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(Download) Andhra Bank Clerk Exam Solved Paper (Numerical Ability) Held on: 15-05-2011

(Download) Andhra Bank Clerk Exam Solved Paper (Numerical Ability) Held on: 15-05-2011

Q.1. 434.23 + 21.56 + 63.89 = ?
(1) 515.75
(2) 519.68
(3) 517.63
(4) 511.74
(5) None of these

Q.2. 34 × 255 × 15 = ? + 14431
(1) 115619
(2) 115671
(3) 115617
(4) 115691
(5) None of these

Q.3. 0.01 × 111 + 10.4 – 6.3 = ?
(1) 6.32
(2) 4.24
(3) 5.21
(4) 9.11
(5) None of these

Q.4. 18% of 255 + ?% of 600 = 255.9
(1) 35
(2) 38
(3) 45
(4) 44
(5) None of these

Q.5. 5642.36 + 237.35 + 522.93 = ? + 3990.35
(1) 2418.76
(2) 2416.45
(3) 2415.29
(4) 2411.23
(5) None of these

Q.6. (28 × 13) + (15 × 9) = ?
(1) 491
(2) 494
(3) 497
(4) 499
(5) None of these

Q.7. 78121 + 14112 – 53798 = ?
(1) 38438
(2) 38433
(3) 38435
(4) 38432
(5) None of these

Q.8. A canteen uses 240 liters of water in 3 days. How many liters of water will they use in 5 days?
(1) 400
(2) 440
(3) 410
(4) 420
(5) None of these

Q.9. What is the least number that can be added to 4600 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 34
(2) 36
(3) 25
(4) 24
(5) None of these

Q.10. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 4,000/- at the rate of 12 p.c.p.a. after 2 years?
(1) Rs. 1,019.5
(2) Rs. 1,017.56
(3) Rs. 1,013.4
(4) Rs. 1,016.8
(5) None of thes

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(Download) Andhra Bank Clerk Exam Solved Paper (Reasoning) Held on: 15-05-2011

(Download) Andhra Bank Clerk Exam Solved Paper (Reasoning) Held on: 15-05-2011

Q.1 ‘Create’ is related to ‘Destroy’ in the same way as ‘Purchase’ is related to ‘_______________’.
(1) Goods
(2) Buy
(3) Market
(4) Sell
(5) Money

Q.2. The positions of first and fourth letters of the word CLAIMS are interchanged, similarly, the positions of second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there between the letter which is second from the right and the letter which is second from the left, in the English alphabetical order?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

Q.3. How many meaningful English words cab be formed with the letters AHS using all he letters but each letter only once in each word?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

Q.4. In a certain code ‘in for a nice’ is written as ‘a in for nice surprise’ and ‘obtained a new useful report’ is written as ‘a obtained useful new report’. How will ‘entry denied in the university’ be written in the same code?
(1) university in entry denied the
(2) entry in university the denied
(3) entry in the university denied
(4) entry in the denied university the
(5) entry in university denied the

Q.5. Which of the following will come in the place of question mark (?) according to the English alphabetical series? AD CF EH ? IL
(1) GL
(2) GJ (3) JM
(4) GK
(5) IK

Q.6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Drop
(2) Slip
(3) Bounce
(4) Topple
(5) Fall

Q.7-8. Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Among M, R, L, N and J each scoring different marks in an examination, R scored more than M, N scored less than L but more than J. J scored than R.

Q.7. Who amongst them scored the least marks?
(1) R
(2) M
(3) J
(4) N (5) L

Q.8. Who amongst them scored the least marks?
(1) R
(2) M
(3) J
(4) N
(5) L

Q.9. In each vowel of the PERTAIN is  changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series and then the alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be third from the left?
(1) O
(2) Q
(3) N
(4) B
(5) J

Q.10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word THINGS, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between than in the English alphabetical order?
(1) One
(2) Tow
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) Five

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(Download) Andhra Bank Clerk Exam Solved Paper (Aptitude) Held on: 15-05-2011



(Download) Andhra Bank Clerk Exam Solved Paper (Aptitude) Held on: 15-05-2011



Q.146-150. The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas: (1) or (2) or (3) or (4) or 95), as the case maybe is your answer.

Q.1. Vitamin consumption was found to be lower in the girls from the rural areas as compared to the males.
(1) Sports
(2) Healtah
(3) Environment
(4) Economics
(5) Entertainment

Q.2. Four new talent shows to be launched on television in the coming weeks.
(1) Sports
(2) Health
(3) Environment
(4) Economics
(5) Entertainment

Q.3. 7% hike in stock prices of as leading car manufacturing company.
(1) Sports
(2) Health
(3) Environment
(4) Economics
(5) Entertainment

Q.4. Team’s victory in the world championship series has don the nation proud.
(1) Sports
(2) Health
(3) Environment
(4) Economics
(5) Entertainment

Q.5. Famous choreographer has turned director for a leading production company.
(1) Sports
(2) Health
(3) Environment
(4) Economics
(5) Entertainment

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(Download) Andhra Bank Clerk Exam Solved Paper (English Language) Held on: 15-05-2011

(Download) Andhra Bank Clerk Exam Solved Paper (English Language) Held on: 15-05-2011

In the city of Manmathapura, there lived a young man named Veeravara. He was brave and intelligent. He longed for adventure and when he was eighteen years old, he took up a job on a ship so that he could travel and see other countries. He travelled to many places on the ship and had many adventures. One day, a storm hit the sea, the ship tossed about and everyone was thrown overboard, including Veeravara. He managed to clutch on to a piece of wood and save his life. As he was floating in the sea, he lost consciousness. When at last he woke up, he found himself lying on the sandy shore of an unknown island, under the piercing rays of the sun.

Glad to be alive, he got up. He was on a large island, and some miles inland he could see a city. Veeravara started walking in that direction. When he reached the city, to his surprise, he was greeted by a great crowd that cheered him. He did not know what was happening. An elephant was brought forward and he was made to sit on his back. A sad-looking man was also sitting there silently. The elephant marched towards a palatial building. Veeravara asked the old man, “Why do the people welcome a stranger like me in this grand fashion? What are they celebrating, and where are they taking me?” The old man now looked sadder. “This is an unusual island,” he explained. ‘The people here are very intelligent but they have some funny rules. They are prosperous but they don’t have a king. They fell that if they choose a king from within themselves, he will be partial. So they wait for an unknown person to come to this island. When someone like you, a shipwrecked traveler, gets washed to the shore, they make him their king. They are taking us to the palace. You are our new king now.” “What happens to the previous king? And who are you?” Veeravara asked. “I was the king till you came along. The old king is given a day to teach the new one the ropes. Then he is sent off to the next deserted island, where he has to look after himself. That’s the rule.” Saying this, the old man pointed to an island. Veeravara could see it was covered with dense forest. Now he realised why the old man was sad.

