user8's blog

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : General English - 10

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : General English - 10

A. Test your knowledge of the prepositions in/at/to/nothing—showing place and movement.

Q1. He lives _____ Zielona Gora.

Q2. She went _____ home.

Q3. Piotrek works _____ Gorzów Wlkp.

Q4. He went _____ his friend’s house.

Q5. She arrived _____ Manchester for the celebrations.

Study Kit For SBI PO Exam

Printed Study Material for All Banks Probationary Officers (PO) Exams

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Subject: 
General: 

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : REASONING - 09

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : REASONING - 09

Directions: In each of the following Questions, there is a certain relationship between two given numbers on one side of :: and one number is given on another side of :: while another number is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relationship with this number as the numbers of the given pair bear : choose the best alternative

Q1. 14 : 9 : : 26 : ?

(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 31
(e) None of these

Q2. 8 : 28 : 27 : ?

(a) 55
(b) 63
(c) 64
(d) 65
(e) None of these

Q3. 68 : 130 : : ? : 350

(a) 210
(b) 216
(c) 222
(d) 240
(e) None of these

Q4. 1 : 1 : : 25 : ?

(a) 26
(b) 125
(c) 240
(d) 625
(e) None of these

Q5. 6 : 18 : : 4 : ?

(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 8
(e) None of these

Study Kit For SBI PO Exam

Printed Study Material for All Banks Probationary Officers (PO) Exams

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Subject: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : सामान्य तर्क - 09

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : सामान्य तर्क - 09

Q1. 44, 40, 34, ?, 16, 4

(a) 28
(b) 26
(c) 21
(d) 19
(e) 38

Q2. 110, 99, 86, ?, 54, 35

(a) 81
(b) 75
(c) 71
(d) 67
(e) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Q3. 2, 3, 5, 6, ? , 9, ?, 12

(a) 9, 11
(b) 11, 8
(c) 8, 11
(d) 8, 10
(e) 13, 15

Q4. 98, 72, ?, 32, 18, 8

(a) 42
(b) 46
(c) 50
(d) 54
(e) 48

निम्नलिखित श्रेणियों में अन्तर्निहित नियम की पहचान करके रिक्त स्थान पर उचित संख्या भरिए ।

Q5. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, (............) :

(a) 43
(b) 47
(c) 51
(d) 53
(e) 49

Study Kit For SBI PO Exam

Printed Study Material for All Banks Probationary Officers (PO) Exams

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Subject: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : Data Interpretation - 08

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : Data Interpretation - 08

Directions: Study the following table to answer these questions.

Percentage of Marks Obtained by 7 Students in 6 Subjects (Maximum marks for each subject are shown in brackets)
 

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
General: 

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : सामान्य तर्क - 07

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : सामान्य तर्क - 07

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Subject: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : Mathematics - 07

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : Mathematics - 07

Q1. Find the product of place value and face value of 5 in 65231.

(a) 28000
(b) 25000
(c) 27000
(d) 26000
(e) None of these

Q2. Find the sum of the first 50 natural numbers.

(a) 1275
(b) 1025
(c) 1235
(d) 1205
(e) None of these

Q3. What is the unit digit in (476 × 198 × 359 × 242)?

(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2
(e) None of these

Q4. What least number must be added to 5718 to make it exactly divisible by 40 ?

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) None of these

Q5. Sum of all prime numbers between 50 and 90 is

(a) 485
(b) 572
(c) 722
(d) 635
(e) None of these

Study Kit For SBI PO Exam

Printed Study Material for All Banks Probationary Officers (PO) Exams

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Subject: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : General English - 06

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : General English - 06

Q1. It was ——————– heavily.

(a) Snowed
(b) Snowing
(c) Snow
(d)  All of the above
(e) None of these

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Subject: 
General: 

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : REASONING - 05

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : REASONING - 05

Q1. Funk : Vitamins : : Curie : ?

(a) Uranium
(b) Radium
(c) Radioactivity
(d) Photography
(e) Thoriam

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Subject: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : सामान्य तर्क - 05

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : सामान्य तर्क - 05

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Subject: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : Data Interpretation - 04

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : Data Interpretation - 04

Directions: Study the following table to answer the given questions.

Number of Students of Different Classes of a School Playing Different Games

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
General: 

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : सामान्य तर्क - 03

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : सामान्य तर्क - 03

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Subject: 
General: 

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : Mathematics - 03

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : Mathematics - 03

1. If 45% of a number is added to the another number, the first number becomes 135 times of the another number. What is the ratio of these two numbers?

(a) 8 : 7
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 7 : 8
(d) 5 : 8

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Subject: 
General: 

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : General English - 02

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : General English - 02

Fill in the blanks with words of the appropriate part of speech.

1. She is ————— beautiful.

(a) Ravishing
(b) Ravishingly
(c) Ravished
(d)Ravish
(e) None of these

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Subject: 
General: 

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : सामान्य तर्क - 01

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : सामान्य तर्क - 01

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Subject: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : REASONING - 01

SBI PO MODEL QUESTION : REASONING - 01

Directions: In each of the following Questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of : : and one word is given on another side of : : while another word is to be found from the given

IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
Subject: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012" ::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

IBPS logo


(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::


1. __________ allows users to upload files to an online site so they can be viewed and edited from another location.

(a) General-purpose applications
(b) Microsoft Outlook
(c) Web-hosted technology
(d) Office Live
(e) None of these

2. What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins so that the text is centered vertically on the printed page ?

(a) Vertical justifying
(b) Vertical adjusting
(c) Dual centering
(d) Horizontal centering
(e) Vertical centering

3. Which of these is not a means of personal communication on the Internet ?

(a) chat
(b) instant messaging
(c) instanotes
(d) electronic mail
(e) None of these

4. What is the overall term for creating, editing, formatting, storing, retrieving, and printing a text document ?

(a) Word processing
(b) Spreadsheet design
(c) Web design
(d) Database management
(e) Presentation generation

5. Fourth-generation mobile technology provides enhanced capabilities allowing the transfer of both __________ data, including full-motion video, high-speed Internet access, and video conferencing.

(a) video data and information
(b) voice and nonvoice
(c) music and video
(d) video and audio
(e) None of these

6. __________ is a form of denial of service attack in which a hostile client repeatedly sends SYN packets to every port on the server using fake IP addresses.

(a) Cyborgaming crime
(b) Memory shaving
(c) Syn flooding
(d) Software piracy
(e) None of these

7. Which of these is a point-and-draw device ?

(a) mouse
(b) scanner
(c) printer
(d) CD-ROM
(e) Keyboard

8. The letter and number of the intersecting column and row is the __________.

(a) cell location
(b) cell position
(c) cell address
(d) cell coordinates
(e) cell contents

9. A set of rules for telling the computer what operations to perform is called a __________.

(a) procedural language
(b) structures
(c) natural language
(d) command language
(e) programming language

10. A detailed written description of the programming cycle and the program, along with the test results and a printout of the program is called __________.

(a) documentation
(b) output
(c) reporting
(d) spec sheets
(e) Directory

11. Forms that are used to organize business data into rows and columns are called __________.

(a) transaction sheets
(b) registers
(c) business forms
(d) sheet-spreads
(e) spreadsheets

12. In Power Point, the Header and Footer button can be found on the Insert tab in what group ?

(a) Illustrations group
(b) Object group
(c) Text group
(d) Tables group
(e) None of these

13. A(n)_________is a set of programs designed to manage the resources of a computer, including starting the computer, managing programs, managing memory, and coordinating tasks between input and output devices.

(a) application suite
(b) compiler
(c) input/output system
(d) interface
(e) operating system (OS)

14. A typical slide in a slide presentation would not include __________.

(a) photo images charts, and graphs
(b) graphs and clip art
(c) clip art and audio clips
(d) full-motion video
(e) content templates

15. The PC productivity tool that manipulates data organized in rows and columns is called a __________.

(a) spreadsheet
(b) word processing document
(c) presentation mechanism
(d) database record manager
(e) EDI creator

16. In the absence of parentheses, the order of operation is __________.

(a) Exponentiation, addition or subtraction, multiplication or division
(b) Addition or subtraction, multiplication or division, exponentiation
(c) Multiplication or division, exponentiation, addition or subtraction
(d) Exponentiation, multiplication or division, addition or subtraction
(e) Addition or subtraction, exponentiation, Multiplication or division

17. To find the Paste Special option, you use the Clipboard group on the _____ tab of PowerPoint.

(a) Design
(b) Slide Show
(c) Page Layout
(d) Insert
(e) Home

18. An _____ program is one that is ready to run and does not need to be altered in any way.

(a) interpreter
(b) high-level
(c) compiler
(d) COBOL
(e) executable

19. Usually downloaded into folders that hold temporary Internet files, _____ are written to your computer's hard disk by some of the Web sites you visit.

