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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude

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Directions (Q. 51 -55) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

51. 4003 × 77 – 21015 = ? × 116

(1) 2477
(2) 2478
(3) 2467
(4) 2476
(5) None of these

52. [(5Ö7 + Ö7) × (4Ö7 + 8Ö7)] – (19)2 = ?

(1) 143
(2) 72Ö7
(3) 134
(4) 70Ö7
(5) None of these

53. (4444÷ 40) + (645 ÷ 25) + (3991 ÷ 26) = ?

(1) 280.4
(2) 290.4
(3) 295.4
(4) 285.4
(5) None of these

54.

(1) 37
(2) 33
(3) 34
(4) 28
(5) None of these

55.

(1) 303.75
(2) 305.75
(3) 303
(4) 305
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 56-60): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

56.

 8787 ÷ 343 × Ö50=?

(1) 250
(2) 140
(3) 180
(4) 100
(5) 280

57.

(1) 48
(2) 38
(3) 28
(4) 18
(5) 58

58.

of 4011.33 + of 3411.22 = ?

(1) 4810
(2) 4980
(3) 4890
(4) 4930
(5) 4850

59.

23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?

(1) 6460
(2) 6420
(3) 6320
(4) 6630
(5) 6360

60.

 335.01 × 244.99 ÷ 55 = ?

(1) 1490
(2) 1550
(3) 1420
(4) 1590
(5) 1400

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Directions (Q. 61-65) : In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

61.

5531 5506 5425 5304 5135 4910 4621
 

(1) 5531
(2) 5425
(3) 4621
(4) 5135
(5) 5506

62.

 6 7 9 13 26 37 69

(1) 7
(2) 26
(3) 69
(4) 37
(5) 9

63.

1 3 10 36 152 760 4632
(1) 3
(2) 36
(3) 4632
(4) 760 (5) 152

64.

 4 3 9 34 96 219 435
(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 34
(4) 435
(5) 219

65.

 157.5 45 15 6 3 2 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 157.5
(5) 45

Directions (Q. 66-70): Study the following graph and table carefully and answer the questions given below:

Time taken to travel (in hours) by six vehicles on two different days

66. Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on both the days?

(1) Vehicle A
(2) Vehicle C
(3) Vehicle F
(4) Vehicle B
(5) None of these

67. What was the difference between the speed of Vehicle A on Day 1 and the speed of Vehicle C on the same day?

(1) 7 km/hr
(2) 12 km/hr
(3) 11 km/hr
(4) 8 km/hr
(5) None of these

68. What was the speed of Vehicle C on Day 2 in terms of metres per second?

(1) 15.3
(2) 12.8
(3) 11.5
(4) 13.8
(5) None of these

69. The distance travelled by Vehicle F on Day 2 was approximately what per cent of the distance travelled by it on Day 1?

(1) 80
(2) 65
(3) 85
(4) 95
(5) 90

70. What is the ratio of the speeds of Vehicle D and Vehicle E on Day 2?

(1) 15:13
(2) 17:13
(3) 13:11
(4) 17:14
(5) None of these

71. An article was purchased for ?78,350. Its price was marked up by 30%. It was sold at a discount of 20% on the marked-up price. What was the profit per cent on the cost price?

(1) 4%
(2) 7%
(3) 5%
(4) 3%
(5) 6%

72. When X is subtracted from the numbers 9, 15 and 27, the remainders are in continued proportion. What is the value of X?

(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5
(5) None of these

73. What is the difference between the simple and the compound interest on ` 7,300 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. in 2 years?

(1) Rs 29.37
(2) Rs 26.28
(3) Rs 31.41
(4) Rs 23.22
(5) Rs 21.34

74. The sum of three consecutive numbers is 2262. What is 41% of the highest number?

(1) 301.51
(2) 303.14
(3) 308.73
(4) 306.35
(5) 309.55

75. In how many different ways can the letters of the word THERAPY’ be arranged so that the vowels never come together?

(1) 720
(2) 1440
(3) 5040
(4) 3600
(5) 4800

 

76. What is the ratio of the number of mobile phones sold of Company B during July to those sold during December of the same company?

(1) 119 : 145
(2) 116 : 135
(3) 119 : 135
(4) 119 : 130
(5) None of these

77. If 35% of the mobile phones sold by Company A during November were sold at a discount, how many mobile phones of Company A during that month were sold without a discount?

(1) 882
(2) 1635
(3) 1638
(4) 885
(5) None of these

78. If the shopkeeper earned a profit of Rs 433 on each mobile phone sold of Company B during October, what was his total profit earned on the mobile phones of that company during the same month?

(1) Rs 6,49,900
(2) Rs 6,45,900
(3) Rs 6,49,400
(4) Rs6,49,500
(5) None of these

79. The number of mobile phones sold of Company A during July is approximately what per cent of the number of mobile phones sold of Company A during December?

(1) 110
(2) 140
(3) 150
(4) 105
(5) 130

80. What is the total number of mobile phones sold of Company B during August and September together?

(1) 10000
(2) 15000
(3) 10500
(4) 9500
(5) None of these
 

81. What is the ratio of the total cost of wooden flooring to the total cost of marble flooring?

(1) 1879:2527
(2) 1887:2386
(3) 1887:2527
(4) 1829:2527
(5) 1887:2351

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Reasoning

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1. Which step number is the following output?

32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink
(1) StepV (2) Step VI
(3) Step IV (4) Step III
(5) There is no such step.

2. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V?

(1) 14 (2) 92
(3) feet (4) best
(5) why

3. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between ‘feet’ and ‘32’ as they appear in the last step of the output?

