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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-15): Read the following passage based on an Interview to answer the given questions based on it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A spate of farmer sucides linked to harassment by recovery agents employed by Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) in Andhra Pradesh spurred the state government to bring in regulation to protect consumer interests. But, while the Bill has brought into sharp focus the need for consumer protection, it tries to micro-manage MFI operations and in the process it could scuttle some of the crucial benefits that MFls bring to farmers, says the author of Microfinance India, State of the Sector Report 2010. In an interview he points out that prudent regulation can ensure the original goal of the MFIs–social uplift of the poor. Do you feel the AP Bill to regulate MFIs is well thought out ? Does it ensure fairness to the borrowers and the long-term health of the sector ? The AP bill has brought into sharp focus the need for customer protection in four critical areas First is pricing. Second is tender’s liability — whether the Lender can give too much loan without assessing the customer’s ability to pay. Third is the structure of loan repayment –
whether you can ask money on a weekly basis from people who don’t produce weekly incomes. Fourth is the practices that attend to how you deal with defaults. But the Act should have looked at the positive benefits that institutions could bring in, and where they need to be regulated in the interests of the customers. It should have brought only those features in. Say, you want the recovery practices to be consistent with what the customer can really manage. If the customer is aggrieved and complains that somebody is harassing him, then those complaints should be investigated by the District Rural Development Authority. Instead what the Bill says is that MFIs cannot go to the customer’s premises to ask for recovery and that all transactions will be done in the Panchayat office. With great difficulty, MFIs brought services to the door of people. It is such a relief for the customers not to be spending time out going to banks or Panchayat offices, which could be 10 km away in some cases. A facility which has brought some relief to people is being shut. Moreover, you are practically telling the MFI where it should do business and how it should do it. Social responsibilities were in-built when the MFIs
were first conceived. If MFIs go for profit with loose regulations, how are they different from moneylenders? Even among moneylenders there are very good people who take care of the customer’s circumstance, and there are really bad ones. A large number of the MFIs are good and there are some who are coercive because of the kind of prices and processes they have adopted. But Moneylenders never got this organised. They did not have such a large footprint. An MFI brought in organisations, it mobilized the equity, it brought in commercial funding. It invested in systems. It appointed a large number of people. But some of then exacted a much higher price than they should have. They wanted to break even very fast and greed did take over in some cases. Are the for-profit MFIs the only ones harassing people for recoveries ? Some not-for-profit outfits have also adopted the same kind of recovery methods. That may be because you have to show that you are very efficient in your recovery methods and that your portfoilo is of a very high quality if you want to get commercial funding from a bank. In fact, among for-profits there are many who have sensible recovery practices. Some have fortnightly recovery, some have monthly recovery. So we have differing practices. We just describe a few dominant ones and assume every for-profit MFI operates like that. How can you introduce regulations to ensure social upliftment in a sector that is moving towards for -profit models ? I am not really concerned whether someone wants to make a profit or not. The bottom-line for me is customer protection. The first area is fair practices. Are you telling your customers how the loan is structured ? Are you being transparent about your performance ? There should also be a lender’s lilability attached to what you do. Suppose you lend excessively to a customer without assessing their ability to service the loan, you have to take the hit. Then there’s the question of limiting returns. You can say that an MFI cannot have a return on assets more than X,
a return on equity of more than Y. Then suppose there is a privately promoted MFI, there should be a regulation to ensure the MFI cannot access equity markets till a certain amount of time. MFIs went to markets perhaps because of the need to grow too big too fast. The government thought they were making profit off the poor, and that’s an indirect reasons why they decided to clamp down on MFIs. If you say an MFI won’t go to capital market, then it will keep political compulsions under rein.

1. Which of the following best explains ‘Structure of loan repayment’ in the context of the first question asked to the author ?

(a) Higher interest rate
(b) Payment on weekly basis
(c) Giving loan without assessing ability to pay
(d) Method of dealing with defaults
(e) Total amount of loan

2. The author is of the view that _____

(a) the bill to regulate MFIs is not needed
(b) the bill neglects the interests of the customers
(c) the positive aspects of MFIs should also be considered.
(d) most of the MFIs are not good.
(e) MFIs must be told what and where they should do business

3. One of the distinct positive feature of MFIs is that _____.

(a) they brought services to the door of people
(b) they dealt with defaulters very firmly
(c) they provided adequate customer protection
(d) they are governed by the local people
(e) they have highly flexible repayment plan

4. What is the difference between MFIs and moneylenders ?

(a) There is no difference.
(b) A large number of money lenders are good whereas only a few MFIs are good
(c) Money lenders gave credit at lower rate of interest than that of MFIs
(d) MFIs adopted a structure and put a process in place, which was not the case with moneylenders
(e) Moneylender appointed large number of local people as against more outside people in MFIs

5. Which of the following is positive outcome of the AP Bill to regulate MFIs ?

(a) The banks have started this service in remote areas
(b) It highlighted some areas of customer protection
(c) It highlighted the bad practices being followed by moneylenders
(d) MFIs is invested in systems and broguth in commercial funding.
(e) It will help convert MFIs into small banks

6. The author is recommending ____.

(a) Not-for profit MFIs
(b) For-profit MFIs
(c) Stoppage of commercial funding to MFIs
(d) Customer satisfaction irrespective of ‘Not-for profit’ or ‘for profit’ MFIs
(e) Public sector promoted MFIs

7. Why did MFIs go to the equity markers ?

(a) To repay the loan
(b) To lower interest rate
(c) There were political compulsions
(d) To become a public sector institution
(e) To grow very fast

8. Which of the following has not been indicated as one of the features of air practices for customer protection ?

(a) Providing information about loan structuring.
(b) MFIs should also be held liable for some of their actions
(c) Not to raise money from capital market
(d) MFIs should also inform public about their own performance also
(e) To provide credit as per the rational assessment of their ability to service the loan

9. Which of the following could possibly be most plausible reason for banning recovery by going to customer’s premises ?

(a) To protect the family members
(b) To protect the customer from harassment and coercion
(c) To reduce the undue expenses of MFIs is resulting in lower interest rates.
(d) To account systematically the money recovered in the books of accounts
(e) To keep Panchayat office out of these transactions

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 10-13) : Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/group of words printed in bold.

10. manage

(a) afford
(b) assess
(c) thrust
(d) administer
(e) use

11. exacted

(a) perfected
(b) demanded
(c) estimated
(d) corrected
(e) accurate

12. scuttle

(a) delay
(b) mix
(c) shuffle
(d) destroy
(e) smoothen

13. spurred

(a) agitated
(b) instigated
(c) reflected
(d) disapproved
(e) prompted

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 14-15) : Choose the word or group of words which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold.

14. under rein

(a) under wrap
(b) without target
(c) let loose
(d) no cloud
(e) under cloud

15. coercive

(a) gentle
(b) promoting
(c) progressive
(d) natural
(e) opinionated

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : Rearrange are following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) There are a number of item in the atomic energy programme which are being made indigenously.
(B) Given the overall energy situation in India, the use of nuclear power in some measure is inescapable even while thermal and hydro power continue to be the dominant
elements.
(C) However, commercial aspects of exploiting nuclear capabilities, especially for power-generation programmes, have been recently given high priority.
(D) Atomic energy programmes have been subject to severe restrictions for every obvious reason as the Department of Atomic energy is becoming self-reliant in areas in which only a few countrices have such capability.
(E) Even to meet these nuclear power requirements, India critically requires a commercia level power-generation capability, with its commensurate safety and nuclear waste
management arrangements.
(F) Thus, in Indian context energy security is also crucial, perhaps much more than it is for the U.S.A.. because India imports a good part of its crude oil requirements, paying
for it with precious foreign exchange.

16. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (E)

17. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (E)

18. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (E)

19. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (E)

20. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) (E)

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2007



RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2007

English Paper 1



Essay

1. Write an argumentative essay of about 500 words on any one of the following:-40

  • Has the virtual workplace become a reality?
  • Health insurance and wealth!
  • Laptops for notebooks, what next in schools?
  • In the Light of the popularity of ODIs and 20 x 20s has Test Cricket a future?
  • What's wrong with the SEZ policy?

Precis

Make a precis of the following passage in your own words, reducing it to about 250 words, and give it a suitable title. Use the special sheet provided for the purpose:-24

The idea that mobile phones bring economic benefits is now widely accepted. In places with bad roads, few trains and parlous land lines, they substitute for travel, allow price data to be distributed more quickly and easily, enable traders to reach wider markets and generally ease the business of doing business. Leonard Waverman of the London Business School has estimated that an extra ten mobile phones per 100 people in a typical developing country leads to an extra half a percentage point of growth in GDP per person. To realize the economic benefits of mobile phones, governments in such countries need to do away with state monopolies, issue new licenses to allow rival operators to enter the market and slash taxes on handsets. With few exceptions (halo, Ethiopia), they have done so, and mobile phones are now spreading fast, even in the poorest parts of the world.

As mobile phones have spread, a new economic benefit is coming into view ; using them for banking and, so improving access to financial services, not just telecoms networks. Pioneering M-banking projects in the Philippines, Kenya and South Africa show the way. These “branchless” schemes typically allow customers to deposit and withdraw cash through a mobile operator's airtime-re-sale agents, and send money to other people via text messages that can be exchanged for cash by visiting an writ Workers can then be paid by phone; taxi-drivers and delivery-drivers can accept payments without carrying cash around; money can be easily sent to friends and family. A popular use is to deposit money before making a long journey and then withdraw it at the other end, which is safer than carrying lots of cash.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015" ::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::



1. When sending an e-mail, the … line describe the contents of the message

(a) Subject
(b) To
(c) Contents
(d) CC
(e) None of these

2. All the deleted files go to

(a) Recycle bin
(b) Task bar
(c) Tool bar
(d) My computer
(e) None of these

3. You organise files by storing them in

(a) Archives
(b) Folders
(c) Indexes
(d) Lists
(e) None of these

4. A website address is a unique name that identifies a specific ___ on the web

(a) Web browser
(b) Website
(c) PDA
d) Link
(e) None of these

5. _________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside o ther devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat

(a) Servers
(b) Embedded computers
(c) Robotic computers
(d) Mainframes
(e) None of these

6. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest?

(a) Byte, Bit, Character, file, record, field, database
(b) Character, record, field, file, database
(c) Character, field, record, file, database
(d) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database
(e) None of these

7. A disk's content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is

(a) Memory only
(b) Write only
(c) Read only
(d) Run only
(e) None of these

8. An error in a computer program

(a) Crash
(b) Power Failure
(c) Bug
(d) Virus
(e) None of these

9. Distributed processing involves

(a) solving computer component problems from a different computer
(b) solving computing problems by breaking them into smaller parts that are separately processed by different computers
(c) allowing users to share files on a network
(d) allowing users to access network resources away from the office
(e) None of these

10. The operating system determines the manner in which all of the following occurs except

(a) user creation of a document
(b) user interaction with the processor
(c) printer output
(d) data displayed on the monitor
(e) None of these

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2009



RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2009

English Paper -1



Essay

Write an argumentative essay of about 500 words on any one of the following:-40

  • Is China a threat to India?
  • The 2008 recession was a myth in India.
  • Can we leave the world a safer place for the next generation?
  • Formal education is the only way to success in life?
  • Business Schools more business than school?

Precis

Make a precis of the following passage in your own words, reducing it to about 250 words, and give it a suitable title. Use the special sheet provided for the purpose:-24

These days, if you are the leader, you have got to give up your omnipotent fantasies that you know and must do everything. Bosses, these days, are advised to abandon their ego to the talents of others. Employees will not take any ' crap' from anyone. Young kids, fresh out of university, do not believe in hierarchy at the workplace, and they do not believe in being bossed around. Experts believe that the competition in the talent market has made employees "soft and submissive", and most organizations oppose strict and harsh leaders even when the employees' behaviour demands stern action. Are bosses scared to confront their employees?

Rigid, autocratic management styles are outdated and ineffective in today's modern workplace. If leaders want to motivate their bright young workers, they need to adopt a more collaborative style. One would come across such situations more in the BPO or IT industries, as compared to niche industries, where the fear is not too high though prevalent. That is because it is difficult to find the right candidate to fill in the position, if a particular employee quits.

Some H R Managers, however, do not agree that bosses today are scared to confront their employees. At the same time, they do not believe in the word ' confrontation'. They feel the need to talk to employees on a regular basis. The idea is not to criticize them, but to give them feedback for better performance and development.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015" ::GENERAL AWARENESS::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 31-10-2015"

::GENERAL AWARENESS::


1. Which is the highest populated state of India?

(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Maharashtra
(e) Haryana

2. Who is the head of the panel formed RBI to look into parameters for urban co-operative banks recently?

(a) Bimal Jalan
(b) R Gandhi
(c) Urijit Patel
(d) YV Reddy
(e) None of these

3. Which banks have been designated as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs)?

(a) ICICI& SBI
(b) PNB & SBI
(c) HDFC & SBI
(d) ICICI & PNB
(e) None of these

4. Bhakti Sharma, who is in news recently associated with which sports?

(a) Swimming
(b) Tennis
(c) Badminton
(d) Volley Ball
(e) None of these

5. Consider the following statements:

A. Yog Guru Baba Ramdev was appointed as state brand ambassador of Haryana Government
B. It was announced by Minister of Sports and Health of Haryana, Anil Vij
C. Haryana Govt took this decision as it want to promote yoga and ayurveda in Haryana State

(a) Only C
(b) Both A and C
(c) Both A and B
(d) All A, B, C
(e) None of these

6. Frank Tyson was a cricketer from which country?

(a) New Zeland
(b) England
(c) West Indies
(d) South Africa
(e) None of these

7. What is the full form of NBFC as used in the financial sector?

(a) New Banking Finance Company
(b) National Banking & Finance Corporation
(c) Non Business Fund Company
(d) New Business Finance & Credit
(e) None of these

8. Which of the following fund transfer mechanisms, can be moved from one bank to another and where transaction is settled instantly without being bunched with any other
transaction?

(a) RTGS
(b) NEFT
(c) TT
(d) EFT
(e) MT

9. Lima is the capital of.

(a) Brazil
(b) Peru
(c) Ecuador
(d) Colombia
(e) None of these

10. Where is Buxa National Park located?

(a) Odisha
(b) West Bengal
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Bihar
(e) Rajasthan

11. English Stephen Constantine has been appointed as the head coach of Indian men's ____________ team.

(a) Hockey
(b) Cricket
(c) Football
(d) Badminton
(e) None of these

12. Banking ombudsmen is appointed by.

(a) SBI
(b) Indian Government
(c) RBI
(d) President
(e) Prime minister

13. Which committee framed the RRB Act?

(a) Narsimham Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) Sachar Committee
(d) Shah Nawaz Committee
(e) None of these

14. Ravindra Jain who passed recently was a.

(a) Politician
(b) Singer
(c) Author
(d) Music Composer
(e) None of these

15. Base rate is the rate below which no bank can allow their lending to anyone. Who set up this base rate for banks?

(a) Individual Banks Boards (Correct Answer)
(b) Ministry of Commerce
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) RBI
(e) Interest Rate Commission of India

16. Where is the Head-quarter of Indian Bank?

(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) Bengaluru
(e) Hyderabad

17. Many a times, we read in newspaper that the RBI has revised certain rates/ratios under LAF. What is full form of LAF?