(a) anonymous files
(b) behaviour files
(c) banner ads
(d) large files
(e) cookies

20. What is the easiest way to change the phrase, revenues, profits, gross margin, to read revenues, profits, and gross margin ?

(a) Use the insert mode, position the cursor before the g gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(b) Use the insert mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(c) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(d) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(e) None of these

21. A program, either talk or music, that is made available in digital format tor automatic download over the Internet is called a __________.

(a) wiki
(b) broadcast
(c) vodcast
(d) blog
(e) podcast

22. Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the presentation as a thumbnail and is useful for rearranging slides ?

(a) Slide Sorter
(b) Slide Show
(c) Slide Master
(d) Notes Page
(e) Slide Design

23. Different components on the motherboard of a PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called ?

(a) Conductors
(b) Buses
(c) Connectors
(d) Consecutives
(e) None of these

24. What is the name given to those applications that combine text, sound, graphics, motion video, and/ or animation ?

(a) motionware
(b) anigraphics
(c) videoscapes
(d) multimedia
(e) maxomedia

25. A USB communication device that supports data encryption for secure wireless communication for notebook users is called a __________.

(a) USB wireless network adapter
(b) wireless switch
(c) wireless hub
(d) router
(e) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

IBPS logo


(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2012 "Held on: 17-06-2012"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate  them while answering some of the questions.

When times are hard, doomsayers are aplenty. The problem is that if you listen to them too carefully, you tend to overlook the most obvious signs of change. 2011 was a bad year. Can 2012 be any worse? Doomsday forecasts are the easiest to make these days. So let's try a contrarian's forecast instead. Let's start with the global economy. We have seen a steady flow of good news from the US. The employment situation seems to be improving rapidly and consumer sentiment, reflected in retail expenditures on discretionary items like electronics and clothes, has picked up. If these trends sustain, the US might post better growth numbers for 2012 than the 1.5-1.8 percent being forecast currently. Japan is likely to pull out of a recession in 2012 as postearthquake reconstruction efforts gather momentum and the fiscal stimulus announced in 2011 begins to pay off. The consensus estimate for growth in Japan is a respectable 2 per cent for 2012. The "hard-landing" scenario for China remains and will remain a myth. Growth might decelerate further from the 9 per cent that it expected to clock in 2011 but is unlikely to drop below 8-8.5 percent in 2012. Europe is certainly in a spot of trouble. It is perhaps already in recession and for 2012 it is likely to post mildly negative growth. The risk of implosion has dwindled over the last few months - peripheral economies like Greece, Italy and Spain have new governments in place and have made progress towards genuine economic reform. Even with some of these positive factors in place, we have to accept the fact that global growth in 2012 will be tepid. But there is a flipside to this. Softer growth means lower demand for commodities and this is likely to drive a correction in commodity prices. Lower commodity inflation will enable emerging market central banks to reverse their monetary stance. China, for instance, has already reversed its stance and has pared its reserve ratio twice. The RBI also seems poised for a reversal in its rate cycle as headline inflation seems well on its way to its target of 7 per cent for March 2012. That said, oil might be an exception to the general trend in commodities. Rising geopolitical tensions, particularly the continuing face-off between Iran and the US, might lead to a spurt in prices. It might make sense for our oil companies to hedge this risk instead of buying oil in the spot market. As inflation fears abate and emerging market central banks begin to cut rates, two things could happen Lower commodity inflation would mean lower interest rates and better credit availability. This could set a floor to growth and slowly reverse the business cycle within these economies. Second, as the fear of untamed, runaway inflation in these economies abates, the global investor's comfort levels with their markets will increase. Which of the emerging markets will outperform and who will get left behind? In an environment in which global growth is likely to be weak, economies like India that have a powerful domestic consumption dynamic should lead; those dependent on exports should, prima facie, fall behind. Specifically for India, a fall in the exchange rate could not have come at a better time. It will help Indian exporters gain market share even it global trade remains depressed. More importantly, it could lead to massive import substitution that favours domestic producers. Let's now focus on India and start with a caveat. It is important not to confuse a short-run cyclical dip with a permanent de-rating of its long-term structural potential. The arithmetic is simple. Our growth rate can be in the range of 7-10 per cent depending on policy action.  Ten per cent if we get everything right, 7 per cent if we get it all wrong. Which policies and reforms are critical to taking us to our 10 per cent potential ? In judging this, let's again be careful. Lets not go by the laundry list of reforms that FIIs like to wave: increase in foreign equity limits in foreign shareholding, greater voting rights tor institutional shareholders in banks, FDI in retail, etc. These can have an impact only at the margin. We need not bend over backwards to appease the FIIs through these reforms - they will invest in our markets when momentum picks up and will be the first to exit when the momentum flags, reforms or not. The reforms that we need are the ones that can actually raise out. Sustainable long-term growth rate. These have to come in areas like better targeting of subsidies, making projects in infrastructure viable so that they draw capital, raising the productivity of agriculture, improving healthcare and education, bringing the parallel economy under the tax net, implementing fundamental reforms in taxation like GST and the direct tax code and finally easing the myriad rules andregulations that make doing business in India such a nightmare. A number of these things do not require new legislation and can be done through executive order.

1. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage ?

(a) China's economic growth may decline in the year 2012 as compared to the year 2011
(b) The European economy is not doing very well
(c) Greece is on the verge of bringing about economic reforms
(d) In the year 2012, Japan may post a positive growth and thus pull out of recession
(e) All are true

2. Which of the following will possibly be a result of softer growth estimated for the year 2012 ?

(A) Prices of oil will not increase.
(B) Credit availability would be lesser.
(C) Commodity inflation would be lesser.

(a) Only (B)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (A) and (C)
(d) Only (C)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

3 Which of the following can be said about the present status of the US economy ?

(a) There is not much improvement in the economic scenario of the country from the year 2011
(b) The growth in the economy of the country, in the year 2012, would definitely be lesser than 1.8 percent
(c) The expenditure on clothes and electronic commodities, by consumers, is lesser than that in the year 2011
(d) There is a chance that in 2012 the economy would do better than what has been forecast
(e) The pace of change in the employment scenario of the country is very slow.

4. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?

(a) The Economic Disorder
(b) Indian Economy Versus The European Economy
(c) Global Trade
(d) The Current Economic Scenario
(e) Characteristics of The Indian Economy

5. According to the author, which of the following would characterize Indian growth scenario in 2012 ?

(A) Domestic producers will take a hit because of depressed global trade scenario.
(B) On account of its high domestic consumption, India will lead.
(C) Indian exporters will have a hard time in gaining market share.

(a) Only (B)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (B) and (C)
(d) Only (A)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

6. Why does the author not recommend taking up the reforms suggested by FII's ?

(a) These will bring about only minor growth
(b) The reforms suggested will have no effect on the economy ol our country, whereas will benefit the FII's significantly
(c) The previous such recommendations had backfired
(d) These reforms will be the sole reason for our country's economic downfall
(e) The reforms suggested by them are not to be trusted as they will not bring about any positive growth in India

7. Which of the following is TRUE as per the scenario presented in the passage?

(a) The highest growth rate that India can expect is 7 percent
(b) The fall in the exchange rate will prove beneficial to India
(c) Increased FDI in retail as suggested by Flls would benefit India tremendously
(d) The reforms suggested by the author require new legislation in India
(e) None is true

8. According to the author, which ot the following reform/s is/ are needed to ensure long term growth in India?

(A) Improving healthcare and educational facilities.
(B) Bringing about reforms in taxation.
(C) Improving agricultural productivity.

