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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (02 May 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (02 May 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Chahabar port is located in which of the following countries?

1. Kuwait
2. Bahrain
3. Qatar
4. Iran

Q.2- Consider the following statements:

1. In India, coal mining makes 40% of the total mining.
2. More than 70 percent coal is used for power sector.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

A. 1 only
B. Both
C. 2 only
D. None

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (01 May 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (01 May 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following lakes is/ are correctly matched?

1. Lake Pichola. : Rajasthan
2. Lake Bhimtal. : Uttarakhand
3. Chandubi Lake. : Arunachal Pradesh
4. Pangong lake. : Jammu and Kashmir

Q.2- Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign-exchange reserves?

A. Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
B. Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
C. Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
D. Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (30 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (30 April 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
(b) Stem cells can be used power generation.
(c) Stem cells can be used for coal purification.
(d) None of the above

Q.2- Which of the following is an indirect tax?

1. Income tax
2. Wealth tax
3. Fringe benefit tax
4. Excise tax

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Sample Papers) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Test - 3

(Sample Papers) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Test - 3

:: Reasoning ::

Directions (Q. 1-6): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are eight persons J, K, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around the circle but not necessarily in the same order. Four of them are facing away from the centre. They have different type of currencies viz; Pound, Dollar, Rupee, Yen, Yuan, Rouble Peso and Rial but not necessarily in the same order. T is exactly between K and U. K does not have Yen or Rial. No two consecutive persons are facing in the same direction. The person who uses currency Rial third to the right of R, whose neighbours are facing away from the centre. The one who uses Rouble is immediate left of one who uses Dollar. S is exactly between J and the one who uses Rial. V is second to the right of T. One who uses Yuan is immediate right of R. The one who
uses Rupee is facing away from the centre but not the immediate neighbour of R. J does not use Rupee. W is immediate right of V but not the immediate neighbour of one who uses Rupee. V does not have Dollar as a currency. The one who uses Peso is between the one who uses Rupee and one who uses Rouble.

1. Who among the following uses the currency Pound?

1) V
2) T
3) S
4) W
5) Either 2) or 3)

2. Who is second to the right of one who uses Peso?

1) J
2) W
3) R
4) T
5) S

3. Who is exactly in the middle between J and W?

1) R
2) One who has Dollar
3) One who uses Peso
4) Both 1) and 2)
5) K

4. How many persons are there between K and J?

1) One
2) Two
3) None
4) Three
5) Other than given options

5. Four of the following five are alike in some way. Find out the odd one.

1) W
2) T
3) V
4) R
5) S

6. Which of the following match correctly?

1) S- Yuan
2) W- Peso
3) V- Rial
4) K- Pound
5) R- Dollar

Directions (Q. 7-11): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, V and W who work in different fields viz; Journalism, Literature, Music, Sport, Agriculture, Film and Peace, but not necessarily in the same order. Each got different prize for a different field, viz, Booker, Pulitzer, Grammy, Kabir Samman, Arjuna Award, Bourlog Award and Oscar but not necessarily in the same order. R is related to Journalism but got neither Booker nor Arjuna Award. S got Bourlog award and is related to literature. V and T are not related to Music and neither of them got Arjuna Award. Q is related to Sport and got Grammy Award. The one who is related to film got Oscar Award. W is related to peace and got Kabir Samman. T is not related to Agriculture.

7. T is related to which of the following field?

1) Agriculture
2) Film
3) Music
4) Sport
5) Peace

8. Which one of the following prize got by R?

1) Pulitzer
2) Oscar
3) Booker
4) Kabir Samman
5) Grammy

9. Which of the following statements is/are true?

1) S is related to Film
2) T got Pulitzer prize
3) V got Booker prize
4) W is related to Music
5) All are true

10. Who among the following got Arjuna Award?

1) T
2) V
3) P
4) R
5) S

11. Which of the following combination is true?

1) W- Peace- Kabir
2) V- Sport- Pulitzer
3) T- Music- Oscar
4) Q- Peace- Booker
5) Other than given options

Directions (Q. 12–16): In each question given below three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take all the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from all the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) If both conclusion I and II follow.

12. Statements:

All glasses are cups. No cup is spoon. All utensil are spoon.

Conclusions:

I. No glass is utensil.
II. Some glasses being spoon is a possibility.

(13–14): Statements:

No mobile is magnet. Every magnet is money. At least some money is mike.

13. Conclusions:

I. All magnet can never be mobile.
II. Some magnet being mike is a possibility.

14. Conclusions:

I. Some mike are not mobile is a possibility.
II. No money is mobile.

(15–16): Statements:

No packet is purse. All property is poster. All packet is property.

15. Conclusions:

I. All poster being packet is a possibility.
II. Some property is purse.

16. Conclusions:

I. Some property are not packet.
II. Some packet is poster.

Directions (Q. 17-21): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In a certain code language 'India exports raw material' is written as 'ln jt lp nk', 'raw material is cheaper' is written as 'pic lp rj ln', 'export of India is increasing' is written as 'jt no rj pk st', 'how material is increasing' is written as 'ht ln st rj'.

17. What is the code for 'export'?

1) nk
2) no
3) pt
4) Either 2) or 3)
5) st

18. What is the code for 'export of India' in a given code language?

1) no pt rj
2) no pt jt
3) pt jt ln
4) jn pt no
5) pt rj no

19. What does the code 'st' stands for?

1) increasing
2) exports
3) India
4) raw
5) material

20. If 'export in India' is written as 'pt pl jt' then what is the code for 'in school'?

1) pt rj
2) ln pl
3) lp pt
4) pic ln
5) pl ni

21. 'jt rj jk' is the code for which of the following?

1) India is great
2) India was ahead
3) how is India
4) is India growing
5) Either 1) or 4)

Directions (Q. 22-26): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer:

1) If only conclusion I is true.
2) If only conclusion II is true.
3) If either conclusion I or II is true.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) If both conclusion I and II are true.

Directions (Q. 27-28) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A person goes from point A towards North and walked 5 m. He then turns towards right and walked 10 m, he again turned towards north and walked 6 m. He again turned towards his left and walked 10 m to reach at point T. Then he turned towards south and walked 4 m. He then turned towards right and walked 3 m and reached at point P and then he finally turned towards south and walked 2 m to reach at point B.

27. What is the distance between point P and point T?

1) 8 m
2) 6 m
3) 10 m
4) 5 m
5) 4 m

28. What is total distance covered by person to reach at point B, and B is in which direction with respect to A?

1) 35 m, North East
2) 40 m, North West
3) 40 m, North East
4) 4 m, North East
5) 10 m, South West

29. Statement: India's car sales crossed the two-million mark in last year.

Which of the following may be the reason of increasing in sales?

1) Lower fuel prices.
2) Launching of new modals.
3) Very low prices of cars comparing other country's cars price.
4) All of the above
5) Only 1) and 2)

30. Statement: India signed Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) with Singapore.

Which of the following may be the effect of agreement?

1) This will increase the foreign reserve.
2) This will improve infrastructure of India.
3) Now FDI will increase.
4) Singapore will become the first country to invest in India.
5) Other than given options

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::

31. P, Q and R start a small business. P contributes two-fifth of the total capital invested in the business. Q contributes five-fourth of what P contributed. R contributes two-third of what Q contributed. The total profit at the end of the year was `14430. What was R's share in the profit?

