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IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2018 (Reasoning)

IBPS-CLERK Papers PDF


IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2018 (Reasoning)


 Subject : Reasoning


Direction (66 – 69): Read the given information and answer the question that follows. 7 people P, Q, R, S, T, V, and W give a test starting from Monday to Sunday. 4 people give the test between R and S. P gives the test on Wednesday. No person gives the test between P and Q. There are 3 people who give the test between T and V. T gives the test before V. W does not give the test on Sunday. At least 2 people give the test before S

66. How many people attempt the test after R?
A. 1 
B. 5
C. 3 
D. 4
E. None

67. Who gives the test on Sunday?
A. P 
B. R
C. S 
D. Q
E. V

68. Which of the following statement is false?
A. Q gives the test on Thursday.
B. P gives the test before S.
C. Three people give the test between W and R.
D. V gives the test after S.
E. All of the above are false.

69. W gives the test in which of the following days?
A. Monday 
B. Tuesday
C. Thursday 
D. Friday
E. Saturday

70. How many pairs of letters are there in the word UNSETTLED, each of which has as many letters between (in both forward and backward direction) them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A. One 
B. Two
C. Three 
D. More than three
E. None

Direction (71 – 74): The question consists of some statements followed by some conclusions. Consider the statements to be true even if they are in variance with the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements and accordingly mark your answer.

71. Statements:
All Bikes are Car
Some Car are Truck
Conclusions:
I. Some Bike are Truck
II. No Truck is Car
A. Only conclusion I follow.
B. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
C. Both conclusions I and II follow.
D. Either conclusion I or II follows.
E. Only conclusion II follows.

72. Statements:
Some Toffee are eclairs
All eclairs are dairy-milk.
Some dairy-milk are choc-bar.
Conclusions:
I. At least some eclairs are dairymilk.
II. No Toffee is choc-bar.
A. Only conclusion I follows.
B. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
C. Both conclusions I and II follow.
D. Either conclusion I or II follows.
E. Only conclusion II follows.

73. Statements:
Some box are Table
No table is board.
Some board are wall.
Conclusions:
I. Some board are box.
II. No box is board.
A. Only conclusion I follow.
B. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
C. Both conclusions I and II follow.
D. Either conclusion I or II follows.
E. Only conclusion II follows.

74. Statements:
Some Toffee are eclairs
All eclairs are dairy-milk.
Some dairy-milk are choc-bar.
Conclusions:
I. Some choc-bar being toffee is a possibility.
II. No Toffee is dairy-milk.
A. Only conclusion I follow.
B. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
C. Both conclusions I and II follow.
D. Either conclusion I or II follows.
E. Only conclusion II follows.

Direction (75 – 79): Study the following information to answer the given questions. Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-2 P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the 11 other row. V sits third to the right of S. S faces F and F does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. D sits third to the right of C. R faces C. The one who is facing E sits third to the right of P. B and P do not sit at the extreme ends of the line. T is not an immediate neighbour of V and A is not an immediate neighbour of C. R does not sit at the extreme end.

75. Who amongst the following faces D?
A. T 
B. P
C. Q 
D. R
E. None of these

76. Who amongst the following represent the people sitting at the extreme ends of the rows?
A. R, F 
B. T, A
C. D, R 
D. C, Q
E. S, A

77. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A. B-T 
B. A-Q
C. C-S 
D. F-P
E. D-R

78. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A. D 
B. S
C. V 
D. T
E. A

79. How many persons are seated between R and T?
A. ONE 
B. TWO
C. THREE 
D. FOUR
E. None of these

Direction (80 – 84): Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it. Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, Y, V, and W are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
* P who faces the centre sits third to the right of V.
* T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V.
* Only one person sits between V and W.
* S sits second to the right of Q, Q faces the centre.
* R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

80. Who sits second to the left of Q?
A. V 
B. P
C. T 
D. Y
E. W

81. What is the position of T with respect to V?
A. Fourth to the left
B. Second to the left
C. Third to the left
D. Third to the right
E. Second to the right

82. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A. R 
B. W
C. V 
D. S
E. Y

83. Which of the following will come in place of the question mark (?) based upon the given seating arrangement? WP TR QW RS ?
A. YT 
B. VY
C. VQ 
D. PY
E. QV

84. Which of the following is true regarding R?
A. R is an immediate neighbor of V
B. R faces the centre
C. R sits exactly between T and S
D. Q sits third to left of R
E. None is true

Direction (85 – 87): Read the given information and answer the question that follows. E is 10 Km to the west of I. C is 5 Km to the south of E. A is 15 km to the east of C. F is 10 km to the west of H. B is 5 km to the west of A. H is 5 km to the north of E. D is 15 km to the west of C. G is 5 km to the west of F.

85. Which of the following are not sitting in a straight line?
A. HEC 
B. CBA
C. IFC 
D. GFH
E. DCB

86. What is the direction of G with respect to A?
A. South
B. North
C. North – West
D. South – West
E. South – East

87. B is in which direction with respect to C and at what distance?
A. 10 km, West
B. 5 km, East
C. 10km, East
D. 5 km, West
E. none of the above

Direction (88 – 90): Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it. Six persons M, N, O, P, Q and R have different heights. N is taller than P. M is taller than R but shorter than P. At least one person is shorter than R. The number of people taller than Q is same as shorter than O. Q is taller than M.
88. How many persons are taller than Q?
A. 0 
B. 1
C. 2 
D. 3
E. 4

89. Who among the following is the shortest in the group?
A. O 
B. R
C. P 
D. N
E. Q

90. Who among the following is taller than N?
A. P 
B. R
C. M 
D. Q
E. O

Direction (91 – 95): Read the given information and answer the question that follows. Seven friends are visiting seven different cities namely, Jhansi, Delhi, Ooty, Shimla, Amritsar, Lucknow, and Bhuvneshwar but not necessarily in the same order. The one who visits Jhansi is immediately above the one who visits Lucknow. There are only two persons between the one who visits Amritsar and the one who visits Jhansi. The one who visits Ooty is above Amritsar but not immediately above the one who visits Amritsar. Only three persons are between the one who visits Shimla and the one who visits Ooty. The one who visits Bhuvneshwar is immediately above the one who visits Shimla. Only one person is there between the one who visits Delhi and the one who visits Bhuvneshwar.

91. How many people are visiting between the one who visits Ooty and the one who visits Bhuvneshwar?
A. One 
B. Two
C. Three 
D. Four
E. None

92. Which of the following city is visited immediately before Delhi?
A. Ooty 
B. Amritsar
C. Delhi 
D. Bhuvneshwar
E. None

93. Which of the following cities are there between Jhansi and Amritsar?
A. Shimla, Bhuvneshwar
B. Ooty, Shimla
C. Lucknow, Delhi
D. Lucknow, Ooty
E. None of these

94. Which of the following condition is correct regarding Amritsar with respect to Bhuvneshwar?
A. There is one city between Bhuvneshwar and the one who visits Amritsar
B. Bhuvneshwar is immediately above the one who visits Amritsar
C. All the above are true
D. The one who visits Amritsar is the person immediately above Bhuvneshwar
E. None of these

95. Which of the following cities is there exactly between Delhi and Jhansi?
A. Amritsar 
B. Ooty
C. Shimla 
D. Lucknow
E. None of these

Direction (96 – 100): The questions are based on the five three- letter word given below.

96. If all the letters in the words are arranged in reverse alphabetical order and then after all the word are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, then which of the following word is 2 nd from the right end thus formed?
A. PLG 
B. UND
C. TNK 
D. NIC
E. None of these

97. In each word every consonant is changed to the previous letter in English alphabetical series then how many words have at least single vowels?
A. One 
B. Two
C. Three  
D. Four
E. None of these

98. In each of the word if we interchange the first letter with third, then the first letter with the second one, then which of the following is the third word according to English dictionary (answer in terms of original word)?
A. NKT 
B. BEA
C. DNU 
D. ICN
E. None of these

99. If we interchange second letter with third and then first letter with third letter then what will be the value if we add all the place values of first letter in each word thus formed?
A. 30 
B. 35
C. 40 
D. 45
E. None of these

100.If we add all the letters place value in each word then which of the following word number is completely divisible by 9?
A. BEA 
B. NKT
C. DNU 
D. ICN
E. None of these

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IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2018 (Numerical Ability)

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IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2018 (Numerical Ability)


 Subject : Numerical Ability






46. What was the ratio of item sold by P on Saturday & items sold by Q on Sunday?
A. 9:11 
B. 10:13
C. 8:11 
D. 9:13
E. None of them

47. Items sold by P on Tuesday is what percent of item sold by S on Sunday?
A. 140% 
B. 130%
C. 120% 
D. 125%
E. None of these

48. What is the average of the items sold by P, Q and S on Monday, Tuesday and Saturday respectively?
A. 33 
B. 35
C. 28 
D. 30
E. None

49. Find the ratio of item sold by P on Saturday and Sunday to item sold by S on Monday & Tuesday?
A. 17:16 
B. 14:11
C. 16:17 
D. 17:15
E. None of these

50. Q sold certain items on Wednesday which was 80% of the total items sold by Q on Saturday and Sunday both. find the items sold by Q on Wednesday.
A. 86 
B. 66
C. 76 
D. 56
E. None of these

51. A sum becomes 5 times of itself on simple interest in 5 years. What is the rate of interest?
A. 100% 
B. 80%
C. 40% 
D. 20%
E. 60%

52. A passenger train that runs at the speed of 78 km/h leaves the station 8 hours after the goods train left and overtakes it is 5 hours. What is the speed of goods train?
A. 15 km/h 
B. 30 km/h
C. 60 km/h 
D. 13 km/h
E. 72 km/h

53. In a class of 40 students, the number of boys is 4 more than the number of girls. The average weight of the entire class is 48.4 KGs. If the average weight of girls is 44 KGs, what is the average weight of boys?
A. 50 kg 
B. 51 kg
C. 52 kg 
D. 53 kg
E. None of these

54. Sum of the speed of the boat in upstream and downstream is 36km/h. The speed of the stream is 3km/h. find the time taken to cover the 52.5 km upstream, assume the speed of the boat in still water is constant throughout.
A. 3 hours 
B. 4 hours
C. 3.5 hours 
D. 4.5 hrs
E. None of these

55. A man invested 15% of his monthly income in LIC and the remaining amount gave to his mother. Her mother spent 10% of it in household expenditure and thus she saved Rs.30,600, then find the monthly salary of the man.
A. 41500 
B. 42800
C. 43400 
D. 40000
E. None of these

56. In a city, 68% population is literate in which the ratio of the number of males and the number of females is 11:6. And if the number of illiterate males to the number of illiterate females ratio is 3:1. Find the ratio of literate female to illiterate female.
A. 1:3 
B. 2:1
C. 3:1 
D. 2:3
E. None of these

57. A is 1.5 times more efficient than B and C is two times efficient than A. A and B take 7(1/2) days to complete the work. How many days will B & C take to complete the work together?
A. 4(1/6) days 
B. 5(2/3) days
C. 5(5/6) days 
D. 3(5/6) days
E. None of these

58. In an exam if 7 marks given for right Answer and 4 marks deducted for wrong Answer and total marks given to a student is 263, then how many right Answer given by student if total attempts is 58?
A. 44 
B. 45
C. 42 D. 40
E. None of these

59. The difference between Circumference of circle A and diameter is 90 cm. If Radius of Circle B is 7 cm less than A then find area of Circle B?
A. 616 cm2 
B. 308 cm2
C. 77 cm2 
D. 49 cm2
E. None of these

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IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2018 (English Language)

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IBPS Clerk Prelims Online Question Paper - 2018 (English Language)


 Subject : English Language


Direction (1 – 5) : Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these. A decade ago, working from home may have seemed like a distant dream. Today, it's the future of work. With millennials the driving force behind this shift in the workforce, remote work was dismissed as another "annoying" millennial trait. As more companies adopt telecommuting practices, the benefits are very clear. No longer is remote work about working on a beach, it's a complete design in how we approach the way we work. Here are the benefits and reasons why to embrace telecommuting and remote work. It is estimated that employers in the US lose $1.8 trillion a year in productivity. From distractions like water cooler gossip to excessive commuting, health problems and more. Workers are finding it harder than ever to hit maximum productivity in a traditional office work environment. The solution? Telecommuting. According to the State of Work Productivity Report, 65% of full-time employees think a remote work schedule would increase productivity. This is backed up by more than twothirds of managers reporting an increase in overall productivity from their remote employees. Where do telecommuters find this extra boost of productivity? With none of the distractions from a traditional office setting, telecommuting drives up employee efficiency. It allows workers to retain more of their time in the day and adjust to their personal mental and physical wellbeing needs that optimize productivity. Removing something as simple as a twenty-minute commute to work can make all world of difference. If you are ill, telecommuting allows one to recover faster without being forced to be in the office. It also improves the impact on our overall health. As a diabetic, health is the number one priority. If our health is not in good condition, then it is inevitable that our productivity will also decline. The average person in the U.K. spends 60-80 minutes getting to and from work. With the drive to reduce our carbon footprint, telecommuting is an excellent way for your company to go green and improve your employees’ general well-being. In a report published by the Royal Society for Public Health in the UK, it found that 55% of people felt more stressed as a result of their commute. Snacking habits also increased and with less free time available, the report also found that workers were leading less active and healthy lifestyles. In a 2014 study by PGI, a leading provider of software services, it found that 80% of remote workers reported higher morale, 82% said it helped lower their stress levels, and 69% reported lower absenteeism. https://www.forbes.com

1. Why does the author support the idea of “working from home”?
I. It allows the older generation to remain in the workforce.
II. It enhances the productivity of the workers as it saves them from social distractions.
III. It cuts down the compensation cost of the employer.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Both II and III
E. All of these

2. How does working through telecommunication ensure the personal wellbeing of the employees?
I. By providing them time to cater to their psychological wellness.
II. It facilitates speedy recovery from any physical illness.
III. It compromises with the overall professional productivity of an employee.
A. Both II and III
B. Both I and II
C. Only II
D. Only I
E. All of these

3. Which of the following statement is false with reference to the passage?
A. The productivity of people who are not feeling well declines if they attend office.
B. Telecommuting can be a way to reduce the carbon footprint.
C. People working in the traditional office environment are highly unproductive.
D. Work from home helps lower stress level and absenteeism.
E. None of the above.

4. What does the author mean by the phrase, “No longer is remote work about working on a beach…”?
A. Work is conducted seriously while working from home.
B. Earlier, the idea of remote work included working from holiday locations.
C. Earlier, the concept of remote working lacked popularity.
D. Remote working provides the scope of holidaying while managing work.
E. None of the above

5. Which of the following is the MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the given word?
Optimize
A. Malign
B. Accurate
C. Eliminate
D. Approve
E. None of the above

Direction (6 – 10): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. A) And people like the Indian President and Prime Minister get 3 cents and 1 cent respectively. B) Sachin Tendulkar, arguably India’s best-ever cricket player, earns some $30 a minute. C) India’s highest-paid CEO, Mukesh Ambani of Reliance Industries, gets $10, and celluloid superstar Amitabh Bachchan, $8. D) That makes it tempting to assume that the business of cricket must be huge and thriving, too. E) But even if you ignore the numbers, the conclusion is that India’s cricket stars are handsomely paid

6. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
A. B
B. D
C. A
D. C
E. E

7. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
A. B
B. D
C. A
D. C
E. E

8. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
A. B
B. D
C. A
D. C
E. E

9. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
A. B
B. D
C. A
D. C
E. E

10. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
A. B
B. D
C. A
D. C
E. E

Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence alternatives to the bold part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (E), i.e., 'No correction required'.

11. The government has proposed changes in planning laws to ensure that nature conservation agencies and planning authorities allow of the directives.
A. abide by
B. ask for
C. aim at
D. act for
E. No correction required.

Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence alternatives to the bold part are given at (A), (B), 4 (C) and (D) which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (E), i.e., 'No correction required'. 

12. Odysseus thought that it was still possible that the Greek army could muscle in the crisis in the war.
A. muscle into
B. muddle up
C. muddle through
D. muscle out
E. No correction required.

Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence alternatives to the bold part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (E), i.e., 'No correction required'.

13. By the end of this year, California will completely book in from its 5-yearlong recession.
A. bounce into
B. bounce back
C. box in
D. box up
E. No correction required.
 

Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence alternatives to the bold part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (E), i.e., 'No correction required'.

14. The book was libellous, so the publishers had to call upon all copies of it from the bookshops.
A. call for 
B. call forth
C. call in 
D. call on
E. No correction required

Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence alternatives to the bold part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (E), i.e., 'No correction required'.

15. You can no longer brush up the argument that the system is a sort of economic straitjacket, one that is becoming increasingly onerous.
A. bring up 
B. bring over
C. bring back 
D. brush off
E. No correction required

Direction: In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of the first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of the second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the relevant option as your answer

16. I.
A) There seems to be no drop in the form
B) The hatred that both countries have for each other
C) In his salad days, my grandfather was
II.
D) seems to have amplified after the recent incident.
E) Have been the best motorcycle in Germany.
F) Of Ronaldo after the World Cup.
A. C-E and A-D
B. B-D
C. A-F, C-D and B-E
D. A-F and B-D
E. C-D

Direction: In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of the first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of the second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the relevant option as your answer.

17. I.
A) Both companies were targetting 5
B) My uncle had a dog, who
C) Strategic missiles represents a logical step
II.
D) From a car company.
E) Students from college who were in their early twenties.
F) In the attempt to attack enemy forces at a distance.
A. A-D and C-E
B. C-E and B-F
C. A-E
D. A-E, B-D and C-F
E. C-D

Direction: In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of the first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of the second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the relevant option as your answer. 18. I.
A) Selfish politicians should never make it
B) Being rich doesn’t guarantee you
C) There are apps that calculate the range of your electric car,
II.
D) Usually in the form of a circle on a map showing the approximate range.
E) Goes to the backseat of the car.
F) There was still and attempt made.
A. C-D
B. B-D and A-F
C. A-E, B-D and C-F
D. C-F
E. B-D and C-E

Direction: In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of the first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of the second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the relevant option as your answer.
19. I.
A) The entire experience of using electric
B) The dog was chasing a squirrel
C) Despite all the efforts
II.
D) Of having to live with that.
E) Someone needs to tell him.
F) mobility should be much more convincing.
A. A-D
B. C-F and B-E
C. A-D, B-E and C-F
D. A-F
E. A-E and C-D

Direction: In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of the first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of the second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the relevant option as your answer.

20. I.
A) Some men are not interested in
B) There were ample reasons why you
C) There is no statute that specifically states that texting
II.
D) can be treated on a par with criminal negligence.
E) Playing football as they find it a risky sport.
F) It was meant to be.
A. A-D, B-E and C-F
B. B-D and A-F
C. A-E and C-D
D. C-D
E. A-E

Direction: A sentence with one blank is given, indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits the blank appropriately.

21. Usually, when the local festival is a week away, the number of customers in the shop ________.
A. Will have increased
B. Has increasing
C. Will be increased
D. Increases
E. Increased

Direction: A sentence with one blank is given, indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits the blank appropriately.

22. You will have to undergo a _____ of tests before the interview.
A. large 
B. series
C. design 
D. booklet
E. delegation

Direction: A sentence with one blank is given, indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits the blank appropriately.

23. One has to be very _______ during the monsoons as the roads become slippery.
A. Smart 
B. Cautious
C. Presentable 
D. Prepare
E. Healthy

Direction: A sentence with one blank is given, indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits the blank appropriately.

24. The judge used his _________ in settling the matter.
A. Know 
B. Tactics
C. Discretion 
D. Brains
E. Bias

Direction: A sentence with one blank is given, indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits the blank appropriately. 

25. The Board members could not arrive at a unanimous _______ on the issue.
A. Judgement 
B. Progress
C. Policy 
D. Dissent
E. Action

Direction: In the given sentence, some words are printed in bold, one of which may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context. Choose that word as the answer. If all the words printed in bold are correct, mark E, i.e. ‘All are correct’ as the answer.

26. The protagonist wanted to unearth the marvellous power which magnetized the needle and supervised a thousand celesial observations.
A. unearth 
B. marvellous
C. supervised 
D. celesial
E. All are correct

Direction: In the given sentence, some words are printed in bold, one of which may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context. Choose that word as the answer. If all the words printed in bold are correct, mark E, i.e. ‘All are correct’ as the answer.

27. We can ensure more business investment in the region if we have laws which guarantee property rites.
A. business 
B. region
C. guarantee 
D. rites
E. All are correct

Direction: In the given sentence, some words are printed in bold, one of which may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context. Choose that word as the answer. If all the words printed in bold are correct, mark E, i.e. ‘All are correct’ as the answer.

28. Unless more information is collected, the police will not reveal the details of the altercution between the arresting officer and the suspect.
A. information
B. reveal
C. altercution
D. suspect
E. All are correct

Direction: In the given sentence, some words are printed in bold, one of which may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context. Choose that word as the answer. If all the words printed in bold are correct, mark E, i.e. ‘All are correct’ as the answer.

29. Considering the fact that Indians have outsed the non-natives almost always, it is not flawed to state that the nation will remain integrated till the kingdom come.
A. fact 
B. outsed
C. flawed 
D. conjointly
E. All are correct

Direction: In the given sentence, some words are printed in bold, one of which may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context. Choose that word as the answer. If all the words printed in bold are correct, mark E, i.e. ‘All are correct’ as the answer.

30. He was famous not only for his interest in schemes for the allevation of poverty in Moscow, but also as the founder of new churches and monasteries.
A. schemes
B. allevation
C. founder
D. monasteries
E. All are correc

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 11-06-2015"

:: Reasoning Ability ::



Directions (1-5): Study the information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular area of equal distances between each other, but not necessary in the same order. Some of teh people are facing in the centre while some face outside. (i.e.in a direction opposite to the centre).

D sits third tothe right of B. E sits second to the left of B. Immediate neighbours of B face the same direction (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre, the other neighbour also faces the centre and vice-versa). C sits second to the left of E. E faces the centre. F sits third to the right of C.G sits second to the left of H. H is not an immediate neighbour of B. G faces the same direction as D. Immediate neighbours of E faces opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre, the other neighbour faces outside and vice-versa.) Immediate neighbours of F face opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre, the other neighbour face outside and vice-versa.)

1. How man people in the given arrangement face the centre?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four
(5) Five

2. Which of teh following is true regarding A as per the given sitting arrangement?

(1) H sits second to the left of A.
(2) A faces outsides.
(3) Only two people sit between A and B.
(4) C is one of the immediate neighbours of A.
(5) Only three people sit between A and G.

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) F
(2) H
(3) B
(4) G
(5) D

4. What is E's postion with respect to H?

(1) Third to the left
(2) To the immediate left
(3) To the Immediate right
(4) Second to the right
(5) Third to the right

5. Who sits second to the left of G?

(1) H
(2) A
(3) B
(4) Other than those as options
(5) F

Directions (6-10): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D K, L and M live on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the typmost floor is numbered seven.

Each one of them also likes dfferent games and Polo (but not necessarily in the same order). Only three people live between B and K. B lives on one of the floosrs above K. K does not live on the lowermsot floor. Only one person live between B and the one who likes Chess. The one who likes Polo lives on one of the even numbered floors above the one who likes Chess. Only two people live between M and the one who like Chess.

The one who likes snooker lives immediately above M. A lives immediately above L. A does not like Chess. The one who likes Ludo lives on one of the odd numbered floors below L. M does not like Ludo. D lives on one of teh floors above C. Only one person lives between the one who likes Cricket and the one who likes Hockey. D does not like Cricket. M does not like Badminton.

6. Which of the following game does B like?

(1) Snooker
(2) Ludo
(3) Polo
(4) Badminton
(5) Chess

7. Who amongst the following lives on the floor numbered 4?

(1) The one who likes Hockey
(2) The one who likes Chess
(3) A
(4) L
(5) B

8. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?

(1) Only two people live between K and M.
(2) The one who likes Hockey lives immediately above K.
(3) C likes Chess.
(4) C lives on an even numbered floor.
(5) None of the given options is true.

9. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order from top to bottom, the positions of how many people will remain unchanged?

(1) None
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
(5) Four

10. Which of the following combinations is true with respect to the given arrangement?

(1) Polo-C
(2) Ludo-B
(3) Cricket-K
(4) Chess-L
(5) Snooker-A

11. A person starts walking from his office towards a partly hall. He walks for 30m towards East. He takes a 90° right turn and walks for 15m. He again takes a 90° right turn, and walks for another 20m. He then walks for 25m after taking a 90° left turn. Turning 90° towards his right he walks for 10m to reach the party hall. How far and in which direction is the party hall from his office?

(1) 40 m towards West
(2) 40 m towards South
(3) 45 m towards South
(4) 45 m towards North
(5) 40 m towards North

Directions (12-16): In these questions, two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer

(a) if only concklusion I is ture
(b) if only conclusion II is true
(c) if either conclusion I and II is true
(d) if both conclusions are true
(e) if neither conclusion I not II is true

12. Statements

Some winds are trophies.
Some trophies are cups.
No cup is a prize.

Conclusions:

(I) At least some cups are wins.
(II) All prizes being trophies is a possibility.

13. Statements

No layer is a coat.
All coats are deposits.
All deposits are sheets.

Conclusions:

(I) All coats are depostis.
(II) All deposits can never by layers.

14. Statemetns

Some flats are apartments.
No apartments is a hall.
Some halls are rooms.

Conclusions:

(I) At least some rooms are flats.
(II) No apartment is a room.

15. Statements

Some wins ae trophies.
Some trophies are cups.
No cup is a prize.

Conclusions :

(I) No trophy is a prize.
(II) All secrets are puzzles.

 

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 11-06-2015"

:: English Language ::



Directions (1-5): Rearrange the following six sentence A, B, C, D, E and F is a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.

A. Take for example the market for learning dancing.
B. This could never happen if there was a central board of dancing education which enforced strict standards of what will be taught and how such thing are to be taught.
C. The Indian education system is built on the presumption that if something is good for one child, it is good for all children.
D. More importantly, different teachers and institutes have developed different ways of teaching dancing.
E. There are very different dance forms that attract students with different tastes.
F. If however, we can effectively decentralize education, and if the government did not obsessively control what would be the ‘syllabus’ and what will be the method of instruction, there could be an explosion of new and innovative courses geared towards serving various riches of learners.

1. Which of the following should be the LASST (SIXTH) sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) F
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

2. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) F
(4) D
(5) E

3. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F

4. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) E

5. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the arrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) D

Directions (6-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Manufactures of Consumer Packaged goods (CPGs) face two key challenges this year. The first continued slow or negative growth in people’s disposable incomes. The second is changing consumer attitudes toward products and brands, as the great fragmentation of consumer markets take another turn. In response, companies must dramatically shift the route they take to reach consumers in terms of both product distribution and communications. In many markets, consumer wages have been static for five years now. Even where economies are starting to perform better, the squeeze on after-tax wages, especially for the middle class younger people and families, is depressing consumer spending. Although growth in developing countries is still better than in the United States and Europe, a slowdown in emerging countries such as China-where many countries had hoped for higher sales-has translated quickly into lower-than expected consumer spending growth.

Meanwhile, what we call the great fragmentation is manifested in consumer behavior and market response. In both developed and emerging markets, there is a wider variety among consumers now than at any time in the recent past. Growth is evident both at the top of the market (where more consumers are spending for higher-quality food and other packaged goods) and at the lower end (where an increasing number of consumers are concentrating on value). But the traditional middle of the market is shrinking.
Further, individual consumer behavior is more pluralistic. We are used to seeing, for example, spirits buyers purchasing a premium band in bar, a less costly label at home for personal consumption and yet another when entertaining guest. But, this type of variegated shopping has now spread to the grocery basket as well. Fewer consumer are making one big stocking up trip each week instead shoppers are visiting a premium store and a discounter as well as a supermarket, in multiple weekly stops – in addition to making frequent purchases online. During recession, more shoppers became inclined to spend time hunting for bargains and as some traditional retailers either went out of business or shuttered down, retail space was freed up and was often filled by convenience stores, specially shops, and discounters.

A decade ago, CPG companies had only ‘a handful of’ sales channels to consider supermarkets, convenience stores, hypermarkets in advanced economies and traditional small and large retailers in emerging countries. Since, then various discounters have made significant inroads, including no frills, low variety outlets, such as Europe’s Aldi and Lidi, which sell a limited range of private lable grocery items in smaller stores and massive warehouse clubs, such as Costco and Sam’s club, which initially operated solely in the USA but are now expanding internationally. In addition, dollars stores, specialized retailers, and online merchants are having an impact on the CPG landscape. Economizing consumers have been pleasantly, surprised by the savings generated by spreading their business among multiple channels, as well as by the variety and product quality they find. The result has been greater demand for more product and brands, with different sizes, packaging and sales methods. At most CPG companies, SKUs are proliferating despite there being little increase in overall consumption. A better outcome can be seen at smaller food and beverage suppliers, which are benefitting from consumer demand for variety and authenticity. A recent report found that in the USA, small manufactures (with revenues of less than $1 billion) grew at twice the compound annual rate of large manufactures (with revenues of less than $3 billion) between 2009 and 2012.

Consumers media usage has also fragmented with the rise of digital content and the proliferation of online devices. Each channel – from the web, mobile and social sites for radio, TV, and print – has its own requirements, audience appeal and economics, needing specialized attention. But, at the same time, media campaigns need to be closely coordinated for effective consumer messaging.

Collectively, these shifts challenges the sway CPS companies manage their brand and business portfolios and call for a rethinking of their go-to-market approach, with an emphasis on analytics. Our work with INSEAD shows that among business leaders, applying analytics–especially for tracking consumer behavior and product and promotional performance–considered one of the most effective ways to improve results and outpace the competition. But it’s not just about insight. It’s also about using the insight wisely to determine how to manage costs. The more knowledgeable about customer needs and preferences a company is, the smarter and more focused it must be in managing its own economics to cost-effectively deliver both variety and value to be squeezed consumer.

6. The central theme of the given passage is

(1) The Shrinking Market
(2) Shift towards offering Luxury Goods to Consumers
(3) Products to offer consumers with squeezed packets
(4) To highlight products consumer by the middle class
(5) Gaining insight into changing consumer behavior towards CPGs

7. In the context of the passage, which of the following brands existed otherwise but is now being manifested in buying groceries as well?

(1) Consumer purchasing the same products for over a period of time.
(2) Consumer willing to purchase goods for a longer period of time.
(3) Consumers preferring luxury goods over regular goods.
(4) Consumers are more aware of their rights.
(5) Consumers prefer buying goods from a variety of stores.

8. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word Depressing as used in the passage?

(1) Encouraging
(2) Sunny
(3) Doubtful
(4) Light
(5) Nil

9. As mentioned in the passage, CPG companies may have to reassess their present strategies of operating to

(A) retain their customers
(B) keep pace with changing consumer preference as they have access to multiple media channels
(C) make more cost-effective decisions.

(1) Only A
(2) B and C
(3) All of these
(4) Only C
(5) A and B

10. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word Depressing as used in the passage?

(1) Encouraging
(2) Sunny
(3) Doubtful
(4) Light
(5) Nil

11. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(1) In the USA, during the three year period after 2009, small manufacturing did not fare well as compared to their larger counterparts.
(2) Impact on dispensable incomes of people barely affects the CPG manufacturing industry.
(3) Post-tax wages, especially for the middle class, are one of the critical factors which have reduced spending behavior of consumers.
(4) The CPG have always been a favourite among consumers.
(5) None of the given options is true.

12. As mentioned in the passage, one of the most critical factors that aids in creating to the needs of consumers, is

(1) persuading then to purchase goods produced by the organization
(2) assess their requirements and appropriately plan to meet them
(3) offering them products that an organization regularly manufactures.
(4) concentrating only on being aware about changing presences of consumers
(5) None of the above

13. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word above Shrinking as used in the passage?

(1) Developing
(2) Annoying
(3) Narrowing
(4) Wasting
(5) Rising

14. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning of the word Variegated as used in the passage?

(1) Diverse
(2) Composite
(3) Strong
(4) Narrow
(5) Valued

15. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word Shuttered as used in the passage?

(1) Closed
(2) Retail
(3) Flourished
(4) Gratified
(5) Nearest

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Quantitative Aptitude Held on: 11-06-2015"

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(Papers) IBPS PO Exam Paper - 2015 "Held on: 11-06-2015"

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::



1. At present, Pia is 6 years older to Roy. The respective ratio between the present age of Pia and Minis is 3 : 4. At present, Ray is 14 years younger to Mini. What is Ray's present age?

