results & Marks 

• NEW! CLICK HERE FOR SBI PO EXAM PRELIM RESULT-2019

• CLICK HERE FOR SBI PO EXAM PRELIM RESULT-2018

• CLICK HERE FOR SBI PO EXAM FINAL RESULT-2017

• CLICK HERE FOR SBI PO PRELIMS RESULTS

• CLICK HERE FOR SBI MAINS PRELIMS RESULTS 2017

• CLICK HERE FOR SBI PO EXAM FINAL RESULTS 2016

Courtesy: SBI

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(Jobs) Dombivli Nagari Sahakari Bank Limited :(Posts of Assistant Manager Recruitment-2017)

Post Detail :

Any eligible candidate, who aspires to join the Bank as Probationary Management Officer, is required to register for the Online Written Examination. Candidates who appear and are shortlisted in the examination, will subsequently be called for a Personal Interview and on being short-listed in Interview, will have to appear for Medical Fitness Test to be conducted and co- ordinated by DNS Bank.
DNS Bank intends to fill 20 positions at various locations pan Maharashtra, in phase manner. 

Education Qualification:

MBA / MMS from a recognized University and must have acquired the first class (60% and above) throughout, startingfrom S.S.C. upto MBA/MMS (First class in every semester/trimester).
Computer Literacy: Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidate should have Certificate/Diploma in computer operations/Language/ should have studied Computer / Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/College/Institute.
Note:
a) All the educational qualifications mentioned should be from a recognized University / Institution and the result should have been declared on or before 01.12.2017. Proper document from Board / University for having 
declared the result on or before 01.12.2017 has to be submitted at the time of interview. The date of passing the examination which is reckoned for eligibility will be the date of passing appearing on the marksheet/ Provisional
certificate.
b) Candidate should have capacity to read, write and speak in Marathi.

REPCO Branch Staff (Clerical) Jobs 2017

Post Detail :

 Branch Head: To Head the Branch in all areas of branch work such as sourcing of business, operations, collections and ensuring profitability of branch.
 Branch Staff (Clerical): Overall branch operations including business sourcing and recovery. 

Education Qualification:

A) For Branch Head:
1. Age not exceeding 28 years as on 01-11-2017 (relaxation upto 40 years of age can be considered based on commensurate, relevant prior experience)
2. Any Graduation (10+2+3 format) from a UGC recognized university.Post graduation & professional qualification shall be given additional weightage.
3. Minimum 3 years experience (for age not exceeding 28 years) in Housing Finance/Retail Lending /marketing of financial products (Home Loan) /branch operations in HFCs/FIs. Exposure in housing finance is a must.
Experience of heading a branch will be preferred. For further age relaxation, commensurate additional experience would be required.
4. Extensive in-depth knowledge of local market with good networking capacity with builders / developers is a must. 

B) For Branch Staff (Clerical):
1. Age not exceeding 25 years as on 01-11-2017, (maximum relaxation for 5 years will be considered with commensurate relevant experience).
2. Any Graduate preferably B Com (necessarily preceded by SSLC (or equivalent) and HSC/ Diploma) with minimum 50% marks from a UGC recognized University. Graduates from Open University will not be considered. 

Key Competencies Required :

Good communication skill – verbal and written
• Negotiation skill
• Interpersonal skill, leadership qualities and team management
• Multitasking ability ( as the Company does not operate through separate
verticals for sourcing, operations and collections)
• Planning and organizing skill
• Target orientation
• Proficiency in MS-Word 

Pay Scale :

a) Branch Head:
CTC starting from Rs. 7.00 lakhs per annum (fixed + variable). However, experienced candidate would be compensated suitably as per market standard and Management discretion.
b) Clerical (on roll)
 CTC starting from Rs.3.50 lakhs per annum (approx) for Executive and CTC starting from Rs. 4.00 Lakhs per annum (approx) for AM (With three years prior experience) as per Company Policy. Higher salary can be considered based on prior experience/performance in the recruitment process at the discretion of the Management.
PROBATION for (a) and (b): 1 year (extendable based on performance)
c) Trainee (off roll)
Starting fixed stipend would be Rs. 9500 p.m. (variable based on location and previous experience) plus Meal allowance and performance incentive (variable,based on performance). The period of Training will be one year (extendable based on performance) and subject to the following conditions: 