(1) One (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five
(5) Seven

4. Which of the following represents the position of ‘why’ in the fourth step?

(1) Eighth from the left
(2) Fifth from the right
(3) Sixth from the left
(4) Fifth from the left
(5) Seventh from the left

5. What is the position of A with respect to his mother-in- law?

(1) Immediate left (2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the right
(5) Fourth to the left

6. Who amongst the following is D’s daughter?

(1) B
(2) C
(3) E
(4) G
(5) H

7. What is the position of A with respect to his grand child?

(1) Immediate right
(2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the left

8. How many people sit between G and her uncle?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) F
(2) C
(3) E
(4) H
(5) G

10. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

(1) C is cousin of E.
(2) H and H’s husband are immediate neighbours of each other.
(3) No female is an immediate neighbour of C.
(4) H sits third to the left of her daughter.
(5) Bis mother of H.

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General Awareness/Computer Knowledge

1. Balmiki Prasad Singh has taken over as Governor of _____

(A) Goa
(B) Bihar
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Sikkim
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. The Paralympic Games in September 2008 were held at _____
(A) Tokyo
(B) New York
(C) Madrid
(D) Stckholm
(E) Beijing
Ans : (E)

3. Which of the folowing is/are True about the National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) which was in news recently?
(1) The NRAA was set-up in 1955 at the initiative of the then Prime Minister J.L.Nehru
(2) NRAA was established to co-ordinate the work of five ministries associated with the development of rainfed areas
(3) NRAA is now converted into a Corporation of the same name
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1 , 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

1. As per the reports in the newspapers what has been the average growth of GDP during 10th plan period (2002-2007) ?(A) 9 %
(B) 9.3 %
(C) 8 %
(D) 8.7 %
(E) 7.6 %
Ans (E)

2. Which of the following is/are not part(s) of the Union Budget 2008-09 presented in the Lok Sbha in February 2008 ?
(1) Defence allocation is increased by 10% to reach more than Rs. 1,00,000 crore.
(2) National Rural Guarantee Act is extended to all the rural districts.
(3) Debt Waiver Scheme launched to help all farmers irrespective of their land holdings.
    (A) Only 1
    (B) Only 2
    (C) Both 1 & 2
    (D) Only 3
    (E) None of these
Ans (D)

3. Which of the following States has been declared 2008 as the “Year of Education” ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Bihar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) None of these
Ans (A)

4. Who amongst the following is selected as the “Banker of the year 2007″ by the Business Standard ?
(A) M.V.Kamath
(B) K.C.Chakrabarty
(C) Anil Khandelwal
(D) O.P.Bhatt
(E) None of these
Ans (D)

5. Which of the following is /are not the constituent sector(s) of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India ?
(1) Agriculture & allied activities
(2) Foreign Exchange Reserve
(3) Industry
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1,2 & 3
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) Only 2
Ans (E)

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Directions—(Q. 01–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone.

The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours looked on.

The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.

The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you didn’t give me anything !”

His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead.

The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?”

“You’ll get it when you go far away.”

“But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?”

His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.”

1. Why did the woman's second son travel ?
(A) He was restless by nature
(B) He did not want to stay at home
(C) He was rich and could afford to travel
(D) His job was such that he had to travel
(E) None of these

2. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ?
(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home
(B) He had quarrelled with his mother
(C) His wife did not allow him to return home
(D) His job prevented him from taking leave
(E) None of these

3. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?
1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.
2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.
3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

4. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?
1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.
2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.
3. He stood at the door with servants.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these

5. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?
(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad

 

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Solved Paper : SBI PO Exam - 2010

General Awareness / Marketing / Computers (Held on 18-4-2010)

1. What is the full form of ‘NBFC’ as used in the Financial Sector ?

(1) New Banking Finance Company
(2) National Banking & Finance Corporation
(3) New Business Finance & Credit
(4) Non Business Fund Company
(5) None of these

2. 100% concession has been given for travelling in the Indian Railways for patients of ...

(1) AIDS (2) Cancer (3) Swine Flu
(4) T. B. (5) None of these

3. Many a times, we read about Special Drawing Right (SDR) in newspapers. As per its definition, SDR is a monetary unit of the reserve assets of which of the following organizations / agencies?

(1) World Bank
(2) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(3) Asian Development Bank
(4) Reserve Bank of India
(5) None of these

4. Which of the following is/are the highlights of the Union Budget 20-1 ?

(A) Number of new steps taken to simplify the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) regime.
(B) Rs. 16,500 crore provided to ensure that the Public Sector Banks are able to attain a minimum 8% capital (Tier I) by March 201.
(C) More than Rs. 1,74,000 crore provided for the development of the infrastructure in the country.

(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Only C (4) All A, B & C
(5) None of these

5. In how many Routes special tourist trains called ‘Bharat Birth’ is to start?

(1) 19 (2) 16 (3) 17
(4) 18 (5) None of these

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Solved Paper : SBI PO Exam - 2010

ENGLISH LANGUAGE (Held on 18-4-2010)

Direction : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printec in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Governments have traditionally equated economic progress with steel mills and cement factories. While urban centers thrive and city dwellers get rich, hundreds of millions of farmers remain mired in poverty. However, fears of food shortages, a rethinking of antipoverty priorities and the crushing recession in 2008 are causing a dramatic shift in world economic policy in favour of greater support for agriculture.