Veeravara was crowned king with great pomp. He quickly learnt his new job and became a good and fair king. But deep inside, a little part of him remained unhappy. When would the next shipwrecked person show up and he be sent off to the other island to live ill the end of his days with wild animals and other retried kings? As he thought about this, he came up with an idea. As long as he was the king, he had absolute power. He ordered his men to go to the island and clear a part of the forest. Then he ordered roads and houses to be built. Soon there were roads, shops and pretty little houses on the island. People would go to the forest and see the wild animals; they gathered honey and fruits from the trees there, and in a few years, the island as no longer deserted but a cheerful little town.

Now Veeravara was not worried at all. When the next king appeared, he would not have to fend for himself in the forest. Instead, he would live in a little cottage and grow vegetable. Years passed and he got older. The people loved him and were sad whenever they thought he would no longer be their king. Then one day Veeravara called his people and said, “It is good when you make a person from outside the island a king. He is fresh and unbiased. But this may not always be a good idea. What if the next person who comes here is a crook? You will make him king without knowing anything about him. Instead, let’s have a system where the cleverest people of this island are chosen and rule the place together. Then no one person will have absolute power, and if one of them turns out dishonest, you can always remove him from the council,” The islanders liked the idea, and in a few days, chose their new rules. Veeravara handed over the kingdom to hem and retired happily to his cottage, where he stayed till the end of this days.

Q.1. Why did Veeravara take up a job on the ship?
(1) He enjoyed the sea
(2) It was the only job available
(3) He wanted to visit an island
(4) Jobs on the ship paid well and Veeravara needed the money
(5) Life of the ship was filled with adventure.


Q.2. How did Veeravara land on an unknown island?(A) He swam across to the nearest island after the shipwreck.
(B) The ship lost its way and docked on the island.
(C) He was unconscious while he floated across to the island.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) None of these

Q.3. Why did the crowd cheer when they saw Veeravara approaching them?
(1) There was happy he was saved
(2) They were expecting his visit
(3) They were going to make him their king
(4) They were happy Veeravara accepted their invitation to visit their island
(5) They wanted their present king to retire as soon as possible.

Q.4. Why was the old man who was accompanying Veeravara sad?
(A) He was going to be sent off to a deserted island.
(B) He had no sons who were adventurous like Veeravara.
(C) He had no heir who could take over the kingdom after him.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) and (C)
(5) None of these

Q.5. What was the rule put forth by the people of the island?
(1) Every stranger would get a warm welcome
(2) No one was allowed to clear the forest area
(3) The retired king would be sent off to a deserted island to look after himself
(4) The island would be ruled by a council of rulers
(5) The king had absolute power and could do as he wished.

Q.6. Which of the following statements about Veeravara is false in the context of the passage?
(1) He was responsible for bringing about a change in the island
(2) He cleared the dense forest and built and cottages for his people
(3) He wanted to have a comfortable retirement
(4) He introduced the concept of a council
(5) He was envious of the previous king.

Q.7. Why did the villages wait for an unknown person to arrive island in order to make him their king?
(1) They wanted their king to be someone who was not from among them
(2) They did not have any young boys who were capable of carrying out the duties of a king
(3) The people of the village were not educated
(4) They found it easier to disrespect unknown people
(5) Nobody in the island was willing to take up the responsibility of governance.

Q.8. Although Veeravara was a successful king, there was an element of unhappiness because
(1) he knew that he would not be able to stay on the island as he would have to return home one day
(2) he always felt that he was a foreigner on the island
(3) he felt responsible for the dethronement of the previous king
(4) he was not sure when he would be sent off to the deserted island
(5) he lost his companions after the shipwreck.

Q.9. What advise did Veeravara give to the people of his kingdom?
(1) To choose a king from within the island
(2) To send all the retried king to the fathers deserted island
(3) To have a system where a council of rulers could rule the island
(4) To place complete trust in their king
(5) None of these

Q.10. Piercing :
(1) Intense
(2) Loud
(3) Vibrant
(4) Violent

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(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Reasoning) Held on: 02-01-2011



(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Reasoning) Held on: 02-01-2011



Q.1-5. Study the following information to answer the given questions:

L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circle facing the centre. O is sitting between L and R. Q is second to the right of R and P is second to the right of Q. N is not an immediate neighbour of R.

Q.1. Which of the following is not correct?
(A) R is second to the right of L
(B) M is second to the left of N
(C) L sits exactly between O and P
(D) P and N are immediate neighbours
(E) P sits to the opposite of N

Q.2. How many person’s are seated between L and Q if we count anti-clockwise from L to Q?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four

Q.3. Who is the immediate left of P?
(A) L
(B) N
(C) M
(D) O
(E) None of these

A, B, C, X, Y, Z are seated on a straight line facing North. C is third to the right of Z and B sits second to the right of C. X sits to the immediate right of A.

Q.4. Which of the following represents the parts of persons sitting exactly in the middle of the line?
(A) XB
(B) ZB
(C) BX
(D) XC
(E) XY

Q.5. What is X’s position with respect to Z?
(A) Immediate right to Z
(B) Second to the left
(C) Third to the right
(D) Second to the right
(E) None of these

Q.6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(A) ZA
(B) XC
(C) CY
(D) YB
(E) XA

Q.7. How many persons are seated between A and C?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None of these

Q.8. If A : X and Z : A, then Y :
(A) Y
(B) B
(C) A
(D) X
(E) None of these

In a certain Code ‘8 2 9’ means ‘how art thou,’ ‘9 5 8’ means ‘thou art good’ and ‘1 5 8 7 3’ means ‘thy good and thou bad’.

Q.9. What may be the possible code for ‘thy’?
(A) 1 or 7
(B) 7
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 1 or 7 or 3

Q.10. What is the code for ‘thou’?
(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) None of these

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(Download) Corporation Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Reasoning Ability & Computer Competency) Held on: 16-01-2010

(Download) Corporation Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Reasoning Ability & Computer Competency) Held on: 16-01-2010

Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of  them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The  ones who sit at the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.

P who face the centre sits third to the right of V. T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Q.1. Who sits second to the left of Q ?
(1) V
(2) P
(3) T
(4) Y
(5) Cannot be determined

Q.2. What is the position of T with respect to V ?
(1) Fourth to the left
(2) Second to the left
(3) Third to the left
(4) Third to the right
(5) Second to the right

Q.3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the does not belong to that group ?
(1) R
(2) W
(3) V
(4) S
(5) Y

Q.4. Which of the following will come in place the question mark based upon the given seating arrangement ? WP TR QW RS ?
(1) YT
(2) VY
(3) VQ
(4) PY
(5) QV

Q.5. Which of the following is true regarding R ?
(1) R is an immediate neighbour of V
(2) R faces the centre
(3) R sits exactly between T and S
(4) Q sits third to left of R
(5) None is true

In a certain code ‘a friend of mine’ is written as ‘4 9 1 6’ ‘ mine lots of metal’ is written as ‘3 1 0 9’ and ‘a piece of metal’ is written as ‘7 1 6 3’.