(1) 16 yr
(2) 20 yr
(3) 14 yr
(4) 18 yr
(5) 24 yr

Directions (2-6): In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

Give answr

(c) if x > y                  (d) if x < y
(e) if relationship between x and y cannot be established

2. I. 4x2 + 17x + 15 = 0
II. 3y2 + 19y + 28 = 0

3. I. 3x2 – 17x + 22 = 0
II. 5y2 – 21y + 22 = 0

4. I. 3x2 + 11x + 10 = 0
II. 2y2 + 13y + 21 = 0

5. I. 3x2 + 13x + 14 = 0
II. 8y2 + 26y + 21 = 0

6. I. 3x2 – 14x + 15 = 0
II. 15y2 – 34y + 15 = 0

Directions (7-11): Study the table to answer the given questions.

Note: Other than the mentioned expenses under the given heads, there may also be some other expenses. For calculation purposes, please consider the given expenses theads only.

7. What is the respective ratio between the Marketing expenses of company A and the Marketing expenses of company C?

(1) 34 : 35
(2) 32 : 33
(3) 35 : 36
(4) 36 : 37
(5) 37 : 38

8. Total expenses of company E in October, 2012 was 20% more than the total given expenses of the same company in April, 2012. How much was the Marketing expenses of the same company in October, 2012, if it was 25% of the total expenses of the same month? (in Rs. Lakh)

(1) 27
(2) 24
(3) 26
(4) 21
(5) 18

9. Marketing expenses of company D is less than marketing expenses of company B, by approximately what percent?

(1) 20%
(2) 40%
(3) 39%
(4) 59%
(5) 29%

10. What is the average total expenses of all the companies? (in Rs. Lakh)

(1) 75.25
(2) 75.8
(3) 75
(4) 72.8
(5) 72.25

11. What is the difference between the total expenses made by company C in Legal and Marketing together and the total expenses mady company E in Legal and Marketing together? (in Rs. Lakh)

(1) 24.5
(2) 23.5
(3) 22.9
(4) 23
(5) 23.9

Directions (12-16): What approximae value will come in place of the questions mark (?) in the given questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

12. 6399 × + 353 ÷ ? = 12025

(1) 14
(2) 22
(3) 2
(4) 16
(5) 8

13.

(1) 670
(2) 570
(3) 710
(4) 510
(5) 610

14. 8461 ÷ 11.99 - 24.1 ÷ 5/100= ?

(1) 625
(2) 400
(3) 25
(4) 900
(5) 225

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "Quantitative Aptitude" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude



1. A bakery bakes cake with the expectation that it will earn a profit of 40% by selling each cake at marked price. But during the delivery to showroom 16% of the cakes were completely damaged and hence could not be sold. 24% of the cakes were slightly damaged and hence could be sold at 80% of the cost price. The remaining 60% of the cakes were sold at marked price. What is the percentage profit in the whole consignment?

(1) 3.2
(2) 2.4
(3) 2.8
(4) 4.2
(5) 3.6

2. A professional institute’s total expenditure on students for a particular course is partly fixed and partly varies linearly with the number of students. The average expense per student is Rs. 615 when there are 24 students and Rs. 465 when there are 40 students. What is the average expense when there are 60 students?

(1) Rs. 370
(2) Rs. 450
(3) Rs. 350
(4) Rs. 420
(5) Rs. 390

3.

(1) 4 : 5
(2) 14 : 15
(3) 6 : 7
(4) 18 : 25
(5) 22 : 25

4. A, B and C have to type 506 pages to finish an assignment. A can type a page in 12 minutes, B in 15 minutes and C in 24 minutes. If they divide the task into three parts so that all three of them spend equal amount of time in typing what is the number of pages that B should type?

(1) 172
(2) 176
(3) 154
(4) 168
(5) 164

Directions (Q. 5-9): The question consists of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the appropiate option.

5. What is the base of a triangle PQR with PQ as base?

(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient toanswer the question.
(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
(5) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

6. What is the speed of the train?

I. A train crosses another train coming from opposite direction at the speed of 45 kmph in 20 seconds.
II. The train crosses another train running in the same direction at the speed of 42 kmph in 1 minute 18 seconds.

(1) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the quesiton.
(4) The data in both statements I and II togethere are necessary to answer the question
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

7. What is the rate of interest pcpa?

I. An amount invested on simple interest becomes four times in 24 years.
II. The difference between compound interest and simple interest for two years on an amount of Rs. 10000 at that rate is Rs. 156.25.

(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
(4) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

8. What is the total strength of institute X?

I. Out of the total strength of Institute X, 35% are females and rest are males. The number of females in Institute X is equal to the number of males in Institute Y.
II. Out of the total strength of Institute Y, the no. of males is 560, which is 28% of the total strength.

(1) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

9. What is the cost of fencing a rectangular plot along all four sides @ Rs. 450 per metre?

I. The area of the plot is 1458 m2, which is 54 times the numerical value of its breadth.
II. The length of the plot is 200% of its breadth and the breadth is 50% of its length.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

10. In the figure given below, the perimeter of the circle is 220 cm. What is the area of the shaded portion in cm2?

Directions (Q. 11-1(5): Study the table to answer the given questions.

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11. What is the difference between the total number of people living in City R, Q and T together who do not watch Arrow and the total number of people living in these three cities together who watch Arrow?

(1) 47200
(2) 45300
(3) 47400
(4) 47600
(5) 45600

12. What is the average number of males who watch Big Bang Theory in all the cities together?

(1) 6320
(2) 6380
(3) 6340
(4) 6350
(5) 6360

13. The ratio of the total number of males to the total number of females in City P is 5 : 3. What percent of the female population watches Breaking Bad in City P?

14. The total population (males and females) of City R watching Mentalist is what percent more than the total population (male and female) of City T watching the same TV Series?

15. What is the ratio of the number of females who watch Breaking Bad in City Q and City S together to the number of females who watch Mentalist in the same cities together?

(1) 59 : 47
(2) 55 : 48
(3) 59 : 42
(4) 55 : 43
(5) 59 : 45

16. Raghu invested a certain sum in Scheme X for 4 years. Scheme X offers simple interest @ 12 pcpa for the first two years and compound intreset (compounded annually) @ 20 pcpa for the next two years. The total intreset earned by him after 4 years is Rs. 11016. What was the sum invested by Raghu in Scheme X?

(1) Rs. 17400
(2) Rs. 18400
(3) Rs. 16200
(4) Rs. 11400
(5) Rs. 9400

Directions (Q. 17): This question is based on the graph below:



17. What is the difference between the average number of male and female teachers in the given schools?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 5
(4) 25
(5) 15

Directions (Q. 18-22): In this question two equations numbered I & II are given. You have to solve both the equations and find out the correct option.

18. I. 6x2 + 41x + 63 = 0
II. 4y2 + 8y + 3 = 0

19. I. x2 + 10x + 24 = 0
II. 4y2 – 17y + 18 = 0

20. I. 24x2 + 38x + 15 = 0
II. 12y2 + 28y + 15 = 0

21. I. 3x2 – 20x – 32 = 0
II. 2y2 – 3y – 20 = 0

22. I. x2 – 20x + 91 = 0
II. y2 – 32y + 247 = 0

Directions (Q. 23): In the figure given below:

GHI is an equitateral triangle with side 14 cm. G is the midpoint of JL. What is the area of the shaded portion (in cm(2)?

23.

 

Directions (Q. 24-28): Refer to the pie-chart and answer the given questions:



24. What is the ratio of the number of novels (Romantic and Horror) sold by store E to the total number of Horror novels sold by stores C and F together?

(1) 35 : 32
(2) 45 : 32
(3) 35 : 24
(4) 35 : 26
(5) 45 : 34

25. What is the average number of Horror novels sold by stores B, C, E and F together?

(1) 2960
(2) 3060
(3) 2680
(4) 3240
(5) 3180

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "English" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude



1. A bakery bakes cake with the expectation that it will earn a profit of 40% by selling each cake at marked price. But during the delivery to showroom 16% of the cakes were completely damaged and hence could not be sold. 24% of the cakes were slightly damaged and hence could be sold at 80% of the cost price. The remaining 60% of the cakes were sold at marked price. What is the percentage profit in the whole consignment?

(1) 3.2
(2) 2.4
(3) 2.8
(4) 4.2
(5) 3.6

2. A professional institute’s total expenditure on students for a particular course is partly fixed and partly varies linearly with the number of students. The average expense per student is Rs. 615 when there are 24 students and Rs. 465 when there are 40 students. What is the average expense when there are 60 students?

(1) Rs. 370
(2) Rs. 450
(3) Rs. 350
(4) Rs. 420
(5) Rs. 390

3.

(1) 4 : 5
(2) 14 : 15
(3) 6 : 7
(4) 18 : 25
(5) 22 : 25

4. A, B and C have to type 506 pages to finish an assignment. A can type a page in 12 minutes, B in 15 minutes and C in 24 minutes. If they divide the task into three parts so that all three of them spend equal amount of time in typing what is the number of pages that B should type?

(1) 172
(2) 176
(3) 154
(4) 168
(5) 164

Directions (Q. 5-9): The question consists of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the appropiate option.

5. What is the base of a triangle PQR with PQ as base?

(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient toanswer the question.
(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
(5) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

6. What is the speed of the train?

I. A train crosses another train coming from opposite direction at the speed of 45 kmph in 20 seconds.
II. The train crosses another train running in the same direction at the speed of 42 kmph in 1 minute 18 seconds.

(1) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the quesiton.
(4) The data in both statements I and II togethere are necessary to answer the question
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

7. What is the rate of interest pcpa?

I. An amount invested on simple interest becomes four times in 24 years.
II. The difference between compound interest and simple interest for two years on an amount of Rs. 10000 at that rate is Rs. 156.25.

(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
(4) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

8. What is the total strength of institute X?

I. Out of the total strength of Institute X, 35% are females and rest are males. The number of females in Institute X is equal to the number of males in Institute Y.
II. Out of the total strength of Institute Y, the no. of males is 560, which is 28% of the total strength.

(1) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

9. What is the cost of fencing a rectangular plot along all four sides @ Rs. 450 per metre?

I. The area of the plot is 1458 m2, which is 54 times the numerical value of its breadth.
II. The length of the plot is 200% of its breadth and the breadth is 50% of its length.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

10. In the figure given below, the perimeter of the circle is 220 cm. What is the area of the shaded portion in cm2?

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Directions (Q. 11-1(5): Study the table to answer the given questions.



11. What is the difference between the total number of people living in City R, Q and T together who do not watch Arrow and the total number of people living in these three cities together who watch Arrow?

(1) 47200
(2) 45300
(3) 47400
(4) 47600
(5) 45600

12. What is the average number of males who watch Big Bang Theory in all the cities together?

(1) 6320
(2) 6380
(3) 6340
(4) 6350
(5) 6360

13. The ratio of the total number of males to the total number of females in City P is 5 : 3. What percent of the female population watches Breaking Bad in City P?

14. The total population (males and females) of City R watching Mentalist is what percent more than the total population (male and female) of City T watching the same TV Series?

15. What is the ratio of the number of females who watch Breaking Bad in City Q and City S together to the number of females who watch Mentalist in the same cities together?

(1) 59 : 47
(2) 55 : 48
(3) 59 : 42
(4) 55 : 43
(5) 59 : 45

16. Raghu invested a certain sum in Scheme X for 4 years. Scheme X offers simple interest @ 12 pcpa for the first two years and compound intreset (compounded annually) @ 20 pcpa for the next two years. The total intreset earned by him after 4 years is Rs. 11016. What was the sum invested by Raghu in Scheme X?

(1) Rs. 17400
(2) Rs. 18400
(3) Rs. 16200
(4) Rs. 11400
(5) Rs. 9400

Directions (Q. 17): This question is based on the graph below:



17. What is the difference between the average number of male and female teachers in the given schools?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 5
(4) 25
(5) 15

Directions (Q. 18-22): In this question two equations numbered I & II are given. You have to solve both the equations and find out the correct option.

18. I. 6x2 + 41x + 63 = 0
II. 4y2 + 8y + 3 = 0

19. I. x2 + 10x + 24 = 0
II. 4y2 – 17y + 18 = 0

20. I. 24x2 + 38x + 15 = 0
II. 12y2 + 28y + 15 = 0

21. I. 3x2 – 20x – 32 = 0
II. 2y2 – 3y – 20 = 0

22. I. x2 – 20x + 91 = 0
II. y2 – 32y + 247 = 0

Directions (Q. 23): In the figure given below:

GHI is an equitateral triangle with side 14 cm. G is the midpoint of JL. What is the area of the shaded portion (in cm(2)?

23.

 

Directions (Q. 24-28): Refer to the pie-chart and answer the given questions:



24. What is the ratio of the number of novels (Romantic and Horror) sold by store E to the total number of Horror novels sold by stores C and F together?

(1) 35 : 32
(2) 45 : 32
(3) 35 : 24
(4) 35 : 26
(5) 45 : 34

25. What is the average number of Horror novels sold by stores B, C, E and F together?

(1) 2960
(2) 3060
(3) 2680
(4) 3240
(5) 3180

 

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "Reasoning" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Reasoning Ability



Directions (Q. 1-5): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered, I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and choose the most appropriate option.

1. How many persons are standing between Land K in a straight line of 19 persons? (Note: All are standing in a straight line, facing north).

I. Y stands on the extreme left end of the line. Only five persons stand between Y and K. Only six persons stand between K and R. Only four persons stand between Rand L.
II. J stands exactly in the middle of the line. Only two persons stand between I and J. Only five persons stand between I and L. I stands to the left of L. K stands third to the left of J.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. Among six persons A, B, C, D, E and F standing around a circle, some ofthem are facing the centre while others are facing outside (ie opposite to the centre.). What is the position of A with respect to E?

(Note: Facing the same direction means, if one is facing the centre then the other is also facing the centre and vice versa. Facing the opposite directions means, if one is facing the centre then the other is facing outside and vice versa).

I. C stands second to the right of E. E faces outside. C is an immediate neighbour of both D and B. F stands second to the left ofD. D faces the same direction as E.
II. Only two persons stand between B and E. Both B and E face outside. E is an immediate neighbour of both D and F. B is an immediate neighbour of both C and A. A is not an immediate neighbour of D.

(1) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3. How is X related to N?

I. X is mother of J. T is married to Z. N is daughter of T. Z is brother of J.
II. X is married to Y. Y is father of J. J is married to L. J is uncle of N.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer tlie question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

4. Among mobiles R, S, T, U, V and W, which is the costliest?

I. T is costlier than only two mobiles. S is costlier than R but not the costliest. V is costlier than only W.
II. R is cheaper than only two mobiles.V is costlier than W but cheaper than T. T is cheaper than R. S is cheaper than U.

(1) Thedata:insatanentiI alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

5. In a six-storey building (consisting of floors number I to 6, wherein the topmost floor is number 6 and the ground floor is number I) each of the six friends, namely M, N, O, P, Q and R, lives on a different floor (not necessarily in the same order). Who amongst them lives on the lowermost floor?

I. M lives on floor number five. Only two persons live between M and N. Q lives immediately above P.
II. P lives on floor number three. Only two persons live between P and O. N lives immediately above R. N lives on an even-numbered floor.

(1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Directions (Q. 6-10): In this question are given four statements followed by five conclusions, one ofwhich definitely does not logically follow (or is not a possibility of occurrence) from the given statements. That concusion is your answer.
(Note: You have to take the four given statements to be true even it they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which ofthe given conclusions logically does not follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.)

6. Statements:

No toy is a doll.
All guns are toys.
All houses are dolls.
All dolls are baskets.

Conclusions:

(1) All baskets are toys.
(2) No gun is a house.
(3) All gun’s being baskets is a possibility.
(4) All houses are baskets.
(5) No doll is a gun.

7. Statements:

Some logics are reasons.
All reasons are arguments.
All arguments are fights.
No fight is a discussion.

Conclusions:

(1) All discussions being logic is a possibility.
(2) No discussion is an argument.
(3) All logics being discussion is a possibility.
(4) All reasons are fights.
(5) No reason is a discussion.

8. Statements:

All references are mails.
All mentions are references.
All comments are mentions.
No mail is a declaration.