(a) Legal Adjustment Facility
(b) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(c) Longterm Achievement Facility
(d) Legal Adjustment Formality
(e) None of these

18. What is KVP lock period?

(a) 36 Months
(b) 48 Months
(c) 24Months
(d) 30 Months
(e) 40 Months

19. Which of the following statement is true about the Competition Commission?

1. The Competition has been established to prevent practices which do not support healthy business competition.
2. The Commission will have five members including the chairman
3. The Commission has to ensure that the financial operation of any business entity does not get concentrated in the hands of few people.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All of them
(e) None of them

20. What is the cost of Delhi National Memorial Cost?

(a) 100 crore
(b) 1000 crore
(c) 500 crore
(d) 250 crore
(e) None of these

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 4-10-2015" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 4-10-2015"

::REASONING ABILITY::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a school. Each of them studies in different standard from Standard IV to Standard X not necessarily in the same order. Each of them has favourite subject from English, Science, History,Geogra-phy, Mathematics, Hindi and Sanskrit not necessarily in the same order. Q studies in VII Standard and does not like either Mathematics or Geography. R likes English and does not study either in V or in IX. T studies in VIII Standard and likes Hindi. The one who likes Science studies in X Standard. S studies in IV Standard. W likes Sanskrit. P does not study in X Standard. The one who likes Geography studies in V Standard.

1. In which standard does W study?

(a) VII
(b) IX
(c) X
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

2. Which subject does P like?

(a) Geography
(b) Mathematics
(c) English
(d) History
(e) None of these

3. Which subject does S like?

(a) History
(b) Geography
(c) Mathematics
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

4. In which standard does P study?

(a) IV
(b) VII
(c) IX
(d) X
(e) None of these

5. Which of the following combinations of student-standardsubject is correct?

(a) T -VIII -Mathematics
(b) W -VII -Sanskrit
(c) Q -VII -Geography
(d) V -X -Science
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

(i) A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight students each having a different height.
(ii) D is shorter than A but taller than G.
(iii) E is taller than H but shorter than C.
(iv) B is shorter than D but taller than F.
(v) C is shorter than G.
(vi) G is not as tall as F.

6. Which of the following is definitely false?

(a) G is shorter than F
(b) C is shorter than F
(c) F is taller than C
(d) B is taller than E
(e) All are true

7. If another student J who is taller than E but shorter than G is added to the group, which of the following will be definitely true?

(a) C and J are of same height
(b) J is shorter than D
(c) J is shorter than H
(d) J is taller than A
(e) None of these

8. Which of the following will definitely be the third from top when the eight students are arranged in descending order of height?

(a) B
(b) F
(c) G
(d) B or G
(e) Cannot be determined

9. How many of them are definitely shorter than F ?

(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

10. Which of the following is redundant to answer all the above questions?

(a) (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv) only
(d) (i) and (v) only
(e) All are necessary to answer the above questions

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

In a certain code language :
"demand and supply market" is written as "pa ni de re"
"market needs more demand" is written as "de ja ni fe"
"supply demand is related" is written as "le de re ab"
"more related to economics" is written as "ka ha ab ja"

11. What is the code for 'economics' ?

(a) ab
(b) ka
(c) ha
(d) ja
(e) Either 'ka' or 'ha'

12. Which of the following represents 'supply related market' ?

(a) ab ni de
(b) ni re ab
(c) pa ni re
(d) de ab ni
(e) None of these

13. What is the code for 'more' ?

(a) fe
(b) ni
(c) de
(d) ja
(e) Cannot be determined

14. Which of the following may represent "market needs more customers" ?

(a) fe ja ni sa
(b) ja ni de ab
(c) ni ja ka pa
(d) pa ni fe re
(e) le re ni ja

15. What is the code for 'needs' ?

(a) ni
(b) fe
(c) pa
(d) le
(e) None of these

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2010



RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2010

English Paper -1



Essay

Write an argumentative essay of about 500 words on any one of the following:-40

  • Does Politics need Ethics?
  • Cricket unites the World!
  • Do Growth and Inflation go together?
  • Is Environment our Social Responsibility?
  • Travel and Tourism is a booming business.

Precis

Make a precis of the following passage in your own words, reducing it to about 250 words, and give it a suitable title. Use the special sheet provided for the purpose:-24

FOR the head of the IMF to quote Adam Smith may seem unremarkable. But here is Dominique Strauss-Kahn citing the great man in November 2010: “The disposition to admire, and almost to worship, the rich and the powerful and…neglect persons of poor and mean condition...is the great and most universal cause of the corruption of our moral sentiments."

Mr. Strauss-Kahn then bemoaned "a large and growing chasm between rich and poorespecially within countries ". He argued that inequitable distribution of wealth could "wear down the social fabric ". He added: “More unequal countries have worse social indicators, a poorer human-development record, and higher degrees of economic insecurity and anxiety."

That marks a huge shift. Just before the financial crisis America's Congress was gaily cutting taxes for the highest earners, and Tony Blair, Britain's prime minister, said he did not care how much soccer players earned so long as he could reduce child poverty. So why has fear of inequality stormed back into fashion? Does it matter in some new way? Does it have previously unknown effects?

The most obvious reason for the renewed attention is inequality's apparent increase. A common yardstick is the Gini coefficient, which runs from 0 (everyone has the same income) to 1 (one person has all the income). Most countries range between 0.25 and 0.6.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 4-10-2015" ::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 4-10-2015"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::



DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Find the missing term.

1. 0.5, 1.5, 5, 8,76,?

(a) 380
(b) 385
(c) 390
(d) 395
(e) None of these

2. 65, 72, 86, 114 ?

(a) 160
(b) 165
(c) 170
(d) 175
(e) None of these

3. 63, 31, 15, 7, 3 ?

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) None of these

4. 13. 70, 71, 76, ?, 81, 86, 70, 91

(a) 70
(b) 71
(c) 80
(d) 96
(e) None of these

5. 8, 43, 11, 41, ?, 39, 17

(a) 8
(b) 14
(c) 43
(d) 44
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer

(a) if x > y
(b) if x < y
(c) if x ³ y
(d) if x £ y
(e) if x = y or relation cannot be established between 'x' and 'y'.

6. I. 8x + y =10
II. 4x + 2y = 13

7. I. (x + 3) (y + 2) = 12
II. 2xy + 4x + 5y = 11

8. I. (3x – 2)/y = (3x + 6)/(y + 16)
II. (x + 2)/(y + 4) = (x + 5)/(Y + 10)

9. I. x2 + 20x + 4 = 50 – 25x
II. y2 – 10y – 24 = 0

10. I. (x2 – 10x + 16)/(x2 – 12x + 24) = 2/3
II. y2 – y – 20 = 0

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Study the given table carefully to answer the following questions.

11. What is the cost of flooring of A?

(a) ` 4000
(b) ` 4600
(c) ` 4800
(d) ` 5000
(e) ` 4400

12. What is the difference between the cost of fencing of C and that of B?

(a) ` 180
(b) ` 120
(c) ` 240
(d) ` 360
(e) ` 480

13. What is the ratio of the cost of flooring to that of fencing of field D?

(a) 4 : 1
(b) 6 : 1
(c) 8 : 1
(d) 9 : 1
(e) 5 : 1

14. The cost of fencing of field E is approximately what percent of the cost of flooring of field C?

(a) 10.5%
(b) 19.46%
(c) 18.71%
(d) 15.36%
(e) 13.82%

15. The cost of fencing of field C is what percent of the cost of fencing of field D?

(a) 87.54%
(b) 67.5%
(c) 72.13%
(d) 54.36%
(e) 46.5%

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-23) : Study the following table and pie chart carefully to answer the given questions.

The table shows the ratio of Hindu religion soldiers to soldiers of other religions

16. What is the number of Hindu soldiers in Jat regiment?

(a) 2600
(b) 2700
(c) 3200
(d) 2800
(e) 2350

17. What is the difference between Hindu soldiers in Madras regiment and soldiers of other religions in Bihar regiment?

(a) 485
(b) 550
(c) 520
(d) 510
(e) 490

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 4-10-2015" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 4-10-2015"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Two of the best-performing major economies in 2014 were China and Brazil, with growth estimated at 7.5% and 10.5% resepectively.
(B) Despite that limp growth, major US stock market indexes are up between 11% and 20% for the year.
(C) Even knowing where economies are headed sometimes it is of no help to an investor.
(D) It is hard to anticipate the direction of financial markets.
(E) But as of December, stock markets of both nations were in the red for the year.
(F) By contrast, the US economy is likely to have expanded at only about 2.6% for the year.

1. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence?

(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F

2. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) F

3. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F

4. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F

5. Which of the following would be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it or a wrong word has been used. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence which has been printed in bold and has been numbered (a), (b), (c) or (d). The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

6. The convergence of

(a) Indian accounting standards with International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) beginning
(b) in April is expecting to 
(c) see power companies struggling with
(d) significant first-timeadoption impact.
(e) No error

7. Researchers at

(a) the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore, are mapping
(b) India’s solar hot spots-where round-the-year
(c) sunlight makes it viable of 
(d) companies to set up solar power plants. 
(e) No error

8. Though their qualifications span a diverse

(a) range, there is an equal
(b) number of graduates and those who have just completed School, each set
(c) making up
(d) close to 30% of these households.
(e) No error

9. As if

(a) the most dangerous moment for any dictatorship is when
(b) it starts to
(c) reform, North Korea looks ready to turn that truism on its head.
(d) North Korea looks ready to turn that truism on its head.
(e) No error

10. It so happens

(a) that this happy campy ritual is their way of life
(b) and one into which
(c) they don’t particularly welcome
(d) voyeuristic intrusions. 
(e) No error

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-20) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The outside world has pat answers concerning extremely impoverished countries, especially those in Africa. Everything comes back, again and again, to corruption and mis-rule. Western officials argue that Africa simply needs to behave itself better, to allow market forces to operate without interference by corrupt rulers. Yet the critics of African governance have it wrong. Politics simply can't explain Africa's prolonged economic crisis. The claim that Africa's corruption is the basic source of the problem does not withstand serious scrutiny. During the past decade I witnessed how relatively well-governed countries in Africa, such as Ghana, Malawi, Mali and Senegal, failed to prosper, whereas societies in Asia perceived to have extensive corruption, such as Bangladesh, Indonesia and Pakistan, enjoyed rapid economic growth. What is the explanation? Every situation of extreme poverty around the world contains some of its own unique causes, which need to be diagnosed as a doctor would a patient. For example, Africa is burdened with malaria like no other part of the world, simply because it is unlucky in providing the perfect conditions for that disease; high temperatures, plenty of breeding sites and particular species of malaria-transmitting mosquitoes that prefer to bite humans rather than cattle. Another myth is that the developed world already gives plenty of aid to the world's poor. Former U.S. Secretary of the Treasury, Paul O'Neil expressed a common frustration when he remarked about aid for Africa : "We've spent trillions of dollars on these problems and we have damn near nothing to show for it". O'Neil was no foe of foreign aid. Indeed, he wanted to fix the system so that more U.S. aid could be justified. But he was wrong to believe that vast flows of aid to Africa had been squandered. President Bush said in a press conference in April 2004 that as "the greatest power on the face of the earth, we have an obligation to help the spread of freedom. We have an obligation to feed the hungry". Yet how does the U.S. fulfill its obligation? U.S. aid to farmers in poor countries to help them grow more food runs at around $200 million per year, far less than $1 per person per year for the hundreds of millions of people living in subsistence farm households. From the world as a whole, the amount of aid per African per year is really very small, just $30 per sub-Saharan African in 2002. Of that modest amount, almost $5 was actually for consultants from the donor countries, more than $3 was for emergency aid, about $4 went for servicing Africa's debts and $5 was for debt-relief operations. The rest, about $12, went to Africa. Since the "money down the drain" argument is heard most frequently in the U.S., it's worth looking at the same calculations for U.S. aid alone. In 2002, the U.S. gave $3 per sub-Saharan African. Taking out the parts for U.S. consultants and technical cooperation, food and other emergency aid, administrative costs and debt relief, the aid per African came to grand total of 6 cents. The U.S. has promised repeatedly over the decades, as a signatory to global agreements like the Monterrey Consensus of 2002, to give a much larger proportion of its annual output, specifically upto 0.7% of GNP, to official development assistance. The U.S. failure to follow through has no political fallout domestically, of course, because not one in a million U.S. citizens even knows of statements like the Monterrey Consensus. But no one should underestimate the salience that it has around the world. Spin as American might about their nation's generosity, the poor countries are fully aware of what the U.S. is not doing.

11. The passage seems to emphasize that the outside world has

(a) correct understanding about the reasonable aid provided by the USA to the poor countries
(b) definite information about what is happening in under developed countries
(c) stopped extending any financial aid to under developed countries
(d) misconceptions about the aid given to the poor nations by developed countries
(e) None of these

12. According to the Westerners the solution to eradicate poverty of African nations lies in

(a) corruption
(b) improving their own national behaviour
(c) mis-rule
(d) prolonged economic crisis
(e) None of these

13. The author has given the example of Bangladesh, Indonesia and Pakistan in support of his argument that

(a) corruption is the major culprit in the way of prosperity
(b) mis-governance hampers the prosperity of nations
(c) despite rampant corruption, nations may prosper
(d) developed nations arrogantly neglect under developed countries.
(e) None of these

14. The author has mentioned Ghana as a country with

(a) reasonably good-governance
(b) corrupt leadership
(c) plenty of natural resources
(d) rapid economic growth
(e) None of these

15. The cases of malaria in Africa are mainly due to

A. high temperature.
B. climatic conditions conducive for breeding.
C. malaria carries liking for human blood in preference to that of cattle.