Q.6. What is the code for ‘piece’ ?
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 1
(4) 7
(5) cannot be determined

Q.7. What does ’9’ stand for ?
(1) of
(2) mine
(3) friend
(4) lots
(5) metal

Q.8. Which of the following may represent ‘a pleasure of mine ?
(1) 6 3 0 9
(2) 5 2 1 6
(3) 9 2 1 6
(4) 3 6 9 4
(5) 5 0 4 1

Q.9. What does ’O’ stand for ?
(1) mine
(2) metal
(3) of
(4) lots
(5) a

Q.10. ‘8 7 3’ would mean —
(1) a metal piece
(2) metal for friend
(3) piece of advise
(4) friend of mine
(5) large metal piece

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(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (English Language) Held on: 02-01-2011

(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (English Language) Held on: 02-01-2011

Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the word / phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it  grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.

Q.1. The actress, who was in the city for the press conference of her dance reality show, says the chose the show because of her passionate for dance.
(1) begin passion in dance
(2) passionate for dancing
(3) being passionate in dancing
(4) passion of dance
(5) No correction required

Q.2. Despite of several representations and reminders, the district administration had not taken any action to stem the systematic encroachment of water bodies.
(1) Because of
(2) Despite
(3) Although
(4) Inspite
(5) No correction required

Q.3. While it is well-known that there are large-scale leakages from the public distribution system across the country, there are many states which have manage successful reform the public  distribution system and deliver food grain to the poor.
(1) managed to successfully reform
(2) managed successful reforms
(3) managing successfully to reform
(4) managed for successfully reforming
(5) No correction required

Q.4. The four-day workshop is being conducted for gear up administration to the changes that will follow with the implementation of the Right to  Compulsory and Free Education Act 2009.
(1) so geared up
(2) to gear up
(3) for geared up
(4) to gearing up
(5) No correction required

Q.5. The court refused to provide relieve to the petitioner and stated that plying of all diesel vehicles was banned with immediate effect.
(1) provision of relief
(2) providing of relieve
(3) provide any relief
(4) provide relieving
(5) No correction required

Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Building of these structures requires a lot of fuel to be burnt which emits a large amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
(B) The major source of carbon dioxide is power plants.
(C) Another twenty percent of carbon dioxide emitted in the atmosphere comes from burning of gasoline in the engines of vehicles.
(D) Buildings, both commercial and residential represent in the atmosphere comes from burning of gasoline in the engines of vehicles.
(E) The major cause of global warming is the emission of green house gases like carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide etc. into the atmosphere.
(F) These power plants emit large amounts of carbon dioxide produced from burning of fossil fuels for the purpose of electricity generation.

Q.6. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B (5) A

Q.7. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D (5) F

Q.8. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Q.9. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Q.10. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B
(5) A

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(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (General Awareness) Held on: 02-01-2011



(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (General Awareness) Held on: 02-01-2011



Q.1. On which one of the following ‘Head of Expenses’, the expenses of the Government of India are highest?
(1) Food subsidy
(2) Fertilizer subsidy
(3) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(4) Maintenance of national highways
(5) Oil subsidy

Q.2. Which one of the following foreign agencies will assist the municipal agencies to improve quality of municipal school through its School Excellence Programmes (SPE)?
(1) IMF
(2) UNDP
(3) UNICEF
(4) ADB
(5) None of these

Q.3. Which of the following carries out ‘Open Market Operations?
(1) Financial Ministry
(2) External Affairs Ministry
(3) Reserve Bank of India
(4) Planning Commission
(5) Ministry of Commerce

Q.4. Who among the following Minister will hold telecom portfolio in addition to his own portfolio till next reallotment?
(1) Kamal Nath
(2) Kapil Sibal
(3) Pranab Mukherjee
(4) Mamta Banerjee
(5) None of these

Q.5. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, the RBI issues directives to the Banks in India?
(1) RBI Act
(2) Banking Regulation Act
(3) Essential Commodities Act
(4) RBI and Banking Regulation Act
(5) None of these

Q.6. Which one of the following tools is used by RBI for selective credit control?
(1) It advises banks to lend against certain commodities
(2) It advises bank to recall the loans for advances against certain commodities
(3) It advises banks to charge higher rate of interest for advance against certain commodities
(4) It discourages certain kinds of lending by assigning higher risk weights to loans it deems undesirable
( 5) None of these

Q.7. For which one of the following Loan Products ‘teaser loans’ are offered by Banks?
(1) Education Loans
(2) Commercial Loans
(3) Loans against security of gold
(4) Retail Trade Loans
(5) Home Loans

Q.8. The Commonwealth Games 2010 were held in Delhi from October 3 to 14, 2010. Who amongst the following picked up the Game’s first gold medal?
(1) Augustina Nwaokolo
(2) Ravinder Singh
(3) Azhar Hussain
(4) Carol Huynh
(5) None of these

Q.9. In which one of the following cities was the recent meet of G-20 Countries organised?
(1) Tokyo
(2) Seoul
(3) London
(4) Beijing
(5) Singapore

Q.10. As per recent newspaper reports, which one of the following countries (among the given) has highest literacy rate?
(1) India
(2) Sri Lanka
(3) China
(4) Vietnam

(5) Bangladesh

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(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Quantitative Aptitude) Held on: 02-01-2011



(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Quantitative Aptitude)

Held on: 02-01-2011



 Q.1. Mrudul invested an amount of Rs. 29,500/- in order to start a business. Shalaka joined her 4 months later by investing an amount of Rs. 33,500/-. If the business earned a profit of Rs. 1,20,575/- at the end of two years, what was Mrudul’s share of the profit?
(1) Rs. 60,725/-
(2) Rs. 61,950/-
(3) Rs. 59,250/-
(4) Rs. 58,625/-
(5) None of these

Q.2. What is the least number that can be added to the number 1020 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 65
(2) 12
(3) 59
(4) 4 (5) None of these

Q.3. Philip, Tom and Brad start jogging around a circular field and complete a single round in 18, 22 and 30 seconds respectively. In how much time will they  meet again at the starting point?
(1) 8 mins. 15 secs.
(2) 21 mins
(3) 16 mins. 30 secs.
(4) 12 mins.
(5) None of these

Q. 4. What total amount would Mithilesh get at the three years if he invests an amount of Rs. 11,200/- in a scheme which offers simple interest @ 8.5 p. c. p. a. for three years?
(1) Rs. 14,056/-
(2) Rs. 14,348/-
(3) Rs. 13,852/-
(4) Rs. 15,064/-
(5) None of these

Q.5. Prasad sold his work for Rs. 1,850/- and earned a profit of 25 percent. At what price did Prasad buy the work tools?
(1) Rs. 1,360/-
(2) Rs. 1,300/-
(3) Rs. 1,240/-
(4) Rs. 1,480/-
(5) None of these

A building consists of men and women who spend their leisure time in watching movies, learning dance and learning singing. 8 men, who form ten percent of the total number of men in the building,  learn to dance. The total number of women in the building is 62.5 percent of total number of men in  the building. Twenty four percent of the total number of women learns to sing. One-fifth of the  total number of women watches movies. The ratio of the number of men watching movies to the number of women doing the same is 13 : 2 respectively.

