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(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Reasoning) Held on: 02-01-2011



(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Reasoning) Held on: 02-01-2011



Q.1-5. Study the following information to answer the given questions:

L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circle facing the centre. O is sitting between L and R. Q is second to the right of R and P is second to the right of Q. N is not an immediate neighbour of R.

Q.1. Which of the following is not correct?
(A) R is second to the right of L
(B) M is second to the left of N
(C) L sits exactly between O and P
(D) P and N are immediate neighbours
(E) P sits to the opposite of N

Q.2. How many person’s are seated between L and Q if we count anti-clockwise from L to Q?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four

Q.3. Who is the immediate left of P?
(A) L
(B) N
(C) M
(D) O
(E) None of these

A, B, C, X, Y, Z are seated on a straight line facing North. C is third to the right of Z and B sits second to the right of C. X sits to the immediate right of A.

Q.4. Which of the following represents the parts of persons sitting exactly in the middle of the line?
(A) XB
(B) ZB
(C) BX
(D) XC
(E) XY

Q.5. What is X’s position with respect to Z?
(A) Immediate right to Z
(B) Second to the left
(C) Third to the right
(D) Second to the right
(E) None of these

Q.6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(A) ZA
(B) XC
(C) CY
(D) YB
(E) XA

Q.7. How many persons are seated between A and C?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None of these

Q.8. If A : X and Z : A, then Y :
(A) Y
(B) B
(C) A
(D) X
(E) None of these

In a certain Code ‘8 2 9’ means ‘how art thou,’ ‘9 5 8’ means ‘thou art good’ and ‘1 5 8 7 3’ means ‘thy good and thou bad’.

Q.9. What may be the possible code for ‘thy’?
(A) 1 or 7
(B) 7
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 1 or 7 or 3

Q.10. What is the code for ‘thou’?
(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) None of these

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(Download) Corporation Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Reasoning Ability & Computer Competency) Held on: 16-01-2010

(Download) Corporation Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Reasoning Ability & Computer Competency) Held on: 16-01-2010

Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of  them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The  ones who sit at the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.

P who face the centre sits third to the right of V. T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Q.1. Who sits second to the left of Q ?
(1) V
(2) P
(3) T
(4) Y
(5) Cannot be determined

Q.2. What is the position of T with respect to V ?
(1) Fourth to the left
(2) Second to the left
(3) Third to the left
(4) Third to the right
(5) Second to the right

Q.3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the does not belong to that group ?
(1) R
(2) W
(3) V
(4) S
(5) Y

Q.4. Which of the following will come in place the question mark based upon the given seating arrangement ? WP TR QW RS ?
(1) YT
(2) VY
(3) VQ
(4) PY
(5) QV

Q.5. Which of the following is true regarding R ?
(1) R is an immediate neighbour of V
(2) R faces the centre
(3) R sits exactly between T and S
(4) Q sits third to left of R
(5) None is true

In a certain code ‘a friend of mine’ is written as ‘4 9 1 6’ ‘ mine lots of metal’ is written as ‘3 1 0 9’ and ‘a piece of metal’ is written as ‘7 1 6 3’.

Q.6. What is the code for ‘piece’ ?
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 1
(4) 7
(5) cannot be determined

Q.7. What does ’9’ stand for ?
(1) of
(2) mine
(3) friend
(4) lots
(5) metal

Q.8. Which of the following may represent ‘a pleasure of mine ?
(1) 6 3 0 9
(2) 5 2 1 6
(3) 9 2 1 6
(4) 3 6 9 4
(5) 5 0 4 1

Q.9. What does ’O’ stand for ?
(1) mine
(2) metal
(3) of
(4) lots
(5) a

Q.10. ‘8 7 3’ would mean —
(1) a metal piece
(2) metal for friend
(3) piece of advise
(4) friend of mine
(5) large metal piece

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(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (English Language) Held on: 02-01-2011

(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (English Language) Held on: 02-01-2011

Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the word / phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it  grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.

Q.1. The actress, who was in the city for the press conference of her dance reality show, says the chose the show because of her passionate for dance.
(1) begin passion in dance
(2) passionate for dancing
(3) being passionate in dancing
(4) passion of dance
(5) No correction required

Q.2. Despite of several representations and reminders, the district administration had not taken any action to stem the systematic encroachment of water bodies.
(1) Because of
(2) Despite
(3) Although
(4) Inspite
(5) No correction required

Q.3. While it is well-known that there are large-scale leakages from the public distribution system across the country, there are many states which have manage successful reform the public  distribution system and deliver food grain to the poor.
(1) managed to successfully reform
(2) managed successful reforms
(3) managing successfully to reform
(4) managed for successfully reforming
(5) No correction required

Q.4. The four-day workshop is being conducted for gear up administration to the changes that will follow with the implementation of the Right to  Compulsory and Free Education Act 2009.
(1) so geared up
(2) to gear up
(3) for geared up
(4) to gearing up
(5) No correction required

Q.5. The court refused to provide relieve to the petitioner and stated that plying of all diesel vehicles was banned with immediate effect.
(1) provision of relief
(2) providing of relieve
(3) provide any relief
(4) provide relieving
(5) No correction required

Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Building of these structures requires a lot of fuel to be burnt which emits a large amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
(B) The major source of carbon dioxide is power plants.
(C) Another twenty percent of carbon dioxide emitted in the atmosphere comes from burning of gasoline in the engines of vehicles.
(D) Buildings, both commercial and residential represent in the atmosphere comes from burning of gasoline in the engines of vehicles.
(E) The major cause of global warming is the emission of green house gases like carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide etc. into the atmosphere.
(F) These power plants emit large amounts of carbon dioxide produced from burning of fossil fuels for the purpose of electricity generation.

Q.6. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B (5) A

Q.7. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D (5) F

Q.8. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Q.9. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Q.10. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B
(5) A

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(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (General Awareness) Held on: 02-01-2011



(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (General Awareness) Held on: 02-01-2011



Q.1. On which one of the following ‘Head of Expenses’, the expenses of the Government of India are highest?
(1) Food subsidy
(2) Fertilizer subsidy
(3) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(4) Maintenance of national highways
(5) Oil subsidy

Q.2. Which one of the following foreign agencies will assist the municipal agencies to improve quality of municipal school through its School Excellence Programmes (SPE)?
(1) IMF
(2) UNDP
(3) UNICEF
(4) ADB
(5) None of these

Q.3. Which of the following carries out ‘Open Market Operations?
(1) Financial Ministry
(2) External Affairs Ministry
(3) Reserve Bank of India
(4) Planning Commission
(5) Ministry of Commerce

Q.4. Who among the following Minister will hold telecom portfolio in addition to his own portfolio till next reallotment?
(1) Kamal Nath
(2) Kapil Sibal
(3) Pranab Mukherjee
(4) Mamta Banerjee
(5) None of these

Q.5. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, the RBI issues directives to the Banks in India?
(1) RBI Act
(2) Banking Regulation Act
(3) Essential Commodities Act
(4) RBI and Banking Regulation Act
(5) None of these

Q.6. Which one of the following tools is used by RBI for selective credit control?
(1) It advises banks to lend against certain commodities
(2) It advises bank to recall the loans for advances against certain commodities
(3) It advises banks to charge higher rate of interest for advance against certain commodities
(4) It discourages certain kinds of lending by assigning higher risk weights to loans it deems undesirable
( 5) None of these