Conclusions:

(1) No reference is a declaration.
(2) All comments are mails.
(3) No mention is a declaration.
(4) All declarations being comments is a possibility.
(5) At least some mails are mentions.

9. Statements:

Some moments are flashes.
All moments are seconds.
All flashes are instances.
No instance is an hour.

Conclusions:

(1) All hours being seconds is a possibility.
(2) No second isa flash.
(3) No hour is a flash.
(4) At least some moments are instances.
(5) At least some seconds are jnstances.

10. Statements:

All circles are spheres.
All spheres are rectangles.
No rectangle is a pyramid.
No pyramid is a triangle.

(1) At least some circles are pyramids.
(2) All triangles being circles is a possibility.
(3) All rectangles being triangles is a possibility.
(4) At least some rectangles are circles.
(5) No pyramid is a sphere.

11. Statements:

No hotel is a motel.
All motels are apartments.
All apartments are inns.
No inn is a guesthouse.

(1) All hotels being inns is a possibillity.
(2) No motel is a guesthouse.
(3) All hotels being apartments is a possibility.
(4) No motel is an inn.
(5) No guesthouse is an apartment.

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Directions (Q. 12): Read the following statements carefully and answer the given question.
Cocoa and chocolate products have been used as medicine in many cultures for centuries. Chocolate is made from plants, which means it contains many of the health benefits of leafy vegetables.

Which of the following statements weakens the above argument?

(A) Dark chocolate contains a large number of antioxidants which slow down the ageing process.
(B) A small study revealed that regular intake of chocolate increases insulin sensivity, thus lowering the chances of diabetes.
(C) Green leafy vegetables have substances which protectskin from UV rays.
(D) Chocolates have three types of fats, one of which increases the cholesterol level.
(E) Cocoa increases blood flow to the retina, thus giving a boost to vision.

(1) Only D
(2) Only A and E
(3) Only C
(4) None of the given statements
(5) Both C and D

Directions (Q. 13-18): Study the following information and answer the questions.
Seven friends, namely L, M, N, O, P, Q and R, like different animated movies, namely Finding Nemo, Rio, Frozen, Up, Lion King, Shrek and Cars, but not necessarily in the same order. Each friend also has a presentation on topics of different subjects, namely Civics, History, English, Geography, Chemistry, Physics and Biology but not necessarily in the same order.
Q has a presentation on Civics and likes neither Frozen nor Up. The one who likes Finding Nemo has a presentation on History. L likes Rio and has a presentation neither on Geography nor on Chemistry. The one who likes Cars has a presentation on Biology. M has a presentation on Physics and does not like Up. The one who likes Up does not have a presentation on Chemistry. O likes Lion King. R does not have a presentation on History and does not like Up. P does not like Up.

13. On which of the following subjects does P have a presentation?

(1) Chemistry
(2) English
(3) Biology
(4) Other than those given as options
(5) Geography

14. Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) R - Cars
(2) Q - Shrek
(3) N - Up
(4) M - Frozen
(5) P - Rio

15. Which of the following combinations is definitely correct?

(1) N - Chemistry
(2) R - History
(3) L - English
(4) All the given combinations are definitely correct
(5) P - Geography

16. Which orthe following combinations of movie and subject is definitely correct with respect to N?

(1) Up-Chemistry
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Shrek - Geography
(4) Up - Geography
(5) Finding Nemo - History

17. Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement, Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) Biology - Cars
(2) Chemistry - Lion King
(3) Civics - Shrek
(4) English - Frozen
(4) Geography - Up

18. Which of the following movies does Q like?

(1) Shrek
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Finding Nemo
(4) Lion King
(5) Cars

Directions (Q. 19): The given information is followed by two statements, Read them carefully and answer the given questions.

Many parents have written a plea to the administration department of school X discontinue the rule of wearing ties to school.

(A) The school has kept different coloured ties for different academic scorers as part of their uniform. Thus the low-scoring children of school feel discriminated.
(B) Thesports uniform of the school does not have a tie; it is to be worn only on Wednesdays.

(1) Statement A weakens but Statement B strengthens the argument
(2) Both Statement A and Statement B weaken the argument
(3) Statement B weakens but Statement A strengthens theargument
(4) Both Statement A and Statement B strengthen the argument
(5) Statement A strengthens the argument and Statement B is a neutral.statement.

Directions (Q. 20-25): In the given questions, assuming the given statementsto be true. Find which of the given four conclusions mimbered I, II, III and IV is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

20. Staterilent:

Conclusions:

I. S > H
II. W > H
III. R < W
IV. M > T

(1) Only I, II and III are true.
(2) Only II is true.
(3) Only I and II are true.
(4) Only I and either II or IV are true.
(5) All I, II, III and IV are true.

21. Statements:

Conclusions:

I. Y < N
II. M > N
III. N = Y
IV. M > A

(1) Only either II or III is true.
(2) Only IV and either I or III are true.
(3) Only IV is true. (4) Only II is true.
(5) Only III is true.

22. Statements:

Conclusions:

I. M < J
II. J > L
III. D > L
IV. E < M

(1) Only II is true.
(2) Only I and III are true.
(3) None is true
(4) Only II and IV are true.
(5) Only I and II are true.

23. Statements:

Conclusions:

I. Y > P
II. T < F
III. O > T
IV. P < U

(1) Only I is true.
(2) Only II is true.
(3) Only III is true .
(4) None is true.
(5) Only I and IV are true.

24.

(1) Only I and II are true.
(2) Only IV is true.
(3) None is true.
(4) Only II and IV are true.
(5) Only II and III are true.

25.

(1) None is true
(2) Only IV is true
(3) Only either I or III is true
(4) Only II and I are true
(5) Only I is true

Directions (Q. 26-32): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four comers of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four comers face the centre of the table while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. Each ofthem likes a different subject, viz Mathematics, Hindi, English, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, History and Geography. (None of the information given is necessarily in the same order.)
· C sits third to the left of the one who likes Geography. The one who likes Geography faces outside. Only two persons sit between C and H.
· The one who likes Mathematics sits on the immediate right ofH. The one who likes Chemistry sits second to the right of G. G is neither an immediate neighbour of H nor ofC. G does not like Geography.
· Only one person sits between A and the one who likes Chemistry.
· D sits on the immediate left ofthe one who likes Physics. G does not like Physics.
· E likes History. E is not an immediate neighbour of A. The one who likes Hindi is an immediate neighbour of E.
· The one who likes Biology is an immediate neighbour of F.

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Subject: 
General: 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "General Awareness" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: General Awareness



1. Which of the following is the boundary line between India and Pakistan?’

(1) 17th Parallel
(2) Radcliffeline
(3) Other than those given as options
(4) Hindenburg Line
(5) McMahon Line

2. Banks generally insist account holders to nominate persons to whom the money lying in their accounts should go in the event of

(1) death of account holder
(2) illness of account holder
(3) account holder migrates
(4) account holder turns bankrupt
(5) Other than those given as options

3. Credit Risk refers to the risk that

(1) borrower may opt to get necessary permit/licences
(2) wrong strategy is adopted
(3) a borrower will default on any type of debt
(4) loan processing may be faulty
(5) interest rate in the markets may increase

4. Which of the following is the currency of Cambodia?

(1) Cambodian Dollar
(2) Ringgit
(3) Peso
(4) Riel
(5) Other than those given as options

5. Which of the following is a source of collecting money from the public for a company for the first time?

(1) Rights issue
(2) Bonus shares
(3) Follow on offering
(4) Initial public offer
(5) Secondary offering

6. Which of the following concepts of banking involves booking of web-enabled touch point for basic banking services?

(1) Extension Conters
(2) Retail Banking
(3) Kiosk Banking
(4) Satellite Banking
(5) Mobile Banking

7. Face value of a Government security is the amount that is to be paid to an investor at the maturity date of the security. The face value is not the same as the

(1) Par value
(2) Market Price
(3) Redemption value
(4) Repayment amount
(5) Principal value

8. As per the 2011 Census report, India’s population below the age of 35 years is

(1) between 30 & 35%
(2) between 40 & 50%
(3) between 35 & 40%
(4) more than 65%
(5) between 50 & 65%

9. The facility to help insurance policy holders buy and keep policies in electronic form rather than as a paper document is called

(1) Insurance Warehousing
(2) Insurance Cache
(3) Insurance Stockpile
(4) Insurance Depository
(5) Insurance Repository

10. Based on the recovery of the dues, banks are required to classify non-performing assets (NPAs) in the books of the bank under the categories

(1) Substandard, Doubtful and Bad Debts
(2) Standard, Doubtful and Written-Off Assets
(3) Standard, Substandard and Doubtful Assets
(4) Standard, Doubtful and Loss Assets
(5) Substandard, Doubtful and Loss Assets

 

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11. A mutual fund scheme in which the investors commit their money for a particular period is known as

(1) Long-End Scheme
(2) Closed-End Scheme
(3) Long-Term Fund
(4) Open-End Scheme
(5) Back-End Scheme

12. In the Asian Games who among the following won the silver Medal for India in Squash?

(1) Geetika Jakhar
(2) Yogeshwar Dutt
(3) Vinesh Phogat
(4) Saurav Ghosal
(5) Other than those given as options

13. Plant Genome Saviour Community Awards are given by Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmer’s Right Authority (PPV & FRA) for

(1) getting the highest yield of crops
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) engagement in the conservation of genetic resources of economic plants and their wild relatives
(4) ensuring soil conservation and preventing use of chemicals
(5) using traditional seeds and fertilizers to protect the soil

14. CP is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note. In the abbreviation CP, letter ‘P’ stands for

(1) Paper
(2) Portfolio
(3) Payment
(4) Promissory
(5) Position

15. Vishal Sikka is the CEO of

(1) Tata Group of Companies
(2) Cognizant
(3) Oracle
(4) Infosys
(5) Other than those given as options

16. The process that has to be undertaken by banks and other financial institutions to prevent them from being used by criminal elements for money laundering is

(1) Credit Monitoring Process
(2) Credit Rating Process
(3) KYC Process
(4) Due diligence Process
(5) Credit Appraisal Process

17. CVV is an anti-fraud security feature that helps verify that the customer is in posession of her card. The abbreviation of CVV stands for

(1) Card Virtual Valuation
(2) Confidential Virtual Verification
(3) Card Verification Value
(4) Core Virtual Value
(5) Coded Vulnerability Value

18. Which of the foIIowing is the capital of Argentina?

(1) Addis Ababa
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Buenos Aires
(4) Seoul
(5) Phnom Penh

19. With introduction of ATMs, telebanking and internet banking, banking hours is not a constraint for transacting banking business, which is known as

(1) Universal Banking
(2) Worldwide Banking
(3) Anywhere Banking
(4) Global Banking
(5) Other than those given as option

20. Which of the following institutions is a Credit Information Company?

(1) ARCIL
(2) CRISIL
(3) CIBIL
(4) ICRA
(5) CARE

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014 "Computer Knowledge" Held on: 19-10-2014

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject: Computer Knowledge



1. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest?

(1) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database
(2) Database, file, record, field, character
(3) Character, record, field, database, file
(4) Character, file, record, field, database
(5) Character, field, record, file, database

2. Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the web are called

(1) Web browsers
(2) Information engines
(3) Data engines
(4) Search engines
(5) None of these

3. What is the term for unsolicited e-mail?

(1) Flamming
(2) Usenet
(3) Spam
(4) Backbone
(5) News Group

4. Processor speed is measured in

(1) bytes
(2) gigabytes
(3) gigahertz
(4) megabytes
(5) kilobytes

5. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?

(1) Ctrl + H
(2) Alt + S
(3) Shift + E
(4) Ctrl+A
(5) Ctrl + K

6. The buying or selling of goods over the internet is termed as

(1) e-selling
(2) e-buying
(3) e-business
(4) e-commerce
(5) e-transaction

7. What are the programs that block access to selected websites known as?

(1) Channels
(2) Filters
(3) Browsers
(4) Telnet
(5) Drivers

8. Which of the following is not a valid version of MS-Office?

(1) Office 2000
(2) Office XP
(3) Office 2003
(4) Office 2007
(5) Office Vista

9. Which of the following is used to write Web pages?

(1) URL
(2) HTML
(3) Telnet
(4) HTTP
(5) FTP

10. A computer chip is also called a

(1) register
(2) switch
(3) server
(4) modem
(5) microprocessor

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "Reasoning"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  Reasoning


Directions (Q.No. 1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

An organization wants to recruit system analysts. The following conditions apply.

The candidate must

(i) be an engineering graduate in computer/IT. with at least 60% marks.
(ii) have working experience in the field of computer at least for 2 yr after acquiring the requisite qualification,
(iii) have completed minimum 25 yr and maximum 30 yr of age As on 1.12.2013.
(iv) be willing to sign a bond for Rs 50000.
(v) have secured minimum 55% marks in selection test.

However, if a candidate fulfils all other conditions Except

(a) at (i) above, but is an Electronics Engineer with 65% or more marks the case is to be referred to the General Manager (GM)-IT.
(b) at (iv) above, but has an experience of atleast 5 yr as a Software Manager, the case is to be referred to the VP.

In each question below, detailed information of candidate is given. You have to carefully study the information provided in each case and take one of the following courses of actions based on the information and the conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.12.2013. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows

Give Answer

(1) If the case is to be referred to VP
(2) If the case is to be referred to GM
(3) If the data provided is not sufficient to take a decision
(4) If the candidate is to be selected
(5) If the candidate is not to be selected

1. Ms. Suneeta is an IT Engineer with 60% marks at graduation as well as in selection test. She is working as a Software Engineer for last 3 yr after completing engineering degree and has completed 27 yr of age. She is willing to sign the bond of Rs 50000.

2. Rakesh Rao is a Computer Engineer Graduate and thereafter is working as a Software Manager for last 6 yr. He has secured 72% marks at graduation and 67% marks in selection test. His date of birth is 5th December, 1984. He is not willing to sign the bond for Rs50000.

3. Ramkumar is an Engineering graduate in computers with 78% marks passed out in 2007 at the age of 23 yr. Since, then he is working as a Software Manager in an engineering firm. He doesn’t want to sign the bond for Rs 50000. He has cleared the selection test with 72% marks.

4. Nishant is an Electronics Engineer passed out in June, 2010 at the age of 22 yr. Since, then he is working as a Programmer in a software company. He has passed the selection test with 66% marks and is willing to sign the bond.

5. Kalyani is an Engineer with 72% marks in Telecommunication. She has just completed 27 yr of age. She has cleared the selection test with 59% marks. She is willing to sign the bond.

Direction (Q.No. 6) Analyse the following passage and answer the question.


Some words are highly inflammable. Fusion is one of them. You can get two sets of people into a war mode by just uttering the words ‘fusion music’. One set will breathe fire and say it violates the purity of music the other set will tell you earnestly that it opens up the borders of music.

6. From the purists perspective, the ‘war’ between the two set of people can best be

(1) categorized as an ideological conflict between two ideas
(2) termed as a conflict between generations the younger versus the older generation
(3) an attempt to preserve the core principles
(4) seen as an attempt of people at the margin to occupy centre stage
(5) seen as preserving the social identity of purists
 

7. Unlike other retail outlets, where items are purchased in any number of units the customer wants, in super-markets items are grouped in bulk packages. This bulk buying offers saving to the customer. The option to buy at wholesale prices by buying in bulk makes super-market a “practical choice for budget-conscious consumers.

Which of the following assumption may be drived from the above information.
 

(1) Super-markets often have greater buying power and lower overhead costs, so they can offer a greater variety of products than regular retail outlets
(2) Super-markets are often more conveniently located and have better parking facilities
(3) The emergence of super-markets has caused many small retail stores to close down and thus eliminate competitions
(4) It is economically wise to buy single items since bulk packages seldom offer significant savings
(5) The financial savings from purchasing bulk packages may outweigh the inconvenience of being unable to purchase in any number of units that suits the customers’ need

8. Nations do not complete with each other in the way corporations do.

Which of the following most favours the weakness of the argument ?

(1) Trade deficit is a sign of national strength, profits are a sign of corporate strength
(2) Increase in human development index improves national standing, increase in market share improves corporate standing
(3) Climate change negotiations lead to global improvement; CSR initiatives lead to image improvement
(4) Nations go to war to capture territory, corporates contend against each other to capture market share
(5) None of the above

9. Civilization has taught us to be friendlier towards one another
Which of the following most favours the strengthens of the argument?