Q.6. What is the number of women learning dance?
(1) 28
(2) 22
(3) 30
(4) 24
(5) None of these

Q7. The number of men who like watching movies is what percent of the total number of men in the building?
(1) 79.75
(2) 83.45
(3) 81.25
(4) 72.15
(5) None of these

Q.8. What is the total number of members (men and women together) learning singing?
(1) 21
(2) 13
(3) 18
(4) 15
(5) None of these

Q.9. What is the respective ratio of the number of men learning dance to the number of women doing the same?
(1) 8 : 11
(2) 5 : 9
(3) 2 : 7
(4) 3 : 5
(5) None of these

Q.10. The total number of women in the building is approximately what percent of the total number of members (men and women together) in the building?
(1) 45
(2) 33
(3) 42
(4) 27
(5) 38

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(Download) Corporation Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Quantitative Aptitude) Held on: 16-01-2010



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Held on: 16-01-2010

1. 15 21 39 77 143 (?)
(1) 243
(2) 240
(3) 253
(4) 245
(5) None of these

2. 33 39 57 87 129 (?)
(1) 183
(2) 177
(3) 189
(4) 199
(5) None of these

3. 15 19 83 119 631 (?)
(1) 731
(2) 693
(3) 712
(4) 683
(5) None of these

4. 19 26 40 68 124 (?)
(1) 246
(2) 238
(3) 236
(4) 256
(5) None of these

5. 43 69 58 84 73 (?)
(1) 62
(2) 98
(3) 109
(4) 63
(5) None of these

6. The respective ratio between the present ages of Ram and Rakesh is 6 : 11. Four years ago the ratio of their ages was 1 : 2 respectively. What will be Rakesh’s age after five years?
(1) 45 years
(2) 29 years
(3) 49 years
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

7. The circumference of two circles is 88 metres and 220 metres respectively. What is the difference between the area of the larger circle and the smaller circle?
(1) 3422 sq.mtrs.
(2) 3242 sq.mtrs.
(3) 3244 sq.mtrs.
(4) 3424 sq.mtrs.
(5) None of these

8. Pradeep invested 20% more than Mohit. Mohit invested 10% less than Raghu. If the total sum of their investment is Rs. 17,880/-, how much amount did Raghu invest?
(1) Rs. 6,000/-
(2) Rs. 8,000/-
(3) Rs. 7,000/-
(4) Rs. 5,000/-
(5) None of these

9. Average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh is 63. Rahul’s score is 15 less than Ajay and 10 more than Manish. If Ajay  scored 30 marks more than the average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh, what is the sum of Manish’s and Suresh’s scores?
(1) 120
(2) 111
(3) 117
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

10. Fifty three percent of a number is 358 less than the square of 26. What is the value of three-fourth of 23 percent of that number?
(1) 101
(2) 109.5
(3) 113
(4) 103.5
(5) None of these

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Q.1. As per the decision taken by the govt. of India now the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended  to all the districts of India. This means it will now be applicable to about —
(1) 200 districts
(2) 300 districts
(3) 400 districts
(4) 500 districts
(5) 600 districts

Q.2. Which of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana ?
(1) Rs. 10,000/-
(2) Rs. 20,000/-
(3) Rs. 30,000/-
(4) Rs. 40,000/-
(5) Rs. 50,000/-

Q.3. Which of the following banks has taken over the centurion Bank of Panjab ?
(1) ICICI Bank
(2) IDBI Bank
(3) HDFC Bank
(4) AXIS Bank
(5) None of these

Q.4. Unique Identification Authority of India will set up data base for —
(1) Identity and biometrics details of Indian residents
(2) Identity and biometrics details of Indian citizens
(3) Identity and biometrics details of person’s residents in India or visiting India
(4) All the above
(5) None of these

Q.5. The biggest Public Sector undertaking in the country is —
(1) Iron & steel plants
(2) Roadways
(3) Railways
(4) Airways
(5) None of these

Q.6. Which of the following is Horticulture Crop?
(1) Paddy
(2) Wheat
(3) Mango
(4) Bajara
(5) None of these

Q.7. Which of the following nation is considered the originator of the concept of micro Finance ?
(1) India
(2) Bangladesh
(3) South Africa
(4) USA
(5) None of these

Q.8. Very often we read in news papers about 3G or 3rd Generation technology. This is a set of standards used for which of the following purposes ?
(1) To combat climatic changes
(2) Production of Nuclear Energy
(3) Film Production
(4) Mobile Telecommunications
(5) All of these

Q.9. What is the full form of ‘ULIP’, the term which was the news recently ?
(1) Universal Life & Investment Plan
(2) Unit Loan & Insurance Plan
(3) Universal Loan & Investment Plan
(4) Uniformly Loaded Investment Plan
(5) Unit Linked Insurance Plan

Q.10. The main function of I. M. F. is to —
(1) Finance Investment loans to developing countries
(2) Act as a private sector lending arm of the World Bank
(3) Help to solve balance of payment problems of member countries
(4) Arrange international deposits from banks
(5) None of these

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Q.1-5. Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the paper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) “What a waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(B) “Speak to her”, he said , “She’s into books”,
(C) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticed my noticing her.
(D) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a  “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.
(E) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.

Q.1, Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Q.2, Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Q.3, Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Q.4, Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Q.5, Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

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(Download) Union Bank of India P.O Exam Solved Paper (General Awareness) Held on: 09-01-2011



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Held on: 09-01-2011



1. The eleventh ‘five year plan’ of India is for the five years ranging from—
(1) 2009-2014
(2) 2008-2013
(3) 2007-2012
(4) 2006-2011
(5) None of these

2. DSCR indicates the ability of a company to—
(1) meet its current liabilities
(2) service its shareholders
(3) meet its long term debt obligations
(4) raise further capital
(5) None of these

3. Ah IPO is—
(1) initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders
(2) an offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the time to the public
(3) used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(4) a book building process
(5) None of these

4. A decreasing current ratio indicates—
(1) a stable liquidity
(2) an increasing liquidity
(3) a strained liquidity
(4) satisfactory current solvency
(5) none of these

5. Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on—
(1) the age of the company
(2) the location of the company
(3) the activity undertaken by the company
(4) the credibility and the valuation of the company
(5) the existing profitability of the company

6. The synagogue is generally—
(1) an epic
(2) a religion
(3) Jewish House of Prayer
(4) the Parsi temple
(5) a palace

7. Deuce is a term used in—
(1) Polo
(2) lawn tennis
(3) badminton
(4) boxing
(5) volleyball
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, e
(4) a, b, e
(5) b, c, e

8. ISI the intelligence agency of—
(1) United Kingdom
(2) Unites States of America
(3) Israel
(4) Pakistan
(5) India

9. Air Traffic Controller’s jobs involves—
(1) control of air traffic in and within vicinity of airport
(2) control of movement of air traffic between altitude, sectors and control centres
(3) following established procedures and policies for air traffic control
(4) control of commercial airline flights according to government regulations
(5) to authorize and regulate commercial airline flights
(1) (1), (2)
(2) (2), (3)
(3) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(4) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
(5) (3), (4), (5)

10. Animal assisted therapy is employed in—
(1) Operations
(2) ICU
(3) old age homes
(4) training animals
(5) natural healing