How to Apply :

Eligible candidates are requested to attend a WALK-IN INTERVIEW with all original testimonials and last 3 months pay slip along with 1 set of photocopy of all documents, 2 colour passport size photos, 1 KYC document and 2 sets of duly filled in Bio-data as per enclosed format at the following venue on stipulated date & time: 

Important Dates: 

DATE: 09-12-2017 (Saturday)

TIME: 1pm - 4pm (Candidates must register between 10 am to 12 noon)
VENUE: Repco Home Finance Limited  Office No 203 second floor,  Satyabhaama sankul,  Near Modi Ganapati,  CTS No.529, Narayanpeth,  Pune-411030.

(Contact No.: 020-24431956) 

IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2017 (Numerical Ability)

 Subject : (Numerical Ability)

Q36. Ratio of speed of boat in down stream and speed of stream is 9:1, if speed of current is 3 km per hr, then find distance travelled(in km) upstream in 5 hours.
(a) 105
(b) 110
(c) 120
(d) 90
(e) 95

Q37. Sum of 4 consecutive even numbers are greater than three consecutive odd numbers by 81. If sum of least odd and even number is 59, then find the sum of largest odd and even numbers.
(a) 69
(b) 71
(c) 73
(d) 67
(e) None of these

Q38. Two different amounts are invested in two schemes. In scheme A, amount X is invested at 8 % per annum and in scheme B amount (X+1400) is invested at 12% per annum.After 2 years difference between both interests is 880, then find value of X? 
(a) 7200
(b) 5500
(c) 6800
(d) 7300
(e) None of these

Directions (39-43): Given below is the table that shows the number of books sold from five stores on five days. Study the table carefully to answer the question.

Q39. What is the ratio of total number of books sold from store D on Sunday, Monday and Tuesday together to that sold from store E on Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday together.
(a) 13 : 11
(b) 11 : 15
(c) 11 : 13
(d) 13 : 15
(e) 11 : 17

Q40. Number of books sold on Friday from stores C and D increased by 15% and 20% respectively as compared to that sold on previous day. What number of books the stores C & D sold on Friday? 
(a) 162
(b) 158
(c) 150
(d) 160
(e) 168

Q41. Total numbers of books sold from store B on Tuesday and Wednesday together are what percent more or less than total books sold from stores C & D together on Monday?

(e) None of these

Q42. What is the average number of books sold from stores B on Sunday, C on Tuesday and E on Thursday ?
(a) 82
(b) 80
(c) 88
(d) 75
(e) 85

Q43. Find the difference in total number of books sold from stores C and E together on Tuesday and From store B on Monday and Thursday together?
(a) 61
(b) 65
(c) 59
(d) 60
(e) 63

Directions (44-48): What should come in place of the question mark(?) in following no. series?

Q44. 255, 230, 250, 235, 245, ?
(a) 245
(b) 240
(c) 225
(d) 260
(e) 265

Q45. 5, 3.5, 5, ?, 21.5, 56.75
(a) 7.5
(b) 8.5
(c) 9.5
(d) 10.5
(e) 9

Q46. 8, 4, 4, 8, 32, ?
(a) 512
(b) 128
(c) 248
(d) 256
(e) 232

Q47. 129, 128, 124, 115, ?, 74
(a) 99
(b) 98
(c) 101
(d) 97
(e) 103

Q48. 0.5, 1.5, 5, 18, 76, ?
(a) 380
(b) 385
(c) 390
(d) 375
(e) 395

Q49. Average age of A and B, 2 years ago was 26. If age of A 5 years hence is 40 yrs, and B is 5 year younger to C, then find difference between age of A and C?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 9
(d) 12
(e) None of these