(a) None of these
(b) Only B and C
(c) Only A and C
(d) Only A and B
(e) All the three

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RBI Grade “B” Officers Mains (Phase II) Exam "held on April 2012"

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  1. 3 hours, 100 marks
  2. All questions are compulsory.
  3. Figures to the right indicate full marks to each question.
  4. Each question should be answered on a new page.
  5. All parts of a question should be answered together without other answers intervening.
  6. Marks will be deducted if an answer far exceeds or falls short of the set limit or is irrelevant or if the handwriting is illegible.
  7. Answers must be written only in English.
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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Quantitative Aptitude Held on: 11-06-2015"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 11-06-2015"

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::



1. At present, Pia is 6 years older to Roy. The respective ratio between the present age of Pia and Minis is 3 : 4. At present, Ray is 14 years younger to Mini. What is Ray's present age?

(1) 16 yr
(2) 20 yr
(3) 14 yr
(4) 18 yr
(5) 24 yr

Directions (2-6): In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

Give answr

(c) if x > y                  (d) if x < y
(e) if relationship between x and y cannot be established

2. I. 4x2 + 17x + 15 = 0
II. 3y2 + 19y + 28 = 0

3. I. 3x2 – 17x + 22 = 0
II. 5y2 – 21y + 22 = 0

4. I. 3x2 + 11x + 10 = 0
II. 2y2 + 13y + 21 = 0

5. I. 3x2 + 13x + 14 = 0
II. 8y2 + 26y + 21 = 0

6. I. 3x2 – 14x + 15 = 0
II. 15y2 – 34y + 15 = 0

Directions (7-11): Study the table to answer the given questions.

Note: Other than the mentioned expenses under the given heads, there may also be some other expenses. For calculation purposes, please consider the given expenses theads only.

7. What is the respective ratio between the Marketing expenses of company A and the Marketing expenses of company C?

(1) 34 : 35
(2) 32 : 33
(3) 35 : 36
(4) 36 : 37
(5) 37 : 38

8. Total expenses of company E in October, 2012 was 20% more than the total given expenses of the same company in April, 2012. How much was the Marketing expenses of the same company in October, 2012, if it was 25% of the total expenses of the same month? (in Rs. Lakh)

(1) 27
(2) 24
(3) 26
(4) 21
(5) 18

9. Marketing expenses of company D is less than marketing expenses of company B, by approximately what percent?

(1) 20%
(2) 40%
(3) 39%
(4) 59%
(5) 29%

10. What is the average total expenses of all the companies? (in Rs. Lakh)

(1) 75.25
(2) 75.8
(3) 75
(4) 72.8
(5) 72.25

11. What is the difference between the total expenses made by company C in Legal and Marketing together and the total expenses mady company E in Legal and Marketing together? (in Rs. Lakh)

(1) 24.5
(2) 23.5
(3) 22.9
(4) 23
(5) 23.9

Directions (12-16): What approximae value will come in place of the questions mark (?) in the given questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

12. 6399 × + 353 ÷ ? = 12025

(1) 14
(2) 22
(3) 2
(4) 16
(5) 8

13.

(1) 670
(2) 570
(3) 710
(4) 510
(5) 610

14. 8461 ÷ 11.99 - 24.1 ÷ 5/100= ?

(1) 625
(2) 400
(3) 25
(4) 900
(5) 225

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "English Held on: 11-06-2015"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 11-06-2015"

:: English Language ::



Directions (1-5): Rearrange the following six sentence A, B, C, D, E and F is a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.

A. Take for example the market for learning dancing.
B. This could never happen if there was a central board of dancing education which enforced strict standards of what will be taught and how such thing are to be taught.
C. The Indian education system is built on the presumption that if something is good for one child, it is good for all children.
D. More importantly, different teachers and institutes have developed different ways of teaching dancing.
E. There are very different dance forms that attract students with different tastes.
F. If however, we can effectively decentralize education, and if the government did not obsessively control what would be the ‘syllabus’ and what will be the method of instruction, there could be an explosion of new and innovative courses geared towards serving various riches of learners.

1. Which of the following should be the LASST (SIXTH) sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) F
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

2. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) F
(4) D
(5) E

3. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F

4. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) E

5. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) D

Directions (6-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Manufactures of Consumer Packaged goods (CPGs) face two key challenges this year. The first continued slow or negative growth in people’s disposable incomes. The second is changing consumer attitudes toward products and brands, as the great fragmentation of consumer markets take another turn. In response, companies must dramatically shift the route they take to reach consumers in terms of both product distribution and communications. In many markets, consumer wages have been static for five years now. Even where economies are starting to perform better, the squeeze on after-tax wages, especially for the middle class younger people and families, is depressing consumer spending. Although growth in developing countries is still better than in the United States and Europe, a slowdown in emerging countries such as China-where many countries had hoped for higher sales-has translated quickly into lower-than expected consumer spending growth.

Meanwhile, what we call the great fragmentation is manifested in consumer behavior and market response. In both developed and emerging markets, there is a wider variety among consumers now than at any time in the recent past. Growth is evident both at the top of the market (where more consumers are spending for higher-quality food and other packaged goods) and at the lower end (where an increasing number of consumers are concentrating on value). But the traditional middle of the market is shrinking.
Further, individual consumer behavior is more pluralistic. We are used to seeing, for example, spirits buyers purchasing a premium band in bar, a less costly label at home for personal consumption and yet another when entertaining guest. But, this type of variegated shopping has now spread to the grocery basket as well. Fewer consumer are making one big stocking up trip each week instead shoppers are visiting a premium store and a discounter as well as a supermarket, in multiple weekly stops – in addition to making frequent purchases online. During recession, more shoppers became inclined to spend time hunting for bargains and as some traditional retailers either went out of business or shuttered down, retail space was freed up and was often filled by convenience stores, specially shops, and discounters.

A decade ago, CPG companies had only ‘a handful of’ sales channels to consider supermarkets, convenience stores, hypermarkets in advanced economies and traditional small and large retailers in emerging countries. Since, then various discounters have made significant inroads, including no frills, low variety outlets, such as Europe’s Aldi and Lidi, which sell a limited range of private lable grocery items in smaller stores and massive warehouse clubs, such as Costco and Sam’s club, which initially operated solely in the USA but are now expanding internationally. In addition, dollars stores, specialized retailers, and online merchants are having an impact on the CPG landscape. Economizing consumers have been pleasantly, surprised by the savings generated by spreading their business among multiple channels, as well as by the variety and product quality they find. The result has been greater demand for more product and brands, with different sizes, packaging and sales methods. At most CPG companies, SKUs are proliferating despite there being little increase in overall consumption. A better outcome can be seen at smaller food and beverage suppliers, which are benefitting from consumer demand for variety and authenticity. A recent report found that in the USA, small manufactures (with revenues of less than $1 billion) grew at twice the compound annual rate of large manufactures (with revenues of less than $3 billion) between 2009 and 2012.

Consumers media usage has also fragmented with the rise of digital content and the proliferation of online devices. Each channel – from the web, mobile and social sites for radio, TV, and print – has its own requirements, audience appeal and economics, needing specialized attention. But, at the same time, media campaigns need to be closely coordinated for effective consumer messaging.

Collectively, these shifts challenges the sway CPS companies manage their brand and business portfolios and call for a rethinking of their go-to-market approach, with an emphasis on analytics. Our work with INSEAD shows that among business leaders, applying analytics–especially for tracking consumer behavior and product and promotional performance–considered one of the most effective ways to improve results and outpace the competition. But it’s not just about insight. It’s also about using the insight wisely to determine how to manage costs. The more knowledgeable about customer needs and preferences a company is, the smarter and more focused it must be in managing its own economics to cost-effectively deliver both variety and value to be squeezed consumer.

6. The central theme of the given passage is

(1) The Shrinking Market
(2) Shift towards offering Luxury Goods to Consumers
(3) Products to offer consumers with squeezed packets
(4) To highlight products consumer by the middle class
(5) Gaining insight into changing consumer behavior towards CPGs

7. In the context of the passage, which of the following brands existed otherwise but is now being manifested in buying groceries as well?

(1) Consumer purchasing the same products for over a period of time.
(2) Consumer willing to purchase goods for a longer period of time.
(3) Consumers preferring luxury goods over regular goods.
(4) Consumers are more aware of their rights.
(5) Consumers prefer buying goods from a variety of stores.

8. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word Depressing as used in the passage?

(1) Encouraging
(2) Sunny
(3) Doubtful
(4) Light
(5) Nil

9. As mentioned in the passage, CPG companies may have to reassess their present strategies of operating to

(A) retain their customers
(B) keep pace with changing consumer preference as they have access to multiple media channels
(C) make more cost-effective decisions.

(1) Only A
(2) B and C
(3) All of these
(4) Only C
(5) A and B

10. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word Depressing as used in the passage?

(1) Encouraging
(2) Sunny
(3) Doubtful
(4) Light
(5) Nil

11. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(1) In the USA, during the three year period after 2009, small manufacturing did not fare well as compared to their larger counterparts.
(2) Impact on dispensable incomes of people barely affects the CPG manufacturing industry.
(3) Post-tax wages, especially for the middle class, are one of the critical factors which have reduced spending behavior of consumers.
(4) The CPG have always been a favourite among consumers.
(5) None of the given options is true.

12. As mentioned in the passage, one of the most critical factors that aids in creating to the needs of consumers, is

(1) persuading then to purchase goods produced by the organization
(2) assess their requirements and appropriately plan to meet them
(3) offering them products that an organization regularly manufactures.
(4) concentrating only on being aware about changing presences of consumers
(5) None of the above

13. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word above Shrinking as used in the passage?

(1) Developing
(2) Annoying
(3) Narrowing
(4) Wasting
(5) Rising

14. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning of the word Variegated as used in the passage?

(1) Diverse
(2) Composite
(3) Strong
(4) Narrow
(5) Valued

15. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word Shuttered as used in the passage?

(1) Closed
(2) Retail
(3) Flourished
(4) Gratified
(5) Nearest

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Reasoning Held on: 11-06-2015"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 11-06-2015"

:: Reasoning Ability ::



Directions (1-5): Study the information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular area of equal distances between each other, but not necessary in the same order. Some of teh people are facing in the centre while some face outside. (i.e.in a direction opposite to the centre).

D sits third tothe right of B. E sits second to the left of B. Immediate neighbours of B face the same direction (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre, the other neighbour also faces the centre and vice-versa). C sits second to the left of E. E faces the centre. F sits third to the right of C.G sits second to the left of H. H is not an immediate neighbour of B. G faces the same direction as D. Immediate neighbours of E faces opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre, the other neighbour faces outside and vice-versa.) Immediate neighbours of F face opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre, the other neighbour face outside and vice-versa.)

1. How man people in the given arrangement face the centre?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four
(5) Five

2. Which of teh following is true regarding A as per the given sitting arrangement?

(1) H sits second to the left of A.
(2) A faces outsides.
(3) Only two people sit between A and B.
(4) C is one of the immediate neighbours of A.
(5) Only three people sit between A and G.

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) F
(2) H
(3) B
(4) G
(5) D

4. What is E's postion with respect to H?

(1) Third to the left
(2) To the immediate left
(3) To the Immediate right
(4) Second to the right
(5) Third to the right

5. Who sits second to the left of G?

(1) H
(2) A
(3) B
(4) Other than those as options
(5) F

Directions (6-10): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D K, L and M live on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the typmost floor is numbered seven.

Each one of them also likes dfferent games and Polo (but not necessarily in the same order). Only three people live between B and K. B lives on one of the floosrs above K. K does not live on the lowermsot floor. Only one person live between B and the one who likes Chess. The one who likes Polo lives on one of the even numbered floors above the one who likes Chess. Only two people live between M and the one who like Chess.

The one who likes snooker lives immediately above M. A lives immediately above L. A does not like Chess. The one who likes Ludo lives on one of the odd numbered floors below L. M does not like Ludo. D lives on one of teh floors above C. Only one person lives between the one who likes Cricket and the one who likes Hockey. D does not like Cricket. M does not like Badminton.

6. Which of the following game does B like?

(1) Snooker
(2) Ludo
(3) Polo
(4) Badminton
(5) Chess

7. Who amongst the following lives on the floor numbered 4?

(1) The one who likes Hockey
(2) The one who likes Chess
(3) A
(4) L
(5) B

8. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?

(1) Only two people live between K and M.
(2) The one who likes Hockey lives immediately above K.
(3) C likes Chess.
(4) C lives on an even numbered floor.
(5) None of the given options is true.

9. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order from top to bottom, the positions of how many people will remain unchanged?

(1) None
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
(5) Four

10. Which of the following combinations is true with respect to the given arrangement?

(1) Polo-C
(2) Ludo-B
(3) Cricket-K
(4) Chess-L
(5) Snooker-A

11. A person starts walking from his office towards a partly hall. He walks for 30m towards East. He takes a 90° right turn and walks for 15m. He again takes a 90° right turn, and walks for another 20m. He then walks for 25m after taking a 90° left turn. Turning 90° towards his right he walks for 10m to reach the party hall. How far and in which direction is the party hall from his office?

(1) 40 m towards West
(2) 40 m towards South
(3) 45 m towards South
(4) 45 m towards North
(5) 40 m towards North

Directions (12-16): In these questions, two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer

(a) if only concklusion I is ture
(b) if only conclusion II is true
(c) if either conclusion I and II is true
(d) if both conclusions are true
(e) if neither conclusion I not II is true

12. Statements

Some winds are trophies.
Some trophies are cups.
No cup is a prize.

Conclusions:

(I) At least some cups are wins.
(II) All prizes being trophies is a possibility.

13. Statements

No layer is a coat.
All coats are deposits.
All deposits are sheets.

Conclusions:

(I) All coats are depostis.
(II) All deposits can never by layers.

14. Statemetns

Some flats are apartments.
No apartments is a hall.
Some halls are rooms.

Conclusions:

(I) At least some rooms are flats.
(II) No apartment is a room.

15. Statements

Some wins ae trophies.
Some trophies are cups.
No cup is a prize.

Conclusions :

(I) No trophy is a prize.
(II) All secrets are puzzles.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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::REASONING ABILITY::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1–5): Every question below has a three statement, followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to consider every given statement as true, even if it does not conform to the well known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions can be logically derived.