Q.7. For which one of the following Loan Products ‘teaser loans’ are offered by Banks?
(1) Education Loans
(2) Commercial Loans
(3) Loans against security of gold
(4) Retail Trade Loans
(5) Home Loans

Q.8. The Commonwealth Games 2010 were held in Delhi from October 3 to 14, 2010. Who amongst the following picked up the Game’s first gold medal?
(1) Augustina Nwaokolo
(2) Ravinder Singh
(3) Azhar Hussain
(4) Carol Huynh
(5) None of these

Q.9. In which one of the following cities was the recent meet of G-20 Countries organised?
(1) Tokyo
(2) Seoul
(3) London
(4) Beijing
(5) Singapore

Q.10. As per recent newspaper reports, which one of the following countries (among the given) has highest literacy rate?
(1) India
(2) Sri Lanka
(3) China
(4) Vietnam

(5) Bangladesh

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(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Quantitative Aptitude) Held on: 02-01-2011



(Download) Indian Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Quantitative Aptitude)

Held on: 02-01-2011



 Q.1. Mrudul invested an amount of Rs. 29,500/- in order to start a business. Shalaka joined her 4 months later by investing an amount of Rs. 33,500/-. If the business earned a profit of Rs. 1,20,575/- at the end of two years, what was Mrudul’s share of the profit?
(1) Rs. 60,725/-
(2) Rs. 61,950/-
(3) Rs. 59,250/-
(4) Rs. 58,625/-
(5) None of these

Q.2. What is the least number that can be added to the number 1020 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 65
(2) 12
(3) 59
(4) 4 (5) None of these

Q.3. Philip, Tom and Brad start jogging around a circular field and complete a single round in 18, 22 and 30 seconds respectively. In how much time will they  meet again at the starting point?
(1) 8 mins. 15 secs.
(2) 21 mins
(3) 16 mins. 30 secs.
(4) 12 mins.
(5) None of these

Q. 4. What total amount would Mithilesh get at the three years if he invests an amount of Rs. 11,200/- in a scheme which offers simple interest @ 8.5 p. c. p. a. for three years?
(1) Rs. 14,056/-
(2) Rs. 14,348/-
(3) Rs. 13,852/-
(4) Rs. 15,064/-
(5) None of these

Q.5. Prasad sold his work for Rs. 1,850/- and earned a profit of 25 percent. At what price did Prasad buy the work tools?
(1) Rs. 1,360/-
(2) Rs. 1,300/-
(3) Rs. 1,240/-
(4) Rs. 1,480/-
(5) None of these

A building consists of men and women who spend their leisure time in watching movies, learning dance and learning singing. 8 men, who form ten percent of the total number of men in the building,  learn to dance. The total number of women in the building is 62.5 percent of total number of men in  the building. Twenty four percent of the total number of women learns to sing. One-fifth of the  total number of women watches movies. The ratio of the number of men watching movies to the number of women doing the same is 13 : 2 respectively.

Q.6. What is the number of women learning dance?
(1) 28
(2) 22
(3) 30
(4) 24
(5) None of these

Q7. The number of men who like watching movies is what percent of the total number of men in the building?
(1) 79.75
(2) 83.45
(3) 81.25
(4) 72.15
(5) None of these

Q.8. What is the total number of members (men and women together) learning singing?
(1) 21
(2) 13
(3) 18
(4) 15
(5) None of these

Q.9. What is the respective ratio of the number of men learning dance to the number of women doing the same?
(1) 8 : 11
(2) 5 : 9
(3) 2 : 7
(4) 3 : 5
(5) None of these

Q.10. The total number of women in the building is approximately what percent of the total number of members (men and women together) in the building?
(1) 45
(2) 33
(3) 42
(4) 27
(5) 38

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(Download) Corporation Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Quantitative Aptitude) Held on: 16-01-2010



(Download) Corporation Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (Quantitative Aptitude)



Held on: 16-01-2010

1. 15 21 39 77 143 (?)
(1) 243
(2) 240
(3) 253
(4) 245
(5) None of these

2. 33 39 57 87 129 (?)
(1) 183
(2) 177
(3) 189
(4) 199
(5) None of these

3. 15 19 83 119 631 (?)
(1) 731
(2) 693
(3) 712
(4) 683
(5) None of these

4. 19 26 40 68 124 (?)
(1) 246
(2) 238
(3) 236
(4) 256
(5) None of these

5. 43 69 58 84 73 (?)
(1) 62
(2) 98
(3) 109
(4) 63
(5) None of these

6. The respective ratio between the present ages of Ram and Rakesh is 6 : 11. Four years ago the ratio of their ages was 1 : 2 respectively. What will be Rakesh’s age after five years?
(1) 45 years
(2) 29 years
(3) 49 years
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

7. The circumference of two circles is 88 metres and 220 metres respectively. What is the difference between the area of the larger circle and the smaller circle?
(1) 3422 sq.mtrs.
(2) 3242 sq.mtrs.
(3) 3244 sq.mtrs.
(4) 3424 sq.mtrs.
(5) None of these

8. Pradeep invested 20% more than Mohit. Mohit invested 10% less than Raghu. If the total sum of their investment is Rs. 17,880/-, how much amount did Raghu invest?
(1) Rs. 6,000/-
(2) Rs. 8,000/-
(3) Rs. 7,000/-
(4) Rs. 5,000/-
(5) None of these

9. Average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh is 63. Rahul’s score is 15 less than Ajay and 10 more than Manish. If Ajay  scored 30 marks more than the average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh, what is the sum of Manish’s and Suresh’s scores?
(1) 120
(2) 111
(3) 117
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

10. Fifty three percent of a number is 358 less than the square of 26. What is the value of three-fourth of 23 percent of that number?
(1) 101
(2) 109.5
(3) 113
(4) 103.5
(5) None of these

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(Download) Corporation Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (General Awareness) Held on: 16-01-2010



(Download) Corporation Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (General Awareness) Held on: 16-01-2010



Q.1. As per the decision taken by the govt. of India now the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended  to all the districts of India. This means it will now be applicable to about —
(1) 200 districts
(2) 300 districts
(3) 400 districts
(4) 500 districts
(5) 600 districts

Q.2. Which of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana ?
(1) Rs. 10,000/-
(2) Rs. 20,000/-
(3) Rs. 30,000/-
(4) Rs. 40,000/-
(5) Rs. 50,000/-

Q.3. Which of the following banks has taken over the centurion Bank of Panjab ?
(1) ICICI Bank
(2) IDBI Bank
(3) HDFC Bank
(4) AXIS Bank
(5) None of these

Q.4. Unique Identification Authority of India will set up data base for —
(1) Identity and biometrics details of Indian residents
(2) Identity and biometrics details of Indian citizens
(3) Identity and biometrics details of person’s residents in India or visiting India
(4) All the above
(5) None of these

Q.5. The biggest Public Sector undertaking in the country is —
(1) Iron & steel plants
(2) Roadways
(3) Railways
(4) Airways
(5) None of these

Q.6. Which of the following is Horticulture Crop?
(1) Paddy
(2) Wheat
(3) Mango
(4) Bajara
(5) None of these

Q.7. Which of the following nation is considered the originator of the concept of micro Finance ?
(1) India
(2) Bangladesh
(3) South Africa
(4) USA
(5) None of these

Q.8. Very often we read in news papers about 3G or 3rd Generation technology. This is a set of standards used for which of the following purposes ?
(1) To combat climatic changes
(2) Production of Nuclear Energy
(3) Film Production
(4) Mobile Telecommunications
(5) All of these

Q.9. What is the full form of ‘ULIP’, the term which was the news recently ?
(1) Universal Life & Investment Plan
(2) Unit Loan & Insurance Plan
(3) Universal Loan & Investment Plan
(4) Uniformly Loaded Investment Plan
(5) Unit Linked Insurance Plan

Q.10. The main function of I. M. F. is to —
(1) Finance Investment loans to developing countries
(2) Act as a private sector lending arm of the World Bank
(3) Help to solve balance of payment problems of member countries
(4) Arrange international deposits from banks
(5) None of these

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Download) Corporation Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (English Language) Held on: 16-01-2010



(Download) Corporation Bank P.O Exam Solved Paper (English Language) Held on: 16-01-2010



Q.1-5. Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the paper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) “What a waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(B) “Speak to her”, he said , “She’s into books”,
(C) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticed my noticing her.
(D) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a  “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.
(E) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.