Q50. Average of X, Y, Z is 24, X:Y = 2:3, X+Y = 60, then find X-Z=?
(a) 16
(b) 14
(c) 8
(d) 10
(e) 12

Q51. Cost price of two articles is same, trade man got profit of 40% on first article, selling price of second article is 25% less than first article, then find over all profit percent.
(a) 23%
(b) 12 1/2%
(c) 25%
(d) 22 1/2%
(e) None of these

Q52. Length of rectangle is 80% of diagonal of square of area 1225, then find area of rectangle if it's perimeter is 94√2.
(a) 1016
(b) 500
(c) 1604
(d) 1064
(e) 625

Q53. Annual salary of Arun is 7.68 lac. In a month if he spends 12000 on his children, 1/13th of rest on food and 8000 in mutual funds from his monthly salary, then find the monthly saving he is left with.
(a) 40,000
(b) 45,000
(c) 50,000
(d) 36,000
(e) None of these

(a) 2/3
(b) 2/9
(c) 4/9
(d) 9/4
(e) 7/9

Q61. 40% of (102 ÷ 17) × ? = 2³ × 6
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 25
(d) 30
(e) 15

Q62. ? – 2³ = (7² - 12) + (10² - 17)
(a) 132
(b) 126
(c) 124
(d) 128
(e) 130

Q63. 400% of ? = (13 × 15) – (891 ÷ 9)
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 22
(d) 28
(e) 18

Q64. 8² × 8² = 2? × 26 × 24
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 0
(e) 4

Q65. 20% of (2² × 3²) – 2 = ?
(a) 2.5
(b) 5.2
(c) 5.4
(d) 5.6
(e) 6.2

Q66. 20% of 1/5 of 2250 = 50 + ?
(a) 55
(b) 90
(c) 50
(d) 40
(e) 45

Q67. 986 – 432 + 116 = ? + (13)2
(a)501
(b)505
(c)401
(d)451
(e)None of these

Q68. 14.2% of 11000 + 15.6% of ? = 3590
(a)12000
(b)13000
(c)14560
(d)12250
(e)13500

Q69. A can do a work in 24 days, B is 20% more efficient than A,if C can do the work in 10 more days than B, find days taken by A and C together to complete the work.
(a) 20/3day
(b) 44/3days
(c) 40/3days
(d) 6 days
(e) None of these

Q70. The ratio of Milk to water is 5:4, if two litres of water is added, ratio becomes 10:9, then find new amount of water in the mixture
(a) 14 L
(b) 16 L
(c) 18 L
(d) 20 L
(e) 22 L

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IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2017 (Reasoning)

 Subject : Reasoning

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are eight persons namely S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z lives on eight different floors from one to eight. Ground floor is number 1 and top floor is number eight but not necessarily in the same order.X lives on odd number floor but does not live on 3rd floor. Z lives immediate below X. More than two person lives between Z and Y. There are six person lives between S and Y. V lives immediate above W but live below T. U does not live above X. W does not live immediate above Y.

Q1. Who lives on floor number five?
(a) U
(b) S
(c) Z
(d) T
(e) None of these

Q2. How many persons live between W and X?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Two
(e) None of these

Q3. Who lives immediate above V?
(a) Z
(b) T
(c) Y 
(d) W
(e) None of these

Q4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Y
(b) V
(c) T
(d) X
(e) W

Q5. Who lives on 2nd floor?
(a) X
(b) S
(c) U
(d) Z
(e) None of these

Directions (6-8): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. 

Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give Answer-

(a) If only Conclusions I follows
(b) If only Conclusions II follows
(c) If either Conclusions I or Conclusion II follows
(d) If neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows
(e) If both Conclusion I and II follows

Q6. StatementSome Dares are Dream.
All Dreams are Real.
No Real is Fake.
Conclusion:-
I. Some Dreams are Fake.
II. All dream is not fake.