1) ` 3800
2) ` 4300
3) ` 4100
4) ` 3700
5) ` 3900

32. A rectangular plot 110 m long and 90 m broad, has two concrete crossroads (of equal width) running in the middle of it. One parallel to the length and the other parallel to the breadth. The rest of the plot is used as lawn. If the area of lawn is 6624m2, what is the width of each of the cross roads?

1) 16.5 m
2) 18 m
3) 16 m
4) 20 m
5) 15 m

33. Rajat gave 38% of his money to Anubhav, Anubhav gave three-fourth of what he received to his mother. Anubhav's mother gave 5/6 th of the money she received to the grocer. Anubhav's mother is now left with ` 7410. How much money did Rajat have initially?

1) ` 156000
2) ` 146000
3) ` 165000
4) ` 166000
5) ` 158000

Directions (Q.34-38): What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

1) 16
2) 15
3) 19
4) 17
5) 18

1) 3398
2) 3158
3) 3198
4) 3558
5) 3378

36. 48.95% of 1399.98 + ? = 124.95% of 1239.95

1) 874
2) 924
3) 864
4) 868
5) 934

37. 14.95 × 18.01 × 12.45 × 14.01 = ?

1) 41250
2) 49450
3) 48350
4) 40750
5) 47250

38. 11.89 × 4.95 – 6.98 = ?

1) 62
2) 53
3) 42
4) 68
5) 59

Directions (Q. 39–43): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

39. 18, 37, 56, 94, ?, 664

1) 208
2) 216
3) 209
4) 203
5) 214

40. 21, 108, 204, 318, ?, 636

1) 469
2) 449
3) 479
4) 459
5) 489

41. 4.5, ?, 41, 171, 864, 5195

1) 24
2) 14
3) 18
4) 12
5) 32

42. 297, ?, 349, 413, 513, 657

1) 302
2) 313
3) 315
4) 319
5) 330

43. 115, 136, ?, 157, 73, 178

1) 96
2) 92
3) 94
4) 97
5) 98

44. In a 240 litres of mixture of milk and water, water is only 25%. The milkman sold 40 litres of this mixture and then he added 32.4 litre of pure milk and 7.6 litres of pure water in the remaining mixture. What is the percentage of water in the final mixture?

1) 22%
2) 20%
3) 23%
4) 28%
5) 24%

45. Anant can do10% of a piece of work in12 days. 25% of the same work can be done by Neha in 28 days. Rahul can do onethird of the same work in 32 days. Rishi can do two-fifth of the work in 24 days. Who is/are least efficient?

1) Rahul
2) Anant
3) Rishi
4) Neha
5) Cannot be determined

Directions (Q.46-50) : Study the following line graph carefully to answer the following questions given below.

46. What is the ratio of the number of years in which production of company B is below the average production in company B to that of production of company C is below the average production of company C?

1) Other than given options
2) 1 : 2
3) 2 : 3
4) 2 : 1
5) 1 : 1

47. The total production of company A in all the years is approximately what percent of the total production of company C in all the years?

1) Other than given options
2) 100.75%
3) 108%
4) 112.75%
5) 110%

48. The total production in the year 2015 of all the companies together is approximately what percent of the production of all the companies together in the year 2013?

1) 88.6%
2) 84.7%
3) 86.8%
4) 89.8%
5) Other than given options

49. In which of the year the total production taking all the companies together is second highest?

1) 2015
2) Other than given options
3) 2014
4) 2013
5) 2012

50. Which of the following shows the maximum percentage growth with respect to previous year?

1) Company A in 2012
2) Company C in 2012
3) Company A in 2014
4) Company B in 2012
5) Company B in 2013

Directions (Q.51-55) : Study the following pie chart carefully and answer the questions given below:

51. If the total number of professional in state S1 is 12000 which is 75% of that in state S2, then what is the ratio of teacher in state S2 to that in state S1?

1) 40 : 31
2) Other than given options
3) 40 : 37
4) 40 : 33
5) 41 : 33

52. If the number of Doctors in state S1 is 182 and the number of CA's in state S2 is 378, then what is the ratio of the number of professionals in state S1 to that in state S2?

1) 15 : 29
2) 13 : 19
3) 14 : 23
4) 13 : 21
5) Other than given options

53. If the total number of professionals in both the states is same, then the number of Engineers in state S1 is approximately what percent of the number of Lawyers in state S2?

1) 108%
2) 106%
3) 119%
4) Other than given options
5) 102%

54. If the total number of professional is state S2 is 18000 and the ratio of the number of professional in state S1 to that in state S2 is 5 : 6, then what is difference between the number of doctors in state S1 and that of in state S2?

1) 420
2) 408
3) 480
4) Other than given options
5) 460

55. If the number of C.A's in state S2 is 468, then what is the difference between the number of Lawyers and the number of Actors in that state?

1) 338
2) 383
3) Other than given options
4) 343
5) 348

Directions (Q. 56–60): Each of the questions given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and give answer:

1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

56. What will be the average weight of the remaining class after one student is excluded?

I. Average weight of 30 students out of 48 students in the class is 20.5 kg and that of remaining student is 28.25 kg. A student having weight more than 42 kg is excluded.
II. Average weight of a class of 48 students is 24.5 kg. A child weighing 48 kg is excluded.

57. What is the difference between the digits of a two- digit number?

I. The sum of the digits of that number is 12.
II. One-fourth of that number is 15 less than half of 54.

58. How old is Reena now?

I. Three years ago, the average age of two friends Ansh and Bhumika was 19 years.
II. With Reena joining them, now the average of three friends becomes 24 years.

59. What is the cost price of a chair?

I. The profit made when the chair is sold for ` 527 is twice as much as when it is sold for ` 476.
II. The marked price of chair is ` 432. If a discount of 25% is given on the marked price, the profit gained is 8%.

60. What is the rate of interest percent per annum?

I. An amount doubles it self in five years at simple interest.
II. Simple interest of ` 2280 is obtained in two years on an amount of ` 5700.

:: General Awareness and Current Affairs ::

61. 'National Youth day' is observed on–

1) 12th July
2) 13th February
3) 12th August
4) 12th January
5) 13th January

62. _______, Chairperson of SBI, remains the most powerful women in the Indian business sector, according to Fortune India.

1) Chanda Kochhar
2) Shikha Sharma
3) Arundhati Bhattacharya
4) Vinita Gupta
5) Jayanti Sinha

63. The Reserve Bank of India has imposed `______ Penalty on Dhanlaxmi Bank for violation of Know your customer (KYC) and Anti Money Laundering (AML) Norms.