The last time when the world’s farmers felt such love was in the 470s. At that time, as food prices spiked, there was real concern that the world was facing a crisis in which the planet was simply unable to produce enough grain and meat for an expanding population. Governments across the developing world and international aid organisations plowed investment into agriculture in the early 470s, while technological breakthroughs, like high­yield strains of important food crops, boosted production. The result was the Green Revolution and food production exploded.
But the Green Revolution became a victim of its own success. Food prices plunged by some 60% by the late 480s from their peak in the mid- 470s. Policymakers and aid workers turned their attention to the poor’s other pressing needs, such as health care and education. Farming got starved of resources and investment. By 2004, aid directed at agriculture sank to 3.5% and “Agriculture lost its glitter.” Also, as consumers in high-growth giants such as China and India became wealthier, they began eating more meat, so grain once used for human consumption got diverted to beef up livestock. By early 2008, panicked buying by importing countries and restrictions slapped on grain exports by some big producers helped drive prices upto heights not seen for three decades. Making matters worse, land and resources got reallocated to produce cash crops such as biofuels and the result was that voluminous reserves of grain evaporated. Protests broke out across the emerging world and fierce food riots toppled governments.

This spurred global leaders into action. This made them aware that food security is one of the fundamental issues in the world that has to be dealt with in order to maintain administrative and political stability. This also spurred the U.S. which traditionally provisioned food aid from American grain surpluses to help needy nations, to move towards investing in farm sectors around the globe to boost productivity. This move helped countries become more productive for themselves and be in a better position to feed their own people.

Africa, which missed out on the first Green Revolution due to poor policy and limited resources, also witnessed a ‘change’. Swayed by the success of East Asia, the primary poverty­fighting method favoured by many policymakers in Africa was to get farmers off their farms and into modern jobs in factories and urban centers. But that strategy proved to be highly insufficient. Income levels in the countryside badly trailed those in cities while the FAO estimated that the number of poor going hungry in 2009 reached an all time high at more than one billion.

In India on the other hand, with only 40% of its farmland irrigated, entire economic boom currently underway is held hostage by the unpredictable monsoon. With much of India’s farming areas suffering from drought this year, the government will have a tough time meeting its economic growth targets. In a report, Goldman Sachs predicted that if this year too receives weak rains, it could cause agriculture to contract by 2% this fiscal year, making the government’s 7% GDP-growth target look “a bit rich”. Another green revolution is the need of the hour and to make it a reality, the global community still has much backbreaking farm work to do.

1. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage

(1) Criticising developed countries for not bolstering economic growth in poor nations
(2) Analysing the disadvantages of the Green Revolution
(3) Persuading experts that a strong economy depends on industrialization and not agriculture
(4) Making a case for the international society to engineer a second Green Revolution
(5) Rationalising the faulty agriculture policies of emerging countries

2. Which of the following is an adverse impact of the Green Revolution ?

(1) Unchecked crop yields resulted in large tracts of land becoming barren
(2) Withdrawal of fiscal impetus from agriculture to other sectors
(3) Farmers began soliciting government subsidies for their produce
(4) Farmers rioted as food prices fell so low that they could not make ends meet
(5) None of these

3. What is the author trying to convey through the phrase “making the government’s 7% GDP growth target look “a bit rich” ?

(1) India is unlikely to achieve the targeted growth rate
(2) Allocation of funds to agriculture has raised India’s chances of having a high GDP
(3) Agricultural growth has artificially inflated India’s GDP and such growth is not real
(4) India is likely to rave one of the highest GDP growth rates
(5) A large portion of India’s GDP is contributed by agriculture

4. Which of the following factors was/were responsible for the neglect of the farming sector after the green revolution ?

(A) Steel and cement sectors generated more revenue for the government as compared to agriculture.
(B) Large scale protests against favouring agriculture at the cost of other important sectors such as education and healthcare.
(C) Attention of policy makers and aid organizations was diverted from agriculture to other sectors.
(1) None (2) Only (C)
(3) Only (B) & (C) (4) Only (A) 8s (B)
(5) All (A), (B) & (C)

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Solved Paper : SBI PO Exam - 2010

Reasoning Ability (Held on 18-4-2010)

1. In a certain code language ‘how many goals scored’ is written as ‘5 3 9 7’; ‘many more matches’ is written as ‘9 8 2’ and ‘he scored five’ is written as ‘1 6 3’. How is ‘goals’ written in that code language ?

(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 5 or 7
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

2. In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER written in that code?

(1) RMNBSFEJ (2) BNMRSFEJ
(3) RMNBJEFS (4) TOPDQDCH
(5) None of these

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI using each letter only once in each word ?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two
(4) Three (5) More than three

4. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different weight, D is heavier than only A and C is lighter than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest ?

(1) B (2) E (3) C
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

5. Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and each even digit is substituted by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the, third digit from the left end after the rearrangement ?

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5
(4) 6 (5) None of these

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Solved Paper : SBI PO Exam - 2010

Data Analysis And Interpretation (Held on 18-4-2010)

Direction: Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow

Number (n) of candidates (in lakhs) appearing for an entrance examination From six different states and the percentage (p) of candidates clearing the same over the years

1. What is the respective ratio of total number of candidates clearing the entrance exam from State B in the year 2004 to those clearing the entrance exam from State C in the same year

(1) 221: 148 (2) 218: 143
(3) 148: 221 (4) 143: 218
(5) None of these

2. In which year did the highest number of candidates clear the entrance exam from State D ?

(1) 2008 (2) 2006
(3) 2009 (4) 2007
(5) None of these

3. What is the number of candidates not clearing the entrance exam from State A in the year 2007?

(1) 186820 (2) 11682
(3) 1868200 (4) 116820
(5) None of these

4. What is the total numberof candidates clearing the entrance exam from States E and F together in the year 2006 ?

(1) 16160 (2) 110660
(3) 1.1066 (4) 1106600
(5) None of these

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Solved Paper: SBI PO Exam - 2013 English Language (Held on 28-4-2013)

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Financial Inclusion (FI) is an emerging priority for banks that have nowhere else to go to achieve business growth. The viability of FI business is under question, because while banks and their delivery partners continue to make investments, they haven’t seen commensurate returns. In markets like India, most programs are focused on customer on-boarding, an expensive process which people often find difficult to afford, involving issuance of smart cards to the customers. However, large scale customer acquisition hasn’t translated into large scale customer acquisition hasn’t translated into large scale business, with many accounts lying dormant and therefore yielding no return on the bank’s investment. For the same reason, Business Correspondent Agents who constitute the primary channel for financial inclusion are unable to pursue their activity as a full-time job. On major reason for this state of events is that the customer ob-boarding process is often delayed after the submission of documents (required to validate the details of the concerned applicant) by the applicant and might take as long as two weeks. By this time the initial enthusiasm of applicants fade away. Moreover, the delivery partners don’t have the knowledge and skill to propose anything other than the most basic financial products to the customer and hence do not serve their banks’ goal of expanding the offering in unbanked markets.