Q7. StatementNo Rain is Game.
Some Games are Chain.
No Chain is Lane.
Conclusions:
I. Some Chains are not Rain.
II. Some Games are Lane.

Q8. StatementSome Movie are Ticket.
No Ticket is Popcorn.
Some Popcorn is Burger.
Conclusions:
I. Some Movies are Burger.
II. Some Burgers are not Movie.

Directions (9-13): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight friends A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line (but not necessarily in the same order). Some of them are facing south while some are facing north.(Note: Facing the same direction means. If one is facing north  then the other also faces north and vice versa. Facing opposite directions means. If one is facing North then the other faces south and Vice versa).
Q sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. C sits third to the left of Q. B, is not an immediate neighbour of Q. P, sits third to the right of C. A faces north. D sits to the immediate right of P. D does not sits at any of the extreme end of the line. Only one person sits between R and B. P sits second to the left of R.S sits second to the right of D. Both the immediate neighbour of P faces the same direction to each other. Both the immediate neighbour of C faces the opposite direction to each other. S faces the same direction as D and A faces the same direction as R.

Q9. How many persons sits between D and A?
(a) One
(b) None
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) None of these

Q10. Who among the following pair sits at extreme ends ?
(a) S, Q
(b) D, Q
(c) Q, R
(d) S, R
(e) None of these

Q11. Who sits third to the left of D?
(a) R
(b)B
(c) Q
(d) C
(e) None of these

Q12. Who sits immediate right of B?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) R
(d) S
(e) None of these

Q13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) S
(d) B
(e) D

Directions (14-16): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions:
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusion I and II follow.

Q14. Statements: Z>W>V=K<L<I
Conclusion:
I. W>K
II. I>K

Q15. Statements: Q>B, K<E<B, J≥E, R<Q
Conclusion:
I. Q>K
II. Q=E

Q16. Statement: E = F < G < H; G ≥ I
Conclusions:
I. H > I
II. E > I

Directions (17-21): Study the following alphabetical sequence and answer the questions following it.
A B B C D E F E I B C A F E C B B A C A O B N U V W

Q17. How many C’s are there in the alphabetical series which are immediately preceded by a vowel and immediate followed by consonant?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) More than three
(e) None of these

Q18. If all the vowels are dropped from the series, then which alphabet will be eighth from the left end?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) N
(d ) F
(e) None of these

Q19. How many Vowels are there in the alphabetical series which are immediately preceded by a consonant?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) More than Five
(e) None

Q20. If the position of the 1st and the 14th alphabets, the 2nd and the 15th alphabets, and so on up to the 13th and the 26th alphabets, are interchanged, Then which alphabets will be 7th to the right of 10th alphabets from the right end?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) N
(d)B
(e) None of these

Q21. How many total vowels in the alphabetical series?
(a) Five
(b) Ten
(c) Three
(d) Nine
(e) None of these

Direction (22-26): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are eight notes of different denominations i.e. 1,5,20,50,100,200,500,2000 rupees which are arranged in a circular arrangement facing towards the centre not necessarily in the same order. 50 rupees note is arranged second to the right of 200 rupees note. Odd denominations note will not be immediate neighbour of 200 and 50 rupees note. There will be less than 100 rupee denomination note to the immediate left and immediate right of 100 rupees note except 1 rupee note. 100 rupee note is second to the left of 5 rupees note. 2000 rupees note is second to the left 100 rupees note.