1) 1.5 crore
2) 2.5 crore
3) 2 crore
4) 1 crore
5) 1.75 crore

64. Which Indian state has recently imposed ban on sale of thermocol plates?

1) Bihar
2) Jharkhand
3) Punjab
4) Gujarat
5) Rajasthan

65. A portion of the surplus or profit paid to the stockholders of a corporation is known as–

1) Equity
2) Dividend
3) Debentures
4) Premium
5) Lapse Ratio

66. "Indpay Mobile App" is launched by–

1) ICICI Bank
2) Bank of India
3) SBI Bank
4) RBL Bank
5) Indian Bank

67. Where is the Headquarters of "European Union"?

1) Berlin, Germany
2) Paris, France
3) Brussels, Belgium
4) Rome, Italy
5) Vienna, Austria

68. Who has been appointed as the chairman of Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)?

1) Raghuram Rajan
2) U.K Sinha
3) T.S. Vijayan
4) Ram Sewak Sharma
5) Hemant Sharma

69. The Book titled "APJ Abdul Kalam-One Man, Many Missions" is authored by–

1) Nalini Ramachandran
2) Arun Joshi
3) C. Rajagopalachari
4) Manoj Das
5) Nandini Sahu

70. In which year, Malhotra committee, headed by former finance secretary and RBI Governor R. N. Malhotra, was formed to evaluate the Indian insurance industry and recommend its future direction?

1) 1890
2) 1980
3) 1982
4) 1992
5) 1993

71. Where is the capital of "Laos"?

1) Tehran
2) Ankara
3) Vientiane
4) Muscat
5) Seoul

72. What does 'F' stand for in 'SARFAESI'?

1) Fund
2) Factors
3) Financial
4) Foreign
5) Fixed

73. Recently which Bank entered the country through the Wholly- Owned Subsidiary (WOS) route with wholesale banking operations in Mumbai?

1) Caribbean Development Bank
2) National Bank of Abu Dhabi
3) Islamic Development Bank
4) European Development Bank 5) Other than given options

74. What is the currency of 'Bangladesh'?

1) Riyal
2) Lev
3) Taka
4) Kuna
5) Rupee

75. What is the tagline of United India Insurance Company Limited?

1) Rest assured with us
2) With us, you are sure
3) Aapke Sachhe Advisor
4) India's Premier General Insurance
5) Yogakshemam Vahamyaham

76. Name the Marathi poet from Maharashtra, who died recently.

1) Dilip Chitre
2) Mangesh Keshav Padgaonkar
3) Eknath
4) Guru Thakur
5) Keshav Pandit

77. Recently BHEL commissioned _____ Power Project unit in Uttar Pradesh.

1) Narora Atomic
2) Sant Singaji
3) Mundra Thermal
4) Satpura Thermal
5) Prayagraj Super Thermal

78. Who amongst the following is the Indian badminton player who completed a hat-trick by winning the Macau open Grand Prix Gold?

1) P.V. Sindhu
2) Sourabh Verma
3) Parupalli Kashyap
4) Anand Pawar
5) Prannoy Kumar

79. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the Saansad Adarsh gram Yojana on ______.

1) 11 August 2014
2) 12 August 2014
3) 12 October 2014
4) 2 October 2014
5) 11 October 2014

80. Agents selling Insurance of a specific company are called –

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (29 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (29 April 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following navigational systems is not correctly matched?

1. Glonass : Russia
2. Galileo : Europe
3. BeiDou : South Korea
4. All of the above are correctly matched

Q.2- Papua new guinea is part of which of the following countries?

A. New Zealand
B. Australia
C. Fiji
D. None of the above

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (28 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (28 April 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following is a exclusive jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India?

1. Violation of Fundamental Rights
2. Dispute between Centre and State
3. Dispute between two states

A. 1,2
B. 2 only
C. 2,3
D. All

Q.2- Which planet is closest to the Earth ?

A. Venus
B. Mercury
C. Mars
D. Jupiter

Q.3- Which of the following does not come under small savings schemes?

A. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana
B. Senior citizens savings scheme
C. Farmers deposit less than 10 lakh
D. Monthly income scheme

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
General: 

(Sample Paper) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Test - 2

(sample Papers) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Test - 2

:: Reasoning ::

Directions (Q. 1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are two groups having 4 persons in each group sitting in two rows L, N, J and M are in one group and all of them facing north in row 1, while, E, C, D and A are in 2nd group and all of them facing south in row 2. In each group there is a one student, one director, one teacher and one principal. But they are not necessarily in the same order. E is facing director but
himself is not a Director. Teacher of both the rows are at extreme ends. C is a principal and facing student. M is facing the person who is third to the left of C. L is third to the left of M. A and D are neighbours and A is not facing teacher. E has at least two people in his left but not facing N.

1. Which of the following is facing N?

1) C
2) E
3) A
4) D
5) Both 3) and 4)

2. Which of the following pairs are students?

1) JC
2) AN
3) LE
4) EN
5) ME

3. In row-2 how many persons are there between Director and E?

1) One
2) None
3) Two
4) Three
5) Other than given options

4. The four of following five are same in the certain way on the seating arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that of group?

1) L
2) E
3) A
4) N
5) J

5. Which of the following does match correctly?

1) J – Principal
2) N – Teacher
3) A – Teacher
4) J – Director
5) L – Teacher

Directions (Q. 6 -10) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, H, J and K live on eight floor building. Ground floor is numbered 1, and so on till topmost floor numbered 8 but not necessarily in the same order. Only one person lives between E and K. E lives above K. H does not live on odd–numbered floor. A lives on the floor numbered five. Only two people live between A and B. A lives below B. J lives immediately above D. E live immediately above C. H lives immediately above E. There are two persons live between J and H, C does not live on floor no 2.

6. Who lives on the floor immediately above A?

1) C
2) K
3) D
4) H
5) Other than given options

7. How many people live between the floors on which D and C live?

1) Two
2) Three
3) More than four
4) One
5) Four

8. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

1) Only one person lives between K and H.
2) H lives on floor number 1.
3) J lives on 8th floor.
4) Only two people live between D and E.
5) A lives immediately above K

9. Who among the following lives on floor no. 2?

1) E
2) D
3) K
4) C
5) J

10. Which of the following lives between C and H?

1) A
2) K
3) None
4) E
5) J

Directions (Q. 11–15) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In a certain code language 'Rajiv is a handsome boy' is written as 'ha ji si na by'. 'each boy likes a beautiful movie' is written as 'by ke ch na ut rl' 'Rajiv loves each movie' is written as 'rl ch ji vr' and 'Delhi is a beautiful place' is written as 'na lh si cp ut'.

11. What will be the code for 'Rajiv' in the given code language?

1) si
2) by
3) ji 4) ch
5) Other than given options

12. What is the code for "Delhi" in the given code language?

1) rl
2) lh
3) vs
4) cp
5) Either 2 or 4

13. What will be the code for 'movie is beautiful'?

1) rl vs ut
2) si rl by
3) ut rl si
4) si ji rl
5) Cannot be determined

14. What will be the code for 'likes' in the given code language?

1) rl
2) ke
3) si
4) ut
5) Other than given options

15. In the given code language, what does the code "cp" stand for?

1) Handsome
2) Delhi
3) Either 'place' or 'Delhi'
4) Cannot be determined
5) Other than given options

Directions (Q. 16–20): In each question given below three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take all the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from all the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) If both conclusion I and II follow.

16. Statements:

All fruit are white. No black is a fruit. Some grapes are black.

Conclusions:

I. Some fruits are not grapes.
II. All white being not grapes is a possibility.

17. Statements:

Some singers are dancer. No hero is a heroine. All heroes are not singer.