Contrary to popular perception, the inclusion segment is not a singular impoverished, undifferentiated mass and it is important to navigate its diversity to identify the right target customers for various programs. Rural markets do have their share of rich people who do not use banking services simply because they are inconvenient to access or have low perceived value. At the same time, urban markets, despite a high branch density, have multitude of low wage earners outside the financial net. Moreover, the branch timing of banks rarely coincide with the off-work hours of the labour class.

Creating affordability is crucial in tapping the unbanked market. No doubt pricing is a tool, but banks also need to convince customers that they can derive big value even from small amounts. One way of doing this is to show the target audience that a bank account is actually a lifestyle enabler, a convenient and safe means to send money to family or make a variety of purchases. Once banks succeed in hooking customers with this value proposition they must sustain their interest by introducing a simple and intuitive use application, ubiquitous access over mobile and other touch points, and adopting a banking mechanism which is not only secure but also reassuring to the customer. Technology is the most important element of financial inclusion strategy and an enabler of all others. The choice of technology is therefore a crucial decision, which could make or mar the agenda. Of the various selection criteria, cost is perhaps the most important. This certainly does not mean buying the cheapest package, but rather choosing that solution which by scaling transactions to huge volumes reduces per unit operating cost. An optimal mix of these strategies cost. An optimal mix of these strategies would not doubt offer an innovative means of expansion in the unbanked market.

1. Which of the following facts is true as per the passage?

(1) People from rural areas have high perceived value of banking services
(2) Cost is not a valid criterion for technological package selection for financial inclusion initiatives
(3) The inclusion segment is a singular impoverished, undifferentiated mass
(4) The branch timings of banks generally do not coincide with the off-work hours of the labour class in urban markets
(5) All the given statements are true

2. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons do the delivery partners fail to serve their bank’s goal to expand in the unbanked markets?

(a) They do not have adequate client base to sell their financial products
(b) They do not have adequate knowledge and skills to explain anything beyond basic financial products to the customers
(c) They do not have the skills to operate advanced technological aids that are a prerequisite to tap the unbanked market

(1) Only (b) (2) Only (c)
(3) All (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Only (a)
(5) Both (b) and (c)

3. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons is the viability of financial inclusion under question?

(1) The banks always prefer the cheapest package (to cut cost) while making a choice of technology to be used
(2) The Business Correspondent Agents are highly demotivated to pursue their activity as a full-time job
(3) The investments made by banks and its delivery partners are not yielding equal amount of returns
(4) The banks do not have adequate number of delivery partners required to tap the unbanked market
(5) The banks do not have adequate manpower to explore the diversity of the unbanked market and thereby identify the right target customers for various programs

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Solved Paper: SBI PO Exam - 2013 Reasoning Ability (Held on 28-4-2013)

Directions (1-5): Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions:

1. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression R > O = A > S < T as definitely true?

(1) O > T
(2) S < R
(3) T > A
(4) S = O
(5) T < R

2. Which of the following symbols should replace the questions mark (?) in the given expression in order to make the expression ‘P > A’ as well as ‘T L’ definitely true?

P > L ? A N = T

(1)
(2) <
(3) <
(4)
(5) Either or <

3. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given such a manner that makes the expressions ‘B>N’ as well as ‘D L’ definitely true?

B_____L_____O____N_____D

(1) =, =, ,
(2) >, , =, >
(3) >, <, =,
(4) >, =, =,
(5) >, =, , >

4. Which of the following should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression ‘A < P’ definitely false?

____ < ___ < ___ > ___

(1) L, N, P, A
(2) L, A, P, N
(3) A, L, P, N
(4) N, A, P, L
(5) P, N, A, L

5. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression ‘F > N’ and ‘U > D’ definitely true?

F__O__U__N__D

(1) <, <, >, =
(2) <, =, =, >
(3) <, =, =, <
(4) , =, =, >
(5) >, >, =, <

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Solved Paper: SBI PO Exam - 2013

General Awareness, Marketing and Computer (Held on 28-4-2013)

1. Every year March 20 is celebrated as what day ?
(A) World Sparrow Day
(B) International Women's Day
(C) World Cuckoo Day
(D) International Child Day
(E) International Mother's Day
Ans : (A)

2. Invisible Export means export of–
(A) Services
(B) Prohibited goods
(C) Restricted goods
(D) Goods as per OGL list
(E) Other than those given as options
Ans : (A)

3. One of the famous Indian Sportsperson released his/her autobiography–'Playing to Win' in November 2012. Name the sports-person correctly–
(A) Saina Nehwal
(B) Mary Kom
(C) Yuvraj Singh
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) Sushil Kumar
Ans : (A)

4. The NRIs while investing in the equity of a company cannot buy more than prescribed percentage of the paid up capital of that company .What is the prescribed percentage ?
(A) 2%
(B) 3%
(C) 4%
(D) 5%
(E) 6%
Ans : (D)

5. Government as part of the recapitalisation plan, infused capital in State Bank of India recently. Indicate the approximate capital infusion–
(A) Rs. 500 cr.
(B) Rs. 1000 cr.
(C) Rs. 1,500 cr.
(D) Rs. 2,000 cr.
(E) Rs. 3,000 cr.
Ans : (E)