Q22. Which rupee note will be arranged to the immediate left of 50 rupees note?
(a) 100
(b) 2000
(c) 500
(d) 5
(e) None of these

Q23. Which rupee note will be arranged to the third to the right of 5 rupees note?
(a) 2000
(b) 100
(c) 200
(d) 20
(e) None of these

Q24. What will be the sum of note which is immediate left of 50 rupees note and immediate right of 500 rupees note?
(a) 2100
(b) 550
(c) 700
(d) 2200
(e) None of these

Q25. Which denomination note are between 1 and 100 rupees note, when counted clockwise from 1 rupee note?
(a) 5 and 20
(b) 50 and 100
(c) 200 and 2000
(d) 1 and 500
(e) None of these

Q26. Which rupee note will be arranged to the third to the right of 2000 rupees note?
(a) 2000
(b) 100
(c) 200
(d) 20
(e) None of these

Directions (27-31): These questions are based on the following five numbers.
834 427 563 649 975

Q27. If all the digits of numbers are arranged in ascending order within the number, then which of the following is lowest number?
(a) 975
(b) 649
(c) 834
(d) 563
(e) None of these

Q28. If 1st digit of highest number is divided by 2nd digit of 2nd highest number, then what will be the resultant?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) None of these

Q29. If 2 is subtracted from the every even digit and 1 is subtracted from every odd digit number of each number, which number among them will be lowest number?
(a) 834
(b) 427
(c) 563
(d) 649
(e) None of these

Q30. What is addition of 3rd digit of highest number and 2nd digit of lowest number?
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 3
(e) None of these

Q31. If 1st digit of 2nd highest number is divided by 1st digit of lowest number, then what will be the resultant?
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 4
(e) None of these

Q32. If 1 is subtracted from each even number and 2 is subtracted to each odd number in the number 5827936, then how many digits will appear twice in the new number thus formed?
(a) Only 7
(b) Only 5 and 7
(c) 1, 5 and 7
(d) 4, 5 and 9
(e) None of these

Q33. How many letter will be remain at the same position in the word ‘SURFACE’ when they are arranged in the alphabetical order from left to right?
(a) four
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Two
(e) None of these

Q34. There are five person i.e. P, Q, R, S and T. If Q is taller than R and S but smaller than T. S is smaller than T, who is not the tallest. Then who is the tallest person among all?
(a) T
(b) Q
(c) S
(d) P
(e)None of these

Q35. How many pairs of letters are there in the word “SENATOR”which have as many letters between them in the word as in alphabetical series?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four

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IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2017 (English Language)