Conclusions:

I. All singers are not heroes.
II. No heroine is a singer.

18. Statements:

Some circles are not triangle. All triangles are square. No square is a Polygon.

Conclusions:

I. Some squares are circle.
II. No polygon is a triangle.

19. Statement:

No good is a bad. Some beautiful are good. All bad are black.

Conclusions:

I. Some black are not good.
II. Some bad are not black is a possibility.

20. Statements:

All inks are blue. Only red is blue. No white is red.

Conclusions:

I. All blue is inks.
II. All white being a blue is a possibility.

Directions (Q. 21–25): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer:

1) If only conclusion I is true
2) If only conclusion II is true
3) If either conclusion I or II is true
4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Directions (Q. 26 – 28): In the following questions, the symbols ÷, +, × and – are used with following meaning as illustrated below:

If 'P × Q' means 'P is sister of Q'
If 'P + Q' means 'P is wife of Q'
If 'P ÷ Q' means 'P is brother of Q'
If 'P– Q' means 'P is father of Q'

26. If the given expression is T – N + J ÷ S × V then which of the following statement is definitely true?

1) T is father of S
2) J is son–in–law of T
3) V is brother of S
4) S is sister–in–law of N
5) Both 2 and 4

27. In the expression V ÷ K + J – E, how is V related to E?

1) Maternal Aunt
2) Maternal Uncle
3) Paternal Uncle
4) Father
5) Other than given options

28. Which of the following expression is true that K is daughter of L?

1) V ÷ K + J ÷ E – L
2) R ÷ L – K × T
3) R ÷ K – L × P
4) J × K – T – L
5) Other than given options

Directions (Q. 29–30): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

Statements: Bihar government has decided to ban totally on sale and consumption of liquor in the state, trying to fulfill the election promise.

29. Which of the following has been assumed in the above statement?

1) It is banned only because of election promise made by state government.
2) It is urgent need of the hour as far as Bihar is concerned.
3) People of Bihar were consuming too much liquor.
4) Government is only trying to follow the other states step like Gujarat.
5) Other than given options

30. Which of the following may be the effect of such step?

1) The black marketing of liquor will become rampant.
2) Government will have to incur a huge revenue loss.
3) Health problems related to liquor will decrease
4) This will end the major source of income
5) All of the above

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::

1) 1158
2) 1485
3) 1358
4) 1458
5) 1258

32. (12.29)2 + (18.01)2 = ?2 × 117 ÷ 9.01

1) 6
2) 8
3) 7
4) 5
5) 9

33. 399 – 13.95 × 19.9 + ? = 23.022

1) 420
2) 510
3) 410
4) 310
5) 540

34. 18.08% of 7869.98 + ? + 29.9% of 429.9 = 2048. 6

1) 403
2) 603
3) 593
4) 503
5) 568

35. 930 – 29.05 × 3.99 – ? = 250

1) 574
2) 564
3) 584
4) 544
5) 546

Directions (Q. 36 –40): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below:

Data regarding number of visitors (in thousands) visiting a Zoo in a city in a different months

Months Number of Visitors Respective ratio of male
and female visitors
Percentage of visitors of
age group less than or
equal to 25 years in the
respective months
July 2014 45 4 : 5 45
August 2014 65 8 : 5 58
September
2014
75 5 : 7 62
October 2014 136 5 : 3 65
November
2014
126 3 : 4 68

36. What is the average number of visitors who had visited the zoo of the age group less than or equal to 25 years in all the months together?

1) Other than given options
2) 56706
3) 55806
4) 55706
5) 58106

37. In November 2014, out of the total number of visitors in the age group less than or equal to 25 years, who visited the zoo, 65% of the visitors were females. What is the difference between the number of male visitors in the age group above 25 years and the number of female visitors in the age group above 25 years?

1) 7604
2) Other than given options
3) 7704
4) 7724
5) 7614

38. Number of female visitors in September 2014 forms what percent of the total number of female visitors in July 2014 and August 2014?

1) 87.5%
2) 86.25%
3) Other than given options
4) 87.75%
5) 84.5%

39. What is the respective ratio of the number of female visitors to the zoo in the month of October 2014 to the number of male visitors to the zoo in the month of November 2014?

1) 17 : 19
2) 16 : 19
3) 17 : 20
4) Other than given options
5) 17 : 18

40. What is the total number of male visitors to the zoo taking all the months together?

1) 240250
2) 238250
3) Other than given options
4) 251250
5) 230250

Directions (Q. 41 – 45): In the following number series one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

41. 2580, 2460, 2364, 2200, 1892, 1152

1) 2580
2) 2200
3) 2364
4) 2460
5) 1892

42. 7, 17, 55, 235, 1131, 6793

1) 55
2) 235
3) 17
4) 1131
5) 6793

43. 4, 15, 41, 134, 547, 746

1) 41
2) 746
3) 547
4) 15
5) 4

44. 5, 15, 20, 55, 165, 520

1) 15
2) 20
3) 520
4) 5
5) 165

45. 129, 126, 118, 103, 79, 64

1) 126
2) 129
3) 64
4) 79
5) 103

46. Two trains starts from station A and station D at 5 am and 7 am respectively and travels toward station D and station A respectively. The distance between both the station A and D is 1066 km. The speed of both the trains is 93 km/hr and 88.5 km/hr. At what time will they meet?

1) 6 pm
2) 4 pm
3) Other than given options
4) 3 pm
5) 5 pm

47. Surbhi is four times as old as her daughter Anu and Surbhi's husband Rajeev is 28 years more than Anu. The difference between thrice the age of Rajeev ten years ago and twice the age of Surbhi ten years ago was 39. What will be the respective ratio of Surbhi's age 18 years hence and Rajeev's age 15 years hence?

1) 23 : 26
2) 23 : 25
3) 24 : 25
4) 23 : 27
5) 24 : 27

48. Anamika borrowed ` 9600 from Kavita at 9% p.a simple interest for 3 years. She then added some more money to the borrowed sum and lent it to Abhishek for the same period at 12% p.a rate of interest. If Anamika gains ` 1404 in the whole transaction, how much money did she add from her side?

1) Other than given options
2) ` 1800
3) ` 1250
4) ` 1500
5) ` 1450

49. 32 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days. 2 days after the work started, 6 men left the work. How many days will remaining men now take to complete the work?

1) 16 days
2) 18 days
3) 14 days
4) 17 days
5) 15 days

50. A dealer marked the price of an item 40% above the cost price. Once he gave successive discount of 22% and 25% on that item to a customer. As a result he incurred a loss of ` 543. At what price did he sell the item to the mentioned customer?

1) ` 2475
2) ` 2487
3) ` 2467
4) ` 2357
5) ` 2457

Directions (Q. 51 – 55): Each of the questions given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and give answer:

1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

51. What is the average age of a group of 24 boys?

I. Average age of first twelve boys of the group is 30 years.
II. Average age of last twelve boys of the group is 34 years.

52. What is the radius of a circle whose area is equal to the area of square?

I. Perimeter of square is 112 m.
II. Diagonal of square is 28 2 m.

53. What is the marked price of the table?

I. The marked price of the table is 45% above the cost price of the table.
II. The table was sold for ` 585 after two successive discounts. The percentage of discount given for second time is double the percentage of discount given for the first time while selling the table.