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Solved Paper: SBI PO Exam - 2013 

Data Analysis and Interpretation (Held on 28-4-2013)

Directions: Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Cost of three different fruits (in rupees per kg. in five different cities)

1. In which city is the difference between the cost of one kg of apple and cost of one kg of guava second lowest?

(1) Jalandhar (2) Delhi
(3) Chandigarh (4) Hoshiarpur
(5) Ropar

2. Cost of one kg of guava in Jalandhar is approximately what percent of the cost of two kgs of grapes in Chandigarh?

(1) 66 (2) 24
(3) 28 (4) 34
(5) 58

3. What total amount will Ram pay to the shopkeeper for purchasing 3 kgs of apples and 2 kgs of guavas in Delhi?

(1) Rs. 530/- (2) Rs. 450/-
(3) Rs. 570/- (4) Rs. 620/-
(5) Rs. 490/-

4. Ravinder had to purchase 45 kgs of graphs from Hoshiarpur. Shopkeeper gave him discount of 4% per kg. What amount did he pay to the shopkeeper after the discount?

(1) Rs. 8208/- (2) Rs. 8104/-
(3) Rs. 8340/- (4) Rs. 8550/-
(5) Rs. 8410/-

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 SBI PO Exam Paper - (Reasoning) "held on 30-11-2014"

(Based on Memory)

(All the numbers are two-digit numbers)

Input 14 36 methodology 21 of research
        59 crucial 98 very 62 is
Step I 98 14 38 methodology 21 of research
        59 crucial very is 62
Step II 98 very 14 36 methodology 21 of
        59 crucial is research 62
Step III 59 98 very 14 methodology 21 of
            crucial is research 62 36
Step IV 59 98 very of 14 21 crucial is
        methodology research 62 36
Step V 21 59 98 very of crucial is
            methodology research 62 36 14
Step VI 21 59 98 very of is crucial
            methodology research 62 36 14

Step VI is the of the above arrangement as the intended arrangements is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given, steps find out appropriate steps for the given input. Input 65 work in 23 to be 13 89 managed 48 97 load 34 healthy 55 style

1. Which element is exactly between ‘style’ and ‘be’ in second last steps of the given arrangements?

(1) Work
(2) Healthy
(3) 23
(4) Load
(5) Be

2. What is the position of 46 from the right end in the third steps?

(1) Sixth
(2) Seventh
(3) Fifth
(4) Eight
(5) Ninth

3. Which of the following is fifth step of the arrangement based on the given input?

(1) 46 65 97 to managed in 23 be 13 load healthy style work 89 55 34
(2) 46 work 65 style 97 in 23 be 13 load healthy 89 managed 55 to 34
(3) 46 65 97 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to 89 55 34
(4) 34 46 55 65 89 97 work syle in 23 be, 13 load healthy managed to
(5) 89 55 34 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to 46 65 97

4. In which, step are the elements ‘be 13 healthy in’ found in the same order?

(1) Third
(2) Sixth
(3) Fourth
(4) The given order of elements is not found in any stop
(5) Fifth

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 SBI PO Exam Paper - (English) "held on 30-11-2014"

(Based on Memory)

51. .............. Dinosaurs live to be the ancestors of modern birds, the discovery of soft tissue in Dinosaurs fossils containing proteins found only in birds is very ...........

(1) Though, unfortunate
(2) Recently, common
(3) Since, exciting
(4) Perhaps, remarkable
(5) Moreover, welcome

52. The van Allen belts which are ............ between 13000 to 60000 km above the Earth’s surface were discovered in 1958 and contain electrons which play ............ with electronic systems on satellites.

(1) Somewhere, damages
(2) located, havoc
(3) Position, mayhem
(4) Situated, part
(5) Vicinity, confusion

53. Rice farmers use ........... methods of farming and old equipment making the cost of price ......... twice as much as it is in other countries.

(1) Obsolete, economical
(2) Modern, expensive
(3) Future, virtuality
(4) Antiquated, almost
(5) Sustainable, approximate

54. Some experts believe that the best .......... to reduce the number of accidents caused by drivers using their mobile phones to create an “app/ ......... communications when the vehicle in is motion and unblocking them when the vehicle reaches its destination”.

(1) Tactic, block
(2) Strategy, disabiling
(3) Part, facilitating
(4) Decision, expediting
(5) Method, further

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 SBI PO Exam Paper - (Data Analysis and Intelligence) "held on 30-11-2014"

(Based on Memory)

101. 48 24  36 90  315 1417.5
        20 (a) (b) (c) (d)   (e)

What will come in place of (d)?

(1) 131.25
(2) 133.75
(3) 136
(4) 140
(5) 142.25

102. 2 11 52 183 430 555
        4 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in place of (b)?

(1) 92
(2) 98
(3) 82
(4) 88
(5) 96

103. 7 9 21 69 273 1371
        6 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in place of (b)?