1. Statements

I. Some toys are pens.
II. Some pens are papers.
III. Some papers are black.

Conclusions

I. Some toys are black.
II. No pen is black.
III. No toy is black.
IV. Some pens are black.

(a) None follows
(b) Either II or IV
(c) Either I or III and either II or IV
(d) Either I or IV
(e) All of the above

2. Statements

I. Some books are copies.
II. All copies are green.
III. Some green are yellow.

Conclusions

I. All copies are yellow.
II. Some yellow are green.
III. Some copies are yellow.
IV. All green are copies.

(a) Only II
(b) Either III or IV only
(c) Either II or IV only
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

3. Statements

I. All jugs are glasses.
II. All glasses are cups.
III. All jugs are pens.

Conclusions

I. All pens are jugs.
II. Some glasses are pens.
III. Some cups are pens.
IV. All pens are cups.

(a) All follow
(b) Only II
(c) Only II and III
(d) Only III and IV
(e) None of these

4. Statements

I. All ACs are DCs.
II. Some DCs are ECs.
III. All ECs are YYs.

Conclusions

I. Some ACs are ECs.
II. Some YYs are DCs.
III. No ACs is ECs.
IV. All DCs are ACs.

(a) I and III
(b) Only II
(c) I and II
(d) II and either I or III
(e) None of these

5. Statements

I. Some newspapers are radios.
II. Some radios are televisions.
III. No television is a magazine.

Conclusions

I. No newspaper is a magazine.
II. No radio is a magazine.
III. Some radios are not magazine.
IV. Some newspapers are televisions.

(a) Only I follows
(b) Only III follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both I and II follow
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

Ten students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are sitting in a row facing west.

(i) B and F are not sitting on either of the edges.
(ii) G is sitting to the left of D and H is sitting to the right of J.
(iii) There are four persons between E and A.
(iv) I is to the right of B and F is to the left of D.
(v) J is in between A and D and G is in between E and F.
(vi) There are two persons between H and C.

6. Who is sitting at the seventh place counting from left?

(a) H
(b) C
(c) J
(d) Either H or C
(e) None of these

7. Who among the following is definitely sitting at one of the ends?

(a) C
(b) H
(c) E
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

8. Who are immediate neighbours of I?

(a) BC
(b) BH
(c) AH
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

9. Who is sitting second left of D?

(a) G
(b) F
(c) E
(d) J
(e) None of these

10. If G and A interchange their positions, then who become the immediate neighbours of E?

(a) G and F
(b) Only F
(c) Only A
(d) J and H
(e) None of these

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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11 - 15): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:-

Twelve people Abhishek, Binit, Chand, Dhiraj, Eshita, Fatima, Garima, Hena, Ishan, Jatin, Kamal and Lalit are sitting around a rectangular table. The following information is known- The table has 12 chairs numbered from 1 to 12. 6 seats on one side of the table and 6 on the opposite side. The chairs are arranged in such a way that chair number 1 is just opposite to 12, 6 is opposite to 7 and so on- Abhishek is sitting opposite to Kamal who is the only person sitting between Chand and Jatin. Eshita is sitting opposite to
Ishan who is the only person sitting between Binit and Lalit. Fatima, sitting at chair number 1, is diagonally opposite to Chand who is sitting opposite to Dhiraj.

11. If Garima is sitting opposite to Fatima then who is sitting opposite to Hena?

(a) Lalit
(b) Binit
(c) Ishan
(d) Uniquely not determined.
(e) None of these

12. If Lalit is sitting opposite to Hena, then who is sitting opposite to Garima?

(a) Eshita or Fatima
(b) Jatin or Fatima
(c) Jatin or Eshita
(d) None of these
(e) All of the above

13. How many persons are sitting between Binit and Dhiraj, if they are on the same side of the table?

(a) 2 or 3
(b) 1 or 2
(c) 1 or 3
(d) None of these
(e) All of the above

14. Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Lalit is sitting at seat number 12
(b) Lalit is sitting at seat number 10
(c) Kamal is sitting at seat number 8
(d) Kamal is sitting at seat number 9
(e) None of these

15. Which one of the following is not correct?

(a) Lalit can be opposite to Jatin.
(b) Jatin can be opposite to Hena.
(c) Lalit is adjacent to Chand.
(d) There are three person sitting between A and F.
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 - 20): This group of questions is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question.

A circular field, with inner radius of 10 meters and outer radius of 20 meters, was divided into five successive stages for ploughing. The ploughing of each stage was handed over to a different farmer.
(i) Farmers are referred to by the following symbols: F1, F2, F3, F4 and F5.
(ii) The points between different stages of project are referred to by the following symbols: P1, P2, P3, P4, and P5, not necessarily in the order.
(iii) Farmer F5 was given the work of ploughing stage starting at point P4.
(iv) The stage from point P5 to point P3 was not the first stage.
(v) Farmer F4 was given the work of the fourth stage.
(vi) Stage 3 finished at point P1, and the work of which was not given to farmer F1.
(vii) Farmer F3 was given work of stage ending at point P5.

16. Which was the finish point for farmer F2?

(a) P1
(b) P2
(c) P3
(d) P4
(e) P5

17. Which stage was ploughed by farmer F5?

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
(e) Fifth

18. Which were the starting and finish points of stage 2?

(a) P2 and P5
(b) P5 and P3
(c) P3 and P1
(d) P5 and P4
(e) P3 and P2

19. For which farmer was P2 a finishing point?

(a) F1
(b) F2
(c) F3
(d) F4
(e) F5

20. Which was the starting point for farmer F3?

(a) P2
(b) P3
(c) P4
(d) P1
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21–25) : In the following question * ,Å , $ , £ and @ are used according to following meaning.

‘P*Q’ means, ‘P is neither equal nor smaller than Q’
‘PÅQ’ means, ‘P is not smaller than Q’
‘P$Q’ means, ‘P is neither greater nor smaller than Q’
‘P£Q’ means, ‘P is neither greater nor equal to Q’
‘P@Q’ means, ‘P is not greater than Q’
Now according to the folllowing statement if they are true, judge their Conclusions I, II and III follow definiately true.

21. Statements

E @ F , O Å F , P @ E , P $ R

Conclusions

I. O $ P
II. E Å R
III. P £ O

(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Either I or II is true
(d) Only III is true
(e) None of these

22. Statements

A * B , B @ C , A $ D , D £ E

Conclusions

I. E * B
II. C $ A
III. D @ E

(a) Only I is true
(b) I and II are true
(c) Only III is true
(d) No one is true
(e) None of these

23. Statements

I Å H , H $ T , S £ T , S @ R

Conclusions

I. I * T
II. I $ T
III. S * H

(a) All are true
(b) Either I or II is true
(c) Only I is true
(d) Only II is true
(e) None of these

24. Statements

S @ T , Q $ N , T £ N , Q * O

Conclusions

I. S $ N
II. N Å O
III. N * O

(a) None is true
(b) Either I or III is true
(c) Only I is true
(d) Only II is true
(e) None of these

25. Statements

H Å J , J * K , L $ K , K @ M

Conclusions

I. K £ M
II. L $ J
III. H Å L

(a) I and III are true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Only III is true
(d) None is true
(e) None of these

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014" ::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::


1. Three containers A, B and C are having mixtures of milk and water in the ratio 1 : 5, 3 : 5 and 5 : 7, respectively. If the capacities of the containers are in the ratio 5 : 4 : 5, then find the ratio of the milk to the water if the mixtures of all the three containers are mixed together.

(a) 51 : 115
(b) 52 : 115
(c) 53 : 115
(d) 54 : 115
(e) None of these

2. Groundnut oil is now being sold at ` 27 per kg. During last month its cost was ` 24 per kg. Find by how much % a family should reduce its consumption, so as to keep the expenditure same.

(a) 100/9 %
(b) 122/11 %
(c) 119/10 %
(d) 91/10 %
(e) None of these

3. An ice-cream company makes a popular brand of ice-cream in rectangular shaped bar 6 cm long, 5 cm wide and 2 cm thick. To cut the cost, the company has decided to reduce the volume of the bar by 20%, the thickness remaining the same, but the length and width will be decreased by the same percentage amount. The new length L will satisfy :

(a) 5.5 < L < 6
(b) 5 < L < 5.5
(c) 4.5 < L < 5
(d) 4 < L < 4.5
(e) None of these

4. A sum of  ` 725 is lent in the beginning of a year at a certain rate of interest. After 8 months, a sum of  ` 362.50 more is lent but at the rate twice the former. At the end of the year, ` 33.50 is earned as interest from both the loans. What was the original rate of interest?

(a) 3.6%
(b) 4.5%
(c) 5%
(d) 3.46%
(e) None of these

5. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a sum for 2 years at 10% per annum, when the interest is compounded annually is ` 16. If the interest were compounded half-yearly, the difference in two interests would be:

(a) ` 24.81
(b) ` 26.90
(c) ` 31.61
(d) ` 32.40
(e) None of these

6. A person lent out a certain sum on simple interest and the same sum on compound interest at certain rate of interest per annum. He noticed that the ratio between the difference of compound interest and simple interest of 3 years and that of 2 years is 25 : 8. The rate of interest per annum is:

(a) 10%
(b) 11%
(c) 12%
(d) 25/2 %
(e) None of these

7. A contract is to be completed in 46 days and 117 men were set to work, each working 8 hours a day. After 33 days, 4/7 of the work is completed. How many additional men may be employed so that the work may be completed in time, each man now working 9 hours a day ?

(a) 80
(b) 81
(c) 82
(d) 83
(e) None of these

8. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 30 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened. Find when the second pipe B must be turned off so the cistern may just be full in 10 minutes.

(a) 80/3 min
(b) 25 min
(c) 122/ 3 min
(d) 128/3 min
(e) None of these

9. A train leaves station X at 5 a.m. and reaches station Y at 9 a.m. Another train leaves station Y at 7 a.m. and reaches station X at 10: 30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other ?

(a) 7 : 36 am
(b) 7 : 56 am
(c) 8 : 36 am
(d) 8 : 56 am
(e) None of these

10. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes to cover a certain distance, while it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio between the speed of the boat and speed of water current respectively?

(a) 2 : 1
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 8 : 3
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Study the pie charts given below and answer the following questions.

11. What is the cost of Gear Box?

(a) ` 9000
(b) ` 6000
(c) ` 3000
(d) `15,000
(e) None of these

12. What percentage of total cost is contributed by the brake?

(a) 5.5%
(b) 6.6%
(c) 6%
(d) 5.4%
(e) None of these

13. If the price of tyres goes up by 25%, by what amount should be the sale price be increased to maintain the amount of profit?

(a) ` 750
(b) ` 2250
(c) ` 3750
(d) ` 375
(e) None of these

14. If transmission cost increases by 20%, by what amount is the profit reduced (total price of car remains same)?

(a) ` 3000
(b) ` 4000
(c) ` 6000
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

15. What % of sale price is contributed by clutch?

(a) 6%
(b) 2%
(c) 3%
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 - 20) : Read the following information and answer the questions that follow.

In a huge Jewellery shop, the electric gadgets being used are 17 tubelights of 40 W each, 14 fans of 80 W each, 16 bulbs of 60 W each, 11 bulbs of 100 W each, 11 AC’s of 2100 W each, 9 laptops of 200 W each and 10 TV’s of 120 W each. In a day, tube lights and TV’s are used for 8 h but 60 W bulbs are used for 7 h and 100 W bulbs are used for 9 h whereas laptops and AC's are used for 5 h and 9 h respectively. However, fans are used for 11 h. (Note: 1000 W = 1 unit, 1 month = 30 days).

16. What is the total electric energy consumed (in units) by60 W bulbs in the whole month?

(a) 432
(b) 576
(c) 67.2
(d) 201.6
(e) None of these

17. Electricity consumed by all fans is what per cent of energy consumed by all the laptops?

(a) 132.2%
(b) 136.88%
(c) 122.68
(d) 169.62%
(e) None of these

18. Out of the following, which type of gadgets consume more electricity in the shop?

(a) Fans
(b) Tubelights
(c) Laptops
(d) TV’s
(e) None of these

19. If one electric unit costs ` 2.70 and power (used by AC's) unit costs ` 3.70, then what money is paid to the electricit department for one month?

(a) ` 27368
(b) ` 28683
(c) ` 78600
(d) ` 2900
(e) None of these

20. What is the ratio of consumption of electricity in units by 60W and 100 W bulbs in a month?

(a) 5 : 6
(b) 4 : 5
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 2 : 3
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs.21–25): In each of the following questions two equations are given. You have to solve them and give answer accordingly.

(a) If x > y
(b) If x < y
(c) If x = y
(d) If x > y
(e) If x < y

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 201 "Held on: 1-11-2014" ::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 201 "Held on: 1-11-2014"

::ENGLISH LANGUAGE::


DIRECTION (Qs. 1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Governments have traditionally equated economic progress with steel mills and cement factories. While urban centers thrive and city dwellers get rich, hundreds of millions of farmers remain mired in poverty. However, fears of food shortages, a rethinking of antipoverty priorities and the crushing recession in 2008 arecausing a dramatic shift in world economic policy in favour of greater support for agriculture. The last time when the world’s farmers felt such love was in the 1970s. At that time, as food prices spiked, there was real concern that the world was facing a crisis in which the planet was simply unable to produce enough grain and meat for an expanding population. Governments across the developing world and international aid organisations plowed investment into agriculture in the early 1970s, while technological breakthroughs, like high-yield strains of important food crops, boosted production. The result was the Green Revolution and food production exploded. But the Green Revolution became a victim of its own success.
Food prices plunged by some 60% by the late 1980s from their peak in the mid- 1970s. Policymakers and aid workers turned their attention to the poor’s other pressing needs, such as health care and education. Farming got starved of resources and investment. By 2004, aid directed at agriculture sank to 3.5% and “Agriculture lost its glitter.” Also, as consumers in highgrowth giants such as China and India became wealthier, they began eating more meat, so grain once used for human consumption got diverted to beef up livestock. By early 2008, panicked buying by importing countries and restrictions slapped on grain exports by some big producers helped drive prices upto heights not seen for three decades. Making matters worse, land and resources got reallocated to produce cash crops such as biofuels and the result was that voluminous reserves of grain evaporated. Protestsbroke out across the emerging world and fierce food riots toppled governments. This spurred global leaders into action. This made them aware that food security is one of the fundamental issues in the world that has to be dealt with in order to maintain administrative and political stability. This also spurred the U.S. which traditionally provisioned food aid from American grain surpluses to help needy nations, to move towards investing in farm sectors around the globe to boost productivity. This move helped countries become more productive for themselves and be in a better position to feed their own people. Africa, which missed out on the first Green Revolution due to poor policy and limited resources, also witnessed a ‘change’. Swayed by the success of East Asia, the primary povertyfighting method favoured by many policymakers in Africa was to get farmers off their farms and into modern jobs in factories and urban centers. But that strategy proved to be highly insufficient. Income levels in the countryside badly trailed those in cities while the FAO estimated that the number of poor going hungry in 2009 reached an all time high at more than one billion. In India on the other hand, with only 40% of its farmland irrigated, entire economic boom currently underway is held hostage by the unpredictable monsoon. With much of India’s farming areas suffering from drought this year, the government will have a tough time meeting its economic growth targets. In a report, Goldman Sachs predicted that if this year too receives weak rains, it could cause agriculture to contract by 2% this fiscal year, making the government’s 7% GDP-growth target look “a bit rich”. Another green revolution is the need of the hour and to make it a reality, the global community still has much backbreaking farm work to do.

1. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage

(a) Criticising developed countries for not bolstering economic growth in poor nations
(b) Analysing the disadvantages of the Green Revolution
(c) Persuading experts that a strong economy depends on industrialization and not agriculture
(d) Making a case for the international society to engineer a second Green Revolution
(e) Rationalising the faulty agriculture policies of emerging countries

2. Which of the following is an adverse impact of the Green Revolution ?

(a) Unchecked crop yields resulted in large tracts of land becoming barren
(b) Withdrawal of fiscal impetus from agriculture to other sectors
(c) Farmers began soliciting government subsidies for their produce
(d) Farmers rioted as food prices fell so low that they could not make ends meet
(e) None of these

3. What is the author trying to convey through the phrase “making the government’s 7% GDP growth target look “a bit rich”?

(a) India is unlikely to achieve the targeted growth rate
(b) Allocation of funds to agriculture has raised India’s chances of having a high GDP
(c) Agricultural growth has artificially inflated India’s GDP and such growth is not real
(d) India is likely to rave one of the highest GDP growth rates
(e) A large portion of India’s GDP is contributed by agriculture

4. Which of the following factors was/were responsible for the neglect of the farming sector after the green revolution?

(A) Steel and cement sectors generated more revenue for the government as compared to agriculture.
(B) Large scale protests against favouring agriculture at the cost of other important sectors such as education and healthcare.
(C) Attention of policy makers and aid organizations was diverted from agriculture to other sectors.

(a) None
(b) Only (C)
(c) Only (B) & (C)
(d) Only (A) & (B)
(e) All (A), (B) & (C)

5. What prompted leaders throughout the world to take action to boost the agriculture sector in 2008?

(a) Coercive tactics by the U.S. which restricted food aid to poor nations
(b) The realization of the link between food security and political stability
(c) Awareness that performance in agriculture is necessary in order to achieve the targeted GDP
(d) Reports that high-growth countries like China and India were boosting their agriculture sectors to capture the international markets
(e) Their desire to influence developing nations to slow down their industrial development.

6. What motivated the U.S. to focus on investing in agriculture across the globe ?

(a) To make developing countries become more reliant on U.S. aid
(b) To ensure grain surpluses so that the U.S. had no need to import food
(c) To make those countries more self sufficient to whom it previously provided food
(d) To establish itself in the market before the highgrowth giants such as India and China could establish themselves
(e) None of these

7. What impact did the economic recession of 2008 have on agriculture ?

(a) Governments equated economic stability with industrial development and shifted away from agriculture
(b) Lack of implementation of several innovative agriculture programmes owing to shortage of funds
(c) It prompted increased investment and interest in agriculture
(d) The GDP as targeted by India was never achieved because of losses in agriculture
(e) None of these

8. What encouraged African policymakers to focus on urban jobs ?

(a) Misapprehension that it would alleviate poverty as it did in other countries
(b) Rural development outstripped urban development in many parts of Africa
(c) Breaking out of protests in the country and the fear that the government would topple
(d) Blind imitation of western models of development
(e) None of these

9. Which of the following had contributed to exorbitant food prices in 2008 ?

(A) Hoarding of food stocks by local wholesalers which inadvertently created a food shortage.
(B) Export of foodgrains was reduced by large producers.
(C) Diverting resources from cultivation of foodgrains to that of more profitable crops.

(a) None
(b) Only (C)
(c) Only (B)
(d) All (A), (B) & (C)
(e) Only (B) & (C)

10. Which of the following is true about the state of agriculture in India at present ?

(A) Of all the sectors, agriculture needs the highest allocation of funds.
(B) Contribution of agriculture to India’s GDP this year would depend greatly upon the monsoon rains.
(C) As India is one of the high-growth countries, it has surplus food reserves to export to other nations.

(a) Only (A) and (C)
(b) Only (C)
(c) Only (B)
(d) Only (B) and (C)
(e) None of these

DIRECTION (Qs. 11- 13 ): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar it meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. STARVED

(a) Deprived
(b) Disadvantaged
(c) Hungry
(d) Fasting
(e) Emaciated

12. SLAPPED

(a) Beaten
(b) Imposed
(c) Withdrawn
(d) Avoided
(e) Persuaded

13. PLOWED

(a) Cultivated
(b) Bulldozed
(c) Recovered
(d) Instilled
(e) Withdrew

DIRECTION (Qs. 14 and 15): Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. PRESSING

(a) Unpopular
(b) Undemanding
(c) Unobtrusive
(d) Unsuitable
(e) Unimportant

15. EVAPORATED

(a) Absorbed
(b) Accelerated
(c) Grew
(d) Plunged
(e) Mismanaged

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20) : The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose
the most logical order of the sentences from amongst the given choices so as to form a coherent paragraph.

16. P : In the past, the customised tailoring units were localised to the township or city and catered exclusively to domestic demand.

Q : Traditionally, Indians preferred custom-made clothing and the concept of ready-to-wear is a relatively recent one.
R : Consumer awareness of styling issues and the convenience afforded by ready-to-wear helped RMG industry make small inroads into the domestic market in the 1980s.
S : The customised tailoring outfits have always been a major source of clothing for domestic market.

(a) Q R S P
(b) Q S P R
(c) R S Q P
(d) S Q P R
(e) None of these

17. P : Such a system will help to identify and groom executives for positions of strategists.

Q : Evaluation of performance is more often than not done for the purpose of reward or punishment for past performance.
R : They must become an integral part of the executive system’ .
S : Even where the evaluation system is for one’s promotion to assume higher responsibilities, it rarely includes terms that are a key for playing the role of strategist effectively, e.g., the skills of playing the role of change agent and creative problem solving.

(a) S Q P R
(b) S R Q P
(c) R S Q P
(d) Q S R P
(e) None of these

18. P : Participation involves more than the formal sharing of decisions.

Q : Through anticipation individuals or organisations consider trends and make plans, shielding institutions from trauma of learning by shock.
R : Innovative learning involves both anticipation and participation.
S : It is an attitude characterised by the cooperation, dialogue and empathy.

(a) Q R S P
(b) P Q R S
(c) R Q P S
(d) S P Q R
(e) None of these

19. P : Almost a century ago, when the father of the modem automobile industry, Henry Ford, sold the first Model T car, he decided that only the best would do for his customers.

Q : Today, it is committed to delivering the’ finest quality with over six million vehicles a year in over 200 countries across the world.
R : And for over 90 years, this philosophy has endured in the Ford Motor company.
S : Thus a vehicle is ready for the customers only, if it passes the Ford ‘Zero Defect Programme’.

(a) P Q R S
(b) P R Q S
(c) R S P Q
(d) P R S Q
(e) None of these

20. P: Finish specialists recommended a chewing gum containing xylitol-a natural sweetener present in birch, maple, corn and straw-to be used several times a day by young children.

Q : Chewing gum is a new solution that “may work for parents whose children suffer from chronic ear infections.
R : An experiment was conducted involving three hundred and six children between two and six years.
S : After Finish studies showed that xylitol is effective in preventing cavities, a team of researchers decided to investigate its effects on a very similar type of bacteria which causes ear infections.

(a) Q R S P
(b) P Q R S
(c) R Q P S
(d) Q P S R
(e) None of these

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2012 "Economic & Social Issues"

RBI Grade “B” officers’ Mains (Descriptive) Exam - 2012

Paper 2: Economic & Social Issues

Instructions:
  1. 3 hours, 100 marks
  2. Answer any five questions.
  3. All questions carry equal marks.
  4. Answers may be written either in English or in Hindi at the candidate’s option. However, all the questions should be answered only in the language so chosen. Answer-books written partly in English and partly in Hindi will not be evaluated.
  5. Part of the same question must be answered together without answers to other questions intervening.
  6. Answer to each question must be started on a fresh page.
  7. Marks will be deducted if handwriting is not easily legible.
  8. Answers will be judged on the basis of perspective, analysis and presentation

Questions (Attempt any five)

Q.1 Examine the banking sector reform measures undertaken in India since 1991. Briefly describe the recent changes in RBI’s monetary policy.

Q.2 Two Questions

  1. What is sustainable development? What should be done to achieve it?
  2. What is environment management? Explain social and economic aspects of environment management.

Q.3 Two questions

  1. Do you agree with a view that public sector enterprises have played a strategic role in accelerating economic growth? Explain.
  2. Explain the importance of service sector and its contribution to employment in India.

Q.4 Two Questions

  1. Monetary measures have failed to control inflation in India.” Explain. (b) Suggest suitable options for controlling inflation.
  2. Explain the measures and strategies adopted by India on the following subjects

Q.5 Two Question

  1. Provision of Social Security
  2. Foreign Direct Investment.

Q.6 Two questions

  1. Explain the factors responsible for rapid growth of export over the past decade.
  2. What changes have taken place in the product composition of exports in recent years.

Q.7 Two Questions

  1. Religion continues to be an important source of identity for most people in South Asia. Discuss.
  2. Examine the need of secularism in our country with special reference to constitution of India.

Q.8 Two Questions

  1. Is creation of smaller states the right solution to improve the quality of governance and check corruption? Discuss.
  2. Explain the changes in public administration in the age of globalization and liberalization.

Q.9 Two Questions

  1. Caste factor is most dominant and omnipresent in Indian politics ‘. Discuss the statement with suitable illustration.
  2. Explain the impact of reservation policy on scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.

Q.10 Write notes on any two :

  1. Impact of globalization on culture, media and technology.
  2. Role of small and medium enterprises in Indian economy.
  3. Privatization of higher education.
  4. IMF in the changing world.

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Paper II - 2014 "Economic and Social Issues"



RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Paper II - 2014

Economic and Social Issues



1. Explain different indices for measuring economic development. Which measure is most appropriate according to you and why ?

2. “ Deepening challenge of the climate change is the area that requires immediate global attention”. Discuss.

3.

(a) Explain the provisions under MGNREGA.
(b) Examine the challenges of Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) with respect to MGNREG Scheme.

4. Examine the inter-relationship of food inflation and rising wages in rural areas of India.

5. Explain the causes of India’s rising sexual crime graph. What measures would you suggest to prevent the same?

6. “Increasing unemployment in India reveals that we are not able to put our demographic dividend to good use”. Discuss.

7. Explain :—

(a) Trends of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India
(b) FDI in Insurance

8. Critically evaluate the J P Nayak committee’s recommendations to dismantle the government’s stakes in nationalized banks.
9. Explain the contribution of service sector in income, employment and export in
India.

10. Write notes on any two :—

(a) Malnutrition in India
(b) Use of social media in education : a boon or bane
(c) Problem of child labour in India
(d) Declining sex ratio.

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2008



RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2008

English Paper 1



Essay

Write an argumentative essay of about 500 words on any one of the following:-40

  • What went wrong in Singur?
  • The Role of Media in a Crisis.
  • The Nuclear Deal.
  • The Future of Peace in India.
  • Can we host the Olympics?

Precis

Make a precis of the following passage in your own words, reducing it to about 250 words, and give it a suitable title. Use the special sheet provided for the purpose:

Look beyond the stock markets, especially at the seized-up money markets, and there is little to see except bank failures, emergency rescues and high anxiety in the credit markets. These forces are drawing the financial system closer to disaster and the rich world to the edge of a nasty recession.

The crisis is spreading in two directions across the Atlantic to Europe, and out of the financial markets into the real economy. Governments have been dealing with it disaster by disaster. They have struggled to gain control not just because of the speed of contagion but also because policymakers, and the public they serve have failed fully to grasp the breadth and depth of the crisis.

Western Europe is not the limit of this the panic has also struck banks in Hong Kong, Russia and now India. And it is not just the geographical breadth of this crisis that is alarming, but also its economic depth. Because it is rooted in the money markets, it will feed through to businesses and households in every economy it hits.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014" ::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014"

::COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE::


1. In computer, what are the .xls, .doc. are

(a) File names
(b) Extensions
(c) Viruses
(d) Binary files
(e) None of these

2. What is the shortcut key to insert new document?

(a) ctrl+a
(b) ctrl+n
(c) ctrl+s
(d) ctrl+d
(e) None of these

3. What is the full form of LAN?

(a) Local Area Network
(b) Land Area Network
(c) Long Area Network
(d) Line Area Network
(e) None of these

4. Hard copy is a term used to describe...?

(a) Printed output
(b) Writing on a hard board
(b) Storing information on the hard disk
(c) All of the above
(d) None of these

5. The operating system is also called the ______ between the user and the computer.

(a) interrelate
(b) interface
(c) interference
(d) intermediate
(e) None of these

6. If a computer is constantly rebooting itself, what is most commonly the problem?

(a) Insufficient Power-Supply Unit
(b) Bad Sectors on Hard Drive
(c) Processor Overheating
(d) Defective/Bad Memory
(d) None of these

7. Networks are monitored by security personnel and supervised by __________ who set(s) up accounts and passwords for authorized network users.

(a) IT managers
(b) the government
(c) network administrators
(d) password administrators
(e) None of these

8. What is a benefit of networking your computer with other computers?

(a) Increase in the computer’s speed
(b) Sharing of cables to cut down on expenses and clutter
(c) You have another computer if yours has a breakdown
(d) Increase in the speed of the network
(e) Sharing of resources to cut down on the amount of equipment needed

9. In a synchronous modem, the digital-to-analog converter transmits signal to the___________.

(a) equalizer
(b) modulator
(c) demodulator
(d) terminal
(e) None of these

10. The term “host” with respect to the internet, means __________.

(a) A computer that is a stand along computer
(b) A computer that is connected to the Internet
(c) A computer reserved for use by the host
(d) A large collection of computers
(e) Hyperlink

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014" ::GENERAL AWARENESS::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2014 "Held on: 1-11-2014"

::GENERAL AWARENESS::


1. To combat the menace of money laundering, which of the following financial institutions has introduced the 'Know Your Customer' Scheme?