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(Download) Union Bank of India P.O Exam Solved Paper (Quantitative Aptitude) Held on: 09-01-2011



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Held on: 09-01-2011



1. 117 389 593 627 (?)
(1) 654
(2) 640
(3) 634
(4) 630
(5) None of these

2. 7 21 23 51 103 (?)
(1) 186
(2) 188
(3) 185
(4) 187
(5) None of these

3. 18 27 49 84 132 (?)
(1) 190
(2) 183
(3) 180
(4) 193
(5) None of these

4. 33 43 65 99 145 (?)
(1) 201
(2) 203
(3) 205
(4) 211
(5) None of these

5. 655 439 314 250 223 (?)
(1) 205
(2) 210
(3) 195
(4) 190
(5) None of these

6. Veena’s monthly income is equal to the cost of 34 kg of nuts. Cost of 10 kg of nuts is equal to the cost of 20 kgs of apples. If cost of 12 kg of apples is Rs. 1500/-. What is Veena’s annual salary? (At some places annual income and in some place monthly income is given)
(1) Rs. 1 lac 20 thousand
(2) Rs. 1 lac 2 thousand
(3) Rs. 2 lac 20 thousand
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

7. Rohit has some 50 paisa coins, some 2 rupees coins, some 1 rupee and some 5 rupee coins. The value of all of coins is Rs. 50/-. Number of 2 rupee coin is 5 more than the 5 rupee coins. 50 paisa coins are double in number than 1 rupee coin. Value of 50 paisa coins and 1 rupee coins is Rs. 28/-. How many 2 rupee coins does he have?
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 7
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

8. Puneet scored 175 marks in a test and failed by 35 marks. If the passing percentage of the test is 35 percent, what are the maximum marks of the test?
(1) 650
(2) 700
(3) 750
(4) 600
(5) None of these

9. The length of a rectangle is twice the diameter of a circle. The circumference of the circle is equal to the area of a square of side 22 cm. What is the breadth of the rectangle if its perimeter is 668 cm?
(1) 24 cm
(2) 26 cm
(3) 52 cm
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

10. 4 girls can do a piece of work in 8 days, 3 boys can do the same piece of work in 9 days, 7 men do the same piece of work in 2 days and 5 women can do the same piece of work in 4 days. Who is least efficient?
(1) Boys
(2) Girls
(3) Women
(4) Men
(5) Boys and men both

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(Download) Union Bank of India P.O Exam Solved Paper (Reasoning) Held on: 09-01-2011



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Held on: 09-01-2011



1. How many such pairs of letter are there in the word FREQUENT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between in the English alphabetical series? 
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

2. In a class of 35 children, Ameya’s rank sixth from the top. Annie is seven ranks below Amerya. What is Annie’s rank for the bottom?
(1) 22
(2) 20
(3) 19
(4) 23
(5) Cannot be determined

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Lens
(2) Shutter
(3) Film
(4) Camera
(5) Zoom

4. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series? AB BE DH ? KQ
(1) HL
(2) GL
(3) GK
(4) EI
(5) IM

5. If two is subtracted from each odd digit and if two is added to each even digit in the number 9275436, what will be the difference between the digits which are third from the right and second from the left of the new number thus formed?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) 1
(5) 5

6. The position of how many alphabets will remain unchanged if each of the alphabets in the word FORGET is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

7. Which of the following groups of alphabets should replace the blank space so that the group of alphabets, given in bold, follow a logical pattern from the preceding and the following group of alphabets?
a b _ y
a b c _ x w
a b c d e v _
(1) z, d, u
(2) d, x, u
(3) c, d, u
(4) z, y, w
(5) c, d, w

8. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘P < F’ be definitely false?
(1) F = B > P M
(2) P > B M = F
(3) P B < F M
(4) B < P M < F
(5) None of these

If ‘A × B’ means A is the son of B.
If ‘A + B’ means A is the father of B.
If ‘A > B’ means A is the daughter of B.
If ‘A < B’ means A is the wife of B.

9. Which of the following pairs of people represent first cousins with regard to the relations given in the expressions, if it is provided that A is the sister of J: ‘L > V < J + P’ and ‘S × A < D + F < E + K’
(1) LP
(2) SP
(3) SK
(4) SF
(5) cannot be determined

10. What will come in the place of the question mark, if it is provided that M is the grandmother of F in the expression: ‘F × R < S ? M’
(1) >
(2) <
(3) +
(4) ×
(5) cannot be determined

 

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(Download) Union Bank of India P.O Exam Solved Paper (English Language) Held on: 09-01-2011



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Held on: 09-01-2011



Read the following interview and answer the given questions based on that. Some words have been printed in bold to help you locate them white answering some of the questions.

A pioneering new book, Gender and Green Governance, explores a central question: If women adequate representation of forestry institution, would make a difference to them the communities and forests as a national resource? Interview with the author. Why has access to forests been such a conflictridden issue?

This is not surprising. Forests constitute not just community and national wealth, but global wealth. But for millions, forests are also critical for livelihoods and their daily lives. Your first book, Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes (1986), was about forest. Is there an evolution of argument here?

Yes indeed. In Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes, I had argued that social forestry, with its-down implementation and focus on commercial species, was neither ‘social’ nor ‘forestry’, and would protect neither forests nor village livelihoods. The answer, I argues, lay in allowing forest communities to mange local forests. Finally, in 1990, India launched the joint forest management programme and Nepal also started community forestry. So I decided to see for myself how community forestry was actually doing.

Between 1995 and 1999, I travelled extensively across India and Nepal and found a paradox. Forests were indeed becoming greener but women’s problem of firewood shortages persisted and in many cases had become more acute. Also, despite their high stakes in forest, women continued to be largely excluded from forest management. I coined the term “participatory  exclusions” to describe this. However, the current book is less about women’s exclusion. I ask: What if women were present in forest governance? What difference would that make? But has this question not been raised before? Economists researching environment collective action have paid little attention to gender. Scholars from other disciplines focusing on gender and governance have been concerned mainly with women’s near absence from governance institutions. The presumption is that once women are present all good things will follow. But can we assume this? No. Rural women relationship with forest is complex. On the one hand, their everyday dependence on forests for firewood, fodder, etc, creates a strong stake in conversation. On the other, the same dependence can compel them to extract heavily from forest. As one landless women told me: “Of course, it hurts me to cut a green branch but what do I do if my children are hungry?” Taking an agnostic position, I decide to test varied propositions, controlling for otherfactors.

What did you find? First, women’s greater presence enhance enhances their effective voice in decision-making. And there is a critical mass effect: If forest management groups have 25-33 per cent female members in their executive committees it significantly increases the likelihood of women makes a particular difference. When present in sufficient number they are more likely to attend meetings and voice their concerns than landed women. So what matters is not just including more women, but more poor women. Second, and unexpectedly, groups with more women typically made stricter forest use rules. Why is this the case? Mainly because they receive poorer forest from the forest department. To regenerate these they have to sacrifice their immediate needs. Women from household with  some land have some fallback. But remarkably even in groups with more landless women, although extraction is higher, they still balance self-interest with conservation goals, when placed in decision-making positions. 