54. What is the speed of the train whose length is 560 m?

I. The train crosses a 165 m long platform in 29 seconds.
II. The train crosses another train in15 seconds.

55. What is the average speed of the car over the entire distance?

I. The total time taken is 72 minutes.
II. The car covers the whole distance in four equal stretches at speeds of 60 km/hr, 30 km/hr, 20 km/hr and 10 km/hr respectively.

Directions (Q. 56–60): Study the following line graph carefully and answer the following questions:

Number of cars manufactured by two companies over the years.

56. In which of the following years, the difference between the number of cars manufactured by companies X and Y was the second highest?

1) Other than given options
2) 2012
3) 2013
4) 2014
5) 2011

57. The number of cars manufactured by company Y in 2013 was approximately what percent of the number of cars manufactured by company X in 2011?

1) Other than given options
2) 129.6%
3) 124.6%
4) 128.6%
5) 138.5%

58. What is the average number of cars manufactured by company X over the given period?

1) 13500
2) 12800
3) 12500
4) 12600
5) Other than given options

59. The number of cars manufactured by company X in 2012 and 2015 together is approximately by what percent more than the number of cars manufactured by company Y in 2010?

1) 116%
2) Other than given options
3) 112%
4) 108%
5) 114%

60. The number of cars manufactured by company X in 2013 and 2014 together is approximately what percent of the number of cars manufactured by company Y in 2011 and 2012 together?

1) 91%
2) 94%
3) 89%
4) 88%
5) Other than given options

:: General Awareness and Current Affairs ::

61. Indian actress who was one of the top actresses in the 1960s and early 1970s, who died recently–

1) Jiah Khan
2) Sadhana Sargam
3) Sadhana Shivdasani
4) Divya Bharati
5) Aarthi Agarwal

62. Which day is observed as "International Street Children's day"?

1) 3rd January
2) 12th April
3) 31st March
4) 3rd February
5) 3rd April

63. Where is the Headquarters of "Food and Agriculture Organization" (FAO)?

1) Rome, Italy
2) Geneva, Switzerland
3) Ottawa, Canada
4) Paris, France
5) London, UK

64. Where is the Capital of "Canada"?

1) Juba
2) Cairo
3) Oslo
4) Nuuk
5) Ottawa

65. In which year the Indian Life insurance Companies Act came into force for regulating the life insurance business?

1) 1912
2) 1928
3) 1938
4) 1956
5) 1948

66. "Nizam Gold Cup" is related to which game?

1) Football
2) Cricket
3) Hockey
4) Polo
5) Golf

67. What does 'J' stand for in "NJAC"?

1) Judiciary
2) Judgement
3) Justice
4) Judicial
5) Judge

68. "Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant" is located in which state?

1) Tamil Nadu
2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Chhattisgarh
4) Odisha
5) Madhya Pradesh

69. The Book titled "What happened to Netaji" is authored by–

1) Nandan Nilekani
2) Uday Satpathy
3) Viral Shah
4) Vikram Seth
5) Anuj Dhar

70. Who among the following is the current chairman of Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India?

1) Vimal Jain
2) S. K. Roy
3) A. K. Saxena
4) A. V. Girija Kumar
5) Milind Kharat

71. Who among the following is recently conferred with Jnanpith Award 2015?

1) Raghuveer Chaudhari
2) Bhalchandra Nemade
3) Kedarnath Singh
4) Rajiv Sharma
5) Ravuri Bharadwaj

72. Recently, who was appointed as Governor of Himachal Pradesh?

1) Dr. Syed Ahmed
2) Nitin Gadkari
3) Acharya Dev Vrat
4) Ramvilas Paswan
5) V. Shanmuganthan

73. What is the currency of "Spain"?

1) Euro
2) Dollar
3) Peso
4) Yen
5) Rial

74. Roger Federer is related to which game?

1) Tennis
2) Cricket
3) Football
4) Golf
5) Hockey

75. The amount of risk retained by an insurance company which is not re–insured, is called–

1) Gratuity
2) Annuity

3) Retention
4) Brokerage
5) Surrender Value

76. Who is head of the National Informatics centre (NIC)?

1) Mitali Chatterjee
2) Dr. M. R. Anand
3) Dr. Ajay Kumar
4) Dr. Govind
5) Rajesh Bahadur

77. Who has been appointed as the Executive Director of the United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)?

1) Meena Hemchandra
2) Anthony Lake
3) Subhash Chandra Garg
4) Aakar Patel
5) Arun Tiwari

78. Where will the 'Commonwealth games' 2018 be held?

1) Australia
2) North Korea
3) China
4) Scotland
5) Phillippines

79. FDI limit in defence sector is–

1) 48%
2) 46%
3) 49%
4) 50%
5) 47%

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
Bank/Organisation: 
General: 

(Sample Paper) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Test - 1

(Sample Paper) LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam Sample Test - 1

:: Reasoning ::

Directions (Q. 1–5): In each question given below three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.

You have to take all the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from all the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:
1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) If both conclusion I and II follow.

(1–2): Statements:

Some classes are college.
No college is a school.
All schools are states.

1. Conclusions:

I. No state is a class.
II. All colleges being states is a possibility.

2. Conclusions:

I. All schools being colleges is a possibility.
II. Some states are not colleges.

(3–4): Statements:

No browser is website.
Some internet are computer.
All websites are computers.

3. Conclusions:

I. A few internets is being website is a possibility.
II. All website can never be browser.

4. Conclusions:
I.
All computer being browser is a possibility.
II. Some internet are not browser.

5. Statements:

All gold is gift.
Some gifts are gadget.
No gadget is gate.

Conclusions:

I. All gate being gift is a possibility.
II. Some gold being gate is a possibility.

Directions (Q. 6– 10): In the following questions, the symbols @, $,  ,% and © are used with following meaning as illustrated below:

'P @ Q' means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
'P $ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P  Q' means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P © Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.
'P % Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'.

Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer:

1) If only conclusion I is true.
2) If only conclusion II is true.
3) If either conclusion I or II is true.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) If both conclusions I and II are true.

Directions (Q. 11-16) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around the square table. Those four persons who sit at the four corners are facing towards centre and rest are facing away from the centre and sitting exactly at the middle of four sides. They are related to different professions viz. Doctor, Politician, Actor, Teacher, Pilot, Writer, Artist and Engineer but not necessarily in the same order. P is second to the left of Pilot. There are three persons between Teacher and W. Actor is facing away from the centre. Q is between T and W. Z is an Artist. S and Politician are not at the corners of the square. Doctor is an immediate left of Teacher. Pilot and Engineer are facing each other. The one who is an Engineer is third to the right of Artist, who is not facing towards the centre. T is not Teacher but facing away from the centre. Engineer is not the immediate neighbour of Q. V is not a Pilot, but an immediate neighbour of actor. The politician sits second to the left of Z. Q is not an Engineer and second to the left of V. P is a doctor.