(1) Cats are loyal to their children, whereas men are loyal to their communities
(2) Elephants move in a herd, whereas men live in nuclear families
(3) Lions protect their own territories, whereas men capture other men’s territories
(4) Nilgai and Cheetal stay together, whereas men of one race dominate another
(5) None of the above

10. The mushrooming of business schools in the country is a cause for shortage of faculty with Ph.D qualification. In addition, the higher pay and generous fringe benefits given by industry has encouraged qualified people to not seek academic positions.
Which of the following statements, if true, would tend to STRENGTHEN the argument?

(1) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is more than the average salary for faculty positions in some business schools in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(2) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is less than the average salary for faculty positions in a top business school in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(3) The average salary for recent Ph.D graduates in the industry is 20% higher than that in academics
(4) The rate of growth of salaries for the industry positions has been higher than the rate of growth of salaries for academic positions for the past three years
(5) None of the above


Directions (Q. Nos 11 -13) Study the information given below carefully to answer the following questions.
In a certain code language the following lines written as

 

‘lop eop aop fop’ means ‘Traders are above laws’
‘fop cop bop gop’ means ‘Developers were above profitable’
‘aop bop uop qop’ means ‘Developers stopped following traders’
‘cop jop eop uop’ means ‘Following maps were laws’

11. ‘Developers are following laws’ would be correctly written as

(1) ‘bop cop uop eop’
(2) ‘lop bop eop uop’
(3) ‘oup cop lop aop’
(4) ‘gop cop uop qop’
(5) None of these

12. ‘qop gop cop eop’ would correctly mean

(1) profitable laws were stopped
(2) developers stopped following laws
(3) traders were above profitable
(4) were laws profitable traders
(5) None of the above

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13. ‘aop qop bop’ would correctly mean

(1) following were above
(2) traders stopped developers
(3) developers are laws
(4) traders above stopped
(5) laws are stopped

Directions (Q.Nos. 14-18) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements- to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

14. Statements All petals are flowers. Some flowers are buds. Some buds are leaves. All leaves are plants.

Conclusions

I. Some petals are not buds.
II. Some flowers are plants.
III. No flower is plant.

(1) Only I follows
(2) Either II or III follows
(3) I and II follow
(4) Only III follows
(5) None of the above

15. Statements Some pens are keys. Some keys are locks. All locks are cards. No card is paper.

Conclusions

I. No lock is paper.
II. Some cards are keys.
III. Some keys are not paper.

(1) I and II follow
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) All follow
(5) None follows

16. Statements Some pearls are gems. All gems are diamonds. No diamond is stone. Some stones are corals.

Conclusions

I. Some stones are pearls.
II. Some corals being diamond is a possibility.
III. No stone is pearl.

(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Either I or III follows
(4) I and II follow
(5) None of these

17. Statements Some apartments are flats. Some flats are buildings. All buildings are bungalows. All bungalows are gardens.

Conclusions

I. All apartments being building is a possibility
II. All bungalows are not buildings.
III. No flat is garden.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Either I or III follows
(4) II and III follow
(5) Only II follows
 

18.  Statements All chairs are tables. All tables are bottles. Some bottles are jars. No jar is bucket.

Conclusions

 I. Some tables being jar is a possibility.
II. Some bottles are chairs.
III. Some bottles are not bucket.
(1) Only I follows (2) I and II follow
(3) All follow (4) Only II follows
(5) None of these

19. A person starts from point P in East and moves 12 m to point Q. Then, he moves right 8 m to point R. Again he moves right for 6m to point S. Then, he moves 6 m in the North to point T. Finally from there he goes to left for 6 m to point U. Which of three point he would form a triangle whose all the angles are less than 90°.

(1) PTQ
(2) QTR
(3) UTS
(4) TSR
(5) SQR


Directions (Q.Nos. 20-25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing either the centre or outside. Each one of them belongs to a different department viz. Finance, Marketing Sales, HR, Corporate Finance, Investment Banking and Operations but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits third to the right of G.C faces the centre. Only one person sits between C and the person working in the HR department immediate neighbours of C face outside. Only one person sits between F and D. Both F and D face the centre. D does not work in the HR department. A works in Investment Banking Department. A faces the centre. Two people sit between the persons who work in Investment Banking and Marketing Departments. The person who works in Corporate Finance sits to the immediate left of E. C faces same direction as E. The person who works in corporate finance sits to the immediate left of the person who works for Operations department.

 

20. For which of the following departments does B work?

(1) Finance
(2) Marketing
(3) HR
(4) Corporate Finance
(5) Operations

21. What is position of B with respect to the person who works for Sales department ?

(1) Immediate right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the right
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the right

22. Who sits to the immediate right of E ?

(1) The person who works for Marketing department
(2) C
(3) B
(4) The person who works for HR department
(5) A

23. Who amongst the following sits exactly between C and the person who works for HR department?

(1) B
(2) The person who works for Marketing department
(3) The person who works for Operations department
(4) D
(5) G

24. Who amongst the following sit between the persons who work for Marketing and Investment banking departments when counted for the left hand side of the person working for Marketing department?

(1) F and G
(2) E and C
(3) C and B
(4) F and D
(5) B and D

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "English Language"

 

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-58) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through the wealth destruction already taking place in the U.S as a result of the financial crisis. Stock markets tumbled as exports plunged and economic growth deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as credit tightened and buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia swung back to greed as the region shows signs of recovery and property and stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia. Why should this sharp Asian turnaround be greeted with skepticism? Higher asset prices mean households feel wealthier and better able to spend, which could further fuel the region’s nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself saddled with overheated markets similar to the U.S. housing market.

In short, the world has not changed, it has just moved placed. The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response to the global credit crunch of 2008. Policy makers in Asia I slashed interest rates and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing and economies growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a deepening economic crisis. But there is evidence that there is too much easy money around. It’s winding up in stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the undenying economic fundamentals. Much of the concern is focused on China where government stimulus efforts have been large and effective, Money in China has been especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending surged 201% in first half of 2009 from the same period a year earlier, to nearly 51.1 turn on. Exuberance over a quick recovery which was given a boost by China’s surprisingly strong 7.9% GDP growth in the second quarter has buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real estate.

Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be recognised in hand sight. But investors who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too far and that the slightest bit of negative, economic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asia’s central bankers will begin taking stops to shut off the money. Rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening credit led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, there is close to a zero possibility that the Chinese \ government will do anything this year that constitutes tightening. And without a major shift in thinking, the easy-money conditions will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought possible over the past two years. Asia may be neading for another disheartening plunge.

51. To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008 Asian financial crisis?

(A) Reluctance or Asian governments to taper off the economic stimulus.
(B) Greed of Asian investors causing them to trade 1 stocks of American companies at high prices.
(C) Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries.

(1) None
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) Only (B)

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52. What does the author want to convey through the phrase “The world has not changed it has just moved places”?

(1) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economies than on the US economy
(2) Economies have become interlinked on account of globalisation
(3) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries
(4) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
(5) None of the above

53. Which of the following can be said about the Chinese government’s efforts to revive the economy?

(1) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
(2) The governments only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
(3) These efforts were ineffectual as-the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilising
(4) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
(5) They blindly imitated the economic reforms adopted by the US

54. Why do experts predict that Asian policymakers will not withdraw fiscal stimulus?

(A) The US economy is not likely to recover for a long time.
(B) Stock markets are yet to regain their former levels.
(C) Fear of revolt by greedy citizens.
(1) None of these
(2) Only (C)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) (B) and (C)

55. What do the statistics about loans given by Chinese banks in 2009 indicate?

(1) There was hardly any demand for loans in 2008
(2) The Chinese government has borrowed funds from the US
(3) China will take longer than the US to recover from the economic crisis
(4) The GDP of China was below expectations
(5) None of the above

56. Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored?

(A) Existing property prices which are stable and affordable.
(B) The government has decided to tighten credit.
(C) Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures.

(1) Only (C)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) All (A), (B) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) None of these

57. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?

(1) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed countries
(2) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided
(3) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over sound economic-principles
(4) Extolling China’s incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it
(5) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic fundamentals

58. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics?

(1) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
(2) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash
(3) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
(4) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
(5) None of the above


Directions (Q.Nos. 59-65) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Delays of several months in National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) wage payments and work sites where labourers have lost all hope of being paid at all have become the norm in many states. How are workers who exist on the margins of subsistence supposed to feed their families? Under the scheme, workers must be paid within 15 days, failing which they are entitled, to compensation under the Payment of Wages Act – upto 3000 per aggrieved worker. In reality, compensation is received in only a few isolated instances. It is often argued by officials that the main reason for the delay is the inability of banks and post offices to handle mass payments of NREGS wages. Though there is a grain of truth in this, as a diagnosis it is misleading. The ‘jam’ in the banking system has been the result of the hasty switch to bank payments imposed by the Central Government against the recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council which advocated a gradual transition starting with villages relatively close to the nearest bank. However, delays are not confined solely to the banking system. Operational hurdles include implementing agencies taking more than fifteen days to issue payment orders, viewing of work measurement as a cumbersome process resulting in procrastination by the engineering staff and non maintenance of muster rolls and job card etc. But behind these delays lies a deeper and deliberate ‘backlash’ against the NREGS. With bank payments making it much harder to embezzle NREGS funds, the programme is seen as a headache by many government functionaries the workload has remained without the “inducements”. Slowing down wage payments is a convenient way of sabotaging the scheme because workers will desert NREGS worksites.

The common sense solution advocated by the government is to adopt the business correspondent model. Where in bank agents will go to villages to make cash payments and duly record them on handheld, electronic devices. This solution is based on the wrong diagnosis that distance separating villages from banks is the main issue. In order to accelerate payments, clear timelines for every step of the payment process should be incorporated into the system as Programme Officers often have no data on delays and cannot exert due pressure to remedy the situation. Workers are both clueless and powerless with no provision for them to air their grievances and seek redress. In drought affected areas the system of piece rate work can be dispensed with where work measurement is not completed within a week and wages may be paid on the basis of attendance. Buffer funds can be provided to gram panchayats and post offices to avoid bottlenecks in the flow of funds. Partial advances could also be considered provided wage payments are meticulously tracked. But failure to recognise problems and unwillingness to remedy them will remain major threats to the NREGS.
 

59. What impact have late wage payments had on NREGS workers?

(1) They cannot obtain employment till their dues are cleared
(2) They have benefited from the compensation awarded to them
(3) They have been unable to provide for their families
(4) They have been ostracised by their families who depend on them for sustenance
(5) None of the above

60. Which of the following factors has not been responsible for untimely payment of NREGS wages?

(1) Communication delays between agencies implementing the scheme
(2) Improper record keeping
(3) Behind schedule release of payments by banks
(4) Drought conditions prevalent in the country
(5) Delays in work measurement

61. What has the outcome of disbursing NREGS wages through banks been?

(1) Theft of funds by administration officials responsible for the scheme has reduced
(2) Increased work load for local government officials
(3) Protests by workers who have to travel long distances to the nearest bank to claim their wages
(4) Time consuming formalities have to be completed by workers
(5) None of the above

62. According to the passage, which of the following has/have been the consequence (s) of delayed wage payments?

(A) Compensation to victimised workers has amounted to crores.
(B) Banks will no longer be entrusted with remitting wages.
(C) Regulations to ensure punctual wage payments have come into force.

(1) None of these
(2) Only (A)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) (B) and (C)

63. To which of the following has the author attributed the delay in wage payments?

(1) Embezzlement of funds by corrupt bank staff
(2) Lack of monitoring by the Central Employment Guarantee Council
(3) An attempt to derail the NREGS by vested interests
(4) Overworked bank staff deliberately delay payments to protest against extra work
(5) Engineers’ efforts to wreck the NREGS because of low wages

64. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?

(A) Workers are reluctant to open bank accounts as branches are not conveniently located.
(B) Local officials often delay wage payments in drought prone areas to benefit workers.
(C) The Government has not implemented every recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council.

(1) Only(B)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and (C) (4) (A) and (C)
(5) All of these

65. Which of the following can be considered a deficiency in the NREGS?

(1) Lack of co-ordination among Programme Officers
(2) Local officials are unaware of correct operational procedures
(3) Workers have no means of obtaining redressal for untimely wage payments
(4) Disbursing wages through banks instead of readily accessible post offices
(5) The Central Employment Guarantee Council is reluctant to award compensation to workers
Directions (Q. No. 66-70) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) (E) and (F) into a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it.
(A) Moreover salaries in public sector enterprises are not as competitive as those offered by private or foreign corporates.
(B) This trend should be a wake up call for stakeholders to examine why employees are seeking better opportunities with private companies in India and abroad.
(C) Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) have been experiencing severe challenges in attracting motivating and retaining their key staff.
(D) Having identified these as the reasons employees leave PSEs it is important empower stakeholders to find ways to remedy the situation.
(E) One reason is that young employees lured away to private firms are more willing to undertake professional risks.
(F) Employees in specialist roles especially have become increasingly difficult to retain.

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "Quantitative Aptitude"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude


Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information given in three Statements I, II and III. You have to study the question along with the statements and decide the information given in which of the statement(s) is necessary to answer the question.

91. In how many days 10 women can finish the work?

I. 10 men finish the work in 6 days.
II. 10 women and 10 men finish the work in days.
III. If 10 men work 3 days and after that 10 women are deployed to work for men, the rest work is finished in 4 days.

(1) I and II
(2) Any two of three
(3) I and III
(4) II and III
(5) None of these

92. What is the present age of Sabir?

I. The present age of Sabir is half of his father’s age.
II. After five years the ratio of ages of Sabir and his father is 6:11.
III. Sabir is younger to his brother by five years.

(1) 1 and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) All of these
(5) Cannot be determined

93. What is two digit number?

I. The difference between the number and the number formed by interchanging the digit is 27.
II. The difference between two digits is 3.
III. The digit at unit’s place is less than that at ten’s place by 3.

(1) 1 and II
(2) I and either II or III
(3) I and III
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

94. What is the rate of interest Percent per annum?

I. An amount doubles itself in 5 yr on simple interest.
II. Difference between the compound interest and the simple interest earned on a certain amount in two years is Rs400.
III. Simple interest earned per annum is Rs2000.

(1) Only I
(2) II and III
(3) Any two of three
(4) I or II and III
(5) Only I or II and III

95. What is the cost of flooring the rectangular hall?

I. Length and the breadth of the hall are in the ratio of 3:2.
II. Length of the hall is 48 m and cost of flooring is Rs850 per sq m.
III. Perimeter of the hall is 160 m and cost of flooring is Rs850 per sq m.
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) Only III
(4) I and either II or III
(5) Any two of the three

96. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and the denominator is increased by 25%, the fraction obtained is . What was the original fraction?

(1) 5/7
(2) 4/7
(3) 3/8
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the three

97. If the positions of the digits of a two-digit number are interchanged, the number obtained is smaller than the original number by 27. If the digits of the number are in the ratio of 1 : 2, what is the original number?

(1) 36 (2) 63
(3) 48
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

98. One of the angles of a quadrilateral is thrice the smaller angle of a parallelogram. The respective ratio between the adjacent angles of the parallelogram is 4:5. Remaining three angles of the quadrilateral are in ratio 4:11:9 respectively. What is the sum of the largest and the smallest angles of the quadrilateral?

(1) 255°
(2) 260°
(3) 265°
(4) 270°
(5) None of these

99. An aeroplane flies with an average speed of 756 km/h. A helicopter takes 48 h to cover twice the distance covered by aeroplane in 9 h. How much distance will the helicopter cover in 18 h? (Assuming that flights are non-stop and moving with uniform speed.)

(1) 5010 km
(2) 4875 km
(3) 5760 km
(4) 5103 km
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 105-109) In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

105. 29, 37, 21,43 ,13, 53, 5

(1) 37
(2) 53
(3) 13
(4) 21
(5) 43

106. 600, 125, 30, 13, 7.2, 6.44, 6.288

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 12
(5) None of these

107. 80, 42, 24, 13.5, 8.75, 6.375, 5.1875

(1) 8.75
(2) 13.5
(3) 24
(4) 6.375
(5) 42

108. 10, 8, 13, 35, 135, 671, 4007

(1) 8
(2) 671
(3) 135
(4) 13
(5) 35

109. 150, 290, 560, 1120, 2140, 4230, 8400

(1) 2140
(2) 560
(3) 1120
(4) 4230
(5) 290

Directions (Q.Nos. 110-114) These questions are based on the following data. The distribution of appeared and qualified aspirants in competitive examination from different States.