(a) Only (B)
(b) Only (A) and (B)
(c) Only (B) and (C)
(d) Only (A)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9-12) : Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. DRAW

(a) entice
(b) push
(c) decoy
(d) attract
(e) persuade

10. CLOCK

(a) watch
(b) achieve
(c) time
(d) second
(e) regulate

11. ABATE

(a) rise
(b) gear
(c) hurl
(d) lessen
(e) retreat

12. EMERGING

(a) raising
(b) developing
(c) noticeable
(d) conspicuous
(e) uproaring

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13-15) : Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. MYRIAD

(a) trivial
(b) difficult
(c) few
(d) effortless
(e) countless

14. TEPID

(a) moderate
(b) high
(c) warm
(d) irregular
(e) little

15. MYTH

(a) reality
(b) belief
(c) contrast
(d) idealism
(e) falsehood

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) If China is the world's factory, India has become the world's outsourcing centre - keeping in line with this image.
(B) But India's future depends crucially on its ability to compete fully in the Creative Economy - not just in tech and software, but across design and entrepreneurship; arts, culture and entertainment; and the knowledge-based professions of medicine, finance and law.
(C) While its creative assets outstrip those of other emerging competitors, India must address several challenges to increase its international competitiveness as the world is in the midst of a sweeping transformation.
(D) This transformation is evident in the fact that the world is moving from an industrial economy to a Creative Economy that generates wealth by harnessing intellectual labour, intangible goods and human creative capabilities.
(E) Its software industry is the world's second-largest, its tech outsourcing accounts for more than hall of the $ 300 billion global industry, according to a technology expert.
(F) If the meeting of world leaders at Davos is any indication, India is rapidly becoming an economic'rock star'.

16. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

17. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

18. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
(e) E

19. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) F
(b) B
(c) C
(d) A
(e) E

20. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25) : The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words denoted by A, B, C, D, E & F as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

21. ___________ before the clock struck 8 on Saturday night, India Gate was swamped with people wearing black teeshirts and holding candles.

(A) Minutes
(B) Time
(C) Later
(D) Quickly
(E) Since
(F) Seconds

(a) (B) and (E)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (A) and(F)
(d) (B) and (D)
(e) (C) and (E)

22. The Stales should take steps to the process of teachers" appointments as the Centre has already sanctioned six lakh posts.

(A) fasten
(B) move
(C) hasten
(D) speed
(E) early
(F) quicken

(a) (D) and (F)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (C) and (F)
(d) (D) and (E)
(e) (B) and (D)

23. A senior citizen's son threatened her every day and physically harmed her, forcing her to transfer her properly to him.

(A) superficially
(B) mistakenly
(C) allegedly
(D) miserably
(E) doubtfully
(F) purportedly

(a) (C) and (F)
(b) (A) and (E)
(c) (C) and (E)
(d) (D) and (F)
(e) (A) and (C)

24. Medical teachers said that the management had continued o remain to their cause leading to the stretching of their strike.

(A) unmoved
(B) lethargic
(C) unconcerned
(D) apathetic
(E) indifferent (F) bored

(a) (B) and (C)
(b) (C) and (F)
(c) (A) and (E)
(d) (A) and (D)
(e) (D) and (E)

25. The parents had approached the high court to the government order after their children, who passed UKG, were denied admission by a school.

(A) void
(B) quash
(C) annual
(D) stay
(E) lift
(F) post

(a) (A) and (D)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (C) and (E)
(d) (E) and (F)
(e) (C) and (D)

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "Computer Knowledge"

IBPS logo


IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  Computer Knowledge


181. Macros stored in the global macro sheet can be used

(1) in the current document only
(2) in any document
(3) can be used only with other macros of  the global macro sheet
(4) not consistent behaviour
(5) None of the above

182. About pasting from the clip board

(1) a part of the clip board contents can be pasted
(2) whole of the contents of clip board can be pasted
(3) sometimes (1) and sometimes (2)
(4) (1) and (2)
(5) None of the above

183. One of the following statements is not true for BUFFERS command

(1) Increasing numbers of BUFFERS can speed program execution, but only to a certain extent
(2) The more buffers that exist the more sectors can be stored in memory; hence fewer accesses of disk are necessary
(3) The BUFFERS command is used to establish the number of disk buffers set up by MS-DOS during booting
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

184. EPROM can be used for

(1) erasing the contents of ROM
(2) reconstructing the contents of ROM
(3) erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
(4) duplicating the ROM
(5) None of the above

185. Attributes can be defined for

(1) entity
(2) switch board
(3) macro
(4) pages
(5) None of the above

186. Where will we find the referential integrity command ?

(1) Tools
(2) View
(3) Format
(4) Table
(5) None of these

187. Anything that is typed in a worksheet appears

(1) in the formula bar only
(2) in the active cell only
(3) in both active cell and formula bar
(4) in the formula bar first and when we press ENTER it appears in active cell
(5) None of the above

188. Which bar is usually located below the Title Bar that provides categorised options ?

(1) Menu Bar (2) Status Bar
(3) Toolbar (4) Scroll Bar
(5) None of the above

189. A pixel is

(1) a computer program that draws picture
(2) a picture stored in the secondary memory
(3) the smallest resolvable part of a picture
(4) a virus
(5) None of the above

190. How many types of cell references are available in Excel ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 10
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "General Awareness"

IBPS logo


IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  General Awareness


141. Which of the following is a receipt listed in India and traded in rupees declaring ownership of shares of a foreign company?

(1) Indian Depository Receipt (IDR)
(2) European Depository Receipt (EDR)
(3) Global Depository Receipt (GDR)
(4) American Depository Receipt (ADR)
(5) Luxemburg Depository Receipt (LDR)

142. A bank without any branch network that offers its services remotely through online banking, telephone/mobile banking and interbank ATM network alliances is known as

(1) Universal Banking
(2) Indirect Bank
(3) Door Step Bank
(4) A Direct Bank
(5) Unit Banking

143. Which of the following Indian Universities is Asia’s largest residential university?

(1) Allahabad University
(2) Utkal University
(3) Banaras Hindu University
(4) Anna University
(5) Jawaharlal Nehru University

144. In October, 2013, which country has confirmed plans to create a secure mail service to protect its citizens and businesses against foreign espionage?

(1) Mexico
(2) Brazil
(3) Sweden
(4) Germany
(5) None of these

145. The campaign name ‘Heal India’ aims to create awareness about which of the following diseases?

(1) Mental illness
(2) AIDS
(3) Leprosy
(4) Alzheimer
(5) None of these

146. The target set by the UIDAI for issuance of Aadhaar cards upto 2014 is

(1) 50 crore cards
(2) 55 crore cards
(3) 45 crore cards
(4) 40 crore cards
(5) 60 crore cards

147. Which of the following nations has signed a comprehensive free trade agreement with European Union?

(1) Japan
(2) China
(3) Russia
(4) Canada
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "Quantitative Aptitude"

IBPS logo


IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude


Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information given in three Statements I, II and III. You have to study the question along with the statements and decide the information given in which of the statement(s) is necessary to answer the question.

91. In how many days 10 women can finish the work?

I. 10 men finish the work in 6 days.
II. 10 women and 10 men finish the work in days.
III. If 10 men work 3 days and after that 10 women are deployed to work for men, the rest work is finished in 4 days.

(1) I and II
(2) Any two of three
(3) I and III
(4) II and III
(5) None of these

92. What is the present age of Sabir?

I. The present age of Sabir is half of his father’s age.
II. After five years the ratio of ages of Sabir and his father is 6:11.
III. Sabir is younger to his brother by five years.

(1) 1 and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) All of these
(5) Cannot be determined

93. What is two digit number?

I. The difference between the number and the number formed by interchanging the digit is 27.
II. The difference between two digits is 3.
III. The digit at unit’s place is less than that at ten’s place by 3.

(1) 1 and II
(2) I and either II or III
(3) I and III
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

94. What is the rate of interest Percent per annum?

I. An amount doubles itself in 5 yr on simple interest.
II. Difference between the compound interest and the simple interest earned on a certain amount in two years is Rs400.
III. Simple interest earned per annum is Rs2000.

(1) Only I
(2) II and III
(3) Any two of three
(4) I or II and III
(5) Only I or II and III

95. What is the cost of flooring the rectangular hall?

I. Length and the breadth of the hall are in the ratio of 3:2.
II. Length of the hall is 48 m and cost of flooring is Rs850 per sq m.
III. Perimeter of the hall is 160 m and cost of flooring is Rs850 per sq m.
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) Only III
(4) I and either II or III
(5) Any two of the three

96. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and the denominator is increased by 25%, the fraction obtained is . What was the original fraction?

(1) 5/7
(2) 4/7
(3) 3/8
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the three

97. If the positions of the digits of a two-digit number are interchanged, the number obtained is smaller than the original number by 27. If the digits of the number are in the ratio of 1 : 2, what is the original number?