11. Who among the following is a Politician?

1) R
2) T
3) W
4) S
5) Z

12. Who among the following is exactly between Teacher and Artist?

1) Doctor
2) Pilot
3) Politician
4) Writer
5) Actor

13. Four of the following are alike in some way, thus form the group find out the odd one?

1) S
2) Z
3) W
4) Q
5) T

14. Who among the following is second to the right of an Engineer?

1) S
2) P
3) Z
4) W
5) T

15. How many persons are there between Artist and Actor?

1) One
2) Two
3) None
4) Three
5) Other than given options

16. Which of the following does match correctly?

1) S- Writer
2) Z- Politician
3) R- Pilot
4) V- Doctor
5) All are correct

Directions (Q.17 – 21): Following sentences are written in a certain code language–

'business is easy in India - 'lk tx bi na tp'
'in business everything is fair' - 'nic bi tx jk lk'
'doing business was not fair' - 'lk hr jk pt nt'
'how everything is not easy' - 'et bi nic na pt'

Based on the above information. Give the answers of the following questions.

17. Which of the following is code for 'how'?

1) bi
2) na
3) et
4) nic
5) wt

18. What is the code for 'how fair'?

1) et jk
2) jk nt
3) et nic
4) et na
5) pt et

19. What is the code for 'doing'?

1) hr
2) nt
3) jk
4) lk
5) Either 1) or 2)

20. What does the code 'tp' stand in the given code language?

1) business
2) India
3) is
4) easy
5) in

21. 'bi nic fa' is the possible code for which of the following?

1) is everything fair
2) everything is easy
3) is something fine
4) is everything fine
5) are something fair

Directions (Q. 22-24) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are eight people in a family viz. J, L, P, R, S, T, N and V consists of 3 generations. (Note- order is not necessarily same) Four of them are female. S and P are daughter and son of L respectively and both are married. T is sister of V whose father is R. J and N are of 3rd generation and J is son-in-law of T. L is brother-in-law of V.

22. Who among the following is sister-in-law of S?

1) V
2) P
3) J
4) N 5) R

23. If K is child of S then how P is related to that child?

1) Paternal uncle
2) Maternal uncle
3) Father
4) Cannot be determined
5) Grandfather

24. How is V related to S?

1) Sister
2) Mother
3) Grandmother
4) Sister-in-law
5) Aunt

25. Statement: Lakhs of banking employees are on strike protesting the merger of the subsidiary bank of SBI in SBI.

Which of the following may be the effect of that strike?

1) Customers are unable to deposit or withdraw cash in branches.
2) Cheques worth crores could not be cleared.
3) Public will start protest against the employees.
4) All of the above
5) Only 1 and 2

Directions (Q. 26-30) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

P, R, S, T, V, W and Z are seven books to be launched in a week, (from Monday to Sunday) but not necessarily in the same order. Not more than one book is launched in a day. Only two books will be launched between book W and Z. Only two books will be launched after the book Z. Three books will be launched between R and V. Book S will be launched after the book T. Book P will be launched before the book T and S are launched. Book R is not be launched on Sunday.

26. Which of the following book will be launched on Monday?

1) T
2) P
3) R
4) S
5) Other than given options

27. Book T will be launched on which of the following day?

1) Wednesday
2) Thursday
3) Tuesday
4) Friday
5) Saturday

28. Which of the following book will be launched immediately before the book V?

1) P
2) T
3) Z
4) S
5) W

29. How many books will be launched between P and T?

1) Three
2) One
3) None
4) Can’t be determined
5) Two

30. Which of the following does match correctly?

1) W- Sunday
2) T- Monday
3) V- Saturday
4) Z- Wednesday
5) R- Wednesday

:: Quantitative Aptitude ::

31. 14.98 ×15.98 × 12.49 – 1132.874 = ?

1) 1787
2) 1967
3) 1876
4) 1867
5) 1837

32. 5796 ÷ 44 ÷ 2 = ?

1) 66
2) 64
3) 62
4) 88
5) 67

33. 19.999 × 12.005 × 26.084 = ? × 39.99

1) 134
2) 148
3) 165
4) 152
5) 156

34. 13.95% of 664.98 + 19.93% of 885 = ?

1) 260
2) 265
3) 270
4) 275
5) 285

1) 5178
2) 5079
3) 5048
4) 5278
5) 5018

Directions (Q. 36–40): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

36. 15, ?, 21, 45, 105, 225

1) 19
2) 18
3) 20
4) 15
5) 16

37. 27, 29, 62, ?, 776

1) 296
2) 196
3) 192
4) 256
5) 184

38. 126, 143, 177, 228, ?

1) 294
2) 296
3) 276
4) 286
5) 268

39. 12, 12, 52, ?, 7824

1) 486
2) 496
3) 586
4) 576
5) 686

40. 37, 42, ?, 64, 81, 102

1) 52
2) 54
3) 56
4) 50
5) 51

Directions (Q. 41–45): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and give answer:

1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

41. By how many years Saurav is older than his sister Rashmi?

I. The ratio between the Saurav's age after four years and the present age of Rashmi is 7 : 5.
II. The ratio between the present age of Saurav and Rashmi's age four years ago is 3 : 2.

42. What is the cost of painting two adjacent walls of a hall having no door or window at ` 95 per m2?

I. Length and breadth are in the ratio of 5 : 3.
II. Perimeter of the hall is 80 m and height is one-fourth of the perimeter.

43. A vessel contains mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 7 : 5. What is the quantity of milk in the vessel?

I. If 9 litres of mixture is replaced by equal quantity of milk, the ratio of milk to water in the mixture becomes 11 : 5.
II. If 9 litres of mixture is replaced by equal quantity of water, the ratio of milk to water in the mixture becomes 7 : 9.

44. Two friends A and B start running towards each other at the same time from points P and Q respectively and meet after 150 minutes. At what speed is A running?

I. Point Q is 82.5 km away from point P and speed of A is 120% of the speed of B.
II. Distance covered by B was 37.5 km.

45. Neha invested certain amount in scheme I and scheme II for 2 years in the ratio of 4 : 5 respectively. The scheme I and II offers compound interest compounded annually and simple interest respectively. What is the amount invested in scheme I?

I. Rate of interest offered by scheme I is 25% p.a and the rate of interest offered by scheme II is 20% less than that offered by scheme I.
II. Amount of interest accrued from scheme II is less than the amount of interest accrued from scheme I by ` 580.

46. The radius of cylinder is 6 m more than its height. If the curved surface area of the cylinder is 704 m2. What is the volume of the cylinder?

1) 4968 m3
2) 5500 m3
3) 7392 m3
4) 4878 m3
5) 4928 m3

47. Abhishek started a business with an investment of ` 56000. After two months, Rishab joins with ` 40,000 and after another two months Nikhil joins with ` 36000. At the end of tenth month from the start of the business, if Rishab withdraws ` 4000 and Nikhil withdraws ` 4000. At the end of the year, the profit earned is ` 48960. What is the share of Nikhil in the profit?

1) ` 10600
2) ` 10200
3) ` 10800
4) ` 11400
5) ` 11200

48. The ratio of Pulkit's present age to Manya's present age is 8 : 5. The sum of their ages after six years from now will be 64. After how many years, Manya's age will be equal to Pulkit's present age?

1) 6 years
2) 8 years
3) 10 years
4) 14 years
5) 12 years

49. The speed of boat in still water is six times the speed of the current. It takes 2.1 hours to row to point Q from point P downstream. The distance between point P and point Q is 58.8 km. How much distance will it cover it 372 minutes upstream?