Total appeared aspirants = 45000

110. What is the ratio of the number of appeared aspirants from States C and E together to that of the appeared aspirants from States A and F together?

(1) 17:33
(2) 11:13
(3) 13:27
(4) 17:27
(5) None of these

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "General Awareness"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  General Awareness


141. Which of the following is a receipt listed in India and traded in rupees declaring ownership of shares of a foreign company?

(1) Indian Depository Receipt (IDR)
(2) European Depository Receipt (EDR)
(3) Global Depository Receipt (GDR)
(4) American Depository Receipt (ADR)
(5) Luxemburg Depository Receipt (LDR)

142. A bank without any branch network that offers its services remotely through online banking, telephone/mobile banking and interbank ATM network alliances is known as

(1) Universal Banking
(2) Indirect Bank
(3) Door Step Bank
(4) A Direct Bank
(5) Unit Banking

143. Which of the following Indian Universities is Asia’s largest residential university?

(1) Allahabad University
(2) Utkal University
(3) Banaras Hindu University
(4) Anna University
(5) Jawaharlal Nehru University

144. In October, 2013, which country has confirmed plans to create a secure mail service to protect its citizens and businesses against foreign espionage?

(1) Mexico
(2) Brazil
(3) Sweden
(4) Germany
(5) None of these

145. The campaign name ‘Heal India’ aims to create awareness about which of the following diseases?

(1) Mental illness
(2) AIDS
(3) Leprosy
(4) Alzheimer
(5) None of these

146. The target set by the UIDAI for issuance of Aadhaar cards upto 2014 is

(1) 50 crore cards
(2) 55 crore cards
(3) 45 crore cards
(4) 40 crore cards
(5) 60 crore cards

147. Which of the following nations has signed a comprehensive free trade agreement with European Union?

(1) Japan
(2) China
(3) Russia
(4) Canada
(5) None of these

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "Computer Knowledge"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  Computer Knowledge


181. Macros stored in the global macro sheet can be used

(1) in the current document only
(2) in any document
(3) can be used only with other macros of  the global macro sheet
(4) not consistent behaviour
(5) None of the above

182. About pasting from the clip board

(1) a part of the clip board contents can be pasted
(2) whole of the contents of clip board can be pasted
(3) sometimes (1) and sometimes (2)
(4) (1) and (2)
(5) None of the above

183. One of the following statements is not true for BUFFERS command

(1) Increasing numbers of BUFFERS can speed program execution, but only to a certain extent
(2) The more buffers that exist the more sectors can be stored in memory; hence fewer accesses of disk are necessary
(3) The BUFFERS command is used to establish the number of disk buffers set up by MS-DOS during booting
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

184. EPROM can be used for

(1) erasing the contents of ROM
(2) reconstructing the contents of ROM
(3) erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
(4) duplicating the ROM
(5) None of the above

185. Attributes can be defined for

(1) entity
(2) switch board
(3) macro
(4) pages
(5) None of the above

186. Where will we find the referential integrity command ?

(1) Tools
(2) View
(3) Format
(4) Table
(5) None of these

187. Anything that is typed in a worksheet appears

(1) in the formula bar only
(2) in the active cell only
(3) in both active cell and formula bar
(4) in the formula bar first and when we press ENTER it appears in active cell
(5) None of the above

188. Which bar is usually located below the Title Bar that provides categorised options ?

(1) Menu Bar (2) Status Bar
(3) Toolbar (4) Scroll Bar
(5) None of the above

189. A pixel is

(1) a computer program that draws picture
(2) a picture stored in the secondary memory
(3) the smallest resolvable part of a picture
(4) a virus
(5) None of the above

190. How many types of cell references are available in Excel ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 10
(5) None of these

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  2. All questions are compulsory.
  3. Figures to the right indicate full marks to each question.
  4. Each question should be answered on a new page.
  5. All parts of a question should be answered together without other answers intervening.
  6. Marks will be deducted if an answer far exceeds or falls short of the set limit or is irrelevant or if the handwriting is illegible.
  7. Answers must be written only in English.
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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "General Awareness"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: General Awareness


101. A money deposited in a bank that cannot be withdrawn for a preset fixed period of time is known as a

(1) Term deposit
(2) Checking Account
(3) Savings Bank Deposit
(4) No Frills Account
(5) Current Deposit

102. A worldwide financial messaging network which exchanges messages between banks and financial institutions is known as

(1) CHAPS
(2) SWIFT
(3) NEFT
(4) SFMS
(5) CHIPS

103. Which of the following ministries alongwith the Planning Commission of India has decided to set up a Corpus Fund of Rs 500 crore, so that tribals in Naxal-hit areas can be provided proper means of livelihood?
 

(1) Ministry of Rural Development
(2) Ministry of Home Affairs
(3) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(4) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(5) Ministry of Finance

104. Which of the following was the issue over which India decided to vote against Sri Lanka in the meeting of one of the UN-governed bodies/agencies?

(1) Violations of human rights in Sri Lanka
(2) Allowing China to establish a military base in the Indian Ocean
(3) Issue of subsidy on agricultural products in the meeting of the WTO
(4) Allowing part of Sri Lanka to become an independent country governed by LTTE
(5) Sri Lanka’s claim to become a permanent member of UN Security Council

105. The term ‘Smart Money’ refers to

(1) Foreign Currency
(2) Internet Banking
(3) US Dollars
(4) Travellers’ Cheques
(5) Credit Cards

106. Which of the following is not a ‘Money Market Instrument’?

(1) Treasury Bills
(2) Commercial Paper
(3) Certificate of Deposit
(4) Equity Shares
(5) None of these

107. Which of the following is a retail banking product?

(1) Home Loans
(2) Working capital finance
(3) Corporate term loans
(4) Infrastructure financing
(5) Export Credit

108. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the political situation in Mali, where a military coup burst out recently?

(1) General elections were due there in March/April 2012 but did not take place.
(2) The country has been under the control of the US army for the last 18 months.
(3) The army of the country was not happy as Amadou Toure was made President without elections for the next five years.
(4) A coup broke out in Mali when Amadou Toure, the military chief, got seriously injured in a bomb blast.
(5) NATO and its associates had planned a coup there.

109. In the summit of which of the following organizations/ group of nations it was decided that all members should enforce Budget Discipline?

(1) G-8 (2) OPEC
(3) European Union (4) SAARC
(5) G-20

110. As per newspaper reports, India is planning to use ‘SEU’ as fuel in its 700MW nuclear reactors being developed in new planets. What is the full form of 'SEU’ as used here?

(1) Safe Electrical Units
(2) Small Electrical Units
(3) Slightly Enriched Uranium
(4) Sufficiently Enriched Units
(5) Safely Enriched Uranium

111. Technological advancement in recent times has given a new dimension to banks, mainly to which of the following aspects?

(1) New Age Financial Derivatives
(2) Service Delivery Mechanism
(3) Any Banking
(4) Any Type Banking
(5) Multilevel Marketing

112. When there is a difference between all receipts and expenditure of the Govt of India, both capital and revenue, it is called

(1) Revenue Deficit
(2) Budgetary Deficit
(3) Zero Budgeting
(4) Trade Gap
(5) Balance of payments problem

113. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Reserve Bank of India?

(1) Fiscal Policy Functions
(2) Exchange Control Functions
(3) Issuance, Exchange and Destruction of currency notes
(4) Monetary Authority Functions
(5) Supervisory and Control Functions

114. Which of the following is NOT required for opening a bank account?

(1) Identity Proof
(2) Address Proof
(3) Recent Photographs
(4) Domicile Certificate
(5) None of these

115. The Golden Jubilee of Afro-Asian Rural Development Organisation was organized in which of the following places in March 2012?

(1) Dhaka (2) Tokyo
(3) Cairo (4) Kuala Lampur
(5) New Delhi

116. What is the maximum deposit amount insured by DICGC?

(1) Rs 2,00,000 per depositor per bank
(2) Rs 2,00,000 per depositor across all banks
(3) Rs 1,00,000 per depositor per bank
(4) Rs 1,00,000 per depositor across all banks
(5) None of these

117. The present Foreign Trade policy of India will continue till

(1) December 2012
(2) March 2013
(3) March 2014
(4) June 2013
(5) December 2014

118. With reference to a cheque, which of the following is the ‘drawee bank’?

(1) The bank that collects the cheque
(2) The payee’s bank
(3) The endorsee’s bank
(4) The endorser’s bank
(5) The bank upon which the cheque is drawn

119. In which of the following fund transfer mechanisms, can funds be moved from one bank to another and where the transaction is settled instantly without being bunched with any other transaction?

(1) RTGS
(2) NEFT
(3) TT
(4) EFT
(5) MT

120. What was the reason owing to which Enrica Lexie, an Italian ship, was detained by the Port Authorities in Kerala and was brought to Cochin port for inspection and search?

(1) It was carrying objectionable material.
(2) It was involved in sea piracy.
(3) It was detained as the crew killed two Indian fishermen.
(4) The ship started sailing without making payments of iron ore it loaded.
(5) It was detained as it was dumping nuclear waste in deep sea.

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121. Which of the following agencies/organiz-ations recently gave a ‘go-ahead’ verdict to India’s one of the most controversial project of interlinking rivers? (Some of the rivers are international.)

(1) UN Food and Agriculture Organisation
(2) World Meteorological Organisation
(3) International Court of Justice
(4) Central Water Commission
(5) Supreme Court of India

122. Who among the following was the Captain of the Australian Team which played four Test matches against India in January 2012 and won all of them?

(1) Ricky Ponting
(2) Michael Clarke
(3) Nathan Lyon
(4) Stuart Clark
(5) Andrew Symonds

123. The committee on review of National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) was headed by

(1) Dr C Rangarajan
(2) UK Sinha
(3) Dr YV Reddy
(4) Shyamala Gopinath
(5) Dr Usha Thorat

124. Banking Ombudsman Scheme is applicable to the business of

(1) All scheduled commercial banks exclu-ding RRBs
(2) All scheduled commercial banks inclu-ding RRBs
(3) Only public sector banks
(4) All banking companies
(5) All scheduled banks except private banks

125. The 5th Asian Indoor Athletics Champio-nship was organised in February 2012 in

(1) Bangladesh
(2) India
(3) Qatar
(4) China
(5) South Korea

126. Nationalisations of banks aimed at all of the following except

(1) Provision of adequate credit for agriculture, SME & exports
(2) Removal of control by a few capitalists
(3) Provision of credit to big industries only
(4) Access of banking to masses
(5) Encouragement of a new class of entrepreneurs

127. Who among the following was the Chief Guest at the three-day Pravasi Bharatiya Divas function held in January 2012?

(1) Kamla Persad Bissessar
(2) Ram Baran Yadav
(3) Lakshmi Mittal
(4) Salman Rushdie
(5) Benjamin Netanyahu

128. Which of the following banks is headed by a woman CEO?

(1) Bank of Baroda
(2) HDFC Bank
(3) Central Bank of India
(4) Punjab National Bank
(5) lCICI Bank

129. As per revised RBI guidelines, Provision on secured portion of loan accounts classified as Doubtful Assets for more than one year and upto 3 (three) years is to be made at the rate of

(1) 15%
(2) 20%
(3) 40%
(4) 25%
(5) 30%

130. As per the provisions in the Food Security Bill 2011, how much food grain should be given per month to each person of the target group?

(1) 5 kg
(2) 7 kg
(3) 9 kg
(4) 10 kg
(5) 20 kg

131. Which of the following acts is in vogue in India is against the thinking of raising school fee as per demand of the market forces?

(1) Prevention of Corruption Act
(2) Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act
(3) Sharda Act
(4) Right to Education Act
(5) MG National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

132. Which of the following states has launched ‘Panch Parmeshwar Yojana’,under which panchayats are allowed to use the fund for developing infrastructure and basic amenities in villages?

(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Gujarat
(4) Madhya Pradesh
(5) Tamil Nadu

133. Base Rate is the rate below which no Bank can allow their lending to anyone. Who sets up this ‘Base Rate’ for Banks?

(1) Individual Banks’ Board
(2) Ministry of Commerce
(3) Ministry of Finance
(4) RBI
(5) Interest Rate Commission of India

134. National Table Tennis Championship was organised in January 2012 in

(1) Mumbai
(2) Delhi
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Lucknow
(5) Jaipur

135. Who among the following is the author of the book Nirbasan

(1) Mahashweta Devi
(2) Taslima Nasreen
(3) Sunil Gangopadhyay
(4) Vikram Seth
(5) Kiran Desai

136. What is a’Debit Card’?

(1) It is a card issued by a Rating Agency.
(2) It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making payment even in the absence of any balance in the account.
(3) It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making payment if there is balance in the account.
(4) It is a card which carries prepaid balance.
(5) It is a card which can be used for making STD calls.

137. Who among the following Indian Lawn Tennis players won a Doubles of Australian Open 2012?

(1) Mahesh Bhupathi
(2) Kamlesh Mehta
(3) Leander Paes (4) Sania Mirza
(5) Achanta Sarath Kamal

138. ‘Akula-11’ Class ‘K.-152 Nerpa was inducted in Indian Navy recently. These are

(1) Aircraft
(2) Radar Systems
(3) Submarines Missile
(4) Warships
(5) Submarines

139. Which of the following awards was conferred upon late Mario de Miranda (posthumously) in January 2012?

(1) Padma Vibhushan
(2) Bharat Ratna
(3) Kalidas Samman
(4) Saraswati Samman
(5) Padmashri

140. Bad advances of a Bank are called

(1) Bad debt
(2) Book debt
(3) Non-Performing Asset
(4) Out-of-order accounts
(5) Overdrawn accounts

141. Axis Bank is a

(1) Public Sector Bank
(2) Private Sector Bank
(3) Co-operative Bank
(4) Foreign Bank (5) Gramin Bank

142. By increasing repo rate, the economy may observe the following effect(s):

(1) Rate of interest on loans and advances will be costlier.
(2) Industrial output would be affected to an extent.
(3) Banks will increase rate of interest on deposits.
(4) Industry houses may borrow money from foreign countries.
(5) All of these

143. Increased interest rates, as is existing in the economy at present, will

(1) Lead to higher GDP growth
(2) Lead to lower GDP growth
(3) Mean higher cost of raw materials
(4) Mean lower cost of raw materials
(5) Mean higher wage bill

144. Which of the following schemes has been launched to provide pension to people in unorganised sectors in India?

(1) Swabhiman
(2) Jeevan Dhara
(3) Jeevan Kalyan
(4) ASHA
(5) Swavalamban

145. The 10th Basic Ministerial Meeting on Climate Change was organised in February 2012 in

(1) Tokyo
(2) Beijing
(3) Manila
(4) Moscow
(5) New Delhi

146. Finance Ministry has asked the Reserve Bank of India to allow common ATMs that will be owned and managed by non-banking entities, hoping to cut transaction costs for banks. Such ATMs are known as

(1) Black Label ATMs
(2) Offsite ATMs
(3) On-site ATM’s or Red ATMs
(4) Third Party ATMs
(5) White Label ATMs

147. Which of the following schemes of the Govt of India has provided electricity to 99000 villages and total 1.7 crore households uptil now?

(1) Kutir Jyoti
(2) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
(3) Bharat Nirman
(4) PURA (5) SEWA

148. Ranbir Kapoor was awarded Best Actor Award in 57th Filmfare Award Function for his performance in

(1) No One Killed Jessica
(2) Stanley Ka Dabba
(3) 7 Khoon Maaf (4) Rockstar
(5) Zindagi Na Milegi Dobara

149. An ECS transaction gets bounced and you are unable to recover your money from your customer. Under which Act can criminal action be initiated?

(1) Indian Penal Code
(2) Negotiable Instruments Act
(3) Criminal Procedure Code
(4) Payment and Settlements Act
(4) Indian Contract Act

150. Rajendra had filed a complaint with Banking Ombudsman but is not satisfied with the decision. What is the next option before him for getting his matter resolved?

(1) Write to the CMD of the Bank
(2) File an appeal before the Finance Minister
(3) File an appeal before the Banking Ombudsman again
(4) File an appeal before the Dy Governor of RBI
(5) Simply close the matter as going to court involves time and money

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "Computer Knowledge"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Computer Knowledge


151. _________ allows users to upload files to an online site so they can be viewed and edited from another location.