(1) 36 (2) 63
(3) 48
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

98. One of the angles of a quadrilateral is thrice the smaller angle of a parallelogram. The respective ratio between the adjacent angles of the parallelogram is 4:5. Remaining three angles of the quadrilateral are in ratio 4:11:9 respectively. What is the sum of the largest and the smallest angles of the quadrilateral?

(1) 255°
(2) 260°
(3) 265°
(4) 270°
(5) None of these

99. An aeroplane flies with an average speed of 756 km/h. A helicopter takes 48 h to cover twice the distance covered by aeroplane in 9 h. How much distance will the helicopter cover in 18 h? (Assuming that flights are non-stop and moving with uniform speed.)

(1) 5010 km
(2) 4875 km
(3) 5760 km
(4) 5103 km
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 105-109) In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

105. 29, 37, 21,43 ,13, 53, 5

(1) 37
(2) 53
(3) 13
(4) 21
(5) 43

106. 600, 125, 30, 13, 7.2, 6.44, 6.288

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 12
(5) None of these

107. 80, 42, 24, 13.5, 8.75, 6.375, 5.1875

(1) 8.75
(2) 13.5
(3) 24
(4) 6.375
(5) 42

108. 10, 8, 13, 35, 135, 671, 4007

(1) 8
(2) 671
(3) 135
(4) 13
(5) 35

109. 150, 290, 560, 1120, 2140, 4230, 8400

(1) 2140
(2) 560
(3) 1120
(4) 4230
(5) 290

Directions (Q.Nos. 110-114) These questions are based on the following data. The distribution of appeared and qualified aspirants in competitive examination from different States.

Total appeared aspirants = 45000

110. What is the ratio of the number of appeared aspirants from States C and E together to that of the appeared aspirants from States A and F together?

(1) 17:33
(2) 11:13
(3) 13:27
(4) 17:27
(5) None of these

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "English Language"

 

IBPS logo

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-58) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through the wealth destruction already taking place in the U.S as a result of the financial crisis. Stock markets tumbled as exports plunged and economic growth deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as credit tightened and buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia swung back to greed as the region shows signs of recovery and property and stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia. Why should this sharp Asian turnaround be greeted with skepticism? Higher asset prices mean households feel wealthier and better able to spend, which could further fuel the region’s nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself saddled with overheated markets similar to the U.S. housing market.

In short, the world has not changed, it has just moved placed. The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response to the global credit crunch of 2008. Policy makers in Asia I slashed interest rates and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing and economies growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a deepening economic crisis. But there is evidence that there is too much easy money around. It’s winding up in stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the undenying economic fundamentals. Much of the concern is focused on China where government stimulus efforts have been large and effective, Money in China has been especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending surged 201% in first half of 2009 from the same period a year earlier, to nearly 51.1 turn on. Exuberance over a quick recovery which was given a boost by China’s surprisingly strong 7.9% GDP growth in the second quarter has buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real estate.

Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be recognised in hand sight. But investors who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too far and that the slightest bit of negative, economic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asia’s central bankers will begin taking stops to shut off the money. Rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening credit led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, there is close to a zero possibility that the Chinese \ government will do anything this year that constitutes tightening. And without a major shift in thinking, the easy-money conditions will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought possible over the past two years. Asia may be neading for another disheartening plunge.

51. To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008 Asian financial crisis?

(A) Reluctance or Asian governments to taper off the economic stimulus.
(B) Greed of Asian investors causing them to trade 1 stocks of American companies at high prices.
(C) Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries.

(1) None
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) Only (B)

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

52. What does the author want to convey through the phrase “The world has not changed it has just moved places”?

(1) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economies than on the US economy
(2) Economies have become interlinked on account of globalisation
(3) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries
(4) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
(5) None of the above

53. Which of the following can be said about the Chinese government’s efforts to revive the economy?

(1) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
(2) The governments only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
(3) These efforts were ineffectual as-the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilising
(4) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
(5) They blindly imitated the economic reforms adopted by the US

54. Why do experts predict that Asian policymakers will not withdraw fiscal stimulus?

(A) The US economy is not likely to recover for a long time.
(B) Stock markets are yet to regain their former levels.
(C) Fear of revolt by greedy citizens.
(1) None of these
(2) Only (C)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) (B) and (C)

55. What do the statistics about loans given by Chinese banks in 2009 indicate?

(1) There was hardly any demand for loans in 2008
(2) The Chinese government has borrowed funds from the US
(3) China will take longer than the US to recover from the economic crisis
(4) The GDP of China was below expectations
(5) None of the above

56. Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored?

(A) Existing property prices which are stable and affordable.
(B) The government has decided to tighten credit.
(C) Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures.

(1) Only (C)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) All (A), (B) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) None of these

57. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?

(1) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed countries
(2) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided
(3) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over sound economic-principles
(4) Extolling China’s incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it
(5) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic fundamentals

58. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics?

(1) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
(2) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash
(3) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
(4) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
(5) None of the above


Directions (Q.Nos. 59-65) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Delays of several months in National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) wage payments and work sites where labourers have lost all hope of being paid at all have become the norm in many states. How are workers who exist on the margins of subsistence supposed to feed their families? Under the scheme, workers must be paid within 15 days, failing which they are entitled, to compensation under the Payment of Wages Act – upto 3000 per aggrieved worker. In reality, compensation is received in only a few isolated instances. It is often argued by officials that the main reason for the delay is the inability of banks and post offices to handle mass payments of NREGS wages. Though there is a grain of truth in this, as a diagnosis it is misleading. The ‘jam’ in the banking system has been the result of the hasty switch to bank payments imposed by the Central Government against the recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council which advocated a gradual transition starting with villages relatively close to the nearest bank. However, delays are not confined solely to the banking system. Operational hurdles include implementing agencies taking more than fifteen days to issue payment orders, viewing of work measurement as a cumbersome process resulting in procrastination by the engineering staff and non maintenance of muster rolls and job card etc. But behind these delays lies a deeper and deliberate ‘backlash’ against the NREGS. With bank payments making it much harder to embezzle NREGS funds, the programme is seen as a headache by many government functionaries the workload has remained without the “inducements”. Slowing down wage payments is a convenient way of sabotaging the scheme because workers will desert NREGS worksites.

The common sense solution advocated by the government is to adopt the business correspondent model. Where in bank agents will go to villages to make cash payments and duly record them on handheld, electronic devices. This solution is based on the wrong diagnosis that distance separating villages from banks is the main issue. In order to accelerate payments, clear timelines for every step of the payment process should be incorporated into the system as Programme Officers often have no data on delays and cannot exert due pressure to remedy the situation. Workers are both clueless and powerless with no provision for them to air their grievances and seek redress. In drought affected areas the system of piece rate work can be dispensed with where work measurement is not completed within a week and wages may be paid on the basis of attendance. Buffer funds can be provided to gram panchayats and post offices to avoid bottlenecks in the flow of funds. Partial advances could also be considered provided wage payments are meticulously tracked. But failure to recognise problems and unwillingness to remedy them will remain major threats to the NREGS.
 

59. What impact have late wage payments had on NREGS workers?

(1) They cannot obtain employment till their dues are cleared
(2) They have benefited from the compensation awarded to them
(3) They have been unable to provide for their families
(4) They have been ostracised by their families who depend on them for sustenance
(5) None of the above

60. Which of the following factors has not been responsible for untimely payment of NREGS wages?

(1) Communication delays between agencies implementing the scheme
(2) Improper record keeping
(3) Behind schedule release of payments by banks
(4) Drought conditions prevalent in the country
(5) Delays in work measurement

61. What has the outcome of disbursing NREGS wages through banks been?

(1) Theft of funds by administration officials responsible for the scheme has reduced
(2) Increased work load for local government officials
(3) Protests by workers who have to travel long distances to the nearest bank to claim their wages
(4) Time consuming formalities have to be completed by workers
(5) None of the above

62. According to the passage, which of the following has/have been the consequence (s) of delayed wage payments?

(A) Compensation to victimised workers has amounted to crores.
(B) Banks will no longer be entrusted with remitting wages.
(C) Regulations to ensure punctual wage payments have come into force.

(1) None of these
(2) Only (A)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) (B) and (C)

63. To which of the following has the author attributed the delay in wage payments?

(1) Embezzlement of funds by corrupt bank staff
(2) Lack of monitoring by the Central Employment Guarantee Council
(3) An attempt to derail the NREGS by vested interests
(4) Overworked bank staff deliberately delay payments to protest against extra work
(5) Engineers’ efforts to wreck the NREGS because of low wages

64. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?