1) 120 km
2) 116 km
3) 124 km
4) Other than given options
5) 126 km

50. 40 kg of a type of pulse (type A) which costs ` 61.4 per kg was mixed with certain amount of another type of pulse (type B), which costs ` 69.5 per kg. Then the mixture was sold at `76.7 per kg and 18% profit was gained. What was the amount of type B pulses in the mixture?

1) 28 kg
2) 36 kg
3) 34 kg
4) 32 kg
5) 30 kg

Directions (Q.51-55) : Study the following line graph and pie-chart carefully to answer the following questions given below.

The line graph shows the number of students in various courses in different colleges. The pie-chart shows the percentage of faculty members in the different colleges.

 

51. The number of students studying History (H) in KMC is approximately what per cent less than the number of students studying Economics (H) in DRC?

1) 64%
2) 62%
3) Other than given options
4) 66%
5) 68%

52. In which courses is the number of students the minimum taking all the colleges together?

1) Bcom (H)
2) Economics (H)
3) History (H)
4) Chemistry (H)
5) Both 1 and 3

53. The number of faculty members in Ramjas College is approximately what per cent of the number of students in Economics (H) in Hindu college?

1) 16%
2) 13%
3) 11%
4) 18%
5) 15%

54. In which college, the number of students per faculty member is the maximum?

1) DRC
2) Hindu
3) Ramjas
4) Hansraj
5) Other than given options

55. What is the ratio of the total number of students in all the courses together in KMC to the number of faculty members in Hans Raj and Ramjas College together?

1) 29 : 6
2) 27 : 8
3) 29 : 5
4) Other than given options
5) 29 : 3

Directions (Q. 56–60): Study the following table carefully and answer the following questions.

Number of employees (Male and Female) from six different companies located in different cities.

Note : M = Male, F = Female

56. What is the approximate average of the number of males working in all the companies together in Kolkata?

1) 78
2) 74
3) 68
4) 76
5) Other than given options

57. The number of females working in all the companies together in Delhi is approximately what per cent of the number of males working in all the companies together in the same city?

1) 88%
2) 86%
3) 84%
4) Other than given options
5) 82%

58. The number of females in company C2 from Chandigarh is approximately what per cent of the number of females in company C4 and C5 together from Mumbai?

1) 16%
2) 12%
3) Other than given options
4) 14%
5) 11%

59. What is the ratio of the number of males to the number of female employees in Pune from company C1, C3 and C5 together?

1) 87 : 86
2) Other than given options
3) 89 : 85
4) 89 : 87
5) 89 : 86

60. What is the ratio of the number of female employees to the number of male employees in company C6 from all the cities together?

1) 63 : 88
2) 61 : 88
3) 64 : 85
4) 61 : 87
5) Other than given options

:: General Awareness and Current Affairs ::

61. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international organisation headquartered in _______, of ''188 countries working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world''.

1) Geneva, Switzerland
2) Washington DC, United States
3) The Hague, Netherlands
4) Rome, Italy
5) Glasgow, Scotland

62. The 2340 MW coal- based thermal power station at Durlovpur, is situated in the Indian state of–

1) Tripura
2) Uttarakhand
3) Odisha
4) West Bengal
5) Gujarat

63. ______ is the money charged for the insurance coverage reflecting expectation of loss.

1) Standard Risk
2) Release
3) Penalty
4) Premium
5) Policy Lapse

64. The Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) increased the life insurance cover of its subscribers from 3.6 lakh to ______ rupees.

1) 5 lakh
2) 6.5 Lakh
3) 4.5 Lakh
4) 5.5 Lakh
5) 6 lakh

65. Which of the following risk is the potential for a person to experience illness, injury or other physical or psychological impairment, whether temporary or permanent?

1) Market Risk
2) Standard Risk
3) Preferred Risk
4) Global Risk
5) Morbidity Risk

66. Which of the following bank became first bank in India to fully own an insurance business after Reserve Bank of India (RBI) gave permission to set up a wholly- owned non- life Insurance company?

1) HDFC Bank
2) Kotak Mahindra Bank
3) Canara Bank
4) Bank of India
5) SBI Bank

67. Full form of PMMY is–

1) Pradhan Mantri Monetisation Yojana
2) Pradhan Mantri Meteorological Yojana
3) Pradhan Mantri Multi Yojana
4) Pradhan Mantri Media Yojana
5) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana

68. 'Playing It My Way' is the autobiography of–

1) Yuvraj Singh
2) Rahul dravid
3) Kapil Dev
4) Sachin Tendulkar
5) M.S Dhoni

69. The currency of the Croatia is–

1) Forint
2) Lek
3) Kuna
4) Lev
5) Euro

70. Which state does represent the least literate state with a literacy rate of 63.82% according to census 2011?

1) Uttarakhand
2) Meghalaya
3) Haryana
4) Bihar
5) Sikkim

71. 'Shillong' is the capital of which Indian state?

1) Sikkim
2) Mizoram
3) Nagaland
4) Tripura
5) Meghalaya

72. Nominee is the person selected by the _______ to receive the benefit in case of death of the insured.

1) policy holder
2) insurance company
3) insurance advisor
4) insurance policy
5) All of the above

73. Situation in which the same risk is insured by two overlapping but independent insurance policies. It is lawful to obtain ______, and the insured can make claim to both insurers in the event of a loss because both are liable under their respective policies.

1) Single Insurance
2) Reinsurance
3) Double insurance
4) Void-insurance
5) Co- insurance

74. The theme for 'World Cancer Day 2016' to be observed on 4th Feb, 2016 is–

1) 'We can I can'
2) 'Not beyond us'
3) Debunk the Myths!
4) Together it is possible
5) 'Cancer can be prevented too'

75. _______ is an Insurance Regulatory body of India.

1) PFRDA
2) IRDA
3) RBI
4) FMC
5) SEBI

76. In Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana, what is the minimum age to be enrolled into this scheme for the saving bank account holder?

1) 17 year (completed)
2) 18 year (completed)
3) 20 year (completed)
4) 21year (completed)
5) 19 year (completed)

77. The Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC) will execute the Vijayawada Metro Rail Project. It will be constructed a estimated cost of ______ rupees by 2018.

1) 9796 crore
2) 6767 crore
3) 7696 crore
4) 6769 crore
5) 9667 crore

78. Under the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana what is sum assured on death of the insured member for any reason is payable to the nominee?

1) Rs 1.5 lakh
2) Rs 2.5 lakh
3) Rs 3.5 lakh
4) Rs 2 lakh
5) Rs 3 lakh

79. The Brand Ambassador for Sanitation programme is–

1) Aamir Khan
2) Vidya Balan
3) Salman Khan
4) Priyanka Chopra
5) Amitabh Bachchan

80. _______ is a form of permanent life Insurance policy.

1) Term Life Insurance Policy
2) Whole Life Insurance Policy
3) Dual Insurance policy
4) Variable Life Insurance Policy
5) Universal Life Insurance Policy

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (27 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (27 April 2016)

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Q.1- Which of the following Indian States is not touched by China?

A. Uttarakhand
B. Sikkim
C. Assam
D. Arunachal Pradesh

Q.2- Which of the following Indian states has maximum area covered under tubewell irrigation?