Q.1, Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Q.2, Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Q.3, Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Q.4, Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Q.5, Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Bank/Organisation: 
Subject: 
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(Download) Union Bank of India P.O Exam Solved Paper (General Awareness) Held on: 09-01-2011



(Download) Union Bank of India P.O Exam Solved Paper (General Awareness)

Held on: 09-01-2011



1. The eleventh ‘five year plan’ of India is for the five years ranging from—
(1) 2009-2014
(2) 2008-2013
(3) 2007-2012
(4) 2006-2011
(5) None of these

2. DSCR indicates the ability of a company to—
(1) meet its current liabilities
(2) service its shareholders
(3) meet its long term debt obligations
(4) raise further capital
(5) None of these

3. Ah IPO is—
(1) initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders
(2) an offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the time to the public
(3) used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(4) a book building process
(5) None of these

4. A decreasing current ratio indicates—
(1) a stable liquidity
(2) an increasing liquidity
(3) a strained liquidity
(4) satisfactory current solvency
(5) none of these

5. Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on—
(1) the age of the company
(2) the location of the company
(3) the activity undertaken by the company
(4) the credibility and the valuation of the company
(5) the existing profitability of the company

6. The synagogue is generally—
(1) an epic
(2) a religion
(3) Jewish House of Prayer
(4) the Parsi temple
(5) a palace

7. Deuce is a term used in—
(1) Polo
(2) lawn tennis
(3) badminton
(4) boxing
(5) volleyball
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, e
(4) a, b, e
(5) b, c, e

8. ISI the intelligence agency of—
(1) United Kingdom
(2) Unites States of America
(3) Israel
(4) Pakistan
(5) India

9. Air Traffic Controller’s jobs involves—
(1) control of air traffic in and within vicinity of airport
(2) control of movement of air traffic between altitude, sectors and control centres
(3) following established procedures and policies for air traffic control
(4) control of commercial airline flights according to government regulations
(5) to authorize and regulate commercial airline flights
(1) (1), (2)
(2) (2), (3)
(3) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(4) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
(5) (3), (4), (5)

10. Animal assisted therapy is employed in—
(1) Operations
(2) ICU
(3) old age homes
(4) training animals
(5) natural healing

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Bank/Organisation: 
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(Download) Union Bank of India P.O Exam Solved Paper (Quantitative Aptitude) Held on: 09-01-2011



(Download) Union Bank of India P.O Exam Solved Paper (Quantitative Aptitude)

Held on: 09-01-2011



1. 117 389 593 627 (?)
(1) 654
(2) 640
(3) 634
(4) 630
(5) None of these

2. 7 21 23 51 103 (?)
(1) 186
(2) 188
(3) 185
(4) 187
(5) None of these

3. 18 27 49 84 132 (?)
(1) 190
(2) 183
(3) 180
(4) 193
(5) None of these

4. 33 43 65 99 145 (?)
(1) 201
(2) 203
(3) 205
(4) 211
(5) None of these

5. 655 439 314 250 223 (?)
(1) 205
(2) 210
(3) 195
(4) 190
(5) None of these

6. Veena’s monthly income is equal to the cost of 34 kg of nuts. Cost of 10 kg of nuts is equal to the cost of 20 kgs of apples. If cost of 12 kg of apples is Rs. 1500/-. What is Veena’s annual salary? (At some places annual income and in some place monthly income is given)
(1) Rs. 1 lac 20 thousand
(2) Rs. 1 lac 2 thousand
(3) Rs. 2 lac 20 thousand
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

7. Rohit has some 50 paisa coins, some 2 rupees coins, some 1 rupee and some 5 rupee coins. The value of all of coins is Rs. 50/-. Number of 2 rupee coin is 5 more than the 5 rupee coins. 50 paisa coins are double in number than 1 rupee coin. Value of 50 paisa coins and 1 rupee coins is Rs. 28/-. How many 2 rupee coins does he have?
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 7
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

8. Puneet scored 175 marks in a test and failed by 35 marks. If the passing percentage of the test is 35 percent, what are the maximum marks of the test?
(1) 650
(2) 700
(3) 750
(4) 600
(5) None of these

9. The length of a rectangle is twice the diameter of a circle. The circumference of the circle is equal to the area of a square of side 22 cm. What is the breadth of the rectangle if its perimeter is 668 cm?
(1) 24 cm
(2) 26 cm
(3) 52 cm
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

10. 4 girls can do a piece of work in 8 days, 3 boys can do the same piece of work in 9 days, 7 men do the same piece of work in 2 days and 5 women can do the same piece of work in 4 days. Who is least efficient?
(1) Boys
(2) Girls
(3) Women
(4) Men
(5) Boys and men both

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(Download) Union Bank of India P.O Exam Solved Paper (Reasoning) Held on: 09-01-2011



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Held on: 09-01-2011



1. How many such pairs of letter are there in the word FREQUENT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between in the English alphabetical series? 
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

2. In a class of 35 children, Ameya’s rank sixth from the top. Annie is seven ranks below Amerya. What is Annie’s rank for the bottom?
(1) 22
(2) 20
(3) 19
(4) 23
(5) Cannot be determined

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Lens
(2) Shutter
(3) Film
(4) Camera
(5) Zoom

4. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series? AB BE DH ? KQ
(1) HL
(2) GL
(3) GK
(4) EI
(5) IM

5. If two is subtracted from each odd digit and if two is added to each even digit in the number 9275436, what will be the difference between the digits which are third from the right and second from the left of the new number thus formed?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) 1
(5) 5

6. The position of how many alphabets will remain unchanged if each of the alphabets in the word FORGET is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

7. Which of the following groups of alphabets should replace the blank space so that the group of alphabets, given in bold, follow a logical pattern from the preceding and the following group of alphabets?
a b _ y
a b c _ x w
a b c d e v _
(1) z, d, u
(2) d, x, u
(3) c, d, u
(4) z, y, w
(5) c, d, w

8. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘P < F’ be definitely false?
(1) F = B > P M
(2) P > B M = F
(3) P B < F M
(4) B < P M < F
(5) None of these

If ‘A × B’ means A is the son of B.
If ‘A + B’ means A is the father of B.
If ‘A > B’ means A is the daughter of B.
If ‘A < B’ means A is the wife of B.