Third, groups with more women outperform other groups in improving forest conditions, despite getting poorer forest. Involving women substantially improves protection and conflict resolution, helps the use of their knowledge of local biodiversity, and raises children’s awareness about conservation.

1. What was author’s view on “Social Forestry Scheme”?
(1) A great success
(2) Beneficial for villagers
(3) Neither good nor bad
(4) Should have been implemented as ‘top-down’
(5) None of these

2. Which of the following is one of the reason of forest being a conflict-ridden issue?
(1) Some countries have larger forest cover
(2) There is less awareness about global warming
(3) High dependence of many of forests
(4) Less representation of women
(5) Less representation of local women

3. The author is advocating inclusion of—
(1) More landless women
(2) More landed women
(3) More women irrespective of their financial status
(4) Local people
(5) Younger women in the age group of 25-33 years

4. Which of the following best describes “participatory exclusion”, as used in the interview?
(1) Outside support
(2) Overdependence
(3) Benefitting without self interest
(4) Contributing with profits
(5) None of these

5. In the second question the interviewer asked- Is more an evolution of argument here?’ Which of the following best describes that?
(1) From Barren to Greener slopes
(2) From local group to local groups with more women
(3) A fine balance between conservation and commercial forestry
(4) Too-down approach to Community forestry
(5) Participatory excision to Greener slopes

6. What percent of female members tin the Executive Committee for Forest Management is being recommended by the author?
(1) Less than 25%
(2) More than 25%
(3) 100%
(4) About 75%
(5) None of these

7. Why does author say, ‘Rural women’s relationship with forests is complex’?
(1) Dependence forces them to extracts and also have concern for conservation
(2) If they project forests, their livelihood is severely affected
(3) Poor women have been excluded from forest management
(4) They cannot be asked to restore forests which are critical for them
(5) Greener forests do not meet the requirement of firewood

8. Landless women, when in decision making role—
(1) extract much more from forest
(2) improve their own financial status
(3) do not care for forest
(4) are able to need conservation objectives as well as their own interest
(5) fulfill their own interest at the cost of conservation goals

9. When more women are involved, which of the following also happens?
(1) They get poorer forests
(2) They come to know about conservation needs
(3) Children become more aware abut conservation
(4) They are able to devote more time to conversation
(5) They get a more comprehensive understanding of local biodiversity

10. controlling
(1) holding in check
(2) increasing
(3) decreasing
(4) passing
(5) ignoring

 

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(Download) Union Bank of India P.O Exam Solved Paper (Computer Knowledge) Held on: 09-01-2011



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Held on: 09-01-2011



1. You can keep your personal files/folders in—
(1) My folder
(2) My Document
(3) My Files
(4) My Text
(5) None of these

2. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into—
(1) Wed sites
(2) information
(3) programs
(4) objects
(5) None of these

3. A directory within a directory is called—
(1) Mini Directory
(2) Junior Directory
(3) Part Directory
(4) Sub Directory
(5) None of these

4. A complier translates a program written in a high-level language into—
(1) Machine language
(2) An algorithm
(3) A debugged program
(4) Java
(5) None o these

5. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test—
(1) RAM test
(2) disk drive test
(3) memory test
(4) power-on self-test
(5) None of these

6. A _______ is a unique name that you give to a file information—
(1) device letter
(2) folder
(3) filename
(4) filename extension
(5) None of these

7. Hardware includes ________.
(1) all devices used to input data into a computer
(2) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes
(3) the computer and all the devices connected to it that used to input and output data
(4) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory, and storage
(5) None of these

8. A _______ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(1) programming language
(2) syntax
(3) programming structure
(4) logic chart
(5) None of these

9. All the deleted files go to—
(1) Recycle Bin
(2) Task Bar
(3) Tool Bar
(4) My Computer
(5) None of these

10. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is—
(1) multiprogramming
(2) multitasking
(3) time-sharing
(4) multiprocessing
(5) None of these

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Solved Paper: SBI Management Executive Exam Paper (English)

Read the following passage to answer the given questions.

We tend to be harsh on our bureaucracy, but nowhere do citizens enjoy dealing with their government. They do it because they have to. But that doesn’t mean that the experience has to be dismal. Now there is a new wind blowing through government departments around the world, which could take some of this pain away. In the next five years it may well transform not only the way public services are delivered but also the fundamental relationship between government and citizens. Not surprisingly, it is the Internet that is behind it. After e-commerce and e-business, the next revolution may be e-governance.

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Solved Paper: SBI Management Executive Exam Paper (General Awareness)

These are the General Awareness Questions of SBI (State Bank of India) Previous year exams. Keep visiting for the next slot of questions.

Q1. Which of the following car companies in India announced a special savings scheme________ ‘Happy Customer Offer’ - in December 2007?

(a) Hyundai
(b) Tata
(c) Ford
(d) Maruti Suzuki
Answer: (d) Maruti Suzuki

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(Paper) IBPS : Recruitment of Specialist Officers Exam Paper Held On 11.03.2012 - General Awareness



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101. Who among the following is one of the recipients of the Nobel Peace Prize – 2011?

(a) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
(b) Jules A. Hoffmann
(c) Bruce A. Beutler
(d) Adam G. Riess
(e) Tomas Transtromer

102. The Food Security Bill – 2011 which is the process of becoming an Act, divides the entire population of the country into two groups. Which of the following are these two groups?

(a) Below poverty line and Above poverty line
(b) General population and Excluded population
(c) Included households and Excluded households
(d) Covered under PDS and Not Covered under PDS
(e) General households and priority households

103. RBI has recently deregulated the rates of interest to be provided by various Banks to their depositors/customers with effect from 25-10-2011 on their _____ accounts?

(a) Time Deposit
(b) Saving bank
(c) Loan
(d) Fixed deposit
(e) Current

104. Which of the following is the main advantage of “ASBA” with the applicants for share allotment?

(a) ASBA applicant has got secured allotment of shares
(b) ASBA applicant has got certain preference in allotment of shares as compared to general applicants
(c) ASBA applicant need not remit the fund for allotment of shares, he/she will do so after shares are allotted to him/her.
(d) ABSA Applicants deposit/OD account is not debited, only the funds are blocked for the same and he/she continues to avail interest till the shares are allotted to him/her.
(e) None of these

105. “Many people die in Deadly Games in Egypt”: Was the news in almost all major newspaper in February 2012. Which of the following statements is the correct representation of ‘Deadly Game’ given in the headlines?

(a) A riot broke out during a Football Match in Egypt in which many people were killed
(b) Police had to open fire on a Mob including some genuine ticked holders, who were not allowed to enter the Stadium even after the start of the match
(c) Egypt is famous for its dangerous games of ‘Bull fight’ and ‘Martial Game’; Many participants die every year in such games
(d) Some terrorist opened fire during a football match. About 10000 people were killed in the incident
(e) The defeat in the game is considered equivalent to death

106. Mullaperiyar Dam which was recently in news, is located in which of the following States?

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Kerala
(e) Tamil Nadu

(Download) IBPS : Recruitment of Specialist Officers Exam Paper Held On 11.03.2012 - Reasoning



(Download) IBPS : Recruitment of Specialist Officers Exam Paper Held On 11.03.2012 - Reasoning



1. In a certain code ‘TREAMWORK’ is written as ‘NBFUJQNV’ and ‘SOME’ is written as ‘PTDL’. How is ‘PERSON’ written in that code?