(1) 19
(2) 22
(3) 18
(4) 20
(5) 17

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 SBI PO Exam Paper - (General Awareness, Marketing And Computer Knowledge) "held on30-11-2014"

(Based on Memory)

151. Rules for exchanging data between compuers are called

(1) Programmers (2) Hyperlinks
(3) Hyper actions
(4) Procedure
(5) Protocols

152. As per RBI guidelines, banks are no longer allowed to penalise its customer for

(1) None-maintainers of minimum balance in cooperative accounts
(2) Non-maintained of minimum balance in current account
(3) Non-maintained of minimum balance in savings account
(4) Bouncing of cheques issued for non-availability of terms
(5) Premature withdrawal of term deposits

153. How many gigabytes are there in a prototype?

(1) 500000 (2) 100000
(3) 1000 (4) 100
(5) 001

154. Subject to compliance of security features the CBS complaint Urban Cooperative Banks can offer the following types of internet banking facility to their customers

(1) Non-fund based view only facility
(2) Payment of direct/indirect taxes
(3) Online-fund transfer from one account to another
(4) Online e-commerce facility
(5) Remittance of funds through NEFT/RTGS

155. Anoushka Shankar is a famous Indian

(1) Famous music director
(2) Guitarist
(3) Other than those given as options
(4) Classical singer
(5) Sitarist

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(Papers) SBI PO Exam Papers - 2015 (Held on: 27-06-2015)

:: Reasoning ::

Directions (Nos. 66-70): In the fallowing questions, two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II hove been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer
a. if only conclusion I is true
b. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
c. if only conclusion II is true
d. if both conclusions are true
e. if either conclusion I or II is true

66. Statements

No factory is an industry.
All workshops are industries.
Some plants are workshops.

Conclusions

I. No workshop is a factory.
II. At least some plants are industries.

67. Statements

Some sands are particles.
Some particles are glasses.

Conclusions

I. Some glasses are definitely not particles.
II. Some glasses being sands is a possibility.

68. Statements

Some movies are films.
No film is a show.
All shows are pictures.

Conclusions

I. At least some pictures are films,
II. No show is a movie.

69. Statements

Some actors are singers.
All singers are dancers.
Some dancers are players.

Conclusions

I. All actors being dancers is a possibility.
II. All dancers are singers.

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(Papers) SBI PO Exam Papers - 2015 (Held on: 27-06-2015)

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::

Directions (31-35): Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.

Data Related to Number of Books Purchased for Two Libraries (A and B) during 6 yeas

31. What is the respective ratio between total number of books purchased for libraries A and B together in 2003 and total number of books purchased for the same libraries together in 2007?

(a) 22 : 31
(b) 22 : 31
(c) 11 : 17
(d) 11 : 19
(e) 22 : 35

32. What is the average number of books purchased for library A during 2004, 2005, 2007 and 2008?

(a) 465
(b) 455
(c) 460
(d) 445
(e) 450

33. Out of the total number of books purchased by libraries A and B together in 2008, ony 20% are graphic novels. What isthe total number of trapic novels purchased for libraries A and B together in 2008?

(a) 324
(b) 312
(c) 272
(d) 336
(e) 288

34. Number of books purchased for library B increased by what percent from 2003 to 2006?

35. Number of books pruchased for library B is what percent of the number of books purchased for library A in 2006?

(a) 30%
(b) 35%
(c) 55%
(d) 85%
(e) 45%

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(Papers) SBI PO Exam Papers - 2015 (Held on: 27-06-2015)

:: English Language ::

Directions (1-5): Rearrange the following’ six sentences A, 8, C, 0, E, and F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.

A. When these millennium development goals were first formulated in 1990, 53.5% of all Indian children were malnourished.
B. This would stilt be below ‘the target of reducing malnourishment to 28.6%.
C. India has been moderately successful in reducing poverty.
D. Since then, progress has been slow.
D. Today, it is estimated that malnourishment could’ decline to 40% by the end of 2015.
E. However, eradicating hunger, along with malnourishment still remains a key (challenge, according to the Millennium Development Goals.

1. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. E
e. D

2. Which of the, following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(C) F
(d) D
(e) E

3. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. F

4. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after ‘rearrangement?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

5. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?

a. A
b. F
c. D
d. C
e. B

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SBI PO (Preliminary) Exam Paper - 2016 (held on 22-5-2016) "English Language"

Directions (Q. 71-80): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

As soon as Krishna learnt of the events at Hastinapura, the game of dice and the exile of the Pandavas, he set out for the forest where the Pandavas, were living. Along with Krishna w e n t m a n y , including men of the Bhoja and Vrishni tribes, Dhrishtaketu, the king of Chedi country, and the Kekayas, who were all devoted to the Pandavas. They were filled with righteous indignation when they heard of Duryodhana's perfidy and cried out that surely the earth would drink the blood of such wicked people. Draupadi approached Sri Krishna and, in a voice drowned in tears and broken with sobs, told the story of her wrongs. She said: "I was dragged to the assembly when I had but a single garment on my body. The sons of Dhritarashtra insulted me most outrageously and gloated over my agony. They thought that I had become their slave and accosted me and treated me as one. Even Bhishma and Dhritarashtra forgot my birth and breeding and my relationship to them. O Janardhana, even my husbands did not protect me from the jeers and the ribald insults of those foul ruffians. Bhima's bodily strength and Arjuna's Gandiva were alike of no avaiI. Under such supreme provocation even weaklings would have found strength and courage to strike the vile insulter dead. The Pandavas are renowned heroes and yet Duryodhana lives! I, the daughter-in-law of the emperor Pandu, was dragged by my hair. I, the wife of five heroes, was dishonoured. O Madhusudana, even you had deserted me." She stood trembling, utterly unable to continue,for the grief convulsed her.

Krishna was deeply moved and he consoled the weeping Draupadi. He said: "Those who tormented you will be stricken to death in the bloody quagmire of a lost battle. Wipe your eyes. I solemnly promise that your grievous wrongs shall be amply avenged. I shall help the Pandavas in every way. You will become an empress. The heavens may fall, the Himalayas may split in twain, the earth may crumble or the boundless sea may dry up -but, I tell you verily, my words shall stand. swear this," and Krishna took a solemn vow before Draupadi.This vow, it will be seen, was in perfect accord with the purpose of the Lord's avatars, as declared in scriptures: "For protecting the righteous, for destroying the wicked and for firmly upholding the law, I am born on earth age after age."Dhrishtadyumna also consoled his sister and told her how nemesis would overtake the Kauravas. He said: "I will kill Drona. Shikhandi will cause Bhishma's fall. Bhima will take the lives of the wicked Duryodhana and his brothers. Arjuna will slay Karna, the charioteer's son."