(1) General-purpose applications
(2) Microsoft outlook
(3) Web-hosted technology
(4) Office Live
(5) None of these

152. What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins so that the text is centered vertically on the printed page?

(1) Vertical justifying
(2) Vertical adjusting
(3) Dual centering
(4) Horizontal centering
(5) Vertical centering

153. Which of these is not a means of personal communication on the Internet?

(1) chat
(2) instant messaging
(3) instanotes
(4) electronic mail
(5) None of these

154. What is the overall term for creating, editing, formatting, storing, retrieving, and printing a text document?

(1) Word processing
(2) Spreadsheet design
(3) Web design
(4) Database management
(5) Presentation generation

155. Fourth-generation mobile technology provides enhanced capabilities allowing the transfer of both data, including full-motion video, high-speed Internet access, and videoconferencing.

(1) video data and information
(2) voice and non-voice
(3) music and video
(4) video and audio
(5) None of these

156. _________ is a form of denial of service attack in which a hostile client repeatedly  attack in which a hostile client repeatedly sends SYN packets to every port on the server, using fake IP addresses.

(1) Cybergaming crime
(2) Memory shaving
(3) Syn flooding
(4) Software piracy
(5) None of these

157. Which of these is a point-and-draw device?

(1) mouse
(2) scanner
(3) printer
(4) CD-ROM
(5) keyboard

158. The letter and number of the intersecting column and row is the

(1) cell location
(2) cell position
(3) cell address
(4) cell coordinates
(5) cell contents

159. A set of rules for telling the computer what operations to perform is called a

(1) procedural language
(2) structures
(3) natural language
(4) command language
(5) programming language

160. A detailed written description of the programming cycle and the program, along with the test results and a printout of the program is called

(1) documentation
(2) output
(3) reporting
(4) spec sheets
(5) directory

161. Forms that are used to organise business data into rows and columns are called

(1) transaction sheets
(2) registers
(3) business forms
(4) sheet-spreads
(5) spreadsheets

162. In PowerPoint, the Header & Footer button can be found on the Insert tab in what group?

(1) Illustrations group
(2) Object group
(3) Text group
(4) Tables group (5) None of these

163. A(n)_____ is a set of programs designed to manage the resources of a computer, including starting the computer, managing programs, managing memory, and coordin-ating tasks between input and output devices.

(1) application suite
(2) compiler
(3) input/output system
(4) interface
(5) operating system (OS)

164. A typical slide in a slide presentation would not include

(1) photo images, charts and graphs
(2) graphs and clip art
(3) clip art and audio clips
(4) full-motion video
(5) content templates

165. The PC productivity tool that manipulates data organised in rows and columns is called a(n)

(1) spreadsheet
(2) word processing document
(3) presentation mechanism
(4) database record manager
(5) EDI creator

166. In the absence of parentheses, the order of operation is

(1) exponentiation, addition or subtraction, multiplication or division
(2) addition or subtraction, multiplication or division, exponentiation
(3) multiplication or division, exponen-tiation, addition or subtraction
(4) exponentiation, multiplication or divi-sion, addition or subtraction
(5) addition or subtraction, exponentiation, multiplication or division

167. To find the Paste Special option, you use the Clipboard group on the _______ tab of PowerPoint.

(1) design
(2) slide Show
(3) page layout
(4) insert
(5) home

168. A(n) program is one that is ready to run and does not need to be altered in any way.

(1) interpreter
(2) high-level
(3) compiler
(4) COBOL
(5) executable

169. Usually downloaded into folders that hold temporary Internet files,_________ are written to your computer’s hard disk by some of the Web sites you visit.

(1) anonymous files
(2) behaviour files
(3) banner ads
(4) large files
(5) cookies

170. What is the easiest way to change the phrase “revenues, profits, gross margin,” to read “revenues, profits, and gross margin”?

(1) Use the insert mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(2) Use the insert mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(3) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(4) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(5) None of these

171. A program, either talk or music, that is made available in digital format for automatic download over the Internet is called a

(1) wiki
(2) broadcast
(3) vodcast
(4) bIog
(5) podcast

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172. Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the presentation as a thumbnail and is useful for rearranging slides?

(1) Slide sorter
(2) Slide show
(3) Slide master
(4) Notes page
(5) Slide design

173. Different components on the motherboard of a PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called?

(1) Conductors
(2) Buses
(3) Connectors
(4) Consecutives
(5) None of these

174. What is the name given to those applications that combine text, sound, graphics, motion video, and/or animation?

(1) motionware
(2) anigraphics
(3) videoscapes
(4) multimedia
(5) maxomedia

175. A USB communication device that supports data encryption for secure wireless commu-nication for notebook users is called a

(1) USB wireless network adapter
(2) wireless switch
(3) wireless hub
(4) router
(5) None of these

176. A(n) language reflects the way people think mathematically.

(1) cross-platform programming
(2) 3GL business programming
(3) event-driven programming
(4) functional
(5) None of these

177. When entering text within a document, the Enter key is normally pressed at the end of every

(1) line
(2) sentence
(3) paragraph
(4) word
(5) file

178. When a real-time telephone call between people is made over the Internet using computers, it is called

(1) a chat session
(2) an e-mail
(3) an instant message
(4) internet telephony
(5) None of these

179. Which of the following is the first step in sizing a window?

(1) Point to the title bar
(2) Pull down the View menu to display the toolbar
(3) Point to any corner or border
(4) Pull down the View menu and change to large icons
(5) None of these

180. Which of the following software could assist someone who cannot use their hands for computer input?

(1) Videoconferencing
(2) Speech recognition
(3) Audio digitizer
(4) Synthesizer
(5) None of these

181. ......... a document means the file is transferred from another computer to your computer.

(1) Uploading
(2) Really Simple Syndication (RSS)
(3) Accessing
(4) Downloading
(5) Upgrading

182. Which computer memory is used for storing programs and data currently being processed by the CPU?

(1) Mass memory
(2) Internal memory
(3) Non-volatile memory
(4) PROM
(5) None of these

183. Computers that control processes accept data in a continuous

(1) data traffic pattern
(2) data highway
(3) infinite loop
(4) feedback loop
(5) slot

184. What refers to a set of characters of a particular design?

(1) Keyface
(2) Formation
(3) Calligraph
(4) Stencil
(5) Typeface

185. ........ is used by public and private enterprises to publish and share financial information with each other and industry analysts across all computer platforms and the Internet.

(1) Extensible Markup Language (XML)
(2) Extensible Business Reporting Language (XBRL)
(3) Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
(4) Sales Force Automation (SKA) software
(5) None of these

186. Which part of the computer is used for calculating and comparing?

(1) ALU
(2) Control unit
(3) Disk unit
(4) Modem
(5) None of these

187. The method of Internet access that requires a phone line, but offers faster access speeds than dial-up is the connection.

(1) cable access
(2) satellite access
(3) fibre-optic service
(4) digital subscriber line (DSL)
(5) modem

188. ............. software creates a minor image of the entire hard disk, including the operating system, applications, files, and data.

(1) Operating system
(2) Backup software
(3) Utility programs
(4) Driver imaging
(5) None of these

189. What is a URL?

(1) A computer software program
(2) A type of programming object
(3) The address of a document or “page” on the World Wide Web
(4) An acronym for Unlimited Resources for Learning
(5) A piece of hard ware

190. What is the significance of a faded (dimmed) command in a pull-down menu?

(1) The command is not currently accessible.
(2) A dialog box appears if the command is selected.
(3) A Help window appears if the command is selected.
(4) There are no equivalent keystrokes for the particular command.
(5) None of these

191. Your business has contracted with another company to have thorn host and run an application for your company over the Internet. The company providing this service to your business is called an

(1) internet service provider
(2) internet access provider
(3) application service provider
(4) application access provider
(5) outsource agency

192. A(n) ............. allows you to access your e-mail from anywhere.

(1) forum
(2) webmail interface
(3) message board
(4) weblog
(5) None of these

193. Which of the following would you find on Linkedln?

(1) Games
(2) Connections
(3) Chat
(4) Applications
(5) None of these

194. ............. is a technique that is used to send more than one call over a single line.

(1) Digital transmission
(2) Infrared transmission
(3) Digitizing
(4) Streaming
(5) Multiplexing

195. The Search Companion can

(1) locate all files containing a specified phrase
(2) restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(3) locate all files containing a specified phrase and restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(4) cannot locate all files containing a specified phrase or restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(5) None of these

196. Which of the following cannot be part of an email address?

(1) Period (.)
(2) At sign (@)
(3) Space ()
(4) Underscore (_)
(5) None of these

197. Which of the following must be contained in a URL?

(1) A protocol identifier
(2) The letters www
(3) The unique registered domain name
(4) www. and the unique registered domain name
(5) A protocol identifier, www. and the unique registered domain name

198. Which of the following information systems focuses on making manufacturing processes more efficient and of higher quality?

(1) Computer-aided manufacturing
(2) Computer-integrated manufacturing
(3) Computer-aided software engineering
(4) Computer-aided system engineering
(5) None of these

199. A mistake in an algorithm that causes incorrect results is called a

(1) logical error
(2) syntax error
(3) procedural error
(4) compiler error
(5) machine error

200. A device for changing the connection on a connector to a different configuration is

(1) a converter
(2) a component
(3) an attachment
(4) an adapter
(5) voltmeter

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "English Language"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Computer Knowledge


151. _________ allows users to upload files to an online site so they can be viewed and edited from another location.

(1) General-purpose applications
(2) Microsoft outlook
(3) Web-hosted technology
(4) Office Live
(5) None of these

152. What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins so that the text is centered vertically on the printed page?

(1) Vertical justifying
(2) Vertical adjusting
(3) Dual centering
(4) Horizontal centering
(5) Vertical centering

153. Which of these is not a means of personal communication on the Internet?

(1) chat
(2) instant messaging
(3) instanotes
(4) electronic mail
(5) None of these

154. What is the overall term for creating, editing, formatting, storing, retrieving, and printing a text document?

(1) Word processing
(2) Spreadsheet design
(3) Web design
(4) Database management
(5) Presentation generation

155. Fourth-generation mobile technology provides enhanced capabilities allowing the transfer of both data, including full-motion video, high-speed Internet access, and videoconferencing.

(1) video data and information
(2) voice and non-voice
(3) music and video
(4) video and audio
(5) None of these

156. _________ is a form of denial of service attack in which a hostile client repeatedly  attack in which a hostile client repeatedly sends SYN packets to every port on the server, using fake IP addresses.

(1) Cybergaming crime
(2) Memory shaving
(3) Syn flooding
(4) Software piracy
(5) None of these

157. Which of these is a point-and-draw device?

(1) mouse
(2) scanner
(3) printer
(4) CD-ROM
(5) keyboard

158. The letter and number of the intersecting column and row is the

(1) cell location
(2) cell position
(3) cell address
(4) cell coordinates
(5) cell contents

159. A set of rules for telling the computer what operations to perform is called a

(1) procedural language
(2) structures
(3) natural language
(4) command language
(5) programming language

160. A detailed written description of the programming cycle and the program, along with the test results and a printout of the program is called

(1) documentation
(2) output
(3) reporting
(4) spec sheets
(5) directory

161. Forms that are used to organise business data into rows and columns are called

(1) transaction sheets
(2) registers
(3) business forms
(4) sheet-spreads
(5) spreadsheets

162. In PowerPoint, the Header & Footer button can be found on the Insert tab in what group?

(1) Illustrations group
(2) Object group
(3) Text group
(4) Tables group (5) None of these

163. A(n)_____ is a set of programs designed to manage the resources of a computer, including starting the computer, managing programs, managing memory, and coordin-ating tasks between input and output devices.

(1) application suite
(2) compiler
(3) input/output system
(4) interface
(5) operating system (OS)

164. A typical slide in a slide presentation would not include

(1) photo images, charts and graphs
(2) graphs and clip art
(3) clip art and audio clips
(4) full-motion video
(5) content templates

165. The PC productivity tool that manipulates data organised in rows and columns is called a(n)

(1) spreadsheet
(2) word processing document
(3) presentation mechanism
(4) database record manager
(5) EDI creator

166. In the absence of parentheses, the order of operation is

(1) exponentiation, addition or subtraction, multiplication or division
(2) addition or subtraction, multiplication or division, exponentiation
(3) multiplication or division, exponen-tiation, addition or subtraction
(4) exponentiation, multiplication or divi-sion, addition or subtraction
(5) addition or subtraction, exponentiation, multiplication or division

167. To find the Paste Special option, you use the Clipboard group on the _______ tab of PowerPoint.

(1) design
(2) slide Show
(3) page layout
(4) insert
(5) home

168. A(n) program is one that is ready to run and does not need to be altered in any way.

(1) interpreter
(2) high-level
(3) compiler
(4) COBOL
(5) executable

169. Usually downloaded into folders that hold temporary Internet files,_________ are written to your computer’s hard disk by some of the Web sites you visit.

(1) anonymous files
(2) behaviour files
(3) banner ads
(4) large files
(5) cookies

170. What is the easiest way to change the phrase “revenues, profits, gross margin,” to read “revenues, profits, and gross margin”?

(1) Use the insert mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(2) Use the insert mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(3) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(4) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(5) None of these

171. A program, either talk or music, that is made available in digital format for automatic download over the Internet is called a

(1) wiki
(2) broadcast
(3) vodcast
(4) bIog
(5) podcast

172. Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the presentation as a thumbnail and is useful for rearranging slides?

(1) Slide sorter
(2) Slide show
(3) Slide master
(4) Notes page
(5) Slide design

173. Different components on the motherboard of a PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called?

(1) Conductors
(2) Buses
(3) Connectors
(4) Consecutives
(5) None of these

174. What is the name given to those applications that combine text, sound, graphics, motion video, and/or animation?

(1) motionware
(2) anigraphics
(3) videoscapes
(4) multimedia
(5) maxomedia

175. A USB communication device that supports data encryption for secure wireless commu-nication for notebook users is called a

(1) USB wireless network adapter
(2) wireless switch
(3) wireless hub
(4) router
(5) None of these

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176. A(n) language reflects the way people think mathematically.

(1) cross-platform programming
(2) 3GL business programming
(3) event-driven programming
(4) functional
(5) None of these

177. When entering text within a document, the Enter key is normally pressed at the end of every

(1) line
(2) sentence
(3) paragraph
(4) word
(5) file

178. When a real-time telephone call between people is made over the Internet using computers, it is called

(1) a chat session
(2) an e-mail
(3) an instant message
(4) internet telephony
(5) None of these

179. Which of the following is the first step in sizing a window?

(1) Point to the title bar
(2) Pull down the View menu to display the toolbar
(3) Point to any corner or border
(4) Pull down the View menu and change to large icons
(5) None of these

180. Which of the following software could assist someone who cannot use their hands for computer input?

(1) Videoconferencing
(2) Speech recognition
(3) Audio digitizer
(4) Synthesizer
(5) None of these

181. ......... a document means the file is transferred from another computer to your computer.

(1) Uploading
(2) Really Simple Syndication (RSS)
(3) Accessing
(4) Downloading
(5) Upgrading

182. Which computer memory is used for storing programs and data currently being processed by the CPU?

(1) Mass memory
(2) Internal memory
(3) Non-volatile memory
(4) PROM
(5) None of these

183. Computers that control processes accept data in a continuous

(1) data traffic pattern
(2) data highway
(3) infinite loop
(4) feedback loop
(5) slot

184. What refers to a set of characters of a particular design?

(1) Keyface
(2) Formation
(3) Calligraph
(4) Stencil
(5) Typeface

185. ........ is used by public and private enterprises to publish and share financial information with each other and industry analysts across all computer platforms and the Internet.

(1) Extensible Markup Language (XML)
(2) Extensible Business Reporting Language (XBRL)
(3) Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
(4) Sales Force Automation (SKA) software
(5) None of these

186. Which part of the computer is used for calculating and comparing?

(1) ALU
(2) Control unit
(3) Disk unit
(4) Modem
(5) None of these

187. The method of Internet access that requires a phone line, but offers faster access speeds than dial-up is the connection.

(1) cable access
(2) satellite access
(3) fibre-optic service
(4) digital subscriber line (DSL)
(5) modem

188. ............. software creates a minor image of the entire hard disk, including the operating system, applications, files, and data.