(a) IDBI
(b) RBI
(c) NABARD
(d) SIDBI
(e) None of these

2. Which of the following sectors contributes maximum in deciding the growth in income of the states in India?

(a) Energy
(b) Tourism
(c) Service
(d) Transport
(e) Agriculture

3. Which of the following is the state where the number of people living below poverty line is maximum?

(a) Bihar
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
(e) Odisha

4. Who is the person closely associated with operation flood programmes and was honoured by Padma Vibhushan recently?

(a) Dr. V. Kurien
(b) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(c) Dr. Amartya Sen
(d) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(e) None of these

5. What is the full form of MTSS?

(a) Money Transfer Service Scheme
(b) Money Transparency Service Scheme
(c) Market Transfer Service Scheme
(d) Market Tax Service Scheme
(e) None of these

6. What is the full form of EFT?

(a) Electric funds transfer
(b) Electronic finance transaction
(c) Electronics Fund Transfer
(d) Emergency fund transfer
(e) None of these

7. RuPay is an Indian domestic card scheme conceived and launched by

(a) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
(b) Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
(c) National Minorities Development & Finance Corporation (NDMC)
(d) National Handicapped Finance and Development Corporation (NHFDC)
(e) None of these

8. Which of the following is refered as Fastest mode of transaction?

(a) Transfer funds into different bank's accounts using NEFT(National Electronic Funds Transfer).
(b) Transfer funds into other bank accounts using RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement).
(c) Transfer funds into various accounts using IMPS (Immediate Payment Service).
(d) Transfer funds into different account of the same bank
(e) None of these

9. What is the full for of CBS?

(a) Customer Bond Solution
(b) Core banking System
(c) Core Banking Solution
(d) Customer Bond system
(e) None of these

10. What do you mean by Customer relationship management (CRM)?

I. It is a system for managing a company's interactions with current and future customers.
II. It is a system for managing a company's interactions with current and past customers.
III. It often involves using technology to organize, automate, and synchronize sales, marketing, customer service, and technical support.

(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both II and III
(d) Both I and III
(e) None of these

11. How RBI measured to liquidate the market?

(a) By Reverse Repo rate
(b) By Repo rate
(c) By Cash Reserve Ratio
(d) By Statutory liquidity ratio
(e) None of these

12. The Bank should comply and intimate the compliance of Award to Ombudsman?

(a) Within Two Months
(b) Within 3 months
(c) Within one month
(d) Within one year
(e) None of these

13. Cheque truncation can be done by?

(a) Using MICR data
(b) Sending cheque by speed post
(c) Using image processing
(d) Both (a) & (b)
(e) None of the above

14. Which of the following is not insured by the DICGC (Deposit Insurance and Credit Gurantee Corporation)?

(a) All Indian commercial Banks
(b) Foreign Banks branches functioning in India
(c) Local Area Banks
(d) Cooperative Banks
(e) Primary cooperative societies

15. Who is the current Secretary General of UNO?

(a) Ban Ki-moon
(b) Kofi Annan
(c) U Thant
(d) Trygve Halvdan Lie
(e) None of these

16. What is the new name given to the Cadbury's India?

(a) Ferrero Rocher Ltd
(b) Dante Confections
(c) Tootsie Roll Industries
(d) Mondelez India Foods Ltd
(e) None of these

17. Which day would be celebrated as Safe Motherhood Day as announced by Health Ministry of India?

(a) 7th March
(b) 8th March
(c) 9th March
(d) 10 March
(e) None of these

18. Which Hollywood personality got awarded at IIFA 2014?

(a) John Travolta
(b) Arnold Sch
(c) Vin Diesel
(d) Kevin Spacey
(e) None of these

19. Which author had received Padmabhushan award 2014?

(a) Shobha Dey
(b) Ruskin Bond
(c) Ravinder Singh
(d) Chetan Bhagat
(e) None of these

20. What is the full form of IBSA ?

(a) Indonesia, Brazil, South Africa
(b) Italy, Brazil, Sudan
(c) India, Brazil, South Africa
(d) India, Belgium, Saudi Arabia
(e) None of these

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "Computer Knowledge" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Computer Knowledge



1. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest?

(1) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database
(2) Database, file, record, field, character
(3) Character, record, field, database, file
(4) Character, file, record, field, database
(5) Character, field, record, file, database

2. Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the web are called

(1) Web browsers
(2) Information engines
(3) Data engines
(4) Search engines
(5) None of these

3. What is the term for unsolicited e-mail?

(1) Flamming
(2) Usenet
(3) Spam
(4) Backbone
(5) News Group

4. Processor speed is measured in

(1) bytes
(2) gigabytes
(3) gigahertz
(4) megabytes
(5) kilobytes

5. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?

(1) Ctrl + H
(2) Alt + S
(3) Shift + E
(4) Ctrl+A
(5) Ctrl + K

6. The buying or selling of goods over the internet is termed as

(1) e-selling
(2) e-buying
(3) e-business
(4) e-commerce
(5) e-transaction

7. What are the programs that block access to selected websites known as?

(1) Channels
(2) Filters
(3) Browsers
(4) Telnet
(5) Drivers

8. Which of the following is not a valid version of MS-Office?

(1) Office 2000
(2) Office XP
(3) Office 2003
(4) Office 2007
(5) Office Vista

9. Which of the following is used to write Web pages?

(1) URL
(2) HTML
(3) Telnet
(4) HTTP
(5) FTP

10. A computer chip is also called a

(1) register
(2) switch
(3) server
(4) modem
(5) microprocessor

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "General Awareness" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: General Awareness



1. Which of the following is the boundary line between India and Pakistan?’

(1) 17th Parallel
(2) Radcliffeline
(3) Other than those given as options
(4) Hindenburg Line
(5) McMahon Line

2. Banks generally insist account holders to nominate persons to whom the money lying in their accounts should go in the event of

(1) death of account holder
(2) illness of account holder
(3) account holder migrates
(4) account holder turns bankrupt
(5) Other than those given as options

3. Credit Risk refers to the risk that

(1) borrower may opt to get necessary permit/licences
(2) wrong strategy is adopted
(3) a borrower will default on any type of debt
(4) loan processing may be faulty
(5) interest rate in the markets may increase

4. Which of the following is the currency of Cambodia?

(1) Cambodian Dollar
(2) Ringgit
(3) Peso
(4) Riel
(5) Other than those given as options

5. Which of the following is a source of collecting money from the public for a company for the first time?

(1) Rights issue
(2) Bonus shares
(3) Follow on offering
(4) Initial public offer
(5) Secondary offering

6. Which of the following concepts of banking involves booking of web-enabled touch point for basic banking services?

(1) Extension Conters
(2) Retail Banking
(3) Kiosk Banking
(4) Satellite Banking
(5) Mobile Banking

7. Face value of a Government security is the amount that is to be paid to an investor at the maturity date of the security. The face value is not the same as the

(1) Par value
(2) Market Price
(3) Redemption value
(4) Repayment amount
(5) Principal value

8. As per the 2011 Census report, India’s population below the age of 35 years is

(1) between 30 & 35%
(2) between 40 & 50%
(3) between 35 & 40%
(4) more than 65%
(5) between 50 & 65%

9. The facility to help insurance policy holders buy and keep policies in electronic form rather than as a paper document is called

(1) Insurance Warehousing
(2) Insurance Cache
(3) Insurance Stockpile
(4) Insurance Depository
(5) Insurance Repository

10. Based on the recovery of the dues, banks are required to classify non-performing assets (NPAs) in the books of the bank under the categories

(1) Substandard, Doubtful and Bad Debts
(2) Standard, Doubtful and Written-Off Assets
(3) Standard, Substandard and Doubtful Assets
(4) Standard, Doubtful and Loss Assets
(5) Substandard, Doubtful and Loss Assets

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11. A mutual fund scheme in which the investors commit their money for a particular period is known as

(1) Long-End Scheme
(2) Closed-End Scheme
(3) Long-Term Fund
(4) Open-End Scheme
(5) Back-End Scheme

12. In the Asian Games who among the following won the silver Medal for India in Squash?

(1) Geetika Jakhar
(2) Yogeshwar Dutt
(3) Vinesh Phogat
(4) Saurav Ghosal
(5) Other than those given as options

13. Plant Genome Saviour Community Awards are given by Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmer’s Right Authority (PPV & FRA) for

(1) getting the highest yield of crops
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) engagement in the conservation of genetic resources of economic plants and their wild relatives
(4) ensuring soil conservation and preventing use of chemicals
(5) using traditional seeds and fertilizers to protect the soil

14. CP is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note. In the abbreviation CP, letter ‘P’ stands for

(1) Paper
(2) Portfolio
(3) Payment
(4) Promissory
(5) Position

15. Vishal Sikka is the CEO of

(1) Tata Group of Companies
(2) Cognizant
(3) Oracle
(4) Infosys
(5) Other than those given as options

16. The process that has to be undertaken by banks and other financial institutions to prevent them from being used by criminal elements for money laundering is

(1) Credit Monitoring Process
(2) Credit Rating Process
(3) KYC Process
(4) Due diligence Process
(5) Credit Appraisal Process

17. CVV is an anti-fraud security feature that helps verify that the customer is in posession of her card. The abbreviation of CVV stands for

(1) Card Virtual Valuation
(2) Confidential Virtual Verification
(3) Card Verification Value
(4) Core Virtual Value
(5) Coded Vulnerability Value

18. Which of the foIIowing is the capital of Argentina?

(1) Addis Ababa
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Buenos Aires
(4) Seoul
(5) Phnom Penh

19. With introduction of ATMs, telebanking and internet banking, banking hours is not a constraint for transacting banking business, which is known as

(1) Universal Banking
(2) Worldwide Banking
(3) Anywhere Banking
(4) Global Banking
(5) Other than those given as option

20. Which of the following institutions is a Credit Information Company?

(1) ARCIL
(2) CRISIL
(3) CIBIL
(4) ICRA
(5) CARE

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "Quantitative Aptitude" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude



1. A bakery bakes cake with the expectation that it will earn a profit of 40% by selling each cake at marked price. But during the delivery to showroom 16% of the cakes were completely damaged and hence could not be sold. 24% of the cakes were slightly damaged and hence could be sold at 80% of the cost price. The remaining 60% of the cakes were sold at marked price. What is the percentage profit in the whole consignment?

(1) 3.2
(2) 2.4
(3) 2.8
(4) 4.2
(5) 3.6

2. A professional institute’s total expenditure on students for a particular course is partly fixed and partly varies linearly with the number of students. The average expense per student is Rs. 615 when there are 24 students and Rs. 465 when there are 40 students. What is the average expense when there are 60 students?

(1) Rs. 370
(2) Rs. 450
(3) Rs. 350
(4) Rs. 420
(5) Rs. 390

3.

(1) 4 : 5
(2) 14 : 15
(3) 6 : 7
(4) 18 : 25
(5) 22 : 25

4. A, B and C have to type 506 pages to finish an assignment. A can type a page in 12 minutes, B in 15 minutes and C in 24 minutes. If they divide the task into three parts so that all three of them spend equal amount of time in typing what is the number of pages that B should type?

(1) 172
(2) 176
(3) 154
(4) 168
(5) 164

Directions (Q. 5-9): The question consists of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the appropiate option.

5. What is the base of a triangle PQR with PQ as base?

(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient toanswer the question.
(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
(5) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

6. What is the speed of the train?

I. A train crosses another train coming from opposite direction at the speed of 45 kmph in 20 seconds.
II. The train crosses another train running in the same direction at the speed of 42 kmph in 1 minute 18 seconds.

(1) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the quesiton.
(4) The data in both statements I and II togethere are necessary to answer the question
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

7. What is the rate of interest pcpa?

I. An amount invested on simple interest becomes four times in 24 years.
II. The difference between compound interest and simple interest for two years on an amount of Rs. 10000 at that rate is Rs. 156.25.

(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
(4) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

8. What is the total strength of institute X?

I. Out of the total strength of Institute X, 35% are females and rest are males. The number of females in Institute X is equal to the number of males in Institute Y.
II. Out of the total strength of Institute Y, the no. of males is 560, which is 28% of the total strength.

(1) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

9. What is the cost of fencing a rectangular plot along all four sides @ Rs. 450 per metre?

I. The area of the plot is 1458 m2, which is 54 times the numerical value of its breadth.
II. The length of the plot is 200% of its breadth and the breadth is 50% of its length.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

10. In the figure given below, the perimeter of the circle is 220 cm. What is the area of the shaded portion in cm2?

Directions (Q. 11-1(5): Study the table to answer the given questions.



11. What is the difference between the total number of people living in City R, Q and T together who do not watch Arrow and the total number of people living in these three cities together who watch Arrow?

(1) 47200
(2) 45300
(3) 47400
(4) 47600
(5) 45600

12. What is the average number of males who watch Big Bang Theory in all the cities together?

(1) 6320
(2) 6380
(3) 6340
(4) 6350
(5) 6360

13. The ratio of the total number of males to the total number of females in City P is 5 : 3. What percent of the female population watches Breaking Bad in City P?

14. The total population (males and females) of City R watching Mentalist is what percent more than the total population (male and female) of City T watching the same TV Series?

15. What is the ratio of the number of females who watch Breaking Bad in City Q and City S together to the number of females who watch Mentalist in the same cities together?

(1) 59 : 47
(2) 55 : 48
(3) 59 : 42
(4) 55 : 43
(5) 59 : 45

16. Raghu invested a certain sum in Scheme X for 4 years. Scheme X offers simple interest @ 12 pcpa for the first two years and compound intreset (compounded annually) @ 20 pcpa for the next two years. The total intreset earned by him after 4 years is Rs. 11016. What was the sum invested by Raghu in Scheme X?

(1) Rs. 17400
(2) Rs. 18400
(3) Rs. 16200
(4) Rs. 11400
(5) Rs. 9400

Directions (Q. 17): This question is based on the graph below:



17. What is the difference between the average number of male and female teachers in the given schools?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 5
(4) 25
(5) 15

Directions (Q. 18-22): In this question two equations numbered I & II are given. You have to solve both the equations and find out the correct option.

18. I. 6x2 + 41x + 63 = 0
II. 4y2 + 8y + 3 = 0

19. I. x2 + 10x + 24 = 0
II. 4y2 – 17y + 18 = 0

20. I. 24x2 + 38x + 15 = 0
II. 12y2 + 28y + 15 = 0

21. I. 3x2 – 20x – 32 = 0
II. 2y2 – 3y – 20 = 0

22. I. x2 – 20x + 91 = 0
II. y2 – 32y + 247 = 0

Directions (Q. 23): In the figure given below:

GHI is an equitateral triangle with side 14 cm. G is the midpoint of JL. What is the area of the shaded portion (in cm(2)?

23.

 

Directions (Q. 24-28): Refer to the pie-chart and answer the given questions:



24. What is the ratio of the number of novels (Romantic and Horror) sold by store E to the total number of Horror novels sold by stores C and F together?

(1) 35 : 32
(2) 45 : 32
(3) 35 : 24
(4) 35 : 26
(5) 45 : 34

25. What is the average number of Horror novels sold by stores B, C, E and F together?

(1) 2960
(2) 3060
(3) 2680
(4) 3240
(5) 3180

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "English" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude



1. A bakery bakes cake with the expectation that it will earn a profit of 40% by selling each cake at marked price. But during the delivery to showroom 16% of the cakes were completely damaged and hence could not be sold. 24% of the cakes were slightly damaged and hence could be sold at 80% of the cost price. The remaining 60% of the cakes were sold at marked price. What is the percentage profit in the whole consignment?