9. Which of the following pairs of people represent first cousins with regard to the relations given in the expressions, if it is provided that A is the sister of J: ‘L > V < J + P’ and ‘S × A < D + F < E + K’
(1) LP
(2) SP
(3) SK
(4) SF
(5) cannot be determined

10. What will come in the place of the question mark, if it is provided that M is the grandmother of F in the expression: ‘F × R < S ? M’
(1) >
(2) <
(3) +
(4) ×
(5) cannot be determined

 

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(Download) Union Bank of India P.O Exam Solved Paper (English Language) Held on: 09-01-2011



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Held on: 09-01-2011



Read the following interview and answer the given questions based on that. Some words have been printed in bold to help you locate them white answering some of the questions.

A pioneering new book, Gender and Green Governance, explores a central question: If women adequate representation of forestry institution, would make a difference to them the communities and forests as a national resource? Interview with the author. Why has access to forests been such a conflictridden issue?

This is not surprising. Forests constitute not just community and national wealth, but global wealth. But for millions, forests are also critical for livelihoods and their daily lives. Your first book, Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes (1986), was about forest. Is there an evolution of argument here?

Yes indeed. In Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes, I had argued that social forestry, with its-down implementation and focus on commercial species, was neither ‘social’ nor ‘forestry’, and would protect neither forests nor village livelihoods. The answer, I argues, lay in allowing forest communities to mange local forests. Finally, in 1990, India launched the joint forest management programme and Nepal also started community forestry. So I decided to see for myself how community forestry was actually doing.

Between 1995 and 1999, I travelled extensively across India and Nepal and found a paradox. Forests were indeed becoming greener but women’s problem of firewood shortages persisted and in many cases had become more acute. Also, despite their high stakes in forest, women continued to be largely excluded from forest management. I coined the term “participatory  exclusions” to describe this. However, the current book is less about women’s exclusion. I ask: What if women were present in forest governance? What difference would that make? But has this question not been raised before? Economists researching environment collective action have paid little attention to gender. Scholars from other disciplines focusing on gender and governance have been concerned mainly with women’s near absence from governance institutions. The presumption is that once women are present all good things will follow. But can we assume this? No. Rural women relationship with forest is complex. On the one hand, their everyday dependence on forests for firewood, fodder, etc, creates a strong stake in conversation. On the other, the same dependence can compel them to extract heavily from forest. As one landless women told me: “Of course, it hurts me to cut a green branch but what do I do if my children are hungry?” Taking an agnostic position, I decide to test varied propositions, controlling for otherfactors.

What did you find? First, women’s greater presence enhance enhances their effective voice in decision-making. And there is a critical mass effect: If forest management groups have 25-33 per cent female members in their executive committees it significantly increases the likelihood of women makes a particular difference. When present in sufficient number they are more likely to attend meetings and voice their concerns than landed women. So what matters is not just including more women, but more poor women. Second, and unexpectedly, groups with more women typically made stricter forest use rules. Why is this the case? Mainly because they receive poorer forest from the forest department. To regenerate these they have to sacrifice their immediate needs. Women from household with  some land have some fallback. But remarkably even in groups with more landless women, although extraction is higher, they still balance self-interest with conservation goals, when placed in decision-making positions. 

Third, groups with more women outperform other groups in improving forest conditions, despite getting poorer forest. Involving women substantially improves protection and conflict resolution, helps the use of their knowledge of local biodiversity, and raises children’s awareness about conservation.

1. What was author’s view on “Social Forestry Scheme”?
(1) A great success
(2) Beneficial for villagers
(3) Neither good nor bad
(4) Should have been implemented as ‘top-down’
(5) None of these

2. Which of the following is one of the reason of forest being a conflict-ridden issue?
(1) Some countries have larger forest cover
(2) There is less awareness about global warming
(3) High dependence of many of forests
(4) Less representation of women
(5) Less representation of local women

3. The author is advocating inclusion of—
(1) More landless women
(2) More landed women
(3) More women irrespective of their financial status
(4) Local people
(5) Younger women in the age group of 25-33 years

4. Which of the following best describes “participatory exclusion”, as used in the interview?
(1) Outside support
(2) Overdependence
(3) Benefitting without self interest
(4) Contributing with profits
(5) None of these

5. In the second question the interviewer asked- Is more an evolution of argument here?’ Which of the following best describes that?
(1) From Barren to Greener slopes
(2) From local group to local groups with more women
(3) A fine balance between conservation and commercial forestry
(4) Too-down approach to Community forestry
(5) Participatory excision to Greener slopes

6. What percent of female members tin the Executive Committee for Forest Management is being recommended by the author?
(1) Less than 25%
(2) More than 25%
(3) 100%
(4) About 75%
(5) None of these

7. Why does author say, ‘Rural women’s relationship with forests is complex’?
(1) Dependence forces them to extracts and also have concern for conservation
(2) If they project forests, their livelihood is severely affected
(3) Poor women have been excluded from forest management
(4) They cannot be asked to restore forests which are critical for them
(5) Greener forests do not meet the requirement of firewood

8. Landless women, when in decision making role—
(1) extract much more from forest
(2) improve their own financial status
(3) do not care for forest
(4) are able to need conservation objectives as well as their own interest
(5) fulfill their own interest at the cost of conservation goals

9. When more women are involved, which of the following also happens?
(1) They get poorer forests
(2) They come to know about conservation needs
(3) Children become more aware abut conservation
(4) They are able to devote more time to conversation
(5) They get a more comprehensive understanding of local biodiversity

10. controlling
(1) holding in check
(2) increasing
(3) decreasing
(4) passing
(5) ignoring

 

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(Download) Union Bank of India P.O Exam Solved Paper (Computer Knowledge) Held on: 09-01-2011



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Held on: 09-01-2011



1. You can keep your personal files/folders in—
(1) My folder
(2) My Document
(3) My Files
(4) My Text
(5) None of these

2. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into—
(1) Wed sites
(2) information
(3) programs
(4) objects
(5) None of these

3. A directory within a directory is called—
(1) Mini Directory
(2) Junior Directory
(3) Part Directory
(4) Sub Directory
(5) None of these

4. A complier translates a program written in a high-level language into—
(1) Machine language
(2) An algorithm
(3) A debugged program
(4) Java
(5) None o these

5. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test—
(1) RAM test
(2) disk drive test
(3) memory test
(4) power-on self-test
(5) None of these

6. A _______ is a unique name that you give to a file information—
(1) device letter
(2) folder
(3) filename
(4) filename extension
(5) None of these

7. Hardware includes ________.
(1) all devices used to input data into a computer
(2) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes
(3) the computer and all the devices connected to it that used to input and output data
(4) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory, and storage
(5) None of these

8. A _______ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(1) programming language
(2) syntax
(3) programming structure
(4) logic chart
(5) None of these

9. All the deleted files go to—
(1) Recycle Bin
(2) Task Bar
(3) Tool Bar
(4) My Computer
(5) None of these

10. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is—
(1) multiprogramming
(2) multitasking
(3) time-sharing
(4) multiprocessing
(5) None of these

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Solved Paper: SBI Management Executive Exam Paper (English)

Read the following passage to answer the given questions.

We tend to be harsh on our bureaucracy, but nowhere do citizens enjoy dealing with their government. They do it because they have to. But that doesn’t mean that the experience has to be dismal. Now there is a new wind blowing through government departments around the world, which could take some of this pain away. In the next five years it may well transform not only the way public services are delivered but also the fundamental relationship between government and citizens. Not surprisingly, it is the Internet that is behind it. After e-commerce and e-business, the next revolution may be e-governance.