(1) Operating system
(2) Backup software
(3) Utility programs
(4) Driver imaging
(5) None of these

189. What is a URL?

(1) A computer software program
(2) A type of programming object
(3) The address of a document or “page” on the World Wide Web
(4) An acronym for Unlimited Resources for Learning
(5) A piece of hard ware

190. What is the significance of a faded (dimmed) command in a pull-down menu?

(1) The command is not currently accessible.
(2) A dialog box appears if the command is selected.
(3) A Help window appears if the command is selected.
(4) There are no equivalent keystrokes for the particular command.
(5) None of these

191. Your business has contracted with another company to have thorn host and run an application for your company over the Internet. The company providing this service to your business is called an

(1) internet service provider
(2) internet access provider
(3) application service provider
(4) application access provider
(5) outsource agency

192. A(n) ............. allows you to access your e-mail from anywhere.

(1) forum
(2) webmail interface
(3) message board
(4) weblog
(5) None of these

193. Which of the following would you find on Linkedln?

(1) Games
(2) Connections
(3) Chat
(4) Applications
(5) None of these

194. ............. is a technique that is used to send more than one call over a single line.

(1) Digital transmission
(2) Infrared transmission
(3) Digitizing
(4) Streaming
(5) Multiplexing

195. The Search Companion can

(1) locate all files containing a specified phrase
(2) restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(3) locate all files containing a specified phrase and restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(4) cannot locate all files containing a specified phrase or restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(5) None of these

196. Which of the following cannot be part of an email address?

(1) Period (.)
(2) At sign (@)
(3) Space ()
(4) Underscore (_)
(5) None of these

197. Which of the following must be contained in a URL?

(1) A protocol identifier
(2) The letters www
(3) The unique registered domain name
(4) www. and the unique registered domain name
(5) A protocol identifier, www. and the unique registered domain name

198. Which of the following information systems focuses on making manufacturing processes more efficient and of higher quality?

(1) Computer-aided manufacturing
(2) Computer-integrated manufacturing
(3) Computer-aided software engineering
(4) Computer-aided system engineering
(5) None of these

199. A mistake in an algorithm that causes incorrect results is called a

(1) logical error
(2) syntax error
(3) procedural error
(4) compiler error
(5) machine error

200. A device for changing the connection on a connector to a different configuration is

(1) a converter
(2) a component
(3) an attachment
(4) an adapter
(5) voltmeter

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2010



RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2010

English Paper -1



Essay

Write an argumentative essay of about 500 words on any one of the following:-40

  • Does Politics need Ethics?
  • Cricket unites the World!
  • Do Growth and Inflation go together?
  • Is Environment our Social Responsibility?
  • Travel and Tourism is a booming business.

Precis

Make a precis of the following passage in your own words, reducing it to about 250 words, and give it a suitable title. Use the special sheet provided for the purpose:-24

FOR the head of the IMF to quote Adam Smith may seem unremarkable. But here is Dominique Strauss-Kahn citing the great man in November 2010: “The disposition to admire, and almost to worship, the rich and the powerful and…neglect persons of poor and mean condition...is the great and most universal cause of the corruption of our moral sentiments."

Mr. Strauss-Kahn then bemoaned "a large and growing chasm between rich and poorespecially within countries ". He argued that inequitable distribution of wealth could "wear down the social fabric ". He added: “More unequal countries have worse social indicators, a poorer human-development record, and higher degrees of economic insecurity and anxiety."

That marks a huge shift. Just before the financial crisis America's Congress was gaily cutting taxes for the highest earners, and Tony Blair, Britain's prime minister, said he did not care how much soccer players earned so long as he could reduce child poverty. So why has fear of inequality stormed back into fashion? Does it matter in some new way? Does it have previously unknown effects?

The most obvious reason for the renewed attention is inequality's apparent increase. A common yardstick is the Gini coefficient, which runs from 0 (everyone has the same income) to 1 (one person has all the income). Most countries range between 0.25 and 0.6.

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2009



RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2009

English Paper -1



Essay

Write an argumentative essay of about 500 words on any one of the following:-40

  • Is China a threat to India?
  • The 2008 recession was a myth in India.
  • Can we leave the world a safer place for the next generation?
  • Formal education is the only way to success in life?
  • Business Schools more business than school?

Precis

Make a precis of the following passage in your own words, reducing it to about 250 words, and give it a suitable title. Use the special sheet provided for the purpose:-24

These days, if you are the leader, you have got to give up your omnipotent fantasies that you know and must do everything. Bosses, these days, are advised to abandon their ego to the talents of others. Employees will not take any ' crap' from anyone. Young kids, fresh out of university, do not believe in hierarchy at the workplace, and they do not believe in being bossed around. Experts believe that the competition in the talent market has made employees "soft and submissive", and most organizations oppose strict and harsh leaders even when the employees' behaviour demands stern action. Are bosses scared to confront their employees?

Rigid, autocratic management styles are outdated and ineffective in today's modern workplace. If leaders want to motivate their bright young workers, they need to adopt a more collaborative style. One would come across such situations more in the BPO or IT industries, as compared to niche industries, where the fear is not too high though prevalent. That is because it is difficult to find the right candidate to fill in the position, if a particular employee quits.

Some H R Managers, however, do not agree that bosses today are scared to confront their employees. At the same time, they do not believe in the word ' confrontation'. They feel the need to talk to employees on a regular basis. The idea is not to criticize them, but to give them feedback for better performance and development.

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2008



RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2008

English Paper 1



Essay

Write an argumentative essay of about 500 words on any one of the following:-40

  • What went wrong in Singur?
  • The Role of Media in a Crisis.
  • The Nuclear Deal.
  • The Future of Peace in India.
  • Can we host the Olympics?

Precis

Make a precis of the following passage in your own words, reducing it to about 250 words, and give it a suitable title. Use the special sheet provided for the purpose:

Look beyond the stock markets, especially at the seized-up money markets, and there is little to see except bank failures, emergency rescues and high anxiety in the credit markets. These forces are drawing the financial system closer to disaster and the rich world to the edge of a nasty recession.

The crisis is spreading in two directions across the Atlantic to Europe, and out of the financial markets into the real economy. Governments have been dealing with it disaster by disaster. They have struggled to gain control not just because of the speed of contagion but also because policymakers, and the public they serve have failed fully to grasp the breadth and depth of the crisis.

Western Europe is not the limit of this the panic has also struck banks in Hong Kong, Russia and now India. And it is not just the geographical breadth of this crisis that is alarming, but also its economic depth. Because it is rooted in the money markets, it will feed through to businesses and households in every economy it hits.

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2007



RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2007

English Paper 1



Essay

1. Write an argumentative essay of about 500 words on any one of the following:-40

  • Has the virtual workplace become a reality?
  • Health insurance and wealth!
  • Laptops for notebooks, what next in schools?
  • In the Light of the popularity of ODIs and 20 x 20s has Test Cricket a future?
  • What's wrong with the SEZ policy?

Precis

Make a precis of the following passage in your own words, reducing it to about 250 words, and give it a suitable title. Use the special sheet provided for the purpose:-24

The idea that mobile phones bring economic benefits is now widely accepted. In places with bad roads, few trains and parlous land lines, they substitute for travel, allow price data to be distributed more quickly and easily, enable traders to reach wider markets and generally ease the business of doing business. Leonard Waverman of the London Business School has estimated that an extra ten mobile phones per 100 people in a typical developing country leads to an extra half a percentage point of growth in GDP per person. To realize the economic benefits of mobile phones, governments in such countries need to do away with state monopolies, issue new licenses to allow rival operators to enter the market and slash taxes on handsets. With few exceptions (halo, Ethiopia), they have done so, and mobile phones are now spreading fast, even in the poorest parts of the world.

As mobile phones have spread, a new economic benefit is coming into view ; using them for banking and, so improving access to financial services, not just telecoms networks. Pioneering M-banking projects in the Philippines, Kenya and South Africa show the way. These “branchless” schemes typically allow customers to deposit and withdraw cash through a mobile operator's airtime-re-sale agents, and send money to other people via text messages that can be exchanged for cash by visiting an writ Workers can then be paid by phone; taxi-drivers and delivery-drivers can accept payments without carrying cash around; money can be easily sent to friends and family. A popular use is to deposit money before making a long journey and then withdraw it at the other end, which is safer than carrying lots of cash.

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Paper II - 2014 "Economic and Social Issues"



RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains Exam Paper II - 2014

Economic and Social Issues



1. Explain different indices for measuring economic development. Which measure is most appropriate according to you and why ?

2. “ Deepening challenge of the climate change is the area that requires immediate global attention”. Discuss.

3.

(a) Explain the provisions under MGNREGA.
(b) Examine the challenges of Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) with respect to MGNREG Scheme.

4. Examine the inter-relationship of food inflation and rising wages in rural areas of India.

5. Explain the causes of India’s rising sexual crime graph. What measures would you suggest to prevent the same?

6. “Increasing unemployment in India reveals that we are not able to put our demographic dividend to good use”. Discuss.

7. Explain :—

(a) Trends of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India
(b) FDI in Insurance

8. Critically evaluate the J P Nayak committee’s recommendations to dismantle the government’s stakes in nationalized banks.
9. Explain the contribution of service sector in income, employment and export in
India.

10. Write notes on any two :—

(a) Malnutrition in India
(b) Use of social media in education : a boon or bane
(c) Problem of child labour in India
(d) Declining sex ratio.

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2012 "Economic & Social Issues"

RBI Grade “B” officers’ Mains (Descriptive) Exam - 2012

Paper 2: Economic & Social Issues

Instructions:
  1. 3 hours, 100 marks
  2. Answer any five questions.
  3. All questions carry equal marks.
  4. Answers may be written either in English or in Hindi at the candidate’s option. However, all the questions should be answered only in the language so chosen. Answer-books written partly in English and partly in Hindi will not be evaluated.
  5. Part of the same question must be answered together without answers to other questions intervening.
  6. Answer to each question must be started on a fresh page.
  7. Marks will be deducted if handwriting is not easily legible.
  8. Answers will be judged on the basis of perspective, analysis and presentation

Questions (Attempt any five)

Q.1 Examine the banking sector reform measures undertaken in India since 1991. Briefly describe the recent changes in RBI’s monetary policy.

Q.2 Two Questions

  1. What is sustainable development? What should be done to achieve it?
  2. What is environment management? Explain social and economic aspects of environment management.

Q.3 Two questions

  1. Do you agree with a view that public sector enterprises have played a strategic role in accelerating economic growth? Explain.
  2. Explain the importance of service sector and its contribution to employment in India.

Q.4 Two Questions

  1. Monetary measures have failed to control inflation in India.” Explain. (b) Suggest suitable options for controlling inflation.
  2. Explain the measures and strategies adopted by India on the following subjects

Q.5 Two Question

  1. Provision of Social Security
  2. Foreign Direct Investment.

Q.6 Two questions

  1. Explain the factors responsible for rapid growth of export over the past decade.
  2. What changes have taken place in the product composition of exports in recent years.

Q.7 Two Questions

  1. Religion continues to be an important source of identity for most people in South Asia. Discuss.
  2. Examine the need of secularism in our country with special reference to constitution of India.

Q.8 Two Questions

  1. Is creation of smaller states the right solution to improve the quality of governance and check corruption? Discuss.
  2. Explain the changes in public administration in the age of globalization and liberalization.

Q.9 Two Questions

  1. Caste factor is most dominant and omnipresent in Indian politics ‘. Discuss the statement with suitable illustration.
  2. Explain the impact of reservation policy on scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.

Q.10 Write notes on any two :

  1. Impact of globalization on culture, media and technology.
  2. Role of small and medium enterprises in Indian economy.
  3. Privatization of higher education.
  4. IMF in the changing world.

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2011 "Economic & Social Issues"

RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2011

Economic & Social Issues

Common Instructions

  • 3 hours, 100 marks

  • Answer any five questions.

  • All questions carry equal marks.

  • Answers may be written either in English or in Hindi at the candidate’s option. However, all the questions should be answered only in the language so chosen. Answer-books written partly in English and partly in Hindi will not be evaluated.

  • Part of the same question must be answered together without answers to other questions intervening.

  • Answer to each question must be started on a fresh page.

  • Marks will be deducted if handwriting is not easily legible.

  • Answers will be judged on the basis of perspective, analysis and presentation

Questions

  1. Examine the banking sector reform measures undertaken in India since 1991. Briefly describe the recent changes in RBI's monetary policy.

  2. Two Questions
    i) What is sustainable development? What should be done to achieve it?
    ii) What is environment management? Explain social and economic aspects of environment management.

  3. Two questions
    i) Do you agree with a view that public sector enterprises have played a strategic role in accelerating economic growth? Explain.
    ii) Explain the importance of service sector and its contribution to employment in India.

  4. Two Questions
    i) Monetary measures have failed to control inflation in India." Explain. (b) Suggest suitable options for controlling inflation.
    ii) Explain the measures and strategies adopted by India on the following subjects

  5. Two Question
    i) Provision of Social Security
    ii) Foreign Direct Investment.

  6. Two questions
    i) Explain the factors responsible for rapid growth of export over the past decade.
    ii) What changes have taken place in the product composition of exports in recent years.

  7. Two Questions
    i) Religion continues to be an important source of identity for most people in South Asia. Discuss.
    ii) Examine the need of secularism in our country with special reference to constitution of India.

  8. Two Questions
    i) Is creation of smaller states the right solution to improve the quality of governance and check corruption? Discuss.
    ii) Explain the changes in public administration in the age of globalization and liberalization.

  9. Two Questions
    i) Caste factor is most dominant and omnipresent in Indian politics '. Discuss the statement with suitable illustration.
    ii) Explain the impact of reservation policy on scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.

  10. Write notes on any two :
    i) Impact of globalization on culture, media and technology.
    ii) Role of small and medium enterprises in Indian economy.
    iii) Privatization of higher education.
    iv) IMF in the changing world.

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(Paper) RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2010 "Economic & Social Issues"

RBI Grade 'B' Officer Mains (Phase II) Exam - 2010

Economic & Social Issues

Common Instructions

  • 3 hours, 100 marks

  • Answer any five questions.

  • All questions carry equal marks.

  • Answers may be written either in English or in Hindi at the candidate’s option. However, all the questions should be answered only in the language so chosen. Answer-books written partly in English and partly in Hindi will not be evaluated.

  • Part of the same question must be answered together without answers to other questions intervening.

  • Answer to each question must be started on a fresh page.

  • Marks will be deducted if handwriting is not easily legible.

  • Answers will be judged on the basis of perspective, analysis and presentation

Questions

  1. (a) ' Inequality of income distribution is a global phenomenon '. Discuss.
    (b) Suggest suitable measures to reduce inequality of income in rural and urban sector in India.

  2. Examine the impact of policy of liberalization on rural and urban employment and poverty.

  3. (a) Critically evaluate India's Free Trade Policy in the post reform period.
    (b) Explain the recent developments in the exchange rate of rupee.

  4. ' Development projects are considered as temples of modern India '. Justify your answer with reference to their impact on environment and health.

  5. (a) What are the objectives of population policy of India?
    (b) Describe briefly the government programme for stable population.

  6. (a) Review the role of regional political parties in different states.
    (b) In the age of coalition parties do they consider politics as a family business '. Discuss.

  7. (a) Explain the role of National Human Rights Commission in the protection of human rights.
    (b) Justify the need of reservation for SC, ST and other backward classes.

  8. Review the achievements and failures of Indian planning in reaching its targets and policies.

  9. (a) Discuss the problems associated with urbanization and rural-urban migration.
    (b) What are the policies adopted by the government to solve them?

  10. Write notes on any two of the following
    (a) Unorganized sector in India.
    (b) Micro credit and Women empowerment.
    (c) Weaknesses in India's higher education.
    (d) Various forms of Regional Integration.

DOWNLOAD RBI (GRADE-B) Exam Papers PDF

DOWNLOAD BANK EXAMS PAPERS PDF

Study Kit for RBI Grade ‘B’ Officers (Pre.) Exam

Buy Printed Study Material for RBI Officers in Grade ‘B’ (Pre.) Exam

Buy Books for RBI Officers in Grade ‘B’ Exam

Jobs: 
Bank/Organisation: 
Subject: 
General: 
Tag: 

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