(a) QDOOPT
(b) QDOMNR
(c) SFQMNR
(d) SFQOPT
(e) None of these

2. How many such pairs of letters are three in the word ‘SUBSTANCE’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabets?

(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

3. How many meaningful English words, not ending with ‘D’ can be made with the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth letters of the word ‘STEADFAST’ using each letter only once in each word?

(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

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(Download) IBPS : Recruitment of Specialist Officers Exam Paper Held On 11.03.2012 - English Language



(Download) IBPS : Recruitment of Specialist Officers Exam Paper Held On 11.03.2012 - English Language



In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggest one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. (51) over the world, rights related to information technology that are already legally  recognized are daily being violated, (52) in the name of economic advancement, political stability or for personal greed and interest. Violates of these rights have (53) new problems in human social systems, such as the digital divide, cybercrime, digital security and privacy concerns, all which above (54) people’s lives either directly or indirectly. It is important that countries come up with the guidelines for action to (55) the incidence of malicious attacks on the confidentiality, integrity and availability of electronic data and system, computer-related crimes, content related offenses and violations of intellectual property rights. (56), threats to critical infrastructure and national interest arising from the use of the internet of criminal and terrorist activities are of growing (57). The harm incurred to businesses, governments and individuals in those countries in which the internet is used (58), is gaining in (59) and importance, while in other countries cybercrime threatens the application of information and communication technology for governmental services, health care, trade, and banking. As users start losing (60) in online transactions and business, the opportunity costs may become substantial.

51.

(a) Entire
(b) Lot
(c) Great
(d) All
(e) Much

52.

(a) scarcely
(b) whether
(c) and
(d) for
(e) hardly

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(Notification) Recruitment of Probationary Officers (PO) in State Bank of India - 2018 (ADVERTISEMENT NO: CRPD/ PO/ 2018-19/01)

 

(Notification) Recruitment of Probationary Officers (PO) in State Bank of India - 2018

(ADVERTISEMENT NO: CRPD/ PO/ 2018-19/01)

Any eligible candidate, who aspires to join State Bank of India as a Probationary Officer, is required to register on-line for the Recruitment Process. The examination will be held in three phases i.e. Preliminary examination, Main examination and Group Exercise & Interview. The candidates who are shortlisted after Preliminary examination will have to appear for Main examination. The candidates shortlisted after the main examination will be subsequently called for a Group Exercises & Interview. Prospective candidates will have to apply after carefully reading the advertisement regarding the process of examinations and interview, eligibility criteria, online registration processes, payment of prescribed application fee/ intimation charges, pattern of examination, issuance of call letters etc. and ensure that they fulfil the stipulated criteria and follow the prescribed processes.

Post Detail :

VACANCIES

VACANCIES (PWD)

SC

ST

OBC*

GEN

TOTAL

LD

VI

HI

Total

300

150

540

1010

2000

27

26

65

118

Education Qualification: 

(A) Essential Academic Qualifications: (AS ON 31.08.2018): Graduation in any discipline from a recognised University or any equivalent qualification recognised as such by the Central Government. Those who are in the Final year/ Semester of their Graduation may also apply provisionally subject to the condition that, if called for interview, they will have to produce proof of having passed the graduation examination on or before 31.08.2018. Candidates having integrated dual degree (IDD) certificate should ensure that the date of passing the IDD is on or before 31.08.2018. Candidates possessing qualification of Chartered Accountant may also apply.

Note: i. The date of passing eligibility examination will be the date appearing on the mark sheet or provisional certificate issued by the University/ Institute. In case the result of a particular examination is posted on the website of the University/ Institute, a certificate issued by the appropriate authority of the University/ Institute indicating the date on which the result was posted on the website will be taken as the date of passing. ii. Candidate should indicate the percentage obtained in Graduation calculated to the nearest two decimals in the online application. Where CGPA/ OGPA is awarded, the same should be converted into percentage and indicated in the online application. If called for interview, the candidate will have to produce a certificate issued by the appropriate authority inter alia stating the norms of the University regarding conversion of grade into percentage and the percentage of marks scored by the candidate in terms of norms. iii. Calculation of Percentage: The percentage marks shall be arrived at by dividing the total marks obtained by the candidate in all the subjects in all semester(s)/ year(s) by aggregate maximum marks in all the subjects irrespective of honours/ optional/

ii. Manifest deformity and paresis but having sufficient mobility in their hands and feet to enable them to engage in normal economic activity;

iii. extreme physical deformity as well as advanced age which prevents him/her from undertaking any gainful occupation, and the expression "leprosy cured" shall be construed accordingly;

b. “cerebral palsy" means a Group of non-progressive neurological conditions affecting body movements and muscle coordination, caused by damage to one or more specific areas of the brain, usually occurring before, during or shortly after birth;

c. "Dwarfism" means a medical or genetic condition resulting in an adult height of 4 feet 10 inches (147 centimeters) or less;

d. "Muscular dystrophy" means a group of hereditary genetic muscle disease that weakens the muscles that move the human body and persons with multiple dystrophy have incorrect and missing information in their genes, which prevents them from making the proteins they need for healthy muscles. It is characterised by progressive skeletal muscle weakness, defects in muscle proteins, and the death of muscle cells and tissue; e. "Acid attack victims" means a person disfigured due to violent assaults by throwing of acid or similar corrosive substance. Note: Only person with benchmark disabilities would be eligible for Reservation. “Person with benchmark disability” means a person with not less than forty percent of a specified disability where specified disability has not been defined in measurable terms and includes a person with disability where disability has been defined in a measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority. A person who wants to avail the benefit of reservation will have to submit a disability certificate issued by a Competent Authority as prescribed vide RPWD Act, 2016. Such certificate will be subject to verification/ re-verification as may be decided by the competent authority.

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(Notification) NABARD : Recruitment of Assistant Manager post of Officers in Grade ‘A’ (RDBS)

(Notification) NABARD : Recruitment of Assistant Manager post of Officers in Grade ‘A’ (RDBS)

Applications are invited from Indian citizens for the post of Assistant Manager in Grade ‘A’ in the Rural Development Banking Service (RDBS) in National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). Candidates can apply only ON-LINE on NABARD website www.nabard.org/Career Notices between 13 March 2018 and 02 April 2018.

Post Details:

NABARD 2018 Notification was released on 13th March 2018. The last date to fill in the application form was 2nd April 2018. A total vacancy of 92 was declared by NABARD to recruit candidates to Assistant Manager post in different segments of the National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development.