 Subject : English Language

Directions (1-5): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

When Hurricane Harvey loomed off the coast of my home state of Texas, it seemed to fill the entire Gulf of Mexico. When it roared on land, it pummeled the towns of Rockport and Port Aransas, whose tawny beaches I’ve walked with my kids, pointing out the indigo sails of Portuguese man o’ war jellyfish. Harvey’s eye took direct aim at the University of Texas’ Marine Science Institute, flattening not just the facility itself, but priceless samples awaiting analysis. After Harvey left Port Aransas, it spun back into the Gulf of Mexico over record sea temperatures as great as 4 degrees Fahrenheit above normal. Thermodynamic laws require that warmer air holds more water vapor. The heat armed the storm with a mighty arsenal of water vapor. Then Harvey returned to land, dumping a catastrophic amount of rain on Houston. My Facebook feed filled with pleas for rescue from the rising waters. Friends’ houses flooded — houses that had always been on dry land before. A chemical plant blew up, twice. Toxic chemicals oozed from Superfund sites. Dozens died in the deluge, mostly by drowning. And all the while, alongside the heartbreak and horror, I kept thinking about a strange harbinger: jellyfish. Play Video Diaphanous in form yet menacing in sting, jellyfish have a powerful capacity to capture our imagination. They undulate in a primal rhythm, blinking open and closed like eyes that can peer into the soul of the sea. And what they are seeing are changes produced by us here on land. Because we burn fossil fuels, which release greenhouse gasses, not just the atmosphere but ocean waters are warming. At the same time, our ship traffic transports animals to new places, and sometimes these exotics find home-like conditions where in the past those conditions would have been unsuitable. That’s what happened in the eastern Mediterranean, where a jellyfish from the tropical Indian Ocean has found warm, homey waters and now forms huge aggregations called blooms that stretch for tens of miles every summer. The fierce stings of these animals chase beach-goers out of the water. Their gooey bodies clog machinery at power plants, halting operations. Rampant coastal development provides new habitat for a jellyfish stage called a polyp that looks like a sea anemone. When it finds a hard surface like a dock or a jetty to grow on, a single polyp can proliferate into a dozen or even more medusae. And fields of polyps grow on those hard structures. That’s likely what happened off the coast of Italy, where gas platforms are thought to be the home for a new invasion of jellyfish. In the twentieth century in the Adriatic Sea, moon jellies, pinkish with their characteristic four-leafed clover on top, were a rarity. Now they are ubiquitous. And as we wash pollution into our waters, we create lowoxygen environments. Some jellyfish, with their low metabolic rate due to their a-cellular jelly insides, can survive more easily there than fish, with their oxygen-guzzling muscled tissues. That is part of what happened in the Yellow Sea, where pollution is unchecked. It is the birthplace of a maroon jellyfish that reaches a weight of 500 pounds. Blooms of the creature were a once-a-generation event before 2000 — the kind of thing fishermen mentioned to their sons. But jellyzillas swept from China in the Tsushima Current, have plagued Japan’s coast almost every year of the 21st century. In 2009, a fishing boat caught so many that their weight capsized the vessel. (Fortunately, the crewmembers were rescued.) And our lack of oversight of the fishing industry, which has removed more than 90% of the large fish from the seas, has depleted the predators of jellyfish as well as their competitors. Jellyfish are eaten by some fish, and jellyfish eat the same small zooplankton that fish do. The ecological vacuum left by unrestrained fishing can allow jellyfish to expand their influence in marine ecosystems. That’s what happened off the coast of Namibia, once one of the world. 

Q1. How is jellyfish able to survive in polluted water more than the other fishes?
(I) Jellyfish has oxygen guzzling muscled tissues.
(II) Due to low metabolic rate.
(III) Jellyfish eat small zooplankton to survive.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (II)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) All are correct

Q2. How Hurricane Harvey can be termed as devastating with reference to the passage?
(a) Many people died by drowning.
(b) Hurricane blew up the Chemical plants.
(c) Toxic chemicals got exuded from superfund sites.
(d) Hurricane flooded many houses
(e) All of the above

Q3. What is the author’s main idea regarding the passage?
(a) How to ameliorate ecological imbalance.
(b) The author gave his opinion regarding jellyfish that what they know humans don’t.
(c) Water pollution creating a low oxygen environment affecting aquatic life.
(d) Hurricane Harvey destroyed many lives.
(e) Endangered condition of Jellyfish

Q4. Which of the following statement (s) is/ are true in context of the given passage?
(a) Maroon Jellyfish is found in Yellow sea where pollution is unchecked.
(b) Hurricane Harvey with strong winds battered the entire Gulf of Mexico.
(c) Jellyzillas sweeping from China have afflicted Japan’s coast.
(d) Jellyfish survive more than other fishes in low oxygen environment
(e) All of the above

Q5. Which of the following statement regarding jellyfish is related to the country Namibia?
(a) The attenuation in the number of jellyfish is due to the low oxygen environment.
(b) The predators of Jellyfish are depleting because of uncontrolled fishing.
(c) Jellyfish can proliferate their population in the situation of ecological imbalance.
(d) Both
(b) and
(c)
(e) All are correct

Directions (6-11): In each of the questions given below a sentence is given with one blank. Below each sentence FOUR words are given out of which two can fit the sentence. Five options are given with various combinations of these words.You have to choose the combination with the correct set of words which can fit in the given sentence.