(A) Workers are reluctant to open bank accounts as branches are not conveniently located.
(B) Local officials often delay wage payments in drought prone areas to benefit workers.
(C) The Government has not implemented every recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council.

(1) Only(B)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and (C) (4) (A) and (C)
(5) All of these

65. Which of the following can be considered a deficiency in the NREGS?

(1) Lack of co-ordination among Programme Officers
(2) Local officials are unaware of correct operational procedures
(3) Workers have no means of obtaining redressal for untimely wage payments
(4) Disbursing wages through banks instead of readily accessible post offices
(5) The Central Employment Guarantee Council is reluctant to award compensation to workers
Directions (Q. No. 66-70) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) (E) and (F) into a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it.
(A) Moreover salaries in public sector enterprises are not as competitive as those offered by private or foreign corporates.
(B) This trend should be a wake up call for stakeholders to examine why employees are seeking better opportunities with private companies in India and abroad.
(C) Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) have been experiencing severe challenges in attracting motivating and retaining their key staff.
(D) Having identified these as the reasons employees leave PSEs it is important empower stakeholders to find ways to remedy the situation.
(E) One reason is that young employees lured away to private firms are more willing to undertake professional risks.
(F) Employees in specialist roles especially have become increasingly difficult to retain.

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "Reasoning"

IBPS logo

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  Reasoning


Directions (Q.No. 1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

An organization wants to recruit system analysts. The following conditions apply.

The candidate must

(i) be an engineering graduate in computer/IT. with at least 60% marks.
(ii) have working experience in the field of computer at least for 2 yr after acquiring the requisite qualification,
(iii) have completed minimum 25 yr and maximum 30 yr of age As on 1.12.2013.
(iv) be willing to sign a bond for Rs 50000.
(v) have secured minimum 55% marks in selection test.

However, if a candidate fulfils all other conditions Except

(a) at (i) above, but is an Electronics Engineer with 65% or more marks the case is to be referred to the General Manager (GM)-IT.
(b) at (iv) above, but has an experience of atleast 5 yr as a Software Manager, the case is to be referred to the VP.

In each question below, detailed information of candidate is given. You have to carefully study the information provided in each case and take one of the following courses of actions based on the information and the conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.12.2013. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows

Give Answer

(1) If the case is to be referred to VP
(2) If the case is to be referred to GM
(3) If the data provided is not sufficient to take a decision
(4) If the candidate is to be selected
(5) If the candidate is not to be selected

1. Ms. Suneeta is an IT Engineer with 60% marks at graduation as well as in selection test. She is working as a Software Engineer for last 3 yr after completing engineering degree and has completed 27 yr of age. She is willing to sign the bond of Rs 50000.

2. Rakesh Rao is a Computer Engineer Graduate and thereafter is working as a Software Manager for last 6 yr. He has secured 72% marks at graduation and 67% marks in selection test. His date of birth is 5th December, 1984. He is not willing to sign the bond for Rs50000.

3. Ramkumar is an Engineering graduate in computers with 78% marks passed out in 2007 at the age of 23 yr. Since, then he is working as a Software Manager in an engineering firm. He doesn’t want to sign the bond for Rs 50000. He has cleared the selection test with 72% marks.

4. Nishant is an Electronics Engineer passed out in June, 2010 at the age of 22 yr. Since, then he is working as a Programmer in a software company. He has passed the selection test with 66% marks and is willing to sign the bond.

5. Kalyani is an Engineer with 72% marks in Telecommunication. She has just completed 27 yr of age. She has cleared the selection test with 59% marks. She is willing to sign the bond.

Direction (Q.No. 6) Analyse the following passage and answer the question.


Some words are highly inflammable. Fusion is one of them. You can get two sets of people into a war mode by just uttering the words ‘fusion music’. One set will breathe fire and say it violates the purity of music the other set will tell you earnestly that it opens up the borders of music.

6. From the purists perspective, the ‘war’ between the two set of people can best be

(1) categorized as an ideological conflict between two ideas
(2) termed as a conflict between generations the younger versus the older generation
(3) an attempt to preserve the core principles
(4) seen as an attempt of people at the margin to occupy centre stage
(5) seen as preserving the social identity of purists
 

7. Unlike other retail outlets, where items are purchased in any number of units the customer wants, in super-markets items are grouped in bulk packages. This bulk buying offers saving to the customer. The option to buy at wholesale prices by buying in bulk makes super-market a “practical choice for budget-conscious consumers.

Which of the following assumption may be drived from the above information.
 

(1) Super-markets often have greater buying power and lower overhead costs, so they can offer a greater variety of products than regular retail outlets
(2) Super-markets are often more conveniently located and have better parking facilities
(3) The emergence of super-markets has caused many small retail stores to close down and thus eliminate competitions
(4) It is economically wise to buy single items since bulk packages seldom offer significant savings
(5) The financial savings from purchasing bulk packages may outweigh the inconvenience of being unable to purchase in any number of units that suits the customers’ need

8. Nations do not complete with each other in the way corporations do.

Which of the following most favours the weakness of the argument ?

(1) Trade deficit is a sign of national strength, profits are a sign of corporate strength
(2) Increase in human development index improves national standing, increase in market share improves corporate standing
(3) Climate change negotiations lead to global improvement; CSR initiatives lead to image improvement
(4) Nations go to war to capture territory, corporates contend against each other to capture market share
(5) None of the above

9. Civilization has taught us to be friendlier towards one another
Which of the following most favours the strengthens of the argument?

(1) Cats are loyal to their children, whereas men are loyal to their communities
(2) Elephants move in a herd, whereas men live in nuclear families
(3) Lions protect their own territories, whereas men capture other men’s territories
(4) Nilgai and Cheetal stay together, whereas men of one race dominate another
(5) None of the above

10. The mushrooming of business schools in the country is a cause for shortage of faculty with Ph.D qualification. In addition, the higher pay and generous fringe benefits given by industry has encouraged qualified people to not seek academic positions.
Which of the following statements, if true, would tend to STRENGTHEN the argument?

(1) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is more than the average salary for faculty positions in some business schools in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(2) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is less than the average salary for faculty positions in a top business school in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(3) The average salary for recent Ph.D graduates in the industry is 20% higher than that in academics
(4) The rate of growth of salaries for the industry positions has been higher than the rate of growth of salaries for academic positions for the past three years
(5) None of the above


Directions (Q. Nos 11 -13) Study the information given below carefully to answer the following questions.
In a certain code language the following lines written as

 

‘lop eop aop fop’ means ‘Traders are above laws’
‘fop cop bop gop’ means ‘Developers were above profitable’
‘aop bop uop qop’ means ‘Developers stopped following traders’
‘cop jop eop uop’ means ‘Following maps were laws’

11. ‘Developers are following laws’ would be correctly written as

(1) ‘bop cop uop eop’
(2) ‘lop bop eop uop’
(3) ‘oup cop lop aop’
(4) ‘gop cop uop qop’
(5) None of these

12. ‘qop gop cop eop’ would correctly mean

(1) profitable laws were stopped
(2) developers stopped following laws
(3) traders were above profitable
(4) were laws profitable traders
(5) None of the above

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

13. ‘aop qop bop’ would correctly mean

(1) following were above
(2) traders stopped developers
(3) developers are laws
(4) traders above stopped
(5) laws are stopped

Directions (Q.Nos. 14-18) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements- to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

14. Statements All petals are flowers. Some flowers are buds. Some buds are leaves. All leaves are plants.

Conclusions

I. Some petals are not buds.
II. Some flowers are plants.
III. No flower is plant.

(1) Only I follows
(2) Either II or III follows
(3) I and II follow
(4) Only III follows
(5) None of the above

15. Statements Some pens are keys. Some keys are locks. All locks are cards. No card is paper.

Conclusions

I. No lock is paper.
II. Some cards are keys.
III. Some keys are not paper.

(1) I and II follow
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) All follow
(5) None follows

16. Statements Some pearls are gems. All gems are diamonds. No diamond is stone. Some stones are corals.

Conclusions

I. Some stones are pearls.
II. Some corals being diamond is a possibility.
III. No stone is pearl.

(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Either I or III follows
(4) I and II follow
(5) None of these

17. Statements Some apartments are flats. Some flats are buildings. All buildings are bungalows. All bungalows are gardens.