Sri Krishna said: "When this calamity befell you, I was not in Dwaraka. Had I been there, I w o u l d never have allowed this fraudulent game of dice to take place. Uninvited, I would have gone there and stirred up Drona, Kripa and the other elders to a sense of duty. I would, at all costs, have prevented this destructive play of dice. When Sakuni was cheating vou. I was fighting King Salva, who had besieged my city. It was only after I had defeated him that I came to know of the game of dice and the subsequent sordid story. It grieves me that I am not able to remove your sorrows immediately but you know, some water must be lost before a broken dam is restored."

71. Why was Krishna unable to prevent the destructive game of dice?

(1) Because he himself was fond of dicing
(2) Because he wanted the Pandavas to be robbed of their property.
(3) Because he hated Bhima, Draupadi's husband
(4) Because he was fighting king Salva, who had besieged his city, when she was being cheated by Sakuni
(5) None of these

72. Why did the sons of Dhritarashtra insult Draupadi?

(1) Because Draupadi had become their slave like her five husbands.
(2) Because Draupadi was of low birth and breeding and was merely a kept for them.
(3) Because she was an ally of Krishna, whom the sons of Dhristrashtra hated.
(4) Because Draupadi had abused Dhritarashtra.
(5) None of these

73. Why were Draupadi's husbands helpless to protect her from the insults of wicked sons of Dhritarashtra?

(1) Because they were enjoying Draupadi being dragged into and insulted in the court.
(2) Because they were turned into slaves and had no right before their masters to interfere with them.
(3) Because Draupadi's husbands were disrobed of their clothes and were more concerned about hiding their nudity.
(4) Because the Pandavas had no weapons with them to protect Draupadi.
(5) None of these

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SBI PO (Preliminary) Exam Paper - 2016 (held on 22-5-2016) "Numerical Ability"

Directions (36-40): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questio ns?

38. 3/4 of 36% of 850 + ?

(1) 165.75
(2) 160.35
(3) 163.75
(4) 167.75
(5) None of these

39. 144 ÷ 8 ÷ ? = 9

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 6
(5) None of these

40. ? % of 590 - 11.8 = 236

(1) 48
(2) 45
(3) 42
(4) 41
(5) None of these

41. What is the value of three fourth of sixty per cent of 480?

(1) 216
(2) 218
(3) 212
(4) 214
(5) None of these

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SBI PO (Preliminary) Exam Paper - 2016 (held on 22-5-2016) "Reasoning"

Directions (Q. 1-5): The following questions are based on the following three-digit numbers given below:

571 863 427 654 912

1. If all the three digits of each of the numbers are multiplied together, the product of which of the following numbers will be the second highest?

(1) 571
(2) 863
(3) 427
(4) 654
(5) 912

2. If all the digits of each of the numbers are arranged in ascending order within the number, how many numbers thus formed will be divisible by three?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

3. If one is subtracted from each even digit of each of the numbers, in how many numbers thus formed will a digit appear twice within the number?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) Five

4. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, what will be the product of the first and the third digits of the second highest number thus formed?

(1) 14
(2) 16
(3) 12
(4) 18
(5) None of these

5. What will be the product of the second digit of the second lowest number and the third digit of the second highest number?

(1) 21
(2) 12
(3) 24
(4) 16
(5) None of these

 

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(Download) IBPS - RRB : Office Assistants (Multipurpose) Exam Paper Held on 09.09.2012

Exam Name: Office Assistants (Multipurpose)

File Size : 3.40 MB

File Type: PDF

Topic :

• Reasoning

• Aptitude Test

• General Awareness

• Computer Knowledge

• English Language

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---

IBPS RRB Officer Scale - I Previous Year Paper with Answer Key

---

Exam Name: IBPS RRB Officer Scale - I

Year: 2013

File Type: PDF

File Size: 2.50 MB

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NEW! IBPS RRB (Regional Rural Bank) Study Notes

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject : Computer Knowledge

1. Another name for a program is

(a) software
(b) procedure
(c) typology
(d) utilities
(e) userware

2. ................ is a communications technology used by some incoming mail services.

(a) Telnet
(b) TCP
(c) FTP
(d) GIF
(e) POP3

3. The two basic parts of URLs are

(a) ICP and IP
(b) TCP/IP and ISP
(c) TCP and ftp
(d) destination and device
(e) the protocol and the domain name

4. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into

(a) information
(b) programs
(c) objects
(d) charts
(e) websites

5. The ........... database is the most widely used database structur

(a) hierarchical
(b) general
(c) standard
(d) table
(e) relational

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6. Mail from unwanted senders can be blocked by

(a) not buying anything online so that junk mail senders will not having anything to benefit by
(b) sending them nasty replies when they send any mail
(c) using mail filters
(d) clicking the unsubscribe link
(e) e-mailing them and asking to the removed from the list

7. POP denotes

(a) Post Office Program
(b) Post Office Protocol
(c) Protocol on Program
(d) Protocol on Protocol
(e) Program of of Programmer

8. How many gigabytes are there in a petabyte?

(a) 1000
(b) 001
(c) 100
(d) 1000000
(e) 5000000

9. For a browser to connect to other resources, the location or address of the resources must be specified. These addresses are called

(a) MSN
(b) e-mail forms
(c) packets
(d) IDs
(e) URLs

10. The extensions .gov, .edu, .mil, and .net are c

(a) mail to addresses
(b) add-ons
(c) domain codes
(d) DNSs
(e) e-mail targets

11. Software that is actively utilised by end-users (like Word or Photoshop) is called

(a) actionware
(b) operating system
(c) system software
(d) driver
(e) application software