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(Jobs) Canara Bank : Recruitment of Probationary Officers In Junior Management

(Jobs) Canara Bank : Recruitment of Probationary Officers In Junior Management

Canara Bank, a leading Public Sector Bank with Head Office in Bengaluru and pan India presence with over 6100 branches, invites ON-LINE APPLICATIONS, from the eligible candidates to apply for admissions to the specially designed One year training course leading to Post Graduate Diploma in Banking and Finance (PGDBF) either through Manipal Global Education Services Pvt Ltd., Bengaluru or NITTE Education International Pvt Ltd., Mangaluru, which are recognised by UGC.

  • The course comprises of 9 months of classroom studies and 3 months internship at Canara Bank’s Branches / Offices.
  • This one year full-time PGDBF course will be conducted either at Manipal Global Education Services Pvt Ltd, Bengaluru campus or NITTE Education International Pvt Ltd. Mangaluru campus.
  • The programme is fully residential during 9 months classroom studies and the selected candidates should necessarily stay in the campus

Candidates will be selected for admission to the course at either of the above two institutes through selection process consisting of online objective test followed by Group Discussion and Personal Interview. On successful completion of the course, candidates will be awarded with “Post Graduate Diploma in Banking and Finance (PGDBF)” from that institute and the candidates would be offered appointment in the Bank as Probationary Officer in Junior Management Grade Scale-I.

Eligible candidates can apply ON-LINE through link given in our Bank’s website www.canarabank.com. No other means / mode of Application will be accepted. Please read this advertisement carefully and ensure your eligibility before paying fees / submitting on-line application.

Please note that: a) The process of Registration of application is complete only when fee is deposited with the Bank through On-line mode on or before the last date for fee payment; b) Before applying, candidates are requested to ensure that they fulfill the eligibility criteria for the post as on the cut-off date. c) Candidates are advised to check Bank’s website www.canarabank.com for details and updates.


Details of Posts:

PROBATIONARY OFFICERS IN JUNIOR MANAGEMENT GRADE SCALE-I

Educational Qualification:

A Degree (Graduation) with a minimum of 60% marks (55% for SC/ST/PWBD) or equivalent grade, in any discipline from a University recognised by the Government of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.

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(Syllabus) Recruitment of Specialist Cadre Officers in SBI

(Syllabus) SBI Recruitment of Specialist Cadre Officers

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Test will be held on-line. Wherever there will be no test, short-listing and  interviews will be held.Where number of applications is less, Bank reserves the right to consider selection of the candidate(s) through shortlisting and interview, instead of test & interview.

a) Except Professional Knowledge (PK) paper, other papers will be of  qualifying in nature. Candidates have to score minimum qualifying marks  in these papers. The minimum qualifying marks will be decided by the
Bank. The questions will be bilingual i.e. in Hindi & English. The candidates will have option to answer the questions in Hindi or English (except for test of English Language).

b) To be eligible for being short-listed for interview, candidates have to score equal to or above the cut-off marks to be decided by the Bank for the PK test, besides scoring equal to or above the Minimum qualifying marks in other tests. For the post of Economist the qualifying marks in Descriptive test will be decided by the Bank.

c) Candidates must secure equal to or more than the minimum qualifying marks (to be decided by the Bank) in interview to be considered for selection. In the interview, the candidate can opt for Hindi also.Merit List: a) for selection will be prepared in descending order on the basis of scores obtained in PK test, Descrptive test (when applicable) and interview or interview only, as the case may be.

d) In case more than one candidate score the cut off marks (common mark at cut off point), such candidates will be ranked according to their age in descending order, both in the select list as well as in the wait list.

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(Notification) Union Bank Specialist Officers (Forex & Treasury) Recruitment 2017

(Notification) Union Bank Specialist Officers (Forex & Treasury) Recruitment 2017

Post Details & Pay Scale :

1. Union Bank of India (herein after called the Bank), a leading listed Public Sector Bank with Head Office in Mumbai and having Pan India, as well as, Overseas presence, invites On-line Applications for recruitment to the following posts in Specialized Segment.

POST CODE

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(NEWS) SBI Bank Changes Branch Name, Code and IFSC Code for 1295 Branches

(NEWS) SBI Bank Changes Branch Name, Code and IFSC Code for 1295 Branches

LIST OF BRANCHES RATIONALISED

 

 

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(News) SBI Will Use AADHAAR Card for JOBS

(News) SBI Will Use AADHAAR Card for JOBS

State Bank of India (SBI) propose to introduce the scheme of verifying the identity of candidates applying for all its recruitment processes through Aadhaar cards w.e.f. 1 st July 2017.

Ascertaining the identities of candidates is critical for fair conduct of recruitment process and prevention of impersonation. The provisions of Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 (the Aadhaar Act 2016) and the Regulations under the Act have come into effect on various dates as published in the Official Gazette. Pursuant to Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act 2016, SBI proposes to verify the identity of the candidates through Aadhaar number in all its recruitment processes w.e.f. 1st July 2017. Accordingly, while applying for appointment in SBI it will be mandatory to furnish the 12 digit Aadhaar No. (or 28 digit Aadhaar enrolment ID in case the Aadhaar has been applied for, but not received). The Aadhaar number will be used at discretion of SBI to match the biometric information taken through biometric attendance system at the time of the examination/ interview/ medical fitness test/ reporting for joining with that stored on the Aadhaar server to establish the identity of the candidate. The above provision is applicable in all States and Union Territories of India except the States of Jammu & Kashmir, Meghalaya and Assam. Applicants from these States may use voter ID, passport, driving license or any other valid document, as may be specified by SBI in the relevant recruitment notice, as proof of identity for future recruitments in SBI.

 

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(Notification) SIDBI Lucknow : Recruitment of Content Writer on contract basis

(Notification) SIDBI Lucknow : Recruitment of Content Writer on contract basis

The Bank invites applications for the post of Content Writer on contract basis.

Post Details :

Requirement of Content Writer on contract basis

A. Post Content Writer on contract basis at SIDBI, Lucknow.
B. Scope of work To prepare content on issues concerning MSME Sector,
Developmental activities & new initiatives undertaken by SIDBI and any other work as may be decided from time to time.

Age limit

Between 25-35 years

Educational Qualification : 

Graduate / Post Graduate in any discipline from a recognized Indian / Foreign University / Institute.

Experience :

The applicant should have adequate experience in content writing or in some related area with excellent command of written English and exposure to MSME sector.

Pay Scale :

Remuneration Consolidated amount of `35,000/- per month. No other allowance/facility/benefits will be paid/admissible.

Selection Procedure :

Selection would be by way of personal interview by the Selection Committee.

HOW TO APPLY : 

Duly filled in application (in English or Hindi), as per the format available on the Bank’s website, alongwith required documents, should be sent to the Deputy General Manager, Human Resources Vertical (HRV), Small Industries Development Bank of India, 15 Ashok Marg, Lucknow 226001, on or before December 15, 2017. The envelope containing the application should bear the superscription “Content Writer on Contract basis".

Others

(i) Candidates, called for interview will be paid economy Airfare / 2 nd AC railway fare by shortest route in India.
(ii) Decision of the Bank in all matters regarding eligibility, selection etc. would be final and binding on the candidates. No representation or correspondence will be entertained by the Bank in this regard.

Important Date : 

Before December 15, 2017

Click Here to Download Official Notification

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