Conclusions

I. All apartments being building is a possibility
II. All bungalows are not buildings.
III. No flat is garden.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Either I or III follows
(4) II and III follow
(5) Only II follows
 

18.  Statements All chairs are tables. All tables are bottles. Some bottles are jars. No jar is bucket.

Conclusions

 I. Some tables being jar is a possibility.
II. Some bottles are chairs.
III. Some bottles are not bucket.
(1) Only I follows (2) I and II follow
(3) All follow (4) Only II follows
(5) None of these

19. A person starts from point P in East and moves 12 m to point Q. Then, he moves right 8 m to point R. Again he moves right for 6m to point S. Then, he moves 6 m in the North to point T. Finally from there he goes to left for 6 m to point U. Which of three point he would form a triangle whose all the angles are less than 90°.

(1) PTQ
(2) QTR
(3) UTS
(4) TSR
(5) SQR


Directions (Q.Nos. 20-25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing either the centre or outside. Each one of them belongs to a different department viz. Finance, Marketing Sales, HR, Corporate Finance, Investment Banking and Operations but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits third to the right of G.C faces the centre. Only one person sits between C and the person working in the HR department immediate neighbours of C face outside. Only one person sits between F and D. Both F and D face the centre. D does not work in the HR department. A works in Investment Banking Department. A faces the centre. Two people sit between the persons who work in Investment Banking and Marketing Departments. The person who works in Corporate Finance sits to the immediate left of E. C faces same direction as E. The person who works in corporate finance sits to the immediate left of the person who works for Operations department.

 

20. For which of the following departments does B work?

(1) Finance
(2) Marketing
(3) HR
(4) Corporate Finance
(5) Operations

21. What is position of B with respect to the person who works for Sales department ?

(1) Immediate right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the right
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the right

22. Who sits to the immediate right of E ?

(1) The person who works for Marketing department
(2) C
(3) B
(4) The person who works for HR department
(5) A

23. Who amongst the following sits exactly between C and the person who works for HR department?

(1) B
(2) The person who works for Marketing department
(3) The person who works for Operations department
(4) D
(5) G

24. Who amongst the following sit between the persons who work for Marketing and Investment banking departments when counted for the left hand side of the person working for Marketing department?

(1) F and G
(2) E and C
(3) C and B
(4) F and D
(5) B and D

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Bank/Organisation: 
General: 
STUDY KITS: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013" ::REASONING ABILITY::

IBPS logo


(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013"

::REASONING ABILITY::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

An organization wants to recruit system analysts. The following conditions apply. The candidate must

(i) be an engineering graduate in computer/IT with at least 60% marks.
(ii) have working experience in the field of computer at least for 2 yr after acquiring the requisite qualification.
(iii) have completed minimum 25 yr and maximum 30 yr of age as on 1.12.2013.
(iv) be willing to sign a bond for ` 50000.
(v) have secured minimum 55% marks in selection test. However, if a candidate fulfils all other conditions Except

A. at (i) above, but is an Electronics Engineer with 65% or more marks the case is to be referred to the General Manager (GM)-IT.
B. at (iv) above, but has an experience of atleast 5 yr as a Software Manager, the case is to be referred to the VP.

In each question below, detailed information of candidate is given. You have to carefully study the information provided in each case and take one of the following courses of actions based on the information and the conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.12.2013. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows:

(a) If the case is to be referred to VP
(b) If the case is to be referred to GM
(c) If the data provided is not sufficient to take a decision
(d) If the candidate is to be selected
(e) If the candidate is not to be selected

1. Ms. Suneeta is an IT Engineer with 60% marks at graduation as well as in selection test. She is working as a Software Engineer for last 3 yr after completing engineering degree and has completed 27 yr of age. She is willing to sign the bond of ` 50000.

2. Rakesh Rao is a Computer Engineer Graduate and thereafter is working as a Software Manager for last 6 yr. He has secured 72% marks at graduation and 67% marks in selection test. His date of birth is 5th December, 1984. He is not willing to sign the bond for ` 50000.

3. Ramkumar is an Engineering graduate in computers with 78% marks passed out in 2007 at the age of 23 yr. Since, then he is working as a Software Manager in an engineering firm. He doesn't want to sign the bond for ` 50000. He has cleared the selection test with 72% marks.

4. Nishant is an Electronics Engineer passed out in June, 2010 at the age of 22 yr. Since, then he is working as a Programmer in a software company. He has passed the selection test with 66% marks and is willing to sign the bond.

5. Kalyani is an Engineer with 72% marks in Telecommunication. She has just completed 27 yr of age. She has cleared the selection test with 59% marks. She is willing to sign the bond.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6) : Analyse the following passage and answer the question.

Some words are highly inflammable. Fusion is one them. You can get two sets of people into a war mode by just uttering the words 'fusion music'. One set will breathe fire and say it violates the purity of music the other set will tell you earnestly that it opens up the borders of music.

6. From the purists perspective, the 'war' between the two set of people can best be

(a) categorized as an ideological conflict between two ideas
(b) termed as a conflict between generations the younger versus the older generation
(c) an attempt to preserve the core principles
(d) seen as an attempt of people at the margin to occupy centre stage
(e) seen as preserving the social identity of purists

7. Unlike other retail outlets, where items are purchased in any number of units the customer wants, in super-markets items are grouped in bulk packages. This bulk buying offers saving to the customer. The option to buy at wholesale prices by buying in bulk makes super-market a practical choice for budget-conscious consumers. Which of the following assumption may be drived from the above information.

(a) Super-markets often have greater buying power and lower overhead costs, so they can offer a greater variety of products than regular retail outlets
(b) Super-markets are often more conveniently located and have better parking facilities
(c) The emergence of super-markets has caused many small retail stores to close down and thus eliminate competitions
(d) It is economically wise to buy single items since bulk packages seldom offer significant savings
(e) The financial savings from purchasing bulk packages may outweigh the inconvenience of being unable to purchase in any number of units that suits the customers' need

8. Nations do not complete with each other in the way corporations do. Which of the following most favours the weakness of the argument?

(a) Trade deficit is a sign of national strength, profits are a sign of corporate strength
(b) Increase in human development index improves national standing, increase in market share improves corporate standing
(c) Climate change negotiations lead to global improvement; CSR initiatives lead to image improvement
(d) Nations go to war to capture territory, corporates contend against each other to capture market share
(e) None of the above

9. Civilization has taught us to be friendlier towards one another Which of the following most favours the strengthens of the argument?

(a) Cats are loyal to their children, whereas men are loyal to their communities
(b) Elephants move in a herd, whereas men live in nuclear families
(c) Lions protect their own territories, whereas men capture other men's territories
(d) Nilgai and Cheetal stay together, whereas men of one race dominate another
(e) None of the above

10. The mushrooming of business schools in the country is a cause for shortage of faculty with Ph.D qualification. In addition, the higher pay and generous fringe benefits given by industry has encouraged qualified people to not seek academic positions. Which of the following statements, if true, would tend to STRENGTHEN the argument?

(a) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is more than the average salary for faculty positions in some business schools in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(b) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is less than the average salary for faculty positions in a top business school in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(c) The average salary for recent Ph. D graduates in the industry is 20% higher than that in academics
(d) The rate of growth of salaries for the industry positions has been higher than the rate of growth of salaries for academic positions for the past three years
(e) None of the above

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-13) : Study the information given below carefully to answer the following questions

In a certain code language the following lines written as:
'lop eop aop fop' means 'Traders are above laws'
'fop cop bop gop' means 'Developers were above profitable'
'aop bop uop qop' means 'Developers stopped following traders'
'cop jop eop uop' means 'Following maps were laws'

11. 'Developers are following laws' would be correctly written as

(a) 'bop cop uop eop'
(b) 'lop bop eop uop'
(c) 'oup cop lop aop'
(d) 'gop cop uop qop'
(e) None of these

12. 'qop gop cop eop' would correctly mean

(a) profitable laws were stopped
(b) developers stopped following laws
(c) traders were above profitable
(d) were laws profitable traders
(e) None of the above

13. 'aop qop bop' would correctly mean

(a) following were above
(b) traders stopped developers
(c) developers are laws
(d) traders above stopped
(e) laws are stopped

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 14-18) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

14. Statements:

All petals are flowers. Some flowers are buds.
Some buds are leaves. All leaves are plants.