(1) 3.2
(2) 2.4
(3) 2.8
(4) 4.2
(5) 3.6

2. A professional institute’s total expenditure on students for a particular course is partly fixed and partly varies linearly with the number of students. The average expense per student is Rs. 615 when there are 24 students and Rs. 465 when there are 40 students. What is the average expense when there are 60 students?

(1) Rs. 370
(2) Rs. 450
(3) Rs. 350
(4) Rs. 420
(5) Rs. 390

3.

(1) 4 : 5
(2) 14 : 15
(3) 6 : 7
(4) 18 : 25
(5) 22 : 25

4. A, B and C have to type 506 pages to finish an assignment. A can type a page in 12 minutes, B in 15 minutes and C in 24 minutes. If they divide the task into three parts so that all three of them spend equal amount of time in typing what is the number of pages that B should type?

(1) 172
(2) 176
(3) 154
(4) 168
(5) 164

Directions (Q. 5-9): The question consists of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the appropiate option.

5. What is the base of a triangle PQR with PQ as base?

(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient toanswer the question.
(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
(5) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

6. What is the speed of the train?

I. A train crosses another train coming from opposite direction at the speed of 45 kmph in 20 seconds.
II. The train crosses another train running in the same direction at the speed of 42 kmph in 1 minute 18 seconds.

(1) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the quesiton.
(4) The data in both statements I and II togethere are necessary to answer the question
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

7. What is the rate of interest pcpa?

I. An amount invested on simple interest becomes four times in 24 years.
II. The difference between compound interest and simple interest for two years on an amount of Rs. 10000 at that rate is Rs. 156.25.

(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
(4) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

8. What is the total strength of institute X?

I. Out of the total strength of Institute X, 35% are females and rest are males. The number of females in Institute X is equal to the number of males in Institute Y.
II. Out of the total strength of Institute Y, the no. of males is 560, which is 28% of the total strength.

(1) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

9. What is the cost of fencing a rectangular plot along all four sides @ Rs. 450 per metre?

I. The area of the plot is 1458 m2, which is 54 times the numerical value of its breadth.
II. The length of the plot is 200% of its breadth and the breadth is 50% of its length.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

10. In the figure given below, the perimeter of the circle is 220 cm. What is the area of the shaded portion in cm2?

Directions (Q. 11-1(5): Study the table to answer the given questions.



11. What is the difference between the total number of people living in City R, Q and T together who do not watch Arrow and the total number of people living in these three cities together who watch Arrow?

(1) 47200
(2) 45300
(3) 47400
(4) 47600
(5) 45600

12. What is the average number of males who watch Big Bang Theory in all the cities together?

(1) 6320
(2) 6380
(3) 6340
(4) 6350
(5) 6360

13. The ratio of the total number of males to the total number of females in City P is 5 : 3. What percent of the female population watches Breaking Bad in City P?

14. The total population (males and females) of City R watching Mentalist is what percent more than the total population (male and female) of City T watching the same TV Series?

15. What is the ratio of the number of females who watch Breaking Bad in City Q and City S together to the number of females who watch Mentalist in the same cities together?

(1) 59 : 47
(2) 55 : 48
(3) 59 : 42
(4) 55 : 43
(5) 59 : 45

16. Raghu invested a certain sum in Scheme X for 4 years. Scheme X offers simple interest @ 12 pcpa for the first two years and compound intreset (compounded annually) @ 20 pcpa for the next two years. The total intreset earned by him after 4 years is Rs. 11016. What was the sum invested by Raghu in Scheme X?

(1) Rs. 17400
(2) Rs. 18400
(3) Rs. 16200
(4) Rs. 11400
(5) Rs. 9400

Directions (Q. 17): This question is based on the graph below:



17. What is the difference between the average number of male and female teachers in the given schools?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 5
(4) 25
(5) 15

Directions (Q. 18-22): In this question two equations numbered I & II are given. You have to solve both the equations and find out the correct option.

18. I. 6x2 + 41x + 63 = 0
II. 4y2 + 8y + 3 = 0

19. I. x2 + 10x + 24 = 0
II. 4y2 – 17y + 18 = 0

20. I. 24x2 + 38x + 15 = 0
II. 12y2 + 28y + 15 = 0

21. I. 3x2 – 20x – 32 = 0
II. 2y2 – 3y – 20 = 0

22. I. x2 – 20x + 91 = 0
II. y2 – 32y + 247 = 0

Directions (Q. 23): In the figure given below:

GHI is an equitateral triangle with side 14 cm. G is the midpoint of JL. What is the area of the shaded portion (in cm(2)?

23.

 

Directions (Q. 24-28): Refer to the pie-chart and answer the given questions:



24. What is the ratio of the number of novels (Romantic and Horror) sold by store E to the total number of Horror novels sold by stores C and F together?

(1) 35 : 32
(2) 45 : 32
(3) 35 : 24
(4) 35 : 26
(5) 45 : 34

25. What is the average number of Horror novels sold by stores B, C, E and F together?

(1) 2960
(2) 3060
(3) 2680
(4) 3240
(5) 3180

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "Reasoning" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Reasoning Ability



Directions (Q. 1-5): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered, I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and choose the most appropriate option.

1. How many persons are standing between Land K in a straight line of 19 persons? (Note: All are standing in a straight line, facing north).

I. Y stands on the extreme left end of the line. Only five persons stand between Y and K. Only six persons stand between K and R. Only four persons stand between Rand L.
II. J stands exactly in the middle of the line. Only two persons stand between I and J. Only five persons stand between I and L. I stands to the left of L. K stands third to the left of J.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. Among six persons A, B, C, D, E and F standing around a circle, some ofthem are facing the centre while others are facing outside (ie opposite to the centre.). What is the position of A with respect to E?

(Note: Facing the same direction means, if one is facing the centre then the other is also facing the centre and vice versa. Facing the opposite directions means, if one is facing the centre then the other is facing outside and vice versa).

I. C stands second to the right of E. E faces outside. C is an immediate neighbour of both D and B. F stands second to the left ofD. D faces the same direction as E.
II. Only two persons stand between B and E. Both B and E face outside. E is an immediate neighbour of both D and F. B is an immediate neighbour of both C and A. A is not an immediate neighbour of D.

(1) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3. How is X related to N?

I. X is mother of J. T is married to Z. N is daughter of T. Z is brother of J.
II. X is married to Y. Y is father of J. J is married to L. J is uncle of N.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer tlie question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

4. Among mobiles R, S, T, U, V and W, which is the costliest?

I. T is costlier than only two mobiles. S is costlier than R but not the costliest. V is costlier than only W.
II. R is cheaper than only two mobiles.V is costlier than W but cheaper than T. T is cheaper than R. S is cheaper than U.

(1) Thedata:insatanentiI alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

5. In a six-storey building (consisting of floors number I to 6, wherein the topmost floor is number 6 and the ground floor is number I) each of the six friends, namely M, N, O, P, Q and R, lives on a different floor (not necessarily in the same order). Who amongst them lives on the lowermost floor?

I. M lives on floor number five. Only two persons live between M and N. Q lives immediately above P.
II. P lives on floor number three. Only two persons live between P and O. N lives immediately above R. N lives on an even-numbered floor.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Directions (Q. 6-10): In this question are given four statements followed by five conclusions, one ofwhich definitely does not logically follow (or is not a possibility of occurrence) from the given statements. That concusion is your answer.
(Note: You have to take the four given statements to be true even it they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which ofthe given conclusions logically does not follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.)

6. Statements:

No toy is a doll.
All guns are toys.
All houses are dolls.
All dolls are baskets.

Conclusions:

(1) All baskets are toys.
(2) No gun is a house.
(3) All gun’s being baskets is a possibility.
(4) All houses are baskets.
(5) No doll is a gun.

7. Statements:

Some logics are reasons.
All reasons are arguments.
All arguments are fights.
No fight is a discussion.

Conclusions:

(1) All discussions being logic is a possibility.
(2) No discussion is an argument.
(3) All logics being discussion is a possibility.
(4) All reasons are fights.
(5) No reason is a discussion.

8. Statements:

All references are mails.
All mentions are references.
All comments are mentions.
No mail is a declaration.

Conclusions:

(1) No reference is a declaration.
(2) All comments are mails.
(3) No mention is a declaration.
(4) All declarations being comments is a possibility.
(5) At least some mails are mentions.

9. Statements:

Some moments are flashes.
All moments are seconds.
All flashes are instances.
No instance is an hour.

Conclusions:

(1) All hours being seconds is a possibility.
(2) No second isa flash.
(3) No hour is a flash.
(4) At least some moments are instances.
(5) At least some seconds are jnstances.

10. Statements:

All circles are spheres.
All spheres are rectangles.
No rectangle is a pyramid.
No pyramid is a triangle.

(1) At least some circles are pyramids.
(2) All triangles being circles is a possibility.
(3) All rectangles being triangles is a possibility.
(4) At least some rectangles are circles.
(5) No pyramid is a sphere.

11. Statements:

No hotel is a motel.
All motels are apartments.
All apartments are inns.
No inn is a guesthouse.

(1) All hotels being inns is a possibillity.
(2) No motel is a guesthouse.
(3) All hotels being apartments is a possibility.
(4) No motel is an inn.
(5) No guesthouse is an apartment.

Directions (Q. 12): Read the following statements carefully and answer the given question.
Cocoa and chocolate products have been used as medicine in many cultures for centuries. Chocolate is made from plants, which means it contains many of the health benefits of leafy vegetables.

Which of the following statements weakens the above argument?

(A) Dark chocolate contains a large number of antioxidants which slow down the ageing process.
(B) A small study revealed that regular intake of chocolate increases insulin sensivity, thus lowering the chances of diabetes.
(C) Green leafy vegetables have substances which protectskin from UV rays.
(D) Chocolates have three types of fats, one of which increases the cholesterol level.
(E) Cocoa increases blood flow to the retina, thus giving a boost to vision.

(1) Only D
(2) Only A and E
(3) Only C
(4) None of the given statements
(5) Both C and D

Directions (Q. 13-18): Study the following information and answer the questions.
Seven friends, namely L, M, N, O, P, Q and R, like different animated movies, namely Finding Nemo, Rio, Frozen, Up, Lion King, Shrek and Cars, but not necessarily in the same order. Each friend also has a presentation on topics of different subjects, namely Civics, History, English, Geography, Chemistry, Physics and Biology but not necessarily in the same order.
Q has a presentation on Civics and likes neither Frozen nor Up. The one who likes Finding Nemo has a presentation on History. L likes Rio and has a presentation neither on Geography nor on Chemistry. The one who likes Cars has a presentation on Biology. M has a presentation on Physics and does not like Up. The one who likes Up does not have a presentation on Chemistry. O likes Lion King. R does not have a presentation on History and does not like Up. P does not like Up.

13. On which of the following subjects does P have a presentation?

(1) Chemistry
(2) English
(3) Biology
(4) Other than those given as options
(5) Geography

14. Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) R - Cars
(2) Q - Shrek
(3) N - Up
(4) M - Frozen
(5) P - Rio

15. Which of the following combinations is definitely correct?

(1) N - Chemistry
(2) R - History
(3) L - English
(4) All the given combinations are definitely correct
(5) P - Geography

16. Which orthe following combinations of movie and subject is definitely correct with respect to N?

(1) Up-Chemistry
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Shrek - Geography
(4) Up - Geography
(5) Finding Nemo - History

17. Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement, Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) Biology - Cars
(2) Chemistry - Lion King
(3) Civics - Shrek
(4) English - Frozen
(4) Geography - Up

18. Which of the following movies does Q like?

(1) Shrek
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Finding Nemo
(4) Lion King
(5) Cars

Directions (Q. 19): The given information is followed by two statements, Read them carefully and answer the given questions.

Many parents have written a plea to the administration department of school X discontinue the rule of wearing ties to school.

(A) The school has kept different coloured ties for different academic scorers as part of their uniform. Thus the low-scoring children of school feel discriminated.
(B) Thesports uniform of the school does not have a tie; it is to be worn only on Wednesdays.

(1) Statement A weakens but Statement B strengthens the argument
(2) Both Statement A and Statement B weaken the argument
(3) Statement B weakens but Statement A strengthens theargument
(4) Both Statement A and Statement B strengthen the argument
(5) Statement A strengthens the argument and Statement B is a neutral.statement.

Directions (Q. 20-25): In the given questions, assuming the given statementsto be true. Find which of the given four conclusions mimbered I, II, III and IV is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

20. Staterilent:

Conclusions:

I. S > H
II. W > H
III. R < W
IV. M > T

(1) Only I, II and III are true.
(2) Only II is true.
(3) Only I and II are true.
(4) Only I and either II or IV are true.
(5) All I, II, III and IV are true.

21. Statements:

Conclusions:

I. Y < N
II. M > N
III. N = Y
IV. M > A

(1) Only either II or III is true.
(2) Only IV and either I or III are true.
(3) Only IV is true. (4) Only II is true.
(5) Only III is true.

22. Statements:

Conclusions:

I. M < J
II. J > L
III. D > L
IV. E < M

(1) Only II is true.
(2) Only I and III are true.
(3) None is true
(4) Only II and IV are true.
(5) Only I and II are true.

23. Statements:

Conclusions:

I. Y > P
II. T < F
III. O > T
IV. P < U

(1) Only I is true.
(2) Only II is true.
(3) Only III is true .
(4) None is true.
(5) Only I and IV are true.

24.

(1) Only I and II are true.
(2) Only IV is true.
(3) None is true.
(4) Only II and IV are true.
(5) Only II and III are true.

25.

(1) None is true
(2) Only IV is true
(3) Only either I or III is true
(4) Only II and I are true
(5) Only I is true

Directions (Q. 26-32): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four comers of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four comers face the centre of the table while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. Each ofthem likes a different subject, viz Mathematics, Hindi, English, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, History and Geography. (None of the information given is necessarily in the same order.)
· C sits third to the left of the one who likes Geography. The one who likes Geography faces outside. Only two persons sit between C and H.
· The one who likes Mathematics sits on the immediate right ofH. The one who likes Chemistry sits second to the right of G. G is neither an immediate neighbour of H nor ofC. G does not like Geography.
· Only one person sits between A and the one who likes Chemistry.
· D sits on the immediate left ofthe one who likes Physics. G does not like Physics.
· E likes History. E is not an immediate neighbour of A. The one who likes Hindi is an immediate neighbour of E.
· The one who likes Biology is an immediate neighbour of F.