A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Punjab
C. Haryana
D. Uttar Pradesh

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (26 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (26 April 2016)

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Q.1-Seat of the ICJ is present in which of the following cities?

A. New York
B. Washington
C. Hague
D. None of the above

Q.2- Pay commission recommendations are for how many years?

A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 7

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (25 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (25 April 2016)

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Q.1- What are the number of High courts present in the country?

A. 22
B. 24
C. 27
D. 29

Q.2- Which of the following is the most water intensive agriculture crop in terms of litres per kg of crop?

A. Wheat
B. Cotton
C. Rice
D. Sugarcane

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (24 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (24 April 2016)

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Q.1- Which among the following are correct regarding new SC/ST act amendment?

1. increase in the existing quantum of relief from between Rs. 75,000 to Rs. 7,50,000
2. relief for non-invasive offences against women such as sexual harassment, gestures after medical examination.
3. completing investigation and filing a charge sheet within 60 days.

A. 1,2 only
B. 1,3 only
C. 2,3 only
D. All

Q.2- According to Indian Meteorological department which of the following defines Heat wave?

A. when the maximum temperature exceeds 40 degrees Celsius in the plains
B. When there isheat wave across the plain
C. when the maximum temperature exceeds 45 degrees Celsius in the plains
D. None of the above

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (23 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (23 April 2016)

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Q.1- Nominated members of Rajya Sabha has voting power in which of the following?

A. Election of President
B. Election of Governor
C. Election of Vice-President
D. None of the above

Q.2- Consider the following statements:

1. IRNSS has seven satellites in total
2. It will provide positioning only in India

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (22 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (22 April 2016)

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Q.1- Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

1. Sardar Sarovar Dam - Narmada River
2. Tilaiya Dam - Konar River
3. Gandhi Sagar Dam - Chambal River
4. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam - Krishna River

Q.2- Consider the following statements and mark the correct option related to The Energy and Resources Institute(TERI) -

1. TERI works under the overall structure of Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate change.
2. TERI is the largest developing-country institution working towards sustainability

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (21 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (21 April 2016)

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Q.1- Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act was passed in which of the following years?

A. 1996
B. 1999
C. 2003
D. 1992

Q.2- Which of the following National Highways is not correctly matched?

1. NH 7. - Varanasi to Kanyakumari
2. NH 5. - Cutback to Chennai
3. NH15. - Ahmedabad to Srinagar
4. NH 8. - Delhi to Mumbai

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (20 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (20 April 2016)

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Q.1- Which of the following statements are correct regarding Regional comprehensive economic partnership?

1. US and Canada are members of this partnership
2. It will negotiate to make a free trade agreement between the nations

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

Q.2- Which of the following does not come under small savings schemes?

A. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana
B. Senior citizens savings scheme
C. Farmers deposit less than 10 lakh
D. Monthly income scheme

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (19 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (19 April 2016)

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Q.1- Which of the following increases rainfall in India?

A. El Niño
B. La Niña
C. Cooling of Arabian sea
D. None of the above

Q.2- Who among the following gifted Kohinoor diamond to British?

A. Ahmad shah
B. Ranjit Singh
C. Nadir shah
D. None of the above

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (18 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (18 April 2016)

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Q1 - Which of the following country does not fall on the equator?

1. Ecuador
2. Democratic republic of Congo
3. Egypt
4. Brazil

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (17 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (17 April 2016)

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Q1 - consider the following pairs and mark the pair which is correctly matched.

1. NH4. Chennai and Hyderabad
2. NH6. Mumbai and Kolkata
3. NH15. Ahmedabad and Jodhpur
4. None of the above

General: 

General Awareness Magazine for IBPS, Bank Exams (April - 2016)

General Awareness Magazine for IBPS, Bank Exams (April - 2016)

Issue : April 2016

Size: 2.00 MB

File Type: PDF

Publisher : BANK EXAM PORTAL

Current Affairs Topic:

  • National Issues
  • International Issues
  • Economy
  • Science & Technology
  • Sports
IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (16 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (16 April 2016)

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Q.1- In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites are not used?

1. Assessment of crop productivity
2. Locating ground water resources
3. Mineral exploration
4. Telecommunications

Q.2- Sultan Azlan shah tournament is related to which of the following sports?

A. cricket
B. Football
C. Chess
D. Hockey

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (15 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (15 April 2016)

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Q.1- Which of the following leaders was the first to born?

1. Jawahar Lal Nehru
2. Lal Bahardur Shastri
3. Dr. B R Ambedkar
4. Abul Kalam Azad

Q.2- Which of the following dams are notcorrectly matched with their state:

1. Hasdeo. : Chhattisgarh
2. Mitti Dam. : Gujrat
3. Bhakra Nangal. : Himachal Pradesh
4. Hirakud. : Odisha

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (14 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (14 April 2016)

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Q.1- Arrange these water bodies from west to east-

1. South China Sea
2. Gulf of Thailand
3. Philippines sea

A. 1-2-3
B. 1-3-2
C. 2-1-3
D. 3-2-1

Q.2- Which of the following statements are correct regarding European Parliament?

1. The Members of European Parliament are directly elected by voters in all Member states.
2. Parliament has no budgetary powers.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (13 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (13 April 2016)

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Q.1- Arrange these states according to decreasing sex ratio in census 2011:

1. Bihar
2. Haryana
3. Mizoram
4. Andhra Pradesh

A. 4-3-1-2
B. 4-3-2-1
C. 3-4-2-1
D. 3-4-1-2

Q.2- The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of

A. biosphere reserves
B. botanical gardens
C. national parks
D. wildlife sanctuaries

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (12 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (12 April 2016)

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Q.1- Consider the following given statements

1. Election commission of India has been authorised to direct and control the elections of Union legislature only
2. President has been given the authority to make provisions related to election of Union legislature

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

Q.2- Which of the following countrydoes not touch Mediterranean Sea?

1. Libya
2. Morocco
3. France
4. Austria

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (11 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (11 April 2016)

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Q.1- Which among the following is not a neighbour of Iran?

A. Iraq
B. Afghanistan
C. Uzbekistan
D. Turkmenistan

Q.2- Recently major fire broke out during temple celebrations. This tragic incident happened in which of the following state?

1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Karnataka
3) Kerala
4) Tamil Nadu

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
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SBI Clerk Exam Papers Downloads

SBI Clerical Previous Years Exam Papers

2014

2012

2011

2009

2008

2007

More Papers

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (10 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (10 April 2016)

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Q.1- Which of the following national parks is not present in Jammu and Kashmir?

1. Dachigam National Park
2. Salim Ali National Park
3. Nanda Devi National Park
4. Hemis National Park

Q.2- Consider the following statements and mark the correct option-

1. International Space Station is present in high earth orbit
2. ISS components are totally designed by USA

which of the following statements are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (09 April 2016)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (09 April 2016)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1- Which of the following is not correctly matched?

1. Ugadi- Andhra Pradesh
2. GudiPadwa- Maharastra
3. Puthandu- Odissa
4. Bihar Bihu- Assam

Q.2- Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?

A. The International Monetary Fund
B. The United Nations Development Programme
C. The World Economic Forum
D. The World Bank

IBPS / SBI Special TX: 
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