Conclusions:

I. Some petals are not buds.
II. Some flowers are plants.
III. No flower is plant.

(a) Only I follows
(b) Either II or III follows
(c) I and II follow
(d) Only III follows
(e) None of the above

15. Statements:

Some pens are keys. Some keys are locks.
All locks are cards. No card is paper

Conclusions:

I. No lock is paper.
II. Some cards are keys.
III. Some keys are not paper.

(a) I and II follow
(b) Only I follows
(c) Only II follows
(d) All follow
(e) None follows

16. Statements:

Some pearls are gems. All gems are diamonds.
No diamond is stone. Some stones are corals.

Conclusions:

I. Some stones are pearls.
II. Some corals being diamond is a possibility.
III. No stone is pearl.

(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or III follows
(d) I and II follow
(e) None of these

17. Statements:

Some apartments are flats. Some flats are buildings.
All buildings are bungalows. All bungalows are gardens.

Conclusions:

I. All apartments being building is a possibility
II. All bungalows are not buildings.
III. No flat is garden.

(a) None follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) Either I or III follows
(d) II and III follow
(e) Only II follows

18. Statements:

All chairs are tables. All tables are bottles.
Some bottles are jars. No jar is bucket.

Conclusions:

I. Some tables being jar is a possibility.
II. Some bottles are chairs.
III. Some bottles are not bucket.

(a) Only I follows
(b) I and II follow
(c) All follow
(d) Only II follows
(e) None of these

19. A person starts from point P in East and moves 12 m to point Q. Then, he moves right 8 m to point R. Again he moves right for 6 m to point S. Then, he moves 6 m in the North to point T. Finally from there he goes to left for 6 m to point U. Which of three point he would form a triangle whose all the angles are less than 90°?

(a) PTQ
(b) QTR
(c) UTS
(d) TSR
(e) SQR

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-25) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing either the centre or outside. Each one of them belongs to a different department viz. Finance, Marketing Sales, HR, Corporate Finance, Investment Banking and Operations but not necessarily in the same order. C sits third to the right of G.G faces the centre. Only one person sits between C and the person working in the HR department immediate neighbours of C face outside. Only one person sits between F and D. Both F and D face the centre. D does not work in the HR department. A works in Investment Banking Department. A faces the centre. Two people sit between the persons who work in Investment Banking and Marketing Departments. The person who works in Corporate Finance sits to the immediate left of E. C faces same direction as E. The person who works in corporate finance sits to the immediate left of the person who works for Finance department.

20. For which of the following departments does B work?

(a) Finance
(b) Marketing
(c) HR
(d) Corporate Finance
(e) Operations

21. What is position of B with respect to the person who works for Sales department?

(a) Immediate right
(b) Third to the left
(c) Second to the right
(d) Second to the left
(e) Fourth to the right

22. Who sits to the immediate right of E ?

(a) The person who works for Marketing department
(b) C
(c) B
(d) The person who works for HR department
(e) A

23. Who amongst the following sits exactly between C and the person who works for HR department?

(a) B
(b) The person who works for Marketing department
(c) The person who works for Operations department
(d) D
(e) G

24. Who amongst the following sit between the persons who work for Marketing and Investment Banking departments when counted for the left hand side of the person working for Marketing department?

(a) F and G
(b) E and C
(c) C and B
(d) F and D
(e) B and D

25. How many people sit between the person who works for Operations department and A, when counted from the right hand side of A?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) More than four

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

IBPS logo

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-8) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through the wealth destruction already taking place in the U.S as a result of the financial crisis. Stock markets tumbled as exports plunged and economic growth deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as credit tightened and buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia swung back to greed as the region shows signs of recovery and property and stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia. Why should this sharp Asian turnaround be greeted with skepticism? Higher asset prices mean households feel wealthier and better able to spend, which could further fuel the region's nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself saddled with overheated markets similar to the U.S. housing market. In short, the world has not changed, it has just moved placed. The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response to the global credit crunch of 2008. Policy makers in Asi< slashed interest rates and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing and economies growing. Thesf steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a deepening economic crisis. But there is evidence that there is too much easy money around. It's winding up in stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the undenying economic fundamentals. Much of the concern is focused on China where government stimulus efforts have been large and effective, Money ir China has been especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending surged 201% in first half of 2009 from the same period a yea earlier, to nearly 51.1 turn on. Exuberance over a quick recovery which was given a boost by China's surprisingly strong 7.9% GDI growth in the second quarter has buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real estate. Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be recognised in hand sight. But investor who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too far ant that the slightest bit of negative, economic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asia's central bankers will begin taking stops to shut off the money. Rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening cred led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, there is close to a zero possibility that the Chines government will do anything this year that constitutes tightening. And without a major shift in thinking, the easy-money condition will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought possible over the pas two years. Asia may be neading for another disheartening plunge.

1. To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008 Asian financial crisis?

A. Reluctance or Asian governments to taper off the economic stimulus.
B. Greed of Asian investors causing them to trad stocks of American companies at high prices.
C. Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries.

(a) None
(b) Only (A)
(c) Only (C)
(d) (A) and (B)
(e) Only (B)

2. What does the author want to convey through the phrase "The world has not changed it has just moved places"?

(a) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economies than on the US economy
(b) Economies have become interlinked on account of globalisation
(c) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries
(d) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
(e) None of the above

3. Which of the following can be said about the Chinese government's efforts to revive the economy?

(a) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
(b) The governments only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
(c) These efforts were ineffectual as the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilising
(d) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
(e) They blindly imitated the economic reforms adopted by the US

4. Why do experts predict that Asian policymakers will not withdraw fiscal stimulus?

A. The US economy is not likely to recover for a long time.
B. Stock markets are yet to regain their former levels.
C. Fear of revolt by greedy citizens.

(a) None of these
(b) Only (C)
(c) (A) and (C)
(d) Only (B)
(e) (B) and (C)

5. What do the statistics about loans given by Chinese banks in 2009 indicate?

(a) There was hardly any demand for loans in 2008
(b) The Chinese government has borrowed funds from the US
(c) China will take longer than the US to recover from the economic crisis
(d) The GDP of China was below expectations
(e) None of the above

6. Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored?

A. Existing property prices which are stable and affordable.
B. The government has decided to tighten credit.
C. Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures.

(a) Only (C)
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) All (A), (B) and
(C) (d) Only (B)
(e) None of these

7. What is the author's main objective in writing the passage?

(a) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed countries
(b) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided
(c) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over sound economicprinciples
(d) Extolling China's incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it
(e) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic fundamentals

8. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics?

(a) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
(b) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash
(c) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
(d) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
(e) None of the above

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9-15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Delays of several months in National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) wage payments and work sites where labourers have lost all hope of being paid at all have become the norm in many states. How are workers who exist on the margins of subsistence supposed to feed their families? Under the scheme, workers must be paid within 1 5 days, failing which they are entitled, to compensation under the Payment of Wages Act - upto 3000 per aggrieved worker. In reality, compensation is received in only a few isolated instances. It is often argued by officials that the main reason for the delay is the inability of banks and post offices to handle mass payments of NREGS wages. Though there is a grain of truth in this, as a diagnosis it is misleading. The 'jam' in the banking system has been the result of the hasty switch to bank payments imposed by the Central Government against the recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council which advocated a gradual transition starting with villages relatively close to the nearest bank. However, delays are not confined solely to the banking system. Operational hurdles include implementing agencies taking more than fifteen days to issue payment orders, viewing of work measurement as a cumbersome process resulting in procrastination by the engineering staff and non maintenance of muster rolls and job card etc. But behind these delays lies a deeper and deliberate 'backlash' against the NREGS. With bank payments making it much harder to embezzle NREGS funds, the programme is seen as a headache by many government functionaries the workload has remained without the "inducements". Slowing down wage payments is a convenient way of sabotaging the scheme because workers will desert NREGS worksites. The common sense solution advocated by the government is to adopt the business correspondent model. Where in bank agents will go to villages to make cash payments and duly record them on handheld, electronic devices. This solution is based on the wrong diagnosis that distance separating villages from banks is the main issue. In order to accelerate payments, clear timelines for every step of the payment process should be incorporated into the system as Programme Officers often have no data on delays and cannot exert due pressure to remedy the situation. Workers are both clueless and powerless with no provision for them to air their grievances and seek redress. In drought affected areas the system of piece rate work can be dispensed with where work measurement is not completed within a week and wages may be paid on the basis of attendance. Buffer funds can be provided to gram panchayats and post offices to avoid bottlenecks in the flow of funds. Partial advances could also be considered provided wage payments are meticulously tracked. But failure to recognise problems and unwillingness to remedy them will remain major threats to the NREGS.