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These are the General Awareness Questions of SBI (State Bank of India) Previous year exams. Keep visiting for the next slot of questions.

Q1. Which of the following car companies in India announced a special savings scheme________ ‘Happy Customer Offer’ - in December 2007?

(a) Hyundai
(b) Tata
(c) Ford
(d) Maruti Suzuki
Answer: (d) Maruti Suzuki

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101. Who among the following is one of the recipients of the Nobel Peace Prize – 2011?

(a) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
(b) Jules A. Hoffmann
(c) Bruce A. Beutler
(d) Adam G. Riess
(e) Tomas Transtromer

102. The Food Security Bill – 2011 which is the process of becoming an Act, divides the entire population of the country into two groups. Which of the following are these two groups?

(a) Below poverty line and Above poverty line
(b) General population and Excluded population
(c) Included households and Excluded households
(d) Covered under PDS and Not Covered under PDS
(e) General households and priority households

103. RBI has recently deregulated the rates of interest to be provided by various Banks to their depositors/customers with effect from 25-10-2011 on their _____ accounts?

(a) Time Deposit
(b) Saving bank
(c) Loan
(d) Fixed deposit
(e) Current

104. Which of the following is the main advantage of “ASBA” with the applicants for share allotment?

(a) ASBA applicant has got secured allotment of shares
(b) ASBA applicant has got certain preference in allotment of shares as compared to general applicants
(c) ASBA applicant need not remit the fund for allotment of shares, he/she will do so after shares are allotted to him/her.
(d) ABSA Applicants deposit/OD account is not debited, only the funds are blocked for the same and he/she continues to avail interest till the shares are allotted to him/her.
(e) None of these

105. “Many people die in Deadly Games in Egypt”: Was the news in almost all major newspaper in February 2012. Which of the following statements is the correct representation of ‘Deadly Game’ given in the headlines?

(a) A riot broke out during a Football Match in Egypt in which many people were killed
(b) Police had to open fire on a Mob including some genuine ticked holders, who were not allowed to enter the Stadium even after the start of the match
(c) Egypt is famous for its dangerous games of ‘Bull fight’ and ‘Martial Game’; Many participants die every year in such games
(d) Some terrorist opened fire during a football match. About 10000 people were killed in the incident
(e) The defeat in the game is considered equivalent to death

106. Mullaperiyar Dam which was recently in news, is located in which of the following States?

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Kerala
(e) Tamil Nadu

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1. In a certain code ‘TREAMWORK’ is written as ‘NBFUJQNV’ and ‘SOME’ is written as ‘PTDL’. How is ‘PERSON’ written in that code?

(a) QDOOPT
(b) QDOMNR
(c) SFQMNR
(d) SFQOPT
(e) None of these

2. How many such pairs of letters are three in the word ‘SUBSTANCE’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabets?

(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

3. How many meaningful English words, not ending with ‘D’ can be made with the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth letters of the word ‘STEADFAST’ using each letter only once in each word?

(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

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(Download) IBPS : Recruitment of Specialist Officers Exam Paper Held On 11.03.2012 - English Language



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In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggest one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. (51) over the world, rights related to information technology that are already legally  recognized are daily being violated, (52) in the name of economic advancement, political stability or for personal greed and interest. Violates of these rights have (53) new problems in human social systems, such as the digital divide, cybercrime, digital security and privacy concerns, all which above (54) people’s lives either directly or indirectly. It is important that countries come up with the guidelines for action to (55) the incidence of malicious attacks on the confidentiality, integrity and availability of electronic data and system, computer-related crimes, content related offenses and violations of intellectual property rights. (56), threats to critical infrastructure and national interest arising from the use of the internet of criminal and terrorist activities are of growing (57). The harm incurred to businesses, governments and individuals in those countries in which the internet is used (58), is gaining in (59) and importance, while in other countries cybercrime threatens the application of information and communication technology for governmental services, health care, trade, and banking. As users start losing (60) in online transactions and business, the opportunity costs may become substantial.

51.

(a) Entire
(b) Lot
(c) Great
(d) All
(e) Much

52.

(a) scarcely
(b) whether
(c) and
(d) for
(e) hardly

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "Reasoning"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Reasoning


Directions (Q. 1-4) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
Input : tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn
Step I : 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt
StepII : 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn
Step III : 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high
Step IV : 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar
Step V : 56 48 32 28 13 ta99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise
Step VI : 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall
Step VII : 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise
And Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtainied.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)

1. Which step number is the following output?

32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink
(1) StepV (2) Step VI
(3) Step IV (4) Step III
(5) There is no such step.

2. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V?

(1) 14 (2) 92
(3) feet (4) best
(5) why

3. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between ‘feet’ and ‘32’ as they appear in the last step of the output?

(1) One (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five
(5) Seven

4. Which of the following represents the position of ‘why’ in the fourth step?

(1) Eighth from the left
(2) Fifth from the right
(3) Sixth from the left
(4) Fifth from the left
(5) Seventh from the left


Directions (Q. 5-11) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.

  •  B sits second to the left of H’s husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.
  •  D’s daughter sits second to the right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H’s husband.
  •  Only one person sits between A and F. A is father of G. H’s brother D sits on the immediate left of H’s mother. Only one person sits between H’s mother and E.
  •  Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

5. What is the position of A with respect to his mother-in- law?

(1) Immediate left (2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the right
(5) Fourth to the left

6. Who amongst the following is D’s daughter?

(1) B
(2) C
(3) E
(4) G
(5) H

7. What is the position of A with respect to his grand child?

(1) Immediate right
(2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the left

8. How many people sit between G and her uncle?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) F
(2) C
(3) E
(4) H
(5) G

10. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

(1) C is cousin of E.
(2) H and H’s husband are immediate neighbours of each other.
(3) No female is an immediate neighbour of C.
(4) H sits third to the left of her daughter.
(5) Bis mother of H.

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Exam Paper of IBPS Clerical Cadre Held On 15.12.2013 (General Awareness)

Q.1 ICC LG Choice Award?

Q.2. Export Credit ?

Q.3. Mayanmar old name?

Q.4 BSBDA ?

Q.5 CRR in the form of?

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "Quantitative Aptitude"

 

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude


Directions (Q. 51 -55) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

51. 4003 × 77 – 21015 = ? × 116

(1) 2477
(2) 2478
(3) 2467
(4) 2476
(5) None of these

52. [(5Ö7 + Ö7) × (4Ö7 + 8Ö7)] – (19)2 = ?

(1) 143
(2) 72Ö7
(3) 134
(4) 70Ö7
(5) None of these

53. (4444÷ 40) + (645 ÷ 25) + (3991 ÷ 26) = ?

(1) 280.4
(2) 290.4
(3) 295.4
(4) 285.4
(5) None of these

54.

(1) 37
(2) 33
(3) 34
(4) 28
(5) None of these

55.

(1) 303.75
(2) 305.75
(3) 303
(4) 305
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 56-60): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

56.

 8787 ÷ 343 × Ö50=?

(1) 250
(2) 140
(3) 180
(4) 100
(5) 280

57.

(1) 48
(2) 38
(3) 28
(4) 18
(5) 58

58.

of 4011.33 + of 3411.22 = ?

(1) 4810
(2) 4980
(3) 4890
(4) 4930
(5) 4850

59.

23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?

(1) 6460
(2) 6420
(3) 6320
(4) 6630
(5) 6360

60.

 335.01 × 244.99 ÷ 55 = ?