12. Using a ............ helps to place an image into a live video conference.

(a) printer
(b) digital camera
(c) video camera
(d) webcam
(e) scanner

13. Programs designed to perform specific tasks related to managing computer resources are called

(a) operating system
(b) helper software
(c) system software
(d) application software
(e) utility programs

14. A rectangular area on a computer screen that can contain a document, program or messages is referred to as a (n)

(a) field
(b) opening
(c) window
(d) tuplet
(e) cell

15. The storage locations in the internal storage of a CPU are called

(a) reference points
(b) addresses
(c) contents
(d) mask
(e) locations

16. Of the following types of computers, which is the most powerful?

(a) Laptop
(b) Mainframe computer
(c) Minicomputer
(d) Supercomputer
(e) Microcomputer

17. An input device, which can read characters directly from an ordinary piece of paper, is

(a) OMR
(b) POS
(c) OCR
(d) MSI
(e) CD

18. The radian of a number system

(a) has nothing to do with digit position value
(b) equals the number of its distinct counting digits
(c) is more than the number of its distinctcounting digits
(d) is always an even number
(e) is variable

19. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) passwords are case sensitive.
(b) passwords are not echoed on the screen for security resasons.
(c) A good password should be no more than six characters long.
(d) password is a secret code that authenticates a person to the computer.
(e) passwords should be changed frequently

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IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject : Quantitative Aptitude

1. A sold an article with 10% loss on the cost price. He bought the article at a discount of 20% on the labelled price. What would have been the percentage loss had he bought it at the labelled price?

(a) 34
(b) 18
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 28
(e) 16

Directions (Q. Nos. 2-6) Refer to the line graph and answer the given questions.

Data Related to Income and Expenditure (In Rs. Hundred) of a Businessman during 7 Years

Note

· Profit = Income – Expenditure
· Loss = Expenditure – Income
· Percent Profit = (Profit/Expenditure) × 100
· Percent Loss = (Loss/Expenditure) × 100

2. What is the average profit earned by the businessman in 2001, 2003, 2004, 2006 and 2007 together?

(a) Rs. 27400
(b) Rs. 28800
(c) Rs. 29200
(d) Rs. 26800
(e) Rs. 28400

3. What is the percent loss incurred by the businessman in 2002 and 2005 together?

 

4. The respective ratio of expenditure of the businessman in 2003 and 2008 was 7 : 13. If the end earned a profit of 19% in 2008, what was his income in that particular year?

(a) Rs. 94060
(b) Rs. 93720
(c) Rs. 92820
(d) Rs. 90560
(e) Rs. 88760

5. What is the approximate percent profit earned by the businessman in 2004 and 2007 together?

(a) 73
(b) 79
(c) 77
(d) 69
(e) 64

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IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject : English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Which of the phrases given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer.

1. Rich mineral resources and the government present willing to build infrastructure will attract plenty of foreign investment.

(a) government willingly present
(b) government presence is willing
(c) government is present but willing
(d) present government’s willingness
(e) No correction required

2. One of the city’s advantages including a good education system, attractive quality of life and a good transport system which can cope with its rising population.

(a) One of the city’s advantages include
(b) Some of the city’s advantages include
(c) The city has advantages included
(d) Many of the city’s advantages are included
(e) No correction required

3. Regulators in America have plans to increase the amount of capital that its eight largest banks can held and banks will have until 2018 to comply.

(a) increased the amount
(b) increase in the amount
(c) which increases the amount
(d) by increasing amounts
(e) No correction required

4. If we revise the school curriculum, colleges will not only get more quality of students but companies will also get skilled employees.

(a) most quality students
(b) good quality of the student
(c) students of best qualities
(d) better quality students
(e) No correction required

5. By running small dairy farms and selling the milk to factories, the women of the village takes care the needs of their families.

(a) woman of the village caring for
(b) woman of a village will care
(c) women of the village take care of
(d) village women taking care of
(e) No correction required

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Rearrange the given six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaning paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. So while these partnerships are at times messy and controversial, on balance, they are a force for good.

B. NGOs help compaines reach and meet the needs of parts of the market that companies do not understand, such as the marginalised, where NGOs have unique insight.

C. But before concluding that such partnerships are valueless it is worth recalling the reasons why they took off in the first place.

D. For NGOs too, partnerships with firms have their uses, with companies providing money and ways of influencing the mindandbehaviour of millions of people.

E. There are many opponents to the close ties between companies and charities (Non-governmental Organisations-NGOs).

F. NGOs are also better than companies at attracting and retaining idealistic talent, who sometimes end up even being absorbed by the companies to administer the policies they had advocated when they worked for NGOs.

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Institute of Banking Personnel Selection

Common Written Examination (CWE)

Exam Paper of IBPS Clerical Cadre Held On 15.12.2013 (General Awareness)

Q.1 ICC LG Choice Award?

Q.2. Export Credit ?

Q.3. Mayanmar old name?

Q.4 BSBDA ?

Q.5 CRR in the form of?

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. Which of the following is not true about computer files?

(1) They are collections of data saved to a storage medium.
(2) Every file has a filename.
(3) A file extension is established by the user to indicate the computer on which it was created
(4) All files contain data.
(5) None of these

 2. Which of the following is not an example of hardware?

(1) WORD
(2) Printer
(3) Monitor
(4) Mouse
(5) Scanner

3. Which of the following is a secondary memory device?

(1) Keyboard
(2) Disk
(3) ALU
(4) Mouse
(5) Printer

4. The result of a formula in a cell is the

(1) label
(2) value
(3) range
(4) displayed value
(5) None of these

 5. Which of the following is not a storage medium?

(1) hard disk
(2) flash drive
(3) DVD
(4) CD
(5) monitor

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