9. What impact have late wage payments had on NREGSworkers?

(a) They cannot obtain employment till their dues are cleared
(b) They have benefited from the compensation awarded to them
(c) They have been unable to provide for their families
(d) They have been ostracised by their families who depend on them for sustenance
(e) None of the above

10. Which of the following factors has not been responsible for untimely payment of NREGS wages?

(a) Communication delays between agencies implementing the scheme
(b) Improper record keeping
(c) Behind schedule release of payments by banks
(d) Drought conditions prevalent in the country
(e) Delays in work measurement

11. What has the outcome of disbursing NREGS wages through banks been?

(a) Theft of funds by administration officials responsible for the scheme has reduced
(b) Increased work load for local government officials
(c) Protests by workers who have to travel long distances to the nearest bank to claim their wages
(d) Time consuming formalities have to be completed by workers
(e) None of the above

12. According to the passage, which of the following has/have been the consequence (s) of delayed wage payments?

A. Compensation to victimised workers has amounted to crores.
B. Banks will no longer be entrusted with remitting wages.
C. Regulations to ensure punctual wage payments have come into force.

(a) None of these
(b) Only (A)
(c) (A) and (C)
(d) (A) and (B)
(e) (B) and (C)

13. To which of the following has the author attributed the delay in wage payments?

(a) Embezzlement of funds by corrupt bank staff
(b) Lack of monitoring by the Central Employment Guarantee Council
(c) An attempt to derai1 the NREGS by vested interests
(d) Overworked bank staff deliberately delay payments to protest against extra work
(e) Engineers efforts to wreck the NREGS because of low wages

14. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?

A. Workers are reluctant to open bank accounts as branches are not conveniently located.
B. Local officials often delay wage payments in drought prone areas to benefit workers.
C. The Government has not implemented ever)' recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council.

(a) Only (B)
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) (B) and (C)
(d) (A) and (C)
(e) All of these

15. Which of the following can be considered a deficiency in the NREGS?

(a) Lack of co-ordination among Programme Officers
(b) Local officials are unaware of correct operational procedures
(c) Workers have no means of obtaining redressal for untimely wage payments
(d) Disbursing wages through banks instead of readily accessible post offices
(e) The Central Employment Guarantee Council is reluctant to award compensation to workers

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) (E) and (F) into a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it.

(A) Moreover salaries in public sector enterprises are not as competitive as those offered by private or foreign corporates, connection
(B) This trend should be a wake up call for stakeholders to examine why employees are seeking better opportunities with private companies in India and abroad.
(C) Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) have been experiencing severe challenges in attracting motivating and retaining their key staff.
(D) Having identified these as the reasons employees leave PSEs it is important empower stakeholders to find ways to remedy the situation.
(E) One reason is that young employees lured away to private firms are more willing to undertake professional risks.
(F) Employees in specialist roles especially have become increasingly difficult to retain.

16. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

17. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F

18. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

19. Which of the following should be FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

20. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013" ::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

IBPS logo

(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information given in three Statements I, II and III. You have to study the question along with the statements and decide the information given in which of the statement(s) is necessary to answer the question.

1. In how many days 10 women can finish the work?

I. 10 men finish the work in 6 days.
II. 10 women and 10 men finish the work in 24/7 days.
III. If 10 men work 3 days and after that 10 women are deployed to work for men, the rest work is finished in 4 days.

(a) I and II
(b) Any two of three
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
(e) None of these

2. What is the present age of Sabir?

I. The present age of Sabir is half of his father's age.
II. After five years the ratio of ages of Sabir and his father is 6 : 11.
III. Sabir is younger to his brother by five years.

(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) All of these
(e) Cannot be determined

3. What is two digit number?

I. The difference between the number and the number formed by interchanging the digit is 27.
II. The difference between two digits is 3.
III. The digit at unit's place is less than that at ten place by 3.

(a) I and II
(b) I and either II or III
(c) I and III
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

4. What is the rate of interest Percent per annum?

I. An amount doubles itself in 5 yr on simple interest;
II. Difference between the compound interest and the simple interest earned on a certain amount in two years is ` 400.
III. Simple interest earned per annum is ` 2000.

(a) Only I
(b) II and III
(c) Any two of three
(d) I or II and III
(e) Only I or II and III

5. What is the cost of flooring the rectangular hall?

I. Length and the breadth of the hall are in the ratio of 3 : 2
II. Length of the hall is 48 m and cost of flooring is ` 850 per sq m.
III. Perimeter of the hall is 160 m and cost of flooring is ` 850 per sq m.

(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) Only III
(d) I and either II or III
(e) Any two of the three

6. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and the denominator is increased by 25%, the fraction obtained is 3/5. What was the original fraction?

(a) 5/7
(b) 4/7
(c) 3/8
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

7. If the positions of the digits of a two-digit number are interchanged, the number obtained is smaller than the original number by 27. If the digits of the number are in the ratio of 1 : 2, what is the original number?

(a) 36
(b) 63
(c) 48
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

8. One of the angles of a quadrilateral is thrice the smaller angle of a parallelogram. The respective ratio between the adjacent angles of the parallelogram is 4:5. Remaining three angles of the quadrilateral are in ratio 4 : 11: 9 respectively. What is the sum of the largest and the smallest angles of the quadrilateral?

(a) 255°
(b) 260°
(c) 265°
(d) 270°
(e) None of these

9. An aeroplane flies with an average speed of 756 km/h. A helicopter takes 48 h to cover twice the distance covered by aeroplane in 9 h. How much distance will the helicopter cover in 18 h? (Assuming that flights are non-stop and moving with uniform speed.)

(a) 5010 km
(b) 4875 km
(c) 5760 km
(d) 5103 km
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 10-14) : Study the following table carefully and answer the question given below.

Number of People taking Fresh Loans from Different Banks over the Year and the Percentage of Defaulters Amongst them each Year

10. Approximately how many people taking a loan from Bank S in the year 2006 were defaulters?

(a) 6490
(b) 6210
(c) 5020
(d) 6550
(e) 5580

11. Approximately what was the difference between the number of defaulters of Bank Q in the year 2004 and 2005?

(a) 175
(b) 125
(c) 190
(d) 205
(e) 140

12. In which of the following years was the number of defaulters of Bank R, the maximum among the given years?

(a) 2005
(b) 2006
(c) 2007
(d) 2010
(e) None of these

13. In which of the following years was the difference in number of people taking loan from Bank P from the previous year the highest?

(a) 2008
(b) 2006
(c) 2007
(d) 2005
(e) None of these

14. Approximately what was the total number of defaulters of Bank T in the years 2007 and 2008 together?

(a) 14110
(b) 13620
(c) 13250
(d) 14670
(e) 15330

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 15-19) : In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

15. 29, 37, 21, 43 ,13, 53, 5

(a) 37
(b) 53
(c) 13
(d) 21
(e) 43

16. 600, 125, 30, 13, 7.2, 6.44, 6.288

(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 12
(e) None of these

17. 80, 42, 24, 13.5, 8.75, 6.375, 5.1875

(a) 8.75
(b) 13.5
(c) 24
(d) 6.375
(e) 42

18. 10, 8, 13, 35, 135, 671, 4007

(a) 8
(b) 671
(c) 135
(d) 13
(e) 35

19. 150, 290, 560, 1120, 2140, 4230, 8400

(a) 2140
(b) 560
(c) 1120
(d) 4230
(e) 290

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-24) : These questions are based on the following data. The distribution of appeared and qualified aspirants in competitive examination from different States.

20. What is the ratio of the number of appeared aspirants from States C and E together to that of the appeared aspirants from States A and F together?

(a) 17:33
(b) 11:13
(c) 13:27
(d) 17:27
(e) None of these

21. In which state the percentage of qualified aspirants to appeared aspirants is the least?

(a) C
(b) F
(c) D
(d) E
(e) G

22. What is the difference in the number of qualified aspirants in states D and G?

(a) 690
(b) 670
(c) 780
(d) 720
(e) None of these

23. What is the percentage of qualified aspirants with respect to appeared aspirants from states B and C taken together? (Rounded off to two decimal places.)

(a) 23.11
(b) 24.21
(c) 21.24
(d) 23
(e) None of these

24. What is the ratio between number of candidates qualified from States B and D together and the number of candidates appeared from States 'C' respectively?

(a) 8:37
(b) 11:12
(c) 37 : 40
(d) 7 : 37
(e) None of the above

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

Pages



Subscribe to RSS - user8's blog