(1) 1490
(2) 1550
(3) 1420
(4) 1590
(5) 1400

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Directions (Q. 61-65) : In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

61.

5531 5506 5425 5304 5135 4910 4621
 

(1) 5531
(2) 5425
(3) 4621
(4) 5135
(5) 5506

62.

 6 7 9 13 26 37 69

(1) 7
(2) 26
(3) 69
(4) 37
(5) 9

63.

1 3 10 36 152 760 4632
(1) 3
(2) 36
(3) 4632
(4) 760 (5) 152

64.

 4 3 9 34 96 219 435
(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 34
(4) 435
(5) 219

65.

 157.5 45 15 6 3 2 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 157.5
(5) 45

Directions (Q. 66-70): Study the following graph and table carefully and answer the questions given below:


Time taken to travel (in hours) by six vehicles on two different days

66. Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on both the days?

(1) Vehicle A
(2) Vehicle C
(3) Vehicle F
(4) Vehicle B
(5) None of these

67. What was the difference between the speed of Vehicle A on Day 1 and the speed of Vehicle C on the same day?

(1) 7 km/hr
(2) 12 km/hr
(3) 11 km/hr
(4) 8 km/hr
(5) None of these

68. What was the speed of Vehicle C on Day 2 in terms of metres per second?

(1) 15.3
(2) 12.8
(3) 11.5
(4) 13.8
(5) None of these

69. The distance travelled by Vehicle F on Day 2 was approximately what per cent of the distance travelled by it on Day 1?

(1) 80
(2) 65
(3) 85
(4) 95
(5) 90

70. What is the ratio of the speeds of Vehicle D and Vehicle E on Day 2?

(1) 15:13
(2) 17:13
(3) 13:11
(4) 17:14
(5) None of these

71. An article was purchased for ?78,350. Its price was marked up by 30%. It was sold at a discount of 20% on the marked-up price. What was the profit per cent on the cost price?

(1) 4%
(2) 7%
(3) 5%
(4) 3%
(5) 6%

72. When X is subtracted from the numbers 9, 15 and 27, the remainders are in continued proportion. What is the value of X?

(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5
(5) None of these

73. What is the difference between the simple and the compound interest on ` 7,300 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. in 2 years?

(1) Rs 29.37
(2) Rs 26.28
(3) Rs 31.41
(4) Rs 23.22
(5) Rs 21.34


74. The sum of three consecutive numbers is 2262. What is 41% of the highest number?

(1) 301.51
(2) 303.14
(3) 308.73
(4) 306.35
(5) 309.55

75. In how many different ways can the letters of the word THERAPY’ be arranged so that the vowels never come together?

(1) 720
(2) 1440
(3) 5040
(4) 3600
(5) 4800

 

76. What is the ratio of the number of mobile phones sold of Company B during July to those sold during December of the same company?

(1) 119 : 145
(2) 116 : 135
(3) 119 : 135
(4) 119 : 130
(5) None of these

77. If 35% of the mobile phones sold by Company A during November were sold at a discount, how many mobile phones of Company A during that month were sold without a discount?

(1) 882
(2) 1635
(3) 1638
(4) 885
(5) None of these


78. If the shopkeeper earned a profit of Rs 433 on each mobile phone sold of Company B during October, what was his total profit earned on the mobile phones of that company during the same month?

(1) Rs 6,49,900
(2) Rs 6,45,900
(3) Rs 6,49,400
(4) Rs6,49,500
(5) None of these

79. The number of mobile phones sold of Company A during July is approximately what per cent of the number of mobile phones sold of Company A during December?

(1) 110
(2) 140
(3) 150
(4) 105
(5) 130

80. What is the total number of mobile phones sold of Company B during August and September together?

(1) 10000
(2) 15000
(3) 10500
(4) 9500
(5) None of these
 

Directions (Q. 81-85): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:
The premises of a bank are to be renovated. The renovation is in terms of flooring. Certain areas are to be floored either with marble or wood. All rooms/halls and pantry are rectangular. The area to be renovated comprises a hall for customer transaction measuring 23m by 29m, the branch manager’s room measuring 13m by 17m, a pantry measuring 14m by 13m, a record keeping-cum-server room measuring 21 m by 13 m and locker area measuring 29m by 21 m. The total area of the bank is 2000 square metres. The cost of wooden flooring is ` 170 per square metre and the cost of marble flooring is ` 190 per square metre. The locker area, record keeping-cum-server room and pantry are to be floored with marble. The branch manager’s room and the hall for customer transaction are to be floored with wood. No other area is to be renovated in terms of flooring.

81. What is the ratio of the total cost of wooden flooring to the total cost of marble flooring?

(1) 1879:2527
(2) 1887:2386
(3) 1887:2527
(4) 1829:2527
(5) 1887:2351

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STUDY KITS: 

(Download) IBPS - RRB : Office Assistants (Multipurpose) Exam Paper Held On 09.09.2012

(Download) IBPS - RRB : Office Assistants (Multipurpose) Exam Paper Held on 09.09.2012

Exam Name: Office Assistants (Multipurpose)

File Size : 3.40 MB

File Type: PDF

Topic :

  • Reasoning

  • Aptitude Test

  • General Awareness

  • Computer Knowledge

  • English Language

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IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-I Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014, "Computer Knowledge"

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject : Computer Knowledge

1. Another name for a program is

(a) software
(b) procedure
(c) typology
(d) utilities
(e) userware

2. ................ is a communications technology used by some incoming mail services.

(a) Telnet
(b) TCP
(c) FTP
(d) GIF
(e) POP3

3. The two basic parts of URLs are

(a) ICP and IP
(b) TCP/IP and ISP
(c) TCP and ftp
(d) destination and device
(e) the protocol and the domain name

4. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into

(a) information
(b) programs
(c) objects
(d) charts
(e) websites

5. The ........... database is the most widely used database structur

(a) hierarchical
(b) general
(c) standard
(d) table
(e) relational

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6. Mail from unwanted senders can be blocked by

(a) not buying anything online so that junk mail senders will not having anything to benefit by
(b) sending them nasty replies when they send any mail
(c) using mail filters
(d) clicking the unsubscribe link
(e) e-mailing them and asking to the removed from the list

7. POP denotes

(a) Post Office Program
(b) Post Office Protocol
(c) Protocol on Program
(d) Protocol on Protocol
(e) Program of of Programmer

8. How many gigabytes are there in a petabyte?

(a) 1000
(b) 001
(c) 100
(d) 1000000
(e) 5000000

9. For a browser to connect to other resources, the location or address of the resources must be specified. These addresses are called

(a) MSN
(b) e-mail forms
(c) packets
(d) IDs
(e) URLs

10. The extensions .gov, .edu, .mil, and .net are c

(a) mail to addresses
(b) add-ons
(c) domain codes
(d) DNSs
(e) e-mail targets

11. Software that is actively utilised by end-users (like Word or Photoshop) is called

(a) actionware
(b) operating system
(c) system software
(d) driver
(e) application software

12. Using a ............ helps to place an image into a live video conference.

(a) printer
(b) digital camera
(c) video camera
(d) webcam
(e) scanner

13. Programs designed to perform specific tasks related to managing computer resources are called

(a) operating system
(b) helper software
(c) system software
(d) application software
(e) utility programs