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013" ::REASONING ABILITY::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013"

::REASONING ABILITY::


DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

An organization wants to recruit system analysts. The following conditions apply. The candidate must

(i) be an engineering graduate in computer/IT with at least 60% marks.
(ii) have working experience in the field of computer at least for 2 yr after acquiring the requisite qualification.
(iii) have completed minimum 25 yr and maximum 30 yr of age as on 1.12.2013.
(iv) be willing to sign a bond for ` 50000.
(v) have secured minimum 55% marks in selection test. However, if a candidate fulfils all other conditions Except

A. at (i) above, but is an Electronics Engineer with 65% or more marks the case is to be referred to the General Manager (GM)-IT.
B. at (iv) above, but has an experience of atleast 5 yr as a Software Manager, the case is to be referred to the VP.

In each question below, detailed information of candidate is given. You have to carefully study the information provided in each case and take one of the following courses of actions based on the information and the conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.12.2013. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows:

(a) If the case is to be referred to VP
(b) If the case is to be referred to GM
(c) If the data provided is not sufficient to take a decision
(d) If the candidate is to be selected
(e) If the candidate is not to be selected

1. Ms. Suneeta is an IT Engineer with 60% marks at graduation as well as in selection test. She is working as a Software Engineer for last 3 yr after completing engineering degree and has completed 27 yr of age. She is willing to sign the bond of ` 50000.

2. Rakesh Rao is a Computer Engineer Graduate and thereafter is working as a Software Manager for last 6 yr. He has secured 72% marks at graduation and 67% marks in selection test. His date of birth is 5th December, 1984. He is not willing to sign the bond for ` 50000.

3. Ramkumar is an Engineering graduate in computers with 78% marks passed out in 2007 at the age of 23 yr. Since, then he is working as a Software Manager in an engineering firm. He doesn't want to sign the bond for ` 50000. He has cleared the selection test with 72% marks.

4. Nishant is an Electronics Engineer passed out in June, 2010 at the age of 22 yr. Since, then he is working as a Programmer in a software company. He has passed the selection test with 66% marks and is willing to sign the bond.

5. Kalyani is an Engineer with 72% marks in Telecommunication. She has just completed 27 yr of age. She has cleared the selection test with 59% marks. She is willing to sign the bond.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6) : Analyse the following passage and answer the question.

Some words are highly inflammable. Fusion is one them. You can get two sets of people into a war mode by just uttering the words 'fusion music'. One set will breathe fire and say it violates the purity of music the other set will tell you earnestly that it opens up the borders of music.

6. From the purists perspective, the 'war' between the two set of people can best be

(a) categorized as an ideological conflict between two ideas
(b) termed as a conflict between generations the younger versus the older generation
(c) an attempt to preserve the core principles
(d) seen as an attempt of people at the margin to occupy centre stage
(e) seen as preserving the social identity of purists

7. Unlike other retail outlets, where items are purchased in any number of units the customer wants, in super-markets items are grouped in bulk packages. This bulk buying offers saving to the customer. The option to buy at wholesale prices by buying in bulk makes super-market a practical choice for budget-conscious consumers. Which of the following assumption may be drived from the above information.

(a) Super-markets often have greater buying power and lower overhead costs, so they can offer a greater variety of products than regular retail outlets
(b) Super-markets are often more conveniently located and have better parking facilities
(c) The emergence of super-markets has caused many small retail stores to close down and thus eliminate competitions
(d) It is economically wise to buy single items since bulk packages seldom offer significant savings
(e) The financial savings from purchasing bulk packages may outweigh the inconvenience of being unable to purchase in any number of units that suits the customers' need

8. Nations do not complete with each other in the way corporations do. Which of the following most favours the weakness of the argument?

(a) Trade deficit is a sign of national strength, profits are a sign of corporate strength
(b) Increase in human development index improves national standing, increase in market share improves corporate standing
(c) Climate change negotiations lead to global improvement; CSR initiatives lead to image improvement
(d) Nations go to war to capture territory, corporates contend against each other to capture market share
(e) None of the above

9. Civilization has taught us to be friendlier towards one another Which of the following most favours the strengthens of the argument?

(a) Cats are loyal to their children, whereas men are loyal to their communities
(b) Elephants move in a herd, whereas men live in nuclear families
(c) Lions protect their own territories, whereas men capture other men's territories
(d) Nilgai and Cheetal stay together, whereas men of one race dominate another
(e) None of the above

10. The mushrooming of business schools in the country is a cause for shortage of faculty with Ph.D qualification. In addition, the higher pay and generous fringe benefits given by industry has encouraged qualified people to not seek academic positions. Which of the following statements, if true, would tend to STRENGTHEN the argument?

(a) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is more than the average salary for faculty positions in some business schools in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(b) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is less than the average salary for faculty positions in a top business school in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(c) The average salary for recent Ph. D graduates in the industry is 20% higher than that in academics
(d) The rate of growth of salaries for the industry positions has been higher than the rate of growth of salaries for academic positions for the past three years
(e) None of the above

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-13) : Study the information given below carefully to answer the following questions

In a certain code language the following lines written as:
'lop eop aop fop' means 'Traders are above laws'
'fop cop bop gop' means 'Developers were above profitable'
'aop bop uop qop' means 'Developers stopped following traders'
'cop jop eop uop' means 'Following maps were laws'

11. 'Developers are following laws' would be correctly written as

(a) 'bop cop uop eop'
(b) 'lop bop eop uop'
(c) 'oup cop lop aop'
(d) 'gop cop uop qop'
(e) None of these

12. 'qop gop cop eop' would correctly mean

(a) profitable laws were stopped
(b) developers stopped following laws
(c) traders were above profitable
(d) were laws profitable traders
(e) None of the above

13. 'aop qop bop' would correctly mean

(a) following were above
(b) traders stopped developers
(c) developers are laws
(d) traders above stopped
(e) laws are stopped

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 14-18) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

14. Statements:

All petals are flowers. Some flowers are buds.
Some buds are leaves. All leaves are plants.

Conclusions:

I. Some petals are not buds.
II. Some flowers are plants.
III. No flower is plant.

(a) Only I follows
(b) Either II or III follows
(c) I and II follow
(d) Only III follows
(e) None of the above

15. Statements:

Some pens are keys. Some keys are locks.
All locks are cards. No card is paper

Conclusions:

I. No lock is paper.
II. Some cards are keys.
III. Some keys are not paper.

(a) I and II follow
(b) Only I follows
(c) Only II follows
(d) All follow
(e) None follows

16. Statements:

Some pearls are gems. All gems are diamonds.
No diamond is stone. Some stones are corals.

Conclusions:

I. Some stones are pearls.
II. Some corals being diamond is a possibility.
III. No stone is pearl.

(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or III follows
(d) I and II follow
(e) None of these

17. Statements:

Some apartments are flats. Some flats are buildings.
All buildings are bungalows. All bungalows are gardens.

Conclusions:

I. All apartments being building is a possibility
II. All bungalows are not buildings.
III. No flat is garden.

(a) None follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) Either I or III follows
(d) II and III follow
(e) Only II follows

18. Statements:

All chairs are tables. All tables are bottles.
Some bottles are jars. No jar is bucket.

Conclusions:

I. Some tables being jar is a possibility.
II. Some bottles are chairs.
III. Some bottles are not bucket.

(a) Only I follows
(b) I and II follow
(c) All follow
(d) Only II follows
(e) None of these

19. A person starts from point P in East and moves 12 m to point Q. Then, he moves right 8 m to point R. Again he moves right for 6 m to point S. Then, he moves 6 m in the North to point T. Finally from there he goes to left for 6 m to point U. Which of three point he would form a triangle whose all the angles are less than 90°?

(a) PTQ
(b) QTR
(c) UTS
(d) TSR
(e) SQR

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-25) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing either the centre or outside. Each one of them belongs to a different department viz. Finance, Marketing Sales, HR, Corporate Finance, Investment Banking and Operations but not necessarily in the same order. C sits third to the right of G.G faces the centre. Only one person sits between C and the person working in the HR department immediate neighbours of C face outside. Only one person sits between F and D. Both F and D face the centre. D does not work in the HR department. A works in Investment Banking Department. A faces the centre. Two people sit between the persons who work in Investment Banking and Marketing Departments. The person who works in Corporate Finance sits to the immediate left of E. C faces same direction as E. The person who works in corporate finance sits to the immediate left of the person who works for Finance department.

20. For which of the following departments does B work?

(a) Finance
(b) Marketing
(c) HR
(d) Corporate Finance
(e) Operations

21. What is position of B with respect to the person who works for Sales department?

(a) Immediate right
(b) Third to the left
(c) Second to the right
(d) Second to the left
(e) Fourth to the right

22. Who sits to the immediate right of E ?

(a) The person who works for Marketing department
(b) C
(c) B
(d) The person who works for HR department
(e) A

23. Who amongst the following sits exactly between C and the person who works for HR department?

(a) B
(b) The person who works for Marketing department
(c) The person who works for Operations department
(d) D
(e) G

24. Who amongst the following sit between the persons who work for Marketing and Investment Banking departments when counted for the left hand side of the person working for Marketing department?

(a) F and G
(b) E and C
(c) C and B
(d) F and D
(e) B and D

25. How many people sit between the person who works for Operations department and A, when counted from the right hand side of A?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) More than four

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013" ::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2013 "Held on: 27-10-2013"

::QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE::

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information given in three Statements I, II and III. You have to study the question along with the statements and decide the information given in which of the statement(s) is necessary to answer the question.

1. In how many days 10 women can finish the work?

I. 10 men finish the work in 6 days.
II. 10 women and 10 men finish the work in 24/7 days.
III. If 10 men work 3 days and after that 10 women are deployed to work for men, the rest work is finished in 4 days.

(a) I and II
(b) Any two of three
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
(e) None of these

2. What is the present age of Sabir?

I. The present age of Sabir is half of his father's age.
II. After five years the ratio of ages of Sabir and his father is 6 : 11.
III. Sabir is younger to his brother by five years.

(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) All of these
(e) Cannot be determined

3. What is two digit number?

I. The difference between the number and the number formed by interchanging the digit is 27.
II. The difference between two digits is 3.
III. The digit at unit's place is less than that at ten place by 3.

(a) I and II
(b) I and either II or III
(c) I and III
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

4. What is the rate of interest Percent per annum?

I. An amount doubles itself in 5 yr on simple interest;
II. Difference between the compound interest and the simple interest earned on a certain amount in two years is ` 400.
III. Simple interest earned per annum is ` 2000.

(a) Only I
(b) II and III
(c) Any two of three
(d) I or II and III
(e) Only I or II and III

5. What is the cost of flooring the rectangular hall?

I. Length and the breadth of the hall are in the ratio of 3 : 2
II. Length of the hall is 48 m and cost of flooring is ` 850 per sq m.
III. Perimeter of the hall is 160 m and cost of flooring is ` 850 per sq m.

(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) Only III
(d) I and either II or III
(e) Any two of the three

6. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and the denominator is increased by 25%, the fraction obtained is 3/5. What was the original fraction?

(a) 5/7
(b) 4/7
(c) 3/8
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

7. If the positions of the digits of a two-digit number are interchanged, the number obtained is smaller than the original number by 27. If the digits of the number are in the ratio of 1 : 2, what is the original number?

(a) 36
(b) 63
(c) 48
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

8. One of the angles of a quadrilateral is thrice the smaller angle of a parallelogram. The respective ratio between the adjacent angles of the parallelogram is 4:5. Remaining three angles of the quadrilateral are in ratio 4 : 11: 9 respectively. What is the sum of the largest and the smallest angles of the quadrilateral?

(a) 255°
(b) 260°
(c) 265°
(d) 270°
(e) None of these

9. An aeroplane flies with an average speed of 756 km/h. A helicopter takes 48 h to cover twice the distance covered by aeroplane in 9 h. How much distance will the helicopter cover in 18 h? (Assuming that flights are non-stop and moving with uniform speed.)

(a) 5010 km
(b) 4875 km
(c) 5760 km
(d) 5103 km
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 10-14) : Study the following table carefully and answer the question given below.

Number of People taking Fresh Loans from Different Banks over the Year and the Percentage of Defaulters Amongst them each Year

10. Approximately how many people taking a loan from Bank S in the year 2006 were defaulters?

(a) 6490
(b) 6210
(c) 5020
(d) 6550
(e) 5580

11. Approximately what was the difference between the number of defaulters of Bank Q in the year 2004 and 2005?

(a) 175
(b) 125
(c) 190
(d) 205
(e) 140

12. In which of the following years was the number of defaulters of Bank R, the maximum among the given years?

(a) 2005
(b) 2006
(c) 2007
(d) 2010
(e) None of these

13. In which of the following years was the difference in number of people taking loan from Bank P from the previous year the highest?

(a) 2008
(b) 2006
(c) 2007
(d) 2005
(e) None of these

14. Approximately what was the total number of defaulters of Bank T in the years 2007 and 2008 together?

(a) 14110
(b) 13620
(c) 13250
(d) 14670
(e) 15330

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 15-19) : In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

15. 29, 37, 21, 43 ,13, 53, 5

(a) 37
(b) 53
(c) 13
(d) 21
(e) 43

16. 600, 125, 30, 13, 7.2, 6.44, 6.288

(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 12
(e) None of these

17. 80, 42, 24, 13.5, 8.75, 6.375, 5.1875

(a) 8.75
(b) 13.5
(c) 24
(d) 6.375
(e) 42

18. 10, 8, 13, 35, 135, 671, 4007

(a) 8
(b) 671
(c) 135
(d) 13
(e) 35

19. 150, 290, 560, 1120, 2140, 4230, 8400

(a) 2140
(b) 560
(c) 1120
(d) 4230
(e) 290

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-24) : These questions are based on the following data. The distribution of appeared and qualified aspirants in competitive examination from different States.

20. What is the ratio of the number of appeared aspirants from States C and E together to that of the appeared aspirants from States A and F together?

(a) 17:33
(b) 11:13
(c) 13:27
(d) 17:27
(e) None of these

21. In which state the percentage of qualified aspirants to appeared aspirants is the least?

(a) C
(b) F
(c) D
(d) E
(e) G

22. What is the difference in the number of qualified aspirants in states D and G?

(a) 690
(b) 670
(c) 780
(d) 720
(e) None of these

23. What is the percentage of qualified aspirants with respect to appeared aspirants from states B and C taken together? (Rounded off to two decimal places.)

(a) 23.11
(b) 24.21
(c) 21.24
(d) 23
(e) None of these

24. What is the ratio between number of candidates qualified from States B and D together and the number of candidates appeared from States 'C' respectively?

(a) 8:37
(b) 11:12
(c) 37 : 40
(d) 7 : 37
(e) None of the above

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

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