Q6. Would you like to have __________ coffee?
(A) much
(B) more
(C) some
(D) many

(a) A-B
(b) A-D
(c) B-C
(d) C-D
(e) A-C

Q7. The Dysart Unified School District says they are investigating threats made _____________ the district and Dysart High School.
(A) Towards
(B) Against
(C) For
(D) After
(a) A-B
(b) A-D
(c) B-C
(d) C-D
(e) A-C

Q8. I was going ___________ to say hello when I realised that I couldn’t remember his name.
(A) beyond
(B) Over
(C) Through
(D) Across
(a) A-B
(b) A-D
(c) B-C
(d) C-D
(e) B-D

Q9. In 1997 the sales tax was lowered to 4%, then in 2001 it was abolished ___________________.
(A) Together
(B) Laterally
(C) Completely
(D) Altogether
(a) A-B
(b) A-D
(c) B-C
(d) C-D
(e) B-D

Q10. Children _______________ their parents' authority far more nowadays than they did in the past.
(A) Dispute
(B) Question
(C) Confront
(D) Challenge
(a) A-B
(b) A-D
(c) B-C
(d) C-D
(e) B-D

Q11. The United Nations has ____________ its authority to restore peace in the area.
(A) Used
(B) blown
(C) Exercised
(D) refused
(a) A-C
(b) A-D
(c) B-C
(d) C-D
(e) B-D

Directions (12-20): In each of the question given below a/an idiom/phrase is given in bold which is then followed by five options which then tries to decipher its meaning as used in the sentence.Choose the option which gives the meaning of the phrase most appropriately in context of the given sentence.

Q12. She comes across really well on television.
(a) Discover
(b) Express
(c) Behave
(d) Offers
(e) Provide

Q13. The deal was completely open and above board.
(a) Mislead
(b) Profitable
(c) Dupe
(d) Respect
(e) Honest

Q14. For most businessmen, the central questions will turn on taxation.
(a) Matter
(b) Consider
(c) Attack
(d) Concern 
(e) Unsettle

Q15. They sought a controlling interest rather than a takeover
(a) Spend
(b) Partnership
(c) Endorse
(d) Approve
(e) Buyout

Q16. I think he was just putting on an act to get sympathy
(a) Tolerate
(b) Assume
(c) Perform
(d) Deceive
(e) Effect

Q17. I can put up with the house being messy, but I hate it if it's not clean
(a) Ignore
(b) Forget
(c) Delay
(d) Remain
(e) Bear

Q18. He gave in to my suggestion after I had shown him the plans.
(a) Leave
(b) Defeated
(c) Defy
(d) Agree
(e) Resign

Q19. She cut in on a station wagon, forcing the driver to brake.
(a) Interrupt
(b) Stop
(c) Collide
(d) Too close
(e) Carve

Q20. Most patients find that the numbness from the injection wears off after about an hour.
(a) calm
(b) Inflate
(c) Deepen
(d) Fade
(e) Emerge

Direction (21-30): In each of the questions given below a sentence is given which is then divided into five parts out of which last part is correct. There is an error in three part of the sentence and only one part is correct. You have to choose the part as your answer. 

Q21. After he had read (A)/ the first two chapters (B)/ to the novel, (C)/ he had felt like (D)/reading the book in one sitting. (E)
(a) After he had read
(b) the first two chapters
(c) to the novel
(d) he had felt like
(e) All are incorrect

Q22. Since most of the urban people (A) / have been lived (B)/ at polluted areas (C) / they suffers from severe (D) / diseases caused by pollution. (E)
(a) Since most of the urban people
(b) have been lived
(c) at polluted areas
(d) they suffers from severe
(e) All are incorrect

Q23. Broadly speaking of a (A)/ layman language disability (B)/ could be (C) / classified in two groups (D) / namely mental and physical. (E)
(a) Broadly speaking of a
(b) layman language disability
(c) could be
(d) classified in two groups
(e) All are incorrect

Q24. Although there are some (A)/ similarities at the qualification (B)/ of both the candidate (C)/ the differences among them (D)/ are considerably pronounced. (E)
(a) Although there are some
(b) similarities at the qualification
(c) of both the candidate
(d) the differences among them
(e) All are incorrect