14. A rectangular area on a computer screen that can contain a document, program or messages is referred to as a (n)

(a) field
(b) opening
(c) window
(d) tuplet
(e) cell

15. The storage locations in the internal storage of a CPU are called

(a) reference points
(b) addresses
(c) contents
(d) mask
(e) locations

16. Of the following types of computers, which is the most powerful?

(a) Laptop
(b) Mainframe computer
(c) Minicomputer
(d) Supercomputer
(e) Microcomputer

17. An input device, which can read characters directly from an ordinary piece of paper, is

(a) OMR
(b) POS
(c) OCR
(d) MSI
(e) CD

18. The radian of a number system

(a) has nothing to do with digit position value
(b) equals the number of its distinct counting digits
(c) is more than the number of its distinctcounting digits
(d) is always an even number
(e) is variable

19. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) passwords are case sensitive.
(b) passwords are not echoed on the screen for security resasons.
(c) A good password should be no more than six characters long.
(d) password is a secret code that authenticates a person to the computer.
(e) passwords should be changed frequently

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IBPS / SBI Special TX: 

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-I Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014, "Quantitative Aptitude"

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject : Quantitative Aptitude

1. A sold an article with 10% loss on the cost price. He bought the article at a discount of 20% on the labelled price. What would have been the percentage loss had he bought it at the labelled price?

(a) 34
(b) 18
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 28
(e) 16

Directions (Q. Nos. 2-6) Refer to the line graph and answer the given questions.

Data Related to Income and Expenditure (In Rs. Hundred) of a Businessman during 7 Years

Note

· Profit = Income – Expenditure
· Loss = Expenditure – Income
· Percent Profit = (Profit/Expenditure) × 100
· Percent Loss = (Loss/Expenditure) × 100

2. What is the average profit earned by the businessman in 2001, 2003, 2004, 2006 and 2007 together?

(a) Rs. 27400
(b) Rs. 28800
(c) Rs. 29200
(d) Rs. 26800
(e) Rs. 28400

3. What is the percent loss incurred by the businessman in 2002 and 2005 together?


 

4. The respective ratio of expenditure of the businessman in 2003 and 2008 was 7 : 13. If the end earned a profit of 19% in 2008, what was his income in that particular year?

(a) Rs. 94060
(b) Rs. 93720
(c) Rs. 92820
(d) Rs. 90560
(e) Rs. 88760

5. What is the approximate percent profit earned by the businessman in 2004 and 2007 together?

(a) 73
(b) 79
(c) 77
(d) 69
(e) 64

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6. What is the ratio between profit earned by the businessman in 2003 and 2006 together and loss incurred by him in 2002 and 2005 together?

(a) 9 : 8
(b) 11 : 8
(c) 17 : 14
(d) 7 : 6
(e) 13 : 12

7. In a class, the average age of both male and female students together is 18 years. The total age of these 15 female students is 240. Definitely how many male students are there in the class?

(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 30
(d) Data provided are inadequate to answer the question
(e) 25

Directions (Q. Nos. 8-12) In the given questions, two equations are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.

8.

I. x2 + 3x – 28 = 0
II. y2 – y – 20 = 0

9.

I. 5x2 + 11x + 6 = 0
II. y2 + 34y – 336 = 0

10.

I. 2x2  + 18x + 40 = 0
II. 2y2 + 15y + 27 = 0

11.

I. 6x2 – 29x + 35 = 0
II. 3y2 – 11y + 10 = 0

12.

I. x2 + x – 20 = 0
II. y2 – y – 30 = 0

Directions (Q. Nos. 13-17) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given number series?

13. 3600 1800 600 150 30 ?

(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 15
(e) 7.5

14. 33 16.5 ? 24.75 49.5 123.75

(a) 16.5
(b) 13.5
(c) 22.5
(d) 20.5
(e) 12.5

15. 20 23 30 43 64 ?

(a) 85
(b) 92
(c) 95
(d) 99
(e) 88

16. 44 ? 99 148.5 222.75 334.125

(a) 72
(b) 77
(c) 66
(d) 54
(e) 84

17. 2 4 10 ? 82 244

(a) 28
(b) 30
(c) 46
(d) 48
(e) 34

Directions (Q. Nos. 18-20) Study the table and answer the given questions :

Data Related to Number of Employees in Six

Companies During 6 Years


M = Male; F = Female

18. What is the difference between average number of male employees in all the given companies in 2006 and average number of female employees in all the given companies in 2009?

(a) 68
(b) 64
(c) 58
(d) 52
(e) 74

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IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-I Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014, "English"

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject : English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Which of the phrases given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer.

1. Rich mineral resources and the government present willing to build infrastructure will attract plenty of foreign investment.

(a) government willingly present
(b) government presence is willing
(c) government is present but willing
(d) present government’s willingness
(e) No correction required

2. One of the city’s advantages including a good education system, attractive quality of life and a good transport system which can cope with its rising population.

(a) One of the city’s advantages include
(b) Some of the city’s advantages include
(c) The city has advantages included
(d) Many of the city’s advantages are included
(e) No correction required

3. Regulators in America have plans to increase the amount of capital that its eight largest banks can held and banks will have until 2018 to comply.

(a) increased the amount
(b) increase in the amount
(c) which increases the amount
(d) by increasing amounts
(e) No correction required

4. If we revise the school curriculum, colleges will not only get more quality of students but companies will also get skilled employees.

(a) most quality students
(b) good quality of the student
(c) students of best qualities
(d) better quality students
(e) No correction required

5. By running small dairy farms and selling the milk to factories, the women of the village takes care the needs of their families.

(a) woman of the village caring for
(b) woman of a village will care
(c) women of the village take care of
(d) village women taking care of
(e) No correction required

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Rearrange the given six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaning paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. So while these partnerships are at times messy and controversial, on balance, they are a force for good.

B. NGOs help compaines reach and meet the needs of parts of the market that companies do not understand, such as the marginalised, where NGOs have unique insight.

C. But before concluding that such partnerships are valueless it is worth recalling the reasons why they took off in the first place.

D. For NGOs too, partnerships with firms have their uses, with companies providing money and ways of influencing the mindandbehaviour of millions of people.

E. There are many opponents to the close ties between companies and charities (Non-governmental Organisations-NGOs).

F. NGOs are also better than companies at attracting and retaining idealistic talent, who sometimes end up even being absorbed by the companies to administer the policies they had advocated when they worked for NGOs.

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IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-I Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014, "General Awareness"

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject : General Awareness

1. India’s largest 700 MW ultra mega solar power plant is planned in the State of Madhya Pradesh in

(a) Bhopal district
(b) Ujjain district
(c) Khandwa district
(d) Rewa district
(e) Indore district

2. India’s Tax Administration Reform Commission submitted its first report to Finance Minister in the June, 2014 and this Commission is headed by

(a) YV Reddy
(b) D. Subba Rao
(c) Other than those given as options
(d) Parthasarathy Shome
(e) Bimal Jalan

3. The process by which the central bank of a country controls the supply of money in the economy by exercising its control over interest rates in order to maintain price stability and achieve high economic growth is known as

(a) Economic Policy
(b) Monetary Policy
(c) Fiscal Policy
(d) Credit Policy
(e) Budgetary Policy

4. Through the ‘Clean India’ campaign, the Union government has set a target to make country free from dysfunctional toilets by the year

(a) 2016 (b) 2017
(c) 2018 (d) 2019
(e) 2020

5. The Depositor Education & Awareness Fund (DEAF) has been set-up with

(a) Public Sector Banks
(b) Indian Banks Association
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
(e) Government of India

6. Who amongst the following has recently been selected to receive the 2014 Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award for his outstanding contribution towards the promotion of communal harmony, peace and goodwill?

(a) Dalai Lama
(b) Pt. Hari Prasad Chaurasia
(c) Shyam Benegal
(d) Muzaffar Ali
(e) Illayaraja

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(Notification) Recruitment of Probationary Officers (PO) in State Bank of India - 2018 (ADVERTISEMENT NO: CRPD/ PO/ 2018-19/01)

 

(Notification) Recruitment of Probationary Officers (PO) in State Bank of India - 2018

(ADVERTISEMENT NO: CRPD/ PO/ 2018-19/01)

Any eligible candidate, who aspires to join State Bank of India as a Probationary Officer, is required to register on-line for the Recruitment Process. The examination will be held in three phases i.e. Preliminary examination, Main examination and Group Exercise & Interview. The candidates who are shortlisted after Preliminary examination will have to appear for Main examination. The candidates shortlisted after the main examination will be subsequently called for a Group Exercises & Interview. Prospective candidates will have to apply after carefully reading the advertisement regarding the process of examinations and interview, eligibility criteria, online registration processes, payment of prescribed application fee/ intimation charges, pattern of examination, issuance of call letters etc. and ensure that they fulfil the stipulated criteria and follow the prescribed processes.

Post Detail :

VACANCIES

VACANCIES (PWD)

SC

ST

OBC*

GEN

TOTAL

LD

VI

HI

Total

300

150

540

1010

2000

27

26

65

118

Education Qualification: 

(A) Essential Academic Qualifications: (AS ON 31.08.2018): Graduation in any discipline from a recognised University or any equivalent qualification recognised as such by the Central Government. Those who are in the Final year/ Semester of their Graduation may also apply provisionally subject to the condition that, if called for interview, they will have to produce proof of having passed the graduation examination on or before 31.08.2018. Candidates having integrated dual degree (IDD) certificate should ensure that the date of passing the IDD is on or before 31.08.2018. Candidates possessing qualification of Chartered Accountant may also apply.

Note: i. The date of passing eligibility examination will be the date appearing on the mark sheet or provisional certificate issued by the University/ Institute. In case the result of a particular examination is posted on the website of the University/ Institute, a certificate issued by the appropriate authority of the University/ Institute indicating the date on which the result was posted on the website will be taken as the date of passing. ii. Candidate should indicate the percentage obtained in Graduation calculated to the nearest two decimals in the online application. Where CGPA/ OGPA is awarded, the same should be converted into percentage and indicated in the online application. If called for interview, the candidate will have to produce a certificate issued by the appropriate authority inter alia stating the norms of the University regarding conversion of grade into percentage and the percentage of marks scored by the candidate in terms of norms. iii. Calculation of Percentage: The percentage marks shall be arrived at by dividing the total marks obtained by the candidate in all the subjects in all semester(s)/ year(s) by aggregate maximum marks in all the subjects irrespective of honours/ optional/

ii. Manifest deformity and paresis but having sufficient mobility in their hands and feet to enable them to engage in normal economic activity;

iii. extreme physical deformity as well as advanced age which prevents him/her from undertaking any gainful occupation, and the expression "leprosy cured" shall be construed accordingly;

b. “cerebral palsy" means a Group of non-progressive neurological conditions affecting body movements and muscle coordination, caused by damage to one or more specific areas of the brain, usually occurring before, during or shortly after birth;

c. "Dwarfism" means a medical or genetic condition resulting in an adult height of 4 feet 10 inches (147 centimeters) or less;

d. "Muscular dystrophy" means a group of hereditary genetic muscle disease that weakens the muscles that move the human body and persons with multiple dystrophy have incorrect and missing information in their genes, which prevents them from making the proteins they need for healthy muscles. It is characterised by progressive skeletal muscle weakness, defects in muscle proteins, and the death of muscle cells and tissue; e. "Acid attack victims" means a person disfigured due to violent assaults by throwing of acid or similar corrosive substance. Note: Only person with benchmark disabilities would be eligible for Reservation. “Person with benchmark disability” means a person with not less than forty percent of a specified disability where specified disability has not been defined in measurable terms and includes a person with disability where disability has been defined in a measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority. A person who wants to avail the benefit of reservation will have to submit a disability certificate issued by a Competent Authority as prescribed vide RPWD Act, 2016. Such certificate will be subject to verification/ re-verification as may be decided by the competent authority.

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IBPS HINDI - आई. बी. पी. एस.: 
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(Notification) NABARD : Recruitment of Assistant Manager post of Officers in Grade ‘A’ (RDBS)

(Notification) NABARD : Recruitment of Assistant Manager post of Officers in Grade ‘A’ (RDBS)

Applications are invited from Indian citizens for the post of Assistant Manager in Grade ‘A’ in the Rural Development Banking Service (RDBS) in National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). Candidates can apply only ON-LINE on NABARD website www.nabard.org/Career Notices between 13 March 2018 and 02 April 2018.

Post Details:

NABARD 2018 Notification was released on 13th March 2018. The last date to fill in the application form was 2nd April 2018. A total vacancy of 92 was declared by NABARD to recruit candidates to Assistant Manager post in different segments of the National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development.

Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Jobs) Canara Bank : Recruitment of Probationary Officers In Junior Management

(Jobs) Canara Bank : Recruitment of Probationary Officers In Junior Management

Canara Bank, a leading Public Sector Bank with Head Office in Bengaluru and pan India presence with over 6100 branches, invites ON-LINE APPLICATIONS, from the eligible candidates to apply for admissions to the specially designed One year training course leading to Post Graduate Diploma in Banking and Finance (PGDBF) either through Manipal Global Education Services Pvt Ltd., Bengaluru or NITTE Education International Pvt Ltd., Mangaluru, which are recognised by UGC.

  • The course comprises of 9 months of classroom studies and 3 months internship at Canara Bank’s Branches / Offices.
  • This one year full-time PGDBF course will be conducted either at Manipal Global Education Services Pvt Ltd, Bengaluru campus or NITTE Education International Pvt Ltd. Mangaluru campus.
  • The programme is fully residential during 9 months classroom studies and the selected candidates should necessarily stay in the campus

Candidates will be selected for admission to the course at either of the above two institutes through selection process consisting of online objective test followed by Group Discussion and Personal Interview. On successful completion of the course, candidates will be awarded with “Post Graduate Diploma in Banking and Finance (PGDBF)” from that institute and the candidates would be offered appointment in the Bank as Probationary Officer in Junior Management Grade Scale-I.

Eligible candidates can apply ON-LINE through link given in our Bank’s website www.canarabank.com. No other means / mode of Application will be accepted. Please read this advertisement carefully and ensure your eligibility before paying fees / submitting on-line application.

Please note that: a) The process of Registration of application is complete only when fee is deposited with the Bank through On-line mode on or before the last date for fee payment; b) Before applying, candidates are requested to ensure that they fulfill the eligibility criteria for the post as on the cut-off date. c) Candidates are advised to check Bank’s website www.canarabank.com for details and updates.


Details of Posts:

PROBATIONARY OFFICERS IN JUNIOR MANAGEMENT GRADE SCALE-I

Educational Qualification:

A Degree (Graduation) with a minimum of 60% marks (55% for SC/ST/PWBD) or equivalent grade, in any discipline from a University recognised by the